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Analysis 2 II
Analysis 2 II
REAL ANALYSIS II
Submitted to
Name
ID No
1.
Miliyon Tilahun . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . GSR/1401/08
1 + nx2
log(2 + cos(x/n))
(1 + x2 )n
lim
n2 xen x
dx
1 + x2
n2 xen x
fn =
1 + x2
Now
2 n2 x2
n xe
n2 x
=
|fn | =
2 x2
2
2
n
1+x
(1 + x )e
n2 x
x
(1 + x2 )(1 + n2 x2 ) x
n2 x2
1
=
2
2
2
1 + n x x(1 + x )
1
:= g(x)
x(1 + x2 )
Use Partial fraction to evaluate the integral of g(x)
3. Let g : R R be integrable and f : R R be bounded, measurable and continuous at 1. Prove that
Z n
x
lim
f 1 + 2 g(x)dx
n n
n
exists and determine its value.
Solution. Let
hn = [n,n] (x)f (1 +
x
)g(x)
n2
for every M > 0, so it cannot be essentially bounded. To see that it is in Lp (0, 1] for 1 p < , we
note that for x [0, 1] we have the elementary bound
0 ln(x) 1/x.
Whereby, using the properties of the log we conclude that for any > 0,
0 ln(x)
Therefore
Z
| ln(1/x)|p dx =
1
.
x
| ln(x)|p p
xp dx.
Since for any 1 p < , we can choose always < 1/p, the right-hand-side is integrable, and therefore
f Lp (0, 1].
5. Assume that E has a finite measure and 1 p1 p2 . Show that if {fn } f in Lp2 (E), then
{fn } f in Lp1 (E).
Solution. Since E has finite measure, we know that if f fn is in Lp2 (E), then there exists a constant
c such that
kf fn kp1 ckf fn kp2 .
The proof follows trivially from this.
6. For 1 p find the value the parameter for which
Z
1
lim
f = 0, for all f Lp ([0, 1])
0+ 0
Solution. It suffices to consider f non-negative, since we may always consider f + and f separately.
We consider the case p < first. Suppose that 1/q, then by Holders inequality,
Z 1/p
Z
1
1/q
f
fp
.
0
0
Since f is in Lp , we have
f p = 0.
lim
Thus,
1
lim
0
f = 0.
0
Now suppose > 1/q and choose f = x1 , note that since p(1) > 1, then f Lp [0, 1]. However
Z
1
x1 = 1,
0
and therefore does not vanish as goes to 0.
When p = , we see that when < 1,
Z
1
f 1 kf k
0
which goes to 0 as 0. When = 1, let f = 1, then
Z
1
f = 1,
0
and does not go to zero as 0.
3
(F (x)) dx
0
Rx
0
1
F (x) =
x
f (t)dt
0
p
p1
F (x)p dx =
1
xp
f (t)ta ta dt
Z
f (t)dt
p1 Z
f (t) t dt
1
xp
1
x q a
(1 aq) q
(1 aq) q
f (t)p tap
Z
x q pap dx =
f (t) t dt dx
p
x q pap dx dt.
x1pa dx = tpa
Z
p1
f (t) t dt .
p ap
F (x) dx
p ap
Z
1
p+q ,
q1
dt =
p
f (t)dt dx
0
Z
Z
p
pap
xq
Z
(1 aq) q 0
Z
1
and so we have
aq
p ap
Choose now a =
p
f (t)dt dx.
Z
(f (t))p dt
Z
f (t)dt =
1
q
p Z
ap(1 aq)
p
q
1
,
ap
f (t)p dt.
which is found by solving a minimization problem, and then simple algebra gives
1
p
ap(1 aq) q
p
.
p1
where the last Requality follows by the dominated convergence theorem since |f |p and |fk |p are in L1 .
Thus, lim supk |f fk |p 0, so kf fk kp 0.
9. Let (X, M, ) be a -finite measure space and let be another -finite measure on (X, M) such that
. Show that for any measurable function f : X [0, +] we have
Z
Z
d
f d =
f d
d
X
X
Solution. The equality holds for f = A for any measurable set A by definition of the Radon-Nikodym
derivative. Hence it holds for all simple positive measurable functions. Then it holds for all positive
measurable functions by the monotone convergence theorem.
10. Let 1 , 2 and be measures on a measure space (X, M, ). Show that if 1 and 2 then
(1 + 2 ) .
Solution. Let E be a measurable set in M such that (E) = 0. Since 1 and 2 ,
1 (E) = 0 = 2 (E). Thus, (1 + 2 )(E) = 1 (E) + 2 (E) = 0. Therefore, (1 + 2 ) .
11. Let be a finite measure and be a -finite measure on the same measurable space (X, ) such that
for all E M, (E) (E)
a) Show that .
b) Show that there is a function f L1 () such that for all E M
Z
(E) =
f d
E
c) Show that the function in (b) must satisfy 0 f (x) 1 for a.e x X.
Solution. For (a) simply use the definition of absolute continuity. For (b), read up on the LesbsegueRadon-Nikodym theorem. For (c), assume f > 1 on a set of measure non-zero, and then assume f < 0
on a set of measure non-zero, and these will lead to contradictions.
12. Use Fubinis theorem to prove that
Z
lim
sin x
dx =
x
2
exy sin x dy dx =
exy sin x dx dy
Notice that
sin x
x
exy sin x dy =
This leads us to
Z
sin x
x
dx =
xy
sin x dx dy
Now the right hand side can be found easily, using integration by parts.
Z
Z
xy
xy
I= e
sin x dx = e
cos x y exy cos x dx
Z
= exy cos x y exy sin x + y exy sin x dx
=
Thus
1
1 + y2
exy sin x dx =
Thus
sin x
x
dx =
0
1
dy = .
2
1+y
2
2x yex yy dy dx
[0,)
[0,)
Solution.
14. Prove that
Z
0
Z
0
x2 y 2
log(4 + sin x)dydx =
(x2 + y 2 )3/2
Z
0
Z
0
x2 y 2
log(4 + sin x)dxdy
(x2 + y 2 )3/2
Solution.
15. Compute
Z
y sin(x)exy dxdy
y
y2 + 1
Thus,
1
F (y)dy =
0
xy
1
log 2.
2
E
1
Z
=
yexy dx
dy
0
Z
=
0
1
dy
0
= 1.
Doing integration with respect to y first yields
Z 1
sin(x) 1 ex
ex .
y sin(x)exy dy =
x
x
0
Thus, Fubinis theorem shows that
Z
0
sin(x) 1 ex
1
x
e
dx = log 2
x
x
2
ey
log 5
sin2 (y)
dy =
y
4
Solution. Consider
Z
sin2 y
y
sin(2xy)dx =
0
Then
Z
0
ey
sin2 (y)
dy =
y
ey
sin(2xy)dxdy
0
1
1 + y2