MODEL QUESTIONS-CIPE

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When the Constitution of India was adopted and enacted?

a) 15th August 1947.
c) 26th November 1949.
th
b) 26 January 1950.
d) None of these.
Which of the British-reforms provided for separate electorate for Muslims which ultimately
culminated in to partition of India
a) Morley-Minto reforms.
b) Montagu-Chelmsford Report.
c) Simon Commission.
d) No report provided for separate electorate.
The constituent assembly was constituted as per recommendation of
a) Simon Commission.
c) Cabinet mission plan.
b) Cripps mission.
d) The Act of 1935.
January 26th was selected as the date for the inauguration of the constitution because
a) It was an auspicious day.
b) On that day salt satyagraha was launched.
c) It was the day on which quit India movement was started.
d) Congress had observed Independence Day on 26th January 1930.
One of the salient features our constitution is
a) It is fully rigid
b) It is fully flexible
c) It is partly rigid and partly flexible
d) None of these
The constituent assembly of India started its work in 1946 and completed its work in
a) November 1949
c) January 1949
b) December 1948
d) January 1950
The government of India Act 1919 introduced a system of diarchy in the provinces, Dyarchy
means a system of
a) Double government.
c) Responsible government.
b) Bureaucratic government.
d) All the above.
The Act of 1935 abolished
a) Diarchy at the center.
c) Dyarchy in the provinces.
b) Provincial autonomy.
d) All the above.
The chairman of Constituent Assembly and Drafting Committee are
a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad & Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar& Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
c) Pt Jawaharlal Nehru & M.K. Gandhi.
d) SardarVallabhai Patel & Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
Social justice means
a) Provides justice to all irrespective of caste and creed.
b) Provides justice to the poor and backward class of people.
c) Helps to build welfare state.
d) Protects the rights of scheduled caste and scheduled tribes.
In which case did Supreme Court hold that the preamble was a part of the Constitution?
a) Berubari case.
c) KeshevanandBharati case.
b) Golaknath case.
d) Maneka Gandhi case.
Which constitutional amendment inserted Socialism, Secularism and Integrity into the
preamble?
a) 42nd amendment Act.
c) 44th amendment Act.
b) 77th amendment Act.
d) 73rd amendment Act.
The three types of justice referred to in our preamble are
a) Social, economic and political. c) Economic, international and political
b) Economic, religious and social d) Religious, social and political
A writ of Habeas Corpus cannot be issued where
a) A person has been detained by a private individual.
b) The order of arrest is violation of law.
c) The order of arrest is bonafide.
d) A person is detained under a law which is unconstitutional.
The right to equality conferred by Article 14 permits
a) Class legislation
b) Class legislation, strictly based on social backwardness
c) Class legislation based on social and educational backwardness
d) Legislation classification and prohibits class legislation
Writ is an order issued by the Supreme Court and High Court for
a) Enforcement of fundamental rights
b) Encroachment of fundamental rights
c) Endangering fundamental rights
d) Dissolving fundamental rights
Which one of the writs is issued to public corporations, public authority or inferior courts,
directing them to perform their public duty?
a) Habeaus Corpus
c) Quo-warranto
b) Certiorari
d) Mandamus
The rule of right to equality before the law is not applicable to
a) Chief justice of India
c) Chief of the Indian Army

