PRACTICE TEST QUESTIONS

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Which element in the circular chain of infection can be eliminated by

preserving skin integrity?

a. Host
b. Reservoir
c. Mode of transmission
d. Portal of entry

Which of the following will probably result in a break in sterile technique

for respiratory isolation?

a. Opening the patient’s window to the outside environment

b. Turning on the patient’s room ventilator
c. Opening the door of the patient’s room leading into the
hospital corridor
d. Failing to wear gloves when administering a bed bath

Which of the following patients is at greater risk for contracting an

infection?

a. A patient with leukopenia

b. A patient receiving broad-spectrum antibiotics
c. A postoperative patient who has undergone orthopedic surgery
d. A newly diagnosed diabetic patient

Effective hand washing requires the use of:

a. Soap or detergent to promote emulsification

b. Hot water to destroy bacteria
c. A disinfectant to increase surface tension
d. All of the above

After routine patient contact, hand washing should last at least:

a. 30 seconds
b. 1 minute
c. 2 minute
d. 3 minutes
Which of the following procedures always requires surgical asepsis?

a. Vaginal instillation of conjugated estrogen

b. Urinary catheterization
c. Nasogastric tube insertion
d. Colostomy irrigation

Sterile technique is used whenever:

a. Strict isolation is required

b. Terminal disinfection is performed
c. Invasive procedures are performed
d. Protective isolation is necessary

Which of the following constitutes a break in sterile technique while

preparing a sterile field for a dressing change?

a. Using sterile forceps, rather than sterile gloves, to handle a sterile

item
b. Touching the outside wrapper of sterilized material without sterile
gloves
c. Placing a sterile object on the edge of the sterile field
d. Pouring out a small amount of solution (15 to 30 ml) before pouring
the solution into a sterile container

A natural body defense that plays an active role in preventing infection

is:

a. Yawning
b. Body hair
c. Hiccupping
d. Rapid eye movements

All of the following statements are true about donning sterile

gloves except:

a. The first glove should be picked up by grasping the inside of the

cuff.
b. The second glove should be picked up by inserting the gloved
fingers under the cuff outside the glove.
c. The gloves should be adjusted by sliding the gloved fingers under
the sterile cuff and pulling the glove over the wrist
d. The inside of the glove is considered sterile

When removing a contaminated gown, the nurse should be careful that

the first thing she touches is the:

a. Waist tie and neck tie at the back of the gown

b. Waist tie in front of the gown
 c. Cuffs of the gown
d. Inside of the gown

Which of the following nursing interventions is considered the most

effective form or universal precautions?

a. Cap all used needles before removing them from their syringes
b. Discard all used uncapped needles and syringes in an
impenetrable protective container
c. Wear gloves when administering IM injections
d. Follow enteric precautions

All of the following measures are recommended to prevent pressure

ulcers except:

a. Massaging the reddened are with lotion

b. Using a water or air mattress
c. Adhering to a schedule for positioning and turning
d. Providing meticulous skin care

Which of the following blood tests should be performed before a blood

transfusion?

a. Prothrombin and coagulation time

b. Blood typing and cross-matching
c. Bleeding and clotting time
d. Complete blood count (CBC) and electrolyte levels.

The primary purpose of a platelet count is to evaluate the:

a. Potential for clot formation

b. Potential for bleeding
c. Presence of an antigen-antibody response
d. Presence of cardiac enzymes

Which of the following white blood cell (WBC) counts clearly indicates
leukocytosis?

a. 4,500/mm³
b. 7,000/mm³
c. 10,000/mm³
d. 25,000/mm³

After 5 days of diuretic therapy with 20mg of [6] furosemide (Lasix)

daily, a patient begins to exhibit fatigue, muscle cramping and muscle
weakness. These symptoms probably indicate that the patient is
experiencing:

a. Hypokalemia
 b. Hyperkalemia
c. Anorexia
d. Dysphagia

Which of the following statements about chest X-ray is false?

a. No contradictions exist for this test

b. Before the procedure, the patient should remove all jewelry,
metallic objects, and buttons above the waist
c. A signed consent is not required
d. Eating, drinking, and medications are allowed before this test

The most appropriate time for the nurse to obtain a sputum specimen
for culture is:

a. Early in the morning

b. After the patient eats a light breakfast
c. After aerosol therapy
d. After chest physiotherapy

A patient with no known allergies is to receive penicillin every 6 hours.

