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Chapter 1: Introduction To Communication Systems: Multiple Choice
Chapter 1: Introduction To Communication Systems: Multiple Choice
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The theory of radio waves was originated by:
a. Marconi c. Maxwell
b. Bell d. Hertz
ANS: C
2. The person who sent the first radio signal across the Atlantic ocean was:
a. Marconi c. Maxwell
b. Bell d. Hertz
ANS: A
3. The transmission of radio waves was first done by:
a. Marconi c. Maxwell
b. Bell d. Hertz
ANS: D
4. A complete communication system must include:
a. a transmitter and receiver
b. a transmitter, a receiver, and a channel
c. a transmitter, a receiver, and a spectrum analyzer
d. a multiplexer, a demultiplexer, and a channel
ANS: B
5. Radians per second is equal to:
a. 2f c. the phase angle
b. f 2d. none of the above
ANS: A
6. The bandwidth required for a modulated carrier depends on:
a. the carrier frequency c. the signal-plus-noise to noise ratio
b. the signal-to-noise ratio d. the baseband frequency range
ANS: D
7. When two or more signals share a common channel, it is called:
a. sub-channeling c. SINAD
b. signal switching d. multiplexing
ANS: D
8. TDM stands for:
a. Time-Division Multiplexing c. Time Domain Measurement
b. Two-level Digital Modulation d. none of the above
ANS: A
9. FDM stands for:
a. Fast Digital Modulation c. Frequency-Division Multiplexing
b. Frequency Domain Measurement d. none of the above
ANS: C
10. The wavelength of a radio signal is:
a. equal to f c
b. equal to c
c. the distance a wave travels in one period
d. how far the signal can travel without distortion
ANS: C
11. Distortion is caused by:
a. creation of harmonics of baseband frequencies
b. baseband frequencies "mixing" with each other
ANS: wavelength
14. In free space, radio signals travel at approximately ____________________ meters
per second.
ANS: 300 million
15. The equipment used to show signals in the frequency domain is the
_________________________.
ANS: spectrum analyzer
16. Mathematically, a spectrum is represented by a ____________________ series.
ANS: Fourier
17. Disabling a receiver during a burst of atmospheric noise is called
____________________.
ANS:
noise blanking
blanking
18. For satellite communications, ____________________ noise can be a serious
problem.
ANS: solar
19. Thermal noise is caused by the random motions of ____________________ in a
conductor.
ANS: electrons
SHORT ANSWER
1. Name the five elements in a block diagram of a communications system.
ANS:
Source, Transmitter, Channel, Receiver, Destination
2. Name five types of internal noise.
ANS:
Thermal, Shot, Partition, 1/f, transit-time
3. Why is thermal noise called "white noise"?
ANS:
White light is composed of equal amounts of light at all visible frequencies.
Likewise, thermal noise has
equal power density over a wide range of frequencies.
4. What is "pink noise"?
ANS:
Light is pink when it contains more red than it does other colors, and red is at the
low end of the visible
spectrum. Likewise, pink noise has higher power density at lower frequencies.
5. Suppose there is 30 V from one noise source that is combined with 40 V from
another noise source.
Calculate the total noise voltage.
ANS:
50 V
6. If you have 100 mV of signal and 10 mV of noise, both across the same 100-ohm
load, what is the signaltonoise ratio in dB?
ANS:
20 dB
7. The input to an amplifier has a signal-to-noise ratio of 100 dB and an output
signal-to-noise ratio of 80
dB. Find NF, both in dB and as a ratio.
ANS:
20 dB, NF = 100
8. A microwave receiver has a noise temperature of 145 K. Find its noise figure.
ANS:
1.5
9. Two cascaded amplifiers each have a noise figure of 5 and a gain of 10. Find the
total NF for the pair.
ANS:
5.4
10. Explain why you could use a diode as a noise source with a spectrum close to
that of pure thermal noise.
How would you control the amount of noise generated?
ANS:
When current flows through a diode, it generates shot noise that can be represented
as a current source,
the output of which is a noise current. The equation for the noise current is very
similar to the equation for
thermal noise voltage. Since the power in the shot noise is proportional to the diode
current, controlling
the diode current controls the noise power.