b) Foreign sovereign
d) President of India.
19. Refusing to permit a prisoner to publish a book, written by him in the jail, amounts to violation of
a) Right to personal liberty
b) Right to freedom of trade and business
c) Right to freedom of speech and expression
d) The right to freedom of association
20. The constitution strictly prohibits passing retrospectively
a) Laws relating to the constitution.
b) Any civil legislation.
c) Laws affecting the rights of scheduled castes and scheduled tribes.
d) None of the above.
21. The protection against self-incrimination is available to a person
a) Who has been prosecuted and convicted by the lower court.
b) Who has already undergone punishment awarded by competent Court.
c) Whose fundamental right has been violated.
d) None of the above.
22. Writ of Mandamus can be issued on the ground of
a) Non performance of public duties.
c) Unlawful detention.
b) Unlawful occupation of public office.
d) Illegal detention.
23. Which fundamental right has been deleted by 44th amendment Act 1978?
a) Right against exploitation.
c) Right to property.
b) Right to strike and protest.
d) Right to speak.
24. The DPSP do not direct the state to endeavor to protect
a) Forests.
b) The interest of minorities.
c) The objects of artistic interest of national importance.
d) The environment.
25. To provide justice to economically disabled citizens, the directive principles of state policy direct
the state to provide
a) Employment in the government service.
b) Reserve seats in public educational institutions.
c) Proper economic and social security.
d) None of the above.
26. The directive principles of state policy direct the state to promote
a) Cottage industries.
d) Technical education.
b) Women and children welfare schemes.
c) Protective homes for old, sick and invalid.
27. Fundamental duty demands
a) To abide by the constitution. c) To work sincerely.
b) To avoid corruption.
d) To abide by moral rules.
28. Common Civil Code means
a) Common Civil procedure Code.
b) Common Civil law applicable to all.
c) Civil law applicable to common man.
d) Civil law applicable to Hindus, Muslims Christians in certain matters.
29. This is not a Directive Principle of state policy
a) Organize village Panchayat.
c) Provide free Legal Aid.
b) Secure living wage.
d) Secure just and efficient judiciary.
30. Fundamental duties were incorporated in the constitution by the
a) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.
b) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
c) Dissolve the Lok Sabha
d) 46th Amendment Act, 1982
31. By whom the Directive Principles of State Policy be amended?
a) Members of Lok Sabha.
b) Members of Raj Sabha.
c) Members of both Lok Sabha and Raj Sabha.
d) Parliament, supported by more than fifty percent of states.
32. What is the remedy available for the breach of fundamental duties under the Constitution?
a) Filing writ petition.
c) Filing Criminal Complaint.
b) Filing Civil Suit.
d) No remedy.
33. This is not a fundamental duty
a) To abide by constitution.
b) To protect and improve natural environment.
c) To develop scientific temper.
d) Not to indulge in corrupt practice
34. Fraternity
a) Fatherly treatment.
b) Spirit of brotherhood.
c) Unity and integrity of the nation. d) Elimination of economic injustice
35. Fundamental duties appearing in the Indian Constitution are adopted from the constitution
a) Germany.
b) U.K. c) U.S.A.
d) Russia.
36. Which one of the following is not a directive principle of state policy?
a) Free legal aid to poor.
c) Maternity relief.
b) Improvement of public health.
d) None of these.
37. Which of the following is not enforceable in a court of law?
a) Preamble.
c) Fundamental duties.

b) Fundamental rights.
d) Directive principles.
38. Which of the following is a fundamental duty of Indian citizens?
a) Strive to eradicate untouchability.
c)To develop scientific temper.
b) To cast his/her vote.
d)To promote literacy.
39. Who said the directive principles of state policy are the Novel feature of the India
Constitution?
a) Motilal Nehru.
c) B.R. Ambedkar.
b) Jawaharlal Nehru.
d) None of these.
40. Who will appoint the Attorney General of India?
a) Prime Minister of India.
c) Chief Justice of India.
b) President of India.
d) Law Minister of the Union.
41. Who selected the first President of India?
a) Members if the Lok Sabha and the Raj Sabha
b) Members of the Lok Sabha, the Raj Sabha and Members of Legislative Assembly of all the
states.
c) Constituent Assembly.
d) Members of the British Parliament.
42. Who will appoint the Judge of the Supreme Court?
a) Chief Justice of India.
c) President of India
b) Law of Minister of India.
d) Central Government.
43. What is the term of the President of India?
a) Four years.
c) Three years.
b) Five years.
d) Six years.
44. The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by the
a) Prime minister of India.
c) Planning Commission
b) President of India.
d) Chief Justice of India
45. Under Advisory Jurisdiction, the Supreme Court gives its opinion to
a) Prime minister of India.
c) The law minister.
b) President of India.
d) Governor of a state.
46. One of the qualifications to become the Judge of the Supreme Court is
a) Practice in a High Court for at least 9 years.
b) Served as Judge of High Court for at least 3 years.
c) Practice in District Court for at least 12 years.
d) In the opinion of the President, he must be a distinguished Jurist.
47. Raj Sabha is
a) Dissolved once in three years. c) Dissolved once in five years.
b) Dissolved once in six years.
d) Permanent house of the parliament.
48. The president of India
a) Can be prosecuted.
c) Cannot be prosecuted.
b) Can be prosecuted only in the case of Criminal Conspiracy.
d) Can be prosecuted only if the Parliament permits.
49. President of India can be removed by
a) Chief Justice of India.
b) Passing a resolution by the union Cabinet.
c) Passing a resolution in Lok Sabha by two-third majority.
d) Impeachment
50. The president shall act in accordance with the advice given by
a) The Prime minister.
c) Council of minister.
b) Senior cabinet ministers.
d) None of the above.
51. The legislative power of the president does not include
a) Appointing judges to the Supreme Court.
b) Nominating members to the houses of parliament.
c) Addressing both the houses of parliament.
d) Prorogue the house of parliament.
52. When the president pardons a person convicted by the Supreme Court, this act of the
president
a) Cannot be questioned in the Supreme Court.
b) Can be questioned in the Supreme Court.
c) Can be questioned in the Supreme court only in cases relating to death sentences
d) None of the above.
53. When the Prime Minster dies during his office
a) The President can ask the remaining Ministers of council to continue and advice him till
the new Prime Minister is appointed.
b) The council of ministers remain in power till new prime minster is appointed.
c) The president can dissolve the council of ministers.
d) None of the above.
54. Original jurisdiction of Supreme Court relates to
a) Civil suits directly filed in the Supreme Court.
b) Criminal complaints directly filed in the Supreme Court.
c) Writs directly filed in the Supreme Court.
d) Disputes between union and the states.
55. The number of Ministers in the central government is fixed by
a) The president.
c) The prime minister.
b) The parliament.
d) None of theses.