When administering the medication, the nurse observes a fine rash on
the patient’s skin. The most appropriate nursing action would be to:

a. Withhold the moderation and notify the physician

b. Administer the medication and notify the physician
c. Administer the medication with an antihistamine
d. Apply corn starch soaks to the rash

All of the following nursing interventions are correct when using the Z-
track method of drug injection except:

a. Prepare the injection site with alcohol

b. Use a needle that’s a least 1” long
c. Aspirate for blood before injection
d. Rub the site vigorously after the injection to promote
absorption

The correct method for determining the vastus lateralis site for I.M.
injection is to:

a. Locate the upper aspect of the upper outer quadrant of the buttock
about 5 to 8 cm below the iliac crest
b. Palpate the lower edge of the acromion process and the midpoint
lateral aspect of the arm
c. Palpate a 1” circular area anterior to the umbilicus
d. Divide the area between the greater femoral trochanter and the
lateral femoral condyle into thirds, and select the middle third
on the anterior of the thigh
The mid-deltoid injection site is seldom used for I.M. injections because
it:

a. Can accommodate only 1 ml or less of medication

b. Bruises too easily
c. Can be used only when the patient is lying down
d. Does not readily parenteral medication

The appropriate needle size for insulin injection is:

a. 18G, 1 ½” long
b. 22G, 1” long
c. 22G, 1 ½” long
d. 25G, 5/8” long

The appropriate needle gauge for intradermal injection is:

a. 20G
b. 22G
c. 25G
d. 26G

Parenteral penicillin can be administered as an:

a. IM injection or an IV solution
b. IV or an intradermal injection
c. Intradermal or subcutaneous injection
d. IM or a subcutaneous injection

The physician orders gr 10 of aspirin for a patient. The equivalent dose

in milligrams is:

a. 0.6 mg
b. 10 mg
c. 60 mg
d. 600 mg

The physician orders an IV solution of dextrose 5% in water at

100ml/hour. What would the flow rate be if the drop factor is 15 gtt = 1
ml?

a. 5 gtt/minute
b. 13 gtt/minute
c. 25 gtt/minute
d. 50 gtt/minute

Which of the following is a sign or symptom of a hemolytic reaction to

blood transfusion?
 a. Hemoglobinuria
b. Chest pain
c. Urticaria
d. Distended neck veins

Which of the following conditions may require fluid restriction?

a. Fever
b. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
c. Renal Failure
d. Dehydration

All of the following are common signs and symptoms of phlebitis

except:

a. Pain or discomfort at the IV insertion site

b. Edema and warmth at the IV insertion site
c. A red streak exiting the IV insertion site
d. Frank bleeding at the insertion site

The best way of determining whether a patient has learned to instill ear
medication properly is for the nurse to:

a. Ask the patient if he/she has used ear drops before

b. Have the patient repeat the nurse’s instructions using her own
words
c. Demonstrate the procedure to the patient and encourage to ask
questions
d. Ask the patient to demonstrate the procedure

Which of the following types of medications can be administered via

gastrostomy tube?

a. Any oral medications

b. Capsules whole contents are dissolve in water
c. Enteric-coated tablets that are thoroughly dissolved in water
d. Most tablets designed for oral use, except for extended-
duration compounds

