Rahuls

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COMBINED TEST PAPER- III FOR M.P

Total Marks: 100
Duration: 2 hrs
Date: 6-12-2015
1. Before specific performance is granted there must be
a. Valid contract
b. Voidable contract
c. Void agreement
d. Either a or b
2. In a suit for specific performance plaintiff may also pray for rescission
a. In alternative
b. In addition
c. Either a or b
d. Neither a nor b
3. The person entitled to the possession u/s 7 of SRA
a. Must be the owner of the goods
b. Must be the agent
c. Must be the bailer
d. None of the above
4. Which one of the following provision expresses that grant of specific
performance is courts discretion?
a. Section 10
b. Section 14
c. Section 20
d. Section 21
5. The basis of action under the remedy of quantum merit is
a. Restitution
b. Rescission
c. Novation
d. None of the above
6. The main test of the offer is
a. Object of the offer
b. Repercussions which will ensue the offer
c. Intention with which an offer is made
d. All of the above
7. The money paid under mistake is recoverable if there is a
a. Mistake of fact
b. Mistake of law
c. Mistake of fact or law
d. Neither a nor b
8. The loss or damages arising from a breach of contract has to be ascertained
a. At the date of the breach of contract
b. At the time of the making of contract
c. At the time of the frustration of contract
d. Either b or c
9. When the promisor offers to perform his obligation under the contract to the
promise it is called
a. Novation
b. Tender of performance
c. Offer of performance
d. Both b and c

10. Section 10 of the IEA refers to things said or done by a conspirator in reference
to the
a. Common design
b. Common object
c. Common intention
d. Both a and c
11. The burden of proof in case of plea of alibi lies on accused by virtue of
a. Section 102 IEA
b. Section 103 IEA
c. Section 104 IEA
d. Section 105 IEA
12. A public notice in respect of invitation of tenders in the Newspaper is
a. An invitation to a proposal
b. A promise
c. A proposal
d. An invitation for biding
13. A stipulation for increased interest from the date of default is known as
a. Damages
b. Compensation
c. Penalty
d. All of the above
14. An erroneous opinion as to value of the thing which is the subject matter of
agreement is
a. A mistake
b. Not a mistake
c. A mistake under certain circumstances
d. Recklessness
15. An executed consideration is
a. The one which has already been executed in the past
b. A past consideration
c. One which is provided simultaneously with the making of the contract
d. Both a and b
16. In which of the following cases, there is no anticipatory breach of contract?
a. X promises to marry Y on a future day. Before that day, X marries another
women
b. X promises to marry Y on the death of his father and during the lifetime of
his father married another women
c. X agreed to purchase from Y under two contracts 30 tons of sugar to be
delivered at different dates. X failed to take the delivery under first contract.
Y claimed to rescind both contracts
d. None of the above
17. Which article of the constitution says that the Prime Minister shall be
appointed by the President.
a. Article 74
b. Article 75
c. Article 76
d. Article 80
18. A member of state public service commission is removed from his office by
a. President
b. The governor
c. The state legislative assembly
d. The parliament
19. The rules made by the Governor for the peace and good government of the
scheduled area has to be approved by the
a. Parliament
b. State legislative
c. President
d. Both a and b
20. The Rajya Sabha has exclusive jurisdiction in

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

a. Approving a proclamation of emergency

b. Authorising parliament to legislate on a subject in the sate list
c. Creation and abolition of states
d. The election of vice president
The principle of nemo debet vis vaxari is embodied in
a. Article 20 (1)
b. Article 20 (2)
c. Article 22 (2)
d. Article 22 (3)
Article 33 of the constitution empowers parliament to
a. Enforce fundamental rights
b. Impose martial law
c. Declare emergency
d. Modify fundamental rights in relation to armed forces
Section 6,7 and 8 of the Limitation Act are
a. Mutually exclusive
b. Complementary
c. Separate and not related
d. Both a and c
Section 10 of the Limitation Act is applicable to
a. Implies trust
b. Trust resulting from the operation of law
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
Section 12 of the Limitation Act has no application to
a. Appeal
b. An application for leave to appeal
c. An executive petition
d. All of the above
The jurisdiction to grant exemtion u/s 14 of Limitation Act is given exclusively to
a. Civil court
b. High court
c. Supreme court
d. None of the above
The period of limitation for filing an application to record an adjustment or
satisfaction of a decree is
a. 10 days
b. 30 days
c. 90 days
d. One year
Court of sessions has the original jurisdiction to take cognizance of offence by
virtue of
a. Section 197 of Cr.P.C.
b. Section 198 of Cr.P.C.
c. Section 199 of Cr.P.C.
d. Section 193 of Cr.P.C.
Monthly allowance passed under section 125 Cr.P.C. can be altered as provided
a. u/s 125 (5) Cr.P.C.
b. u/s 126 Cr.P.C.
c. u/s 127 Cr.P.C.
d. u/s 128 Cr.P.C.
summary trial can be conducted by
a. Chief judicial Magistrate
b. Metropolitan Magistrate
c. Magistrate 1St Class
d. All of the above
Under section 218 (1) Cr.P.C. a Magistrate may try tighter all or any number of
the charges framed against an accused on an application by the
a. Presecutor
b. Accused
c. De-facto complainant

