Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Acoustics
Acoustics
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23.
c.
d.
24.
Clutter
Squitter
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
a.
b.
c.
d.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
Aeronautics
Navigation
Guessing
Direction finding
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
a.
b.
c.
d.
46.
47.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
a.
b.
c.
d.
61.
62.
a.
b.
c.
d.
White light
Blue light
Black light
Amber light
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
a.
b.
c.
d.
68.
a.
b.
c.
d.
69.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Yaw
Crawl
If the target cross section is changing, the best
system for accurate tracking is
Nodding
Spiral
Conical
Monopulse
when a single antenna is intended to be used for
transmitting and receiving, it is necessary to use a
duplexer
diplexer
combiner
translator
70.
a.
b.
c.
d.
It may be longitudinal
b.
It is always transverse
c.
It is always longitudinal
d.
2.
Which of the following can not travel through
a vacuum?
a.
Electromagnetic wave
b.
Radio wave
c.
Soundwave
d.
Light wave
3.
Through which medium does sound travel
fastest?
a.
Air
b.
Water
c.
Steel
d.
Mercury
8.
Sound that vibrates at frequency too high for
the human ear to hear (over 20 kHz)
a.
Subsonic
b.
Ultrasonic
c.
Transonic
d.
Stereo
4.
a.
Ultrasonic
b.
Supersonic
9.
The frequency interval between two sounds
whose frequency ratio is 10
c.
Subsonic
a.
Octave
d.
Transonic
b.
Half octave
c.
Third-octave
d.
Decade
5.
a.
1087 ft/s
b.
1100 ft/s
c.
1126 ft/s
d.
200 ft/s
6.
Calculate a half wavelength sound for sound
of 16000 Hz
a.
35 ft
b.
10 ft
c.
0.035 ft
d.
100 ft
7.
The lowest frequency that a human ear can
hear is
a.
5 Hz
b.
20 Hz
c.
30 Hz
d.
20 Hz
10.
A 16 KHz sound is how many octaves higher
than a 500 Hz sound
a.
b.
c.
d.
11.
Sound waves composed of but one frequency
is a/an
a.
Infra sound
b.
Pure tone
c.
Structure borne
d.
Residual sound
12.
Sound wave has two main characteristics
which are
a.
b.
c.
d.
13.
When waves bend away from straight lines of
travel, it is called
a.
Reflection
b.
Diffraction
c.
Rarefaction
d.
Refraction
14.
The amplitude of sound waves, the maximum
displacement of each air particle, is the property
which perceive as _____ of a sound
a.
Pitch
b.
Intensity
c.
Loudness
d.
Harmonics
15.
It is the weakest sound that average human
hearing can detect.
a.
SPL = 0 dB
b.
Threshold of hearing
c.
d.
A, b, c
17.
What is the device used in measuring sound
pressure levels incorporating a microphone,
amplification, filtering and a display.
a.
Audiometer
b.
OTDR
c.
SLM
d.
Spectrum analyzer
18.
What weighted scale in a sound level meter
gives a reading that is most closely to the response of
the human ear?
a.
Weighted scale A
b.
Weighted scale B
c.
Weighted scale C
d.
Weighted scale D
19.
For aircraft noise measurements,
weighting scale that is used is _____.
a.
Weighted scale A
b.
Weighted scale B
c.
Weighted scale C
d.
Weighted scale D
20.
a.
Microphone
b.
Pistonphone
16.
What is a device that is used to measure the
hearing sensitivity of a person?
c.
Telephone
a.
Audiometer
d.
Filter
b.
OTDR
c.
SLM
d.
Spectrum analyzer
the
21.
_____ is the sound power measured over the
area upon which is received.
a.
Sound pressure
b.
Sound energy
c.
d.
Sound intensity
26.
The sound pressure level is increased by
_____ dB if the pressure is doubled.
b.
22.
A measure of the intensity of sound in
comparison to another sound intensity
c.
a.
Phon
d.
b.
Decibel
c.
Pascal
d.
Watts
27.
The sound pressure level is increased by
_____ dB if the intensity is doubled.
a.
b.
23.