ANS: Q
9. A value of ____________________ or more for Q is required for the approximate
tuned circuit equations
to be valid.
ANS: 10
10. In a class C RF amplifier, the ____________________ extracts one frequency from
all the harmonics
contained in the device current (e.g. collector current).
ANS: tuned circuit
11. Using additional feedback to compensate for "stray" feedback is called
____________________.
ANS: neutralization
12. A Colpitts oscillator uses a ____________________ voltage divider to provide
feedback.
ANS: capacitive
13. Electrically, a piezoelectric crystal has both a ____________________ and a
____________________
resonant frequency.
ANS: series, parallel
14. To produce sum and difference frequencies, a mixer must be a non____________________ circuit.
ANS: linear
15. At some bias point, a diode or a transistor can act as a ____________________-law
mixer.
ANS: square
SHORT ANSWER
1. What inductance would you use with a 47-pF capacitor to make a tuned circuit for
10 MHz?
ANS:
5.4 H
2. What value of Q is required for a 10-MHz tuned circuit to have a bandwidth of 100
kHz?
ANS:
100
3. A tuned-circuit amplifier with a gain of 10 is being used to make an oscillator.
What should be the value
of the feedback ratio to satisfy the Barkhausen criteria?
ANS:
0.1
4. What is the advantage of a Clapp oscillator compared to a Colpitts oscillator?
ANS:
It is more stable because it "swamps" the device capacitance with large value
capacitors in the feedback
divider.
5. If a varactor has a capacitance of 90 pF at zero volts, what will be the
capacitance at 4 volts?
ANS:
30 pF
6. An oscillator has a frequency of 100 MHz at 20C, and a tempco of +10 ppm per
degree Celsius. What
19. Two tones modulate an AM carrier. One tone causes a modulation index of m1
and the other tone causes a
modulation index of m2. The total modulation index is:
a. m1 + m2 c. sqrt(m1 m2 + m2 m1)
b. (m1 + m2) / 2 d. sqrt(m1 m1 + m2 m2)
ANS: D
20. To demodulate a USB SSB signal, the receiver must:
a. be set to USB mode c. both a and b
b. reinsert the carrier d. none of the above
ANS: C
COMPLETION
1. An advantage of AM is that the receiver can be very ____________________.
ANS: simple
2. A disadvantage of AM is its ____________________ use of power.
ANS: inefficient
3. The ____________________ of an AM signal resembles the shape of the baseband
signal.
ANS: envelope
4. In AM, modulating with a single audio tone produces ____________________
sidebands.
ANS: two
5. Compared to the USB, the information in the LSB is ____________________.
ANS: the same
6. Compared to the USB, the power in the LSB is ____________________.
ANS: the same
7. In AM, total sideband power is always ____________________ than the carrier power.
ANS: less
8. In AM, as the modulation index increases, the carrier power
_________________________.
ANS: remains constant
9. The power in an AM signal is maximum when the modulation index is
____________________.
ANS: one
10. In AM, a voice-band signal of 300 Hz to 3000 Hz will require a bandwidth of
____________________.
ANS: 6000 Hz
11. With a 1-MHz carrier, if the LSB extends down to 990 kHz, then the USB will
extend up to
____________________.
ANS: 1010 kHz
12. If an AM transmitter puts out 100 watts with no modulation, it will put out
____________________ watts
with 100% modulation.
ANS: 150
SHORT ANSWER
1. An AM transmitter generates 100 watts with 0% modulation. How much power
will it generate with 20%
modulation?
ANS:
102 watts
2. If the carrier power is 1000 watts, what is the power in the USB at 70.7%
modulation?
ANS:
125 watts
3. A carrier is modulated by three audio tones. If the modulation indexes for the
tones are 0.3, 0.4, and 0.5,
then what is the total modulation index?
ANS:
0.707
4. You look at an AM signal with an oscilloscope and see that the maximum Vpp is
100 volts and the
minimum Vpp is 25 volts. What is the modulation index?
ANS:
0.6
5. A SSB transmitter is connected to a 50-ohm antenna. If the peak output voltage
of the transmitter is 20
volts, what is the PEP?