d. None of the above

32. Which of the following is not mentioned as class of criminal court u/s 6 of
Cr.P.C.
a. Metropolitan Magistrate
b. Judicial Magistrate of second Class
c. Executive Magistrate
d. None of the above
33. A bailable warrant can be issued
a. In case of bailable offence
b. In case of non bailable offence
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
34. Section 43 allows a private citizen to arrest without warrant
a. If a non bailable offence has been committed in his presence
b. If a cognizable offence has been committed in his presence
c. If a non-bailable or cognizable offence has been committed in his presence
d. If a non bailable and cognizable offence has been committed in his presence
35. No second appeal shall lie except on the grounds mentioned in
a. Section 99, CPC
b. Section 99-A, CPC
c. Section 100-A,CPC
d. Section 100,CPC
36. Which of the following disentile the defendant from applying under order 9 rule
13 to set aside a decree?
a. Where an ex-parte decree has been executed
b. Where an appeal against ex parte decree has been dismissed
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
37. CPC permits
a. Absolute withdrawal of suits
b. Qualified withdrawal of suits
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
38. Which of the following are suit of civil nature
a. Suits involving principally cast questions
b. Suits involving purely religious rites
c. Suites for upholding mere dignity or honour
d. None of the above
39. According to section 26 (2) of CPC in every plaint facts shall be proved by
a. Evidence
b. Affidavit
c. Annexture
d. Either a or b or c
40. Where an attachment has been made in execution of a decree any private
transfer or delivery of the property attached
a. Shall be void as against all claims enforceable under the attachment
b. Shall be valid as against all claims enforceable under the attachment
c. Will be voidable at the option of decree holder
d. Will be voidable at the discretion of the court
41. No appeal shall lie on a question of fact, from a decree in any suit of the nature
cognizable by courts of small causes when the amount or value of the subject
matter of the original suit does not exceed
a. 2000 rupees
b. 5000 rupees
c. 10000 rupees
d. 25000 rupees
42. Expression former suit as given under section 21A of the CPC means
a. Suit which has been decided first
b. Suit which has been institute first
c. Both a and b together

d. Either a or b
43. Transfer of property is an act by which a living person conveys certain
properties
a. Absolutely
b. Conditionally
c. Absolutely or conditionally
d. Absolutely and unqualified
44. Which of the following provisions of TPA declares that where writing is not
necessary transfer of property may be made orally
a. Section 3
b. Section 6
c. Section 7
d. Section 9
45. Section 10 of TPA declares a condition to be void when
a. it absolutely restrains alienation
b. it partially restrains alienation
c. it absolutely or partially restrains alienation
d. it restrains alenation
46. There cannot be any...........
a. Direct transfer to an unborn person
b. Indirect transfer to an unborn person
c. Absolute transfer of interest to an unborn person
d. Transfer to an unborn person
47. which of the following provision deals with emergency cases when the
circumstances are such as to render consent impossible consent may be
absolutely dispensed with
a. section 89 IPC
b. section 91 IPC
c. section 92 IPC
d. section 94 IPC
48. Section 102 of IPC fix the time
a. When the right of private defence commenced
b. When the right of private defence continues
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
49. Which of the following act is punishable u/s 121 of IPC
a. Waging war against the Govt. of India
b. Attempt to wage war against Govt. Of India
c. Abet to wage war against Govt. of India
d. All of the above
50. To constitute unlawful assembly the assembly of five or more person must have
a. Common intention
b. Common object
c. Similar intention
d. Similar object
51. Which of the following offence under this section does not affect the state
directly or indirectly
a. Section 124 A
b. Section 153 A
c. Section 153 AA
d. None of the above
52. For an assembly to be unlawful must have a common object of the kind
specified in
a. Section 140
b. Section 141
c. Section 146
d. Section 149
53. To constitute this offence possession of the property must be derived with the
consent of the owner
a. Criminal misappropriation