Calculate the sound intensity level in dB of a
sound whose intensity is 0.007 W/m2.
c.
a.
95 dB
d.
b.
91 dB
c.
98 dB
d.
101 dB
28.
If four identical sounds are added what is the
increase in level in dB?
a.
b.
24.
What is the sound pressure level for a given
sound whose RMS pressure is 200/m2?
c.
a.
200 dB
d.
b.
20 dB
c.
140 dB
d.
14 dB
25.
What is the sound intensity for an RMS
pressure of 200 Pascal?
a.
90 W/m2
b.
98 W/m2
c.
108 W/m2
d.
88 W/m2
29.
The transmission of sound from one room to
an adjacent room, via common walls, floors or
ceilings.
a.
Flanking transmission
b.
Reflection
c.
Refraction
d.
Reverberation
30.
_____ is the continuing presence of an
audible sound after the sound source has stop.
a.
Flutter echo
b.
Sound concentration
c.
Sound shadow
d.
Reverberation
31.
dB
a.
Echo time
b.
Reverberation time
c.
Delay time
d.
Transient time
35.
It is an audio transducer that converts acoustic
pressure in air into its equivalent electrical impulses
a.
Loudspeaker
b.
Amplifier
c.
Baffle
d.
Microphone
36.
_____ is a pressure type microphone with
permanent coil as a transducing element.
a.
Dynamic
b.
Condenser
32.
A room containing relatively little sound
absorption
c.
Magnetic
a.
Dead room
d.
Carbon
b.
Anechoic room
c.
Live room
d.
Free-field
33.
A room in which the walls offer essentially
100% absorption, therefore simulating free field
conditions.
37.
A microphone which has an internal
impedance of 25 k is _____ type.
a.
High impedance
b.
Low impedance
c.
Dynamic
d.
Magnetic
a.
Dead room
b.
Anechoic room
c.
Live room
38.
effect
d.
Closed room
a.
Dynamic
b.
Condenser
c.
Crystal
d.
Carbon
34.
Calculate the reverberation time of the room,
which has a volume of 8700 ft3 and total sound
absorption 140 sabins.
a.
0.3 sec
b.
3.5 sec
c.
3 sec
39.
_____ is a type of loudspeaker driver with an
effective diameter of 5 inches used at midrange audio
frequency.
d.
0.53 sec
a.
Tweeter
b.
Woofer
c.
Mid-range
d.
A or C
44.
a.
Converts sound waves into current and
voltage
40.
_____ is measure of how much sound is
produced from the electrical signal.
a.
Sensitivity
b.
Distortion
c.
d.
Efficiency
Frequency response
41.
It describes the output of a microphone over a
range of frequencies.
a.
Directivity
b.
Sensitivity
c.
d.
Frequency response
All of the above
42.
A loudspeaker radiates an acoustic power of 1
mW if the electrical input is 10 W. What is its rated
efficiency?
b.
Converts current variations into sound
waves
c.
Converts electrical energy to mechanical
energy
d.
Converts electrical energy to electromagnetic
energy
45.
The impedance of most drivers is about _____
ohms at their resonant frequency.
a.
b.
c.
d.
10
46.
It is a transducer used to convert electrical
energy to mechanical energy.
a.
Microphone
a.
-10 dB
b.
Baffle
b.
-20 dB
c.
Magnetic assemble
c.
-30 dB
d.
Driver
d.
-40 dB
43.
An amplifier can deliver 100 W to a
loudspeaker. If the rated efficiency of the
loudspeaker is -60 dB. What is the maximum
intensity 300 ft from it?
47.
It is an enclosure used to prevent front and
back wave cancellation.
a.
Loudspeaker
b.
Driver
a.
10 dB
c.
Baffle
b.
20 dB
d.
Frame
c.
30 dB
d.
40 dB
48.
A circuit that divides the frequency
components into separate bands in order to have
individual feeds to the different drivers.
a.
c.
Decibel
d.
Mel
Suspension system
b.
Dividing network
c.
Magnet assembly
d.
Panel board
53.
A unit of noisiness related to the perceived
noise level
a.
Noy
b.
dB
c.
Sone
d.
Phon
49.
a.
Echo
b.