56. The sanctioned strength of Lok Sabha is

a) 450 members.
c) 552 members.
b) 420 members.
d) 545 members.
57. The President should submit his resignation in writing addressed to
a) The speaker of Lok Sabha.
c) Chief justice of India.
b) The prime minister of India.
d) None of the above.
58. Any dispute in connection with the election of vice-president of India
a) May be filed in the High court.
b) Must be field in the Supreme Court.
c) Should be referred to Election Commission.
d) May be filed in the Supreme Court.
59. Parliament consist of
a) Raj Sabha and Lok Sabha.
b) Raj Sabha, Lok Sabha and the President of India
c) Raj Sabha, Lok Sabha, President and Vice President of India.
d) Raj Sabha, Lok Sabha and Speaker of Lok Sabha.
60. A person cannot be appointed as minister of state, unless he is
a) Member of Lok Sabha.
b) Member of Raj-Sabha.
c) Member of Legislative Assembly of any state.
d) None of the above.
61. The Vice President of India is elected by the
a) Members of Lok Sabha.
b) Members of Lok Sabha and elected members of state assemblies.
c) Members of Lok Sabha, elected members of state assemblies and members of
Legislative councils.
d) None of the above
62. The Vice President of India may be impeached by
a) Lok Sabha.
b) Raj Sabha
c) Only by Raj Sabha agreed by the lok Sabha.
d) None of the above
63. A person is not disqualified to contest for the election to Lok Sabha if he
a) Is guilty of corrupt practices in relation to an election
b) Is convicted for an offence and imprisoned for minimum one year
c) Has failed to lodge the accounts of election expenses.
d) Has been dismissed form government service
64. The election commission does not conduct election to
a) The office of the president.
d)The office of the vice president.
b) The office of the speaker of the lok Sabha.
c) State legislature.
65. The President of India is not having
a) Executive power.
c) Legislative Power
b) Power to control judiciary.
d) Diplomatic Power.
66. The President of India is bound to follow the advice given by
a) The Prime minister of India.
b) The Attorney general of India
c) The Chief Justice of India.
d) The Council of ministers
67. This is not the function of the Lok Sabha
a) Legislative Function.
b) Financial Function
c) Controlling the executive.
d) Judicial function
68. Appellate Jurisdiction of the supreme court does not include
a) Appeals in civil cases
b) Special leave to appeal
c) Appeals against writs.
d) Appeals in Criminal cases
69. Ordinance can be promulgated by
a) Lok Sabha.
b) President of India
c) Lok Sabha and Raj Sabha.
d) Prime minister
70. Who officiates in the absence of president of India
a) Prime Minister.
b) Vice president
c) Speaker of Lok Sabha.
d) Chief Justice of India
71. When both offices of president and vice president happen to be vacant simultaneously who
will discharge the duties of the president?
a) Prime Minister.
c) Speaker of Lok Sabha.
b) Union Home Minister.
d) Chief justice of India.
72. How many members are nominated to the Rajya Sabha by the President?
a) 10 members.
c) 12 members.
b) 15 members.
d) 20 members.
73. Who decides whether a bill is money bill or not?
a) Speaker of Lok Sabha.
c) President of India.
b) Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
d) Minister of Parliamentary affairs.
74. The judges of the Supreme Court retire at the age of
a) 65 years.
b) 62 years.
c) 70 years.
d) 58 years.
75. Who decides the disputes regarding election of the President?
a) The Election Commission.
c) The Parliament.
b) The Supreme Court.
d) The Prime Minister.