b. Criminal breach of trust

c. Theft
d. None of the above
54. U/S 364A of IPC demand of ransom etc is to be made after
a. Kidnapping
b. Abduction
c. Either a or b
d. Neither a no b
55. Who has the power under the rent control act to let the premises which has fallen vacant
under section 39 of this act
a. Collector
b. RCA
c. State Govt.
d. Magistrate
56. The word essential supply or services include which one of these under the Rent Control
Act
a. Cable services
b. Conservancies
c. Lifts
d. WI-FI connection
57. Which of the following sections of the rent control law are the exceptions to the general
definition of the word landlord?
a. Section 12
b. Section 12(1) (e)and (f)
c. Section 12 (1) (e) only
d. None s the exception
58. Which act was repealed by this rent control act of 1961?
a. Rent act 1955
b. Rent act 1947
c. No other act was prevalent before this act
d. The transfer of property act
59. Who amongst the following is deemed to be the public servant under the rent control act?
a. SDO
b. Collector
c. Tehsildar
d .Commissioner
60. Cognizance under the rent control act of the offences shall be taken by the ?
a. RCA
b. The civil court
c. Magistrate
d. Session judge
61. The person whose tenancy has been terminated by the virtue of his retirement from the
office who was allotted the accommodation due to his office shall vacate the accommodation
uptill?
a. 7 days
b. 15 dyas
c. One month
d. 21 days
62. According to section 42 of the rent control act a person who were allotted accomadation by
the virtue of his office who has been terminated if he does not vacate the premises in the
prescribe time it can be further extended uptill which period
a. One month
b. Two months
c. Three months
d. Four months
63. Under which of the following grounds the second appeal shall not lie under the rent
control law?
a. The decision is contrary to law or usage
b. The decision has failed to determine some material issue.
c. That there has been a substantial error and defect.

d. Any clerical defect

64. The deposit of the rent under the rent control act shall be governed by the?
a. Contract
b. By the act itself
c. Act in case of the absence of contract
d. Both the act and the contract
65. An appeal shall lie to appellate court on following order under the Revenue Code
a. Rejecting application for
b. Order of interim nature
c. Rejection of stay
d. Decree on any grounds u/s 12
66. If any right has been acquired in any land then the owner is under duty to inform the
patwari in
a. Oral
b. Writing
c. None
d. Both
67. The devolution of the interest of the Bhumiswami shall pass on death by
a. inheritance
b. survivorship
c. bequest
d. all the above
68. Occupancy tenants have been provided under which section
a. 181
b. 182
c. 185
d. 186
69. Who shall offer the land to the Bhumiswami after alluvion or diluvion
a. SDO
b. collector
c. State Govt.
d. Tehsildar
70. Who may declare the government forest to be modified area to prevent theft of timber
a. collector
b. SDO
c. Tesildar
d. State Govt.
71. Definition of settlement has been provided under
a. Section 75
b. Section 76
c. Section 85
d. Section 87
72. What kinds of lands are subject to assessment by settlement officer?
a. All lands
b. Only those paying land revenue
c. All lands whether paying the revenue or not
d. Those lands not paying land revenue
73. Term settlement under Revenue Code shall be for
a. 40 years
b. 30 years
c. 20 years
d. State Govt. to decide
74. Who shall maintain BhooadhikarAvam pin pustika
a. Collector
b. SDO
c. Bhumiswami
d. Tehsildar
Select the best option from the four alternatives and fill in the blanks.
75. Unless he -------- this office, I will not say anything.