Pure sound
c.
Reverberation
54.
What is the loudness level of a 1KHz tone if
its intensity is 1 x 10-5W/cm2?
d.
Intelligible sound
a.
100 phons
b.
105 phons
c.
110 phons
d.
100 phons
50.
Noise reduction system used for film sound in
movie.
a.
Dolby
b.
DBx
c.
dBa
d.
dBk
51.
Using a microphone at less than the
recommended working distance will create a _____
which greatly increases the low frequency signals.
55.
What is the process of sending voice, speech,
music or image intended for reception by the general
public?
a.
Navigation
b.
Telephony
c.
Broadcasting
d.
Mixing
a.
Roll-off
b.
Proximity effect
c.
Drop out
56.
What is the frequency tolerance for the RF
carrier in the standard AM radio broadcast band?
d.
a.
Zero
b.
20 Hz
52.
c.
10 Hz
a.
Sone
d.
20 KHz
b.
Phon
57.
The transmitting antenna for an AM broadcast
station should have a _____ polarization.
a.
Vertical
b.
Horizontal
c.
Circular
d.
Elliptical
a.
b.
10
c.
15
d.
20
62.
What are the frequency limits of the MF BC
band?
58.
The part of a broadcast day from 6 PM to 6
AM local time
a.
a.
300-3000 kHz
b.
3-30 MHz
c.
535-1605 kHz
d.
88-108 MHz
Daytime
b.
Nighttime
c.
Bed time
d.
Experimental period
63.
The center to center spacing between two
adjacent stations in the Phil. AM BC band is ____.
59.
The service area where the signal is not
subject to fading and co-channel interference.
a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
9 kHz
b.
200 kHz
c.
36 kHz
d.
800 kHz
64.
How many AM stations can be
accommodated in a 150-kHz bandwidth if the highest
modulating frequency is 10 kHz?
60.
It is a resistive load used in place of an
antenna to test a transmitter under normal loaded
condition without actually radiating the transmitters
output signal.
a.
10
b.
15
a.
Auxiliary Tx
c.
b.
Main Tx
d.
14
c.
Secondary Tx
d.
Artificial Antenna
61.
The operating power of the auxiliary
transmitter shall not be less than _____% or never
greater than the authorized operating power of the
main transmitter.
65.
Short wave broadcasting operates in what
band?
a.
MF
b.
HF
c.
VHF
d.
VLF
b.
88.1 MHz
c.
88.3 MHz
d.
108 MHz
66.
a.
Station-to-link
b.
Signal-to-loss-ratio
c.
Shout-to-live
71.
What is the radio transmission of two separate
signals, left, and right, used to create a
multidimensional effect on the receiver?
d.
Studio-to-transmitter-link
a.
SCA
b.
Stereo system
67.
One of the main considerations in the
selection of antenna site is (AM)
c.
Pilot transmission
a.
d.
b.
c.
72.
The carrier frequency tolerance for FM
broadcasting is _____.
d.
Accessibility
a.
25 kHz
b.
2 kHz
c.
20 kHz
d.
30 kHz
68.
One of the broadcast transmission auxiliary
services is:
Monophonic
transmission
a.
Remote pick-up
b.
STL
c.
73.
What is the modulation used by the
stereophonic subcarrier?
d.
a.
FM
b.
PM
c.
ISB
d.
DSB
74.
a.
4.25 MHz
b.
10 kHz
c.
19 KHz
d.
38 KHz
69.
What is the spacing between any two adjacent
channels in the FM broadcast band?
a.
20 KHz
b.
36 KHz
c.
200 KHz
d.
800 KHz
70.
The first channel in the FM BC band has a
center frequency of
a.
88 MHz
75.
With stereo FM transmission, does a
monaural receiver produce all the sounds that a stereo
does?
a.
Yes
b.
No
c.
Either a or b
d.
Neither a or b
76.
Where is de-emphasis added in a stereo FM
system?
a.
b.
c.
d.
c.
Both a & b
d.
67 KHz
80.
When fed to the stereo FM modulator, in what
form are the L R signals?
a.
AF
b.
DSBSC
c.
19 kHz
d.
38 kHz
81.