76
Preamble to the Indian Constitution indicates
(a) Privileges given to the SCs and STs.
(b) The power of Government to make laws.
(c) The circumstances under which the constitution can be amended.
(d) The source of the Indian Constitution.
77
Fundamental Rights are protected by the
a) Civil Courts.
(b) Criminal Courts.
(c) Supreme Court.
(d) None of the above.
78Untouchability is
(a) An offence.
(b) Not an offence.
(c) Permissible.
(d) None of the above.
79The constitution guarantees Right to Practice
(a) Any profession, occupation, trade or business.
(b) Only Profession.
(c) Both a and b. (d) None of these.
80An arrested person must be produced before a magistrate within hours of arrest
(a) 12hours.
(b) 24 hours.
(c) 36 hours.
(d) 48 hours.
81The Constitution empowers state government to make special law for
(a) Farmers.
(b) Women & Children.
(c) Workers.
(d) Unemployed youth.
82Total numbers of articles in Indian Constitution is
(a) 397 articles.
(b) 395 articles.
(c) 400 articles.
(d) 445 articles.
83 The GG of India was also representative of British Crown to Princely states in India & hence
was known as
(a) Viceroy of India. (b) Secretary of State of India.
(c) Commander of India.
(d) Director
of India.
84Directive principles comes under .of the Constitution
(a) Part-I.
(b) Part II.
(c) Part-III.
(d) Part-IV.
85The 44th Amendment Act replaced Article 31 from Part-III declaring right to property is a legal
right at
(a) Part-XII.
(b) Part-XI.
(c) Part-XIII.
(d) Part-XX.
86 The Fundamental rights granted by the Constitution of India to is citizens cannot be
suspended
(a) Except by an order of the Supreme Court.
(b) Except by an order of President during
national emergency.
(c) Under any circumstances.
(d) Except through an order of the President
during war.
87 The Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution of India on
(a) 26th November 1949.
(b) 29th December, 1949.
(c) 26th November 1948.
(d) 26th December 1949.
88 The objective of the Constitution is to establish
(a) A sovereign State.
(b) Democratic form of
Govt.
(c) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic & Republic Govt. (d) Independent Sovereign
Republic.
89 Fundamental Rights are available against
(a) The action of the state.
(b) The action of the
private individual.
(c) The action of both state & private individual.
(d) None of these.
90 Which one of the following Article provides for free legal aid to economically backward
classes?
(a) Article-42.
(b) Article. 39.
(c) Article 38.
(d) Article-31.
91 Who is final interpreter and guardian of the Constitution?
(a) High Court.
(b) Supreme Court.
(c) Magistrate Court.
(d) Session Court.
92 Which one of the following is not a fundamental right?
(a) Right to Property.
(b) Right to Constitutional remedies.
(c) Right to Religion.
(d) Right to Freedom of Assembly.
93 In case of illegal detention of a person, normally the Court issues
(a) Writ of Mandamus.
(b) Writ of Prohibition.
(c) Writ of Habeas Corpus.
(d)
Writ of Certiorari.
94 Which one of following Article is known as heart and soul of the Constitution?
(a) Article- 19.
(b) Article -32.
(c) Article -21.
(d) Article-22.
95 The directive principles of state policy
(a) Cannot be enforced in any court.
(b) Can be enforced only in SC.
(c) Can be enforced in the High Court.
(d) None of these.
96 Which one of the following is not the duty of every person?
(a) To protect and improve the natural environment.
(d) To abide by the
Constitution.
(b) Adopt practices, which are derogatory to the dignity of women.
(c) Respect the
National Anthem.
97 Seats in the educational institutions can be reserved for
(a) Socially backward class people.
(b) Educationally backward class people.
(c) Christians and Muslims.
(d) Socially and educationally backward
class people.
98 No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once this
principle is known as

(a) Double jeopardy. (b) Ex-post-facto-law.

(c) Rule of Self-incrimination. (d) Rule of
Separation of Powers.
99 Match the following:
(a) Right to equality.
a) Article - 17.
(b) Abolition of Untouchability.
b) Article -14.
(c) Freedom of Assembly.
c) Article. 19(1) (d).
(d) Freedom of Movement.
d) Article 19 (1) (b).
a) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b.
b) i-a, ii-d, iii-b, iv-c.
c) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c.
d) i-d, iib, iii-c, iv-a.
100Promotion of International peace and security is
(a) One of the Directive principles.
(b) One of the
fundamental duty.
(c) One of the fundamental right.
(d) One of the objective of
preamble.