A patient who develops hives after receiving an antibiotic is exhibiting

drug:

a. Tolerance
b. Idiosyncrasy
c. Synergism
d. Allergy

A patient has returned to his room after femoral arteriography. All of the
following are appropriate nursing interventions except:
 a. Assess femoral, popliteal, and pedal pulses every 15 minutes for 2
hours
b. Check the pressure dressing for sanguineous drainage
c. Assess a vital signs every 15 minutes for 2 hours
d. Order a hemoglobin and hematocrit count 1 hour after the
arteriography

The nurse explains to a patient that a cough:

a. Is a protective response to clear the respiratory tract of

irritants
b. Is primarily a voluntary action
c. Is induced by the administration of an antitussive drug
d. Can be inhibited by “splinting” the abdomen

An infected patient has chills and begins shivering. The best nursing
intervention is to:

a. Apply iced alcohol sponges

b. Provide increased cool liquids
c. Provide additional bedclothes
d. Provide increased ventilation

A clinical nurse specialist is a nurse who has:

a. Been certified by the National League for Nursing

b. Received credentials from the Philippine Nurses’ Association
c. Graduated from an associate degree program and is a registered
professional nurse
d. Completed a master’s degree in the prescribed clinical area
and is a registered professional nurse.

The purpose of increasing urine acidity through dietary means is to:

a. Decrease burning sensations

b. Change the urine’s color
c. Change the urine’s concentration
d. Inhibit the growth of microorganisms

Clay colored stools indicate:

a. Upper GI bleeding
b. Impending constipation
c. An effect of medication
d. Bile obstruction

In which step of the nursing process would the nurse ask a patient if the
medication she administered relieved his pain?
 a. Assessment
b. Analysis
c. Planning
d. Evaluation

All of the following are good sources of vitamin A except:

a. White potatoes
b. Carrots
c. Apricots
d. Egg yolks

Which of the following is a primary nursing intervention necessary for

all patients with a Foley Catheter in place?

a. Maintain the drainage tubing and collection bag level with the
patient’s bladder
b. Irrigate the patient with 1% Neosporin solution three times a daily
c. Clamp the catheter for 1 hour every 4 hours to maintain the
bladder’s elasticity
d. Maintain the drainage tubing and collection bag below bladder
level to facilitate drainage by gravity

The ELISA test is used to:

a. Screen blood donors for antibodies to human immunodeficiency

virus (HIV)
b. Test blood to be used for transfusion for HIV antibodies
c. Aid in diagnosing a patient with AIDS
d. All of the above

The two blood vessels most commonly used for TPN infusion are the:

a. Subclavian and jugular veins

b. Brachial and subclavian veins
c. Femoral and subclavian veins
d. Brachial and femoral veins

Effective skin disinfection before a surgical procedure includes which of

the following methods?

a. Shaving the site on the day before surgery

b. Applying a topical antiseptic to the skin on the evening before
surgery
c. Having the patient take a tub bath on the morning of surgery
d. Having the patient shower with an antiseptic soap on the
evening v=before and the morning of surgery
When transferring a patient from a bed to a chair, the nurse should use
which muscles to avoid back injury?

a. Abdominal muscles
b. Back muscles
c. Leg muscles
d. Upper arm muscles

Thrombophlebitis typically develops in patients with which of the

following conditions?

a. Increases partial thromboplastin time

b. Acute pulsus paradoxus
c. An impaired or traumatized blood vessel wall
d. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)

In a recumbent, immobilized patient, lung ventilation can become

altered, leading to such respiratory complications as:

a. Respiratory acidosis, ateclectasis, and hypostatic pneumonia

b. Appneustic breathing, atypical pneumonia and respiratory alkalosis
c. Cheyne-Strokes respirations and spontaneous pneumothorax
d. Kussmail’s respirations and hypoventilation

Immobility impairs bladder elimination, resulting in such disorders as

a. Increased urine acidity and relaxation of the perineal muscles,

causing incontinence
b. Urine retention, bladder distention, and infection
c. Diuresis, natriuresis, and decreased urine specific gravity
d. Decreased calcium and phosphate levels in the urine