An additional channel of multiplex
information that is authorized by the FCC for stereo
FM radio stations to feed services such as
commercial-free programming to selected customers.
a.
STL
b.
EBS
77.
Where is the pre-emphasis added in a stereo
FM system?
c.
EIA
a.
d.
SCA
b.
c.
d.
82.
The class of FM station, which has an
authorized radiated power not exceeding 125 KW:
a.
Class C
b.
Class A
78.
The normal frequency for an SCA subcarrier
is _____ KHz.
c.
Class D
a.
67
d.
Class B
b.
76
c.
38
d.
19
79.
A monaural FM receiver receives only the
_____ signal of a stereo multiplex transmission.
a.
L+R
b.
LR
83.
An FM broadcast station, which has an
authorized transmitter power not exceeding 10 KW
and ERP not exceeding 30 KW:
a.
Class D
b.
Class C
c.
Class A
d.
Class B
84.
A class of FM station which is limited in
antenna height of 500 ft. above average terrain
a.
Class D
b.
Class C
c.
Class A
d.
Class B
a.
100
b.
200
c.
125
d.
600
89.
What kind of modulation is used for the
sound portion of a commercial broadcast TV
transmission?
a.
PM
85.
What type of broadcast service might have
their antennas on top of hills?
b.
FM
a.
FM
c.
C3F
b.
AM
d.
AM
c.
TV
d.
A&C
86.
How are guardbands allocated in commercial
FM stations?
a.
25 kHz on either sides of the transmitting
signal
b.
c.
75 kHz deviation
d.
15 kHz modulation
87.
How many commercial FM broadcast
channels can fit into the bandwidth occupied by a
commercial TV station?
a.
10
b.
20
c.
30
d.
40
90.
Estimate the bandwidth occupied by the
sound portion of a TV transmission in US.
a.
25 kHz
b.
800 kHz
c.
80 kHz
d.
200 kHz
91.
What is the main reason why television
picture signal uses amplitude modulation, while voice
is frequency modulated?
a.
Better efficiency
b.
c.
Maintain synchronized scanning between
transmit and received video
d.
To minimize interference between signals
at received end
92.
The picture and sound carrier frequencies in a
TV receiver are _____ respectively.
88.
How many international commercial AM
broadcast channels can fit into the bandwidth
occupied by a commercial TV station?
a.
b.
c.
b.
211.25 MHz
d.
c.
58.83 MHz
d.
214.83 MHz
93.
What is the separation between visual and
aural carrier in TV broadcasting?
a.
1.25 MHz
b.
4.5 MHz
c.
5.75 MHz
d.
0.25 MHz
98.
If the sound carrier for UHF channel 23 is
529.75 MHz, what is the frequency of the tuners
local oscillator, when turned to this channel?
a.
571 MHz
b.
511 MHz
c.
498 MHz
d.
500 MHz
94.
What is the separation between the lower
limit of a channel and the aural carrier?
a.
1.25 MHz
b.
4.5 MHz
c.
5.75 MHz
d.
0.25 MHz
99.
What is the frequency tolerance in the color
carrier of TV broadcasting?
a.
2 kHz
b.
20 Hz
c.
10 Hz
d.
1 kHz
95.
a.
205.25 MHz
b.
55.25 MHz
c.
65.75 MHz
175.25 MHz
d.
59.75 MHz
175.26 MHz
174 MHz
175.24 MHz
96.
a.
61.25 MHz
b.
55.25 MHz
c.
65.75 MHz
d.
59.75 MHz
97.
a.
68.83 MHz
101.
TV channels 7, 11 and 13 are known as
_____.
a.
b.
c.
d.
102.
What is eliminated by using interlaced
scanning?
a.
Noise
b.
Excessive BW
c.
Frame
d.
Flicker
0.304
c.
0.498
d.
0.022
107.
a.
b.
c.
d.
b.
c.
d.
104.
a.
b.
b.
108.
When the colors Magenta and Yellow are
mixed the resultant color is:
a.
Red
b.
White
c.
Blue
d.
Green
Red
Yellow
c.
Green
d.
Blue
0.498
b.
0.254
c.
0.1325
d.