(a) left
(b) did not leave
(c) leaves
(d) had left
76. -------- , I would help all the poor people.
a. If I am rich
b. If I was rich
c. If I were rich
d. In case I am rich
77. Choose the correct synonym of the word VOGUE
a. Uncertain
b. Out-dated
c. Prevailing fashion or style
d. Journey
e.
In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives, choose the one which best
expresses the meaning of the given word.
78. ALERT
a. Smart
b. Active
c. Watchful
d. Live
79. MAJESTIC
a. Attractive
b. Extraordinary
c. Grand
d. Interesting
80. FAITH
a. Proof
b. Belief
c. Repose
d. Trust
81. The transistorized computer circuits were introduced in the
a. First generation
b. Second generation
c. Third generation
d. Fourth generation
82. Which of the following is required when more than one person uses a central computer at
the same time?
a. Terminal
b. Light pen
c. Digitize
d. Mouse
83. Which of the following memories has the shortest access time
a. Cache memory
b. Magnetic bubble memory
c. Magnetic core memory
d. RAM
84. An output device that uses words or messages recorded on a magnetic medium to
produce audio recorded on a magnetic medium to produce audio response is
a. Magnetic tape
b. Voice response unit
c. Voice recognition unit
d. Voice band
85. Typical data transfer rates in LAN are of the
a. Bits per sec
b. Kilo bits per sec
c. Mega bits per sec

d. None of the above

86. How many National Parks are in Madhya Pradesh ?
(a) 7 National Parks
(b) 8 National Parks
(c) 9 National Parks
(d) 10 National Parks
87. The major types of soils found in the MP state are ?
(a) Alluvial and Laterite Soil
(b) Black Soil and Mixed Soil
(c) Red and yellow soil
(d) All of the above
88. MP is.. largest state in India by population
(a) Sixth
(b)Fifth
(c)fourth
(d) third
89. Which is the highest point in Madhya Pradesh?
a) Lady Hill
b) Kaimur Hill
c) Dhupgarh Peak
d) Mount Logan
90. Which state is to the east of Madhya Pradesh?
a) Chhattisgarh
b) Kerala
c) Haryana
d) Punjab
91. Indias Ranking in Global Innovation Index during year 2015 is ?
a. 76
b. 66
c. 44
d. 81
92. Saeed Jaffery, who died recently was ............ ?
a. Actor
b. Musician
c. Politician
d. Sportsperson
93. Who won the mens singles title of Wimbledon tennis championships 2015?
a. Roger Federer
b. Novak Djokovic
c. Jean-Julien Rojer
d. Horia Tecau
94. Who is the author of the book For King and Another Country: Indian Soldiers on the
Western Front 1914-18?
(a) Shrabani Basu
(b) Ramachandra Guha
(c) K N Panikkar
(d) Mridula Mukherjee
95. On which date, the International Day for the Abolition of Slavery is observed?
(a) November 15
(b) November 30
(c) December 2
(d) December 10
96. The currency of Indonesia is _________.
a. rupiah
b. dinar
c. rangit

d. riyal
97.Garampani sanctuary is located at
a.Junagarh, Gujarat
b
Diphu, Assam
.
c.Kohima, Nagaland
d
Gangtok, Sikkim
.
98. Which metal is the best conductor of electric current?
a. Gold
b. Silver
c. Bronze
d. None of These
99. Who was the first person to address the United Nations in Hindi?
a. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
b. Narendra Modi
c. Atal Behari Vajpayee
d. Manmohan Singh
100. Pranab Mukherjee is the _______the President of India.
a. 14th President of India
b. 13th President of India
c. 12th President of India
d. 11th President of India
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.

A
A
D
C
A
C
C
A
D
D
B
A
C
B
C
C
B
A
C
B
B
D
B
D
C
A
B
D
C
B

31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.

B
D
C
D
D
B
C
D
B
A
C
A
C
D
A
A
C
C
D
B
D
A
B
C
A
B
B
A
B
C

61.

A
62.
D
63.
D
64.
C
65.
D
66.
D
67.
D
68.
C
69.
A
70.
D
71.
A
72.
C
73.
B
74.
C
75.
C
76.
C
77.
C
78.
C
79.
C
80.
D
81.
B
82.
A
83.
A
84.
B
85.
C
86.
C
87.
D
88. 10 A
89.
C
90.
A

91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.

D
A
B

A
B
A
B
B
C
B
ANSWER
SHEET
(COMBINED
PAPER
FOR
MP 6-12-2015)

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