1.4
106.
In the previous problem, calculate the
chrominance signal
a.
0.305
a.
A and B
b.
B and C
c.
C and D
d.
A and D
110.
The studio camera produces a luminance
signal that contains information about
a.
b.
c.
d.
111.
Brightness variations
information are in which signal?
a.
b.
c.
d.
of
the
picture
a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
a.
I signal
c.
b.
Q signal
d.
1/3
c.
Y signal
d.
X signal
113.
Which of the following is the color video
signal transmitted as amplitude modulation of the
3.58 MHz C signal in quadrature with bandwidth of 0
to 0.5 MHz?
117.
What is the difference between the sound
carrier and color subcarrier frequencies?
a.
1.25 MHz
b.
3.58 MHz
c.
4.5 MHz
d.
0.92 MHz
a.
I signal
b.
Q signal
c.
Y signal
118.
d.
Z signal
a.
b.
c.
d.
114.
The _____ affects the difference between
black and white on the picture tube and controls the
gain of the video amplifier
a.
Brightness control
b.
Volume control
119.
c.
Power control
a.
4/3
d.
Contrast control
b.
9/7
c.
19/6
d.
16/9
120.
The signal that will give the exact color
wavelength is _____.
a.
Hue
b.
Saturation
c.
Carrier
d.
Monochrome
c.
15750 Hz
d.
157625 Hz
125.
What scheme is employed to cause the
electron beam in the TV receiver and the electron
beam in the studio camera to track identically?
a.
Interlacing
b.
NTSC
121.
Which of the following represents the
intensity of a given color?
c.
Interleaving
a.
d.
Hue
b.
Saturation
c.
Carrier
126.
d.
Monochrome
a.
Horizontal blanking
b.
Vertical blanking
c.
The serrations
d.
Equalizing intervals
Coating
b.
Aperture Mask
c.
Diplexer
a.
Relay
d.
Duplexer
b.
Flyback
c.
Utilization
d.
Resolution
30 Hz
b.
60 Hz
128.
What is the North American TV standard
video?
c.
15750 Hz
a.
PAL
d.
157625 Hz
b.
SECAM
c.
NTSC
d.
FCC
30 Hz
b.
60 Hz
a.
25 kHz
b.
50 kHz
134.
c.
75 kHz
a.
2 MHz
d.
100 kHz
b.
6 MHz
c.
7 MHz
d.
8 MHz
30 Hz
b.
60 Hz
c.
15750 Hz
d.
157625 Hz
4.2 MHz
b.
15 MHz
c.
6 MHz
d.
5.5 MHz
Image orthicon
b.
Iconoscope
c.
Vidicon
d.
Plumbicon
136.
In a composite video signal, what is the
relationship between the amplitude of the signal and
the intensity of the electron beam in the receiver
picture tube?
a.
The greater the amplitude the darker the
picture
132.
What determines the maximum number of
vertical picture elements?
b.
a.
c.
The greater the amplitude the lighter the
picture
b.
d.
c.
Number of pixels
d.
133.
How many horizontal lines are used to
develop a TV raster?
No effect
1250
b.
312.5
a.
615
c.
625
b.
525
d.
2500
c.
750
d.
15750
138.
What is the process of placing the
chrominance signal in the band space between
portions of the luminance signal?
b.
Blanking pulse
c.
Synchronizing pulse
a.
Interlacing
d.
All of these
b.
Fitting
c.
Sneaking
d.
Interleaving
10.2 s
b.
63.5 s
c.
16.67 s
d.
100 s
Blip
b.
Burst
c.
Pixel
d.
Bits
144.
It is the quality of the TV picture after
imperfections
140.
a.
b.
c.
31,500 Hz for the equalizing pulses and
serrations in the vertical sync pulse
d.
31,500
frequency
a.
Hz
for
the
vertical
a.
Aspect ratio
b.
Utilization ratio
c.
A1
d.
Monochrome
scanning
Plumbicon
b.
Vidicon
c.
Saticon
d.
Silicon Vidicon
142.
are:
a.
Chroma signal
a.
RF amplifier
b.
Audio amplifier
c.
IF amplifier
d.
Tuned circuit