ANS:
4 watts
b. Non-Broadcast FM d. Narrowband FM
ANS: D
7. When FM reception deteriorates abruptly due to noise, it is called:
a. the capture effect c. the noise effect
b. the threshold effect d. the limit effect
ANS: B
8. An FM receiver switching suddenly between two stations on nearby frequencies is
called:
a. the capture effect c. the "two-station" effect
b. the threshold effect d. none of the above
ANS: A
9. Pre-emphasis is used to:
a. increase the signal to noise ratio for higher audio frequencies
b. increase the signal to noise ratio for lower audio frequencies
c. increase the signal to noise ratio for all audio frequencies
d. allow stereo audio to be carried by FM stations
ANS: A
10. A pre-emphasis of 75 s refers to:
a. the time it takes for the circuit to work
b. the "dead time" before de-emphasis occurs
c. the time delay between the L and R channels
d. the time-constant of the filter circuits used
ANS: D
11. FM stereo:
a. uses DSBSC AM modulation c. has a higher S/N than mono FM
b. is implemented using an SCA signal d. is not compatible with mono FM
ANS: A
12. An SCA signal:
a. can use amplitude modulation c. is monaural
b. can use FM modulation d. all of the above
ANS: D
13. The modulation index of an FM signal can be determined readily:
a. using measurements at points where J0 equals one
b. using measurements at points where J0 equals zero
c. using measurements at points where the deviation equals zero
d. only by using Bessel functions
ANS: B
COMPLETION
1. FM and PM are two forms of ____________________ modulation.
ANS: angle
2. PM is extensively used in ____________________ communication.
ANS: data
3. Compared to AM, the signal-to-noise ratio of FM is usually ____________________.
ANS: better
4. Compared to AM, the bandwidth of FM is usually ____________________.
ANS:
wider
greater
5. FM transmitters can use Class ____________________ amplifiers since amplitude
linearity is not
important.
ANS: C
6. Both the power and amplitude of an FM signal ____________________ as modulation
is applied.
ANS: stay constant
7. In FM, the frequency deviation is proportional to the instantaneous
____________________ of the
modulating signal.
ANS: amplitude
8. The frequency deviation of an FM signal occurs at a rate equal to the
____________________ of the
modulating signal.
ANS: frequency
9. Mathematically, the number of sidebands in an FM signal is ____________________.
ANS: infinite
10. As FM sidebands get farther from the center frequency, their power
____________________.
ANS: decreases
11. Mathematically, the value of an FM modulation index can be as high as
____________________.
ANS: any number
12. In FM, as the modulating frequency decreases, the modulation index
____________________.
ANS: increases
13. In FM, as the frequency deviation decreases, the modulation index
____________________.
ANS: decreases
14. As the FM modulation index increases, the number of significant sidebands
____________________.
ANS: increases
15. For certain values of mf, such as 2.4, the amplitude of the carrier frequency
____________________.
ANS:
disappears
goes to zero
16. The bandwidth of an FM signal can be approximated using ____________________
rule.
ANS: Carson's
17. FM bandwidth can be calculated precisely using ____________________ functions.
ANS: Bessel
18. The ____________________ effect is characteristic of FM reception in a noisy
environment.
ANS: threshold
19. The ____________________ effect is seen when an FM receiver is exposed to two
FM signals that are
close to each other in frequency.
ANS: capture
20. Rest frequency is another name for an FM ____________________ frequency.
ANS: carrier
SHORT ANSWER
fm mf where mf will have one of the known values. For example, if fm is measured to
be 2 kHz when mf is
5.5, then is 11 kHz.
Chapter 5: Transmitters
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The ability to change operating frequency rapidly without a lot of retuning is
called:
a. agility c. VFO
b. expansion d. spread-spectrum
ANS: A
2. The difference between the DC power into a transmitter and the RF power
coming out:
a. is a measure of efficiency c. may require water cooling
b. heats the transmitter d. all of the above
ANS: D
3. Baseband compression produces:
a. a smaller range of frequencies from low to high
b. a smaller range of amplitude from soft to loud
c. a smaller number of signals
d. none of the above
ANS: B
4. ALC stands for:
a. Amplitude Level Control c. Accurate Level Control
b. Automatic Level Control d. none of the above
ANS: B
5. In an AM transmitter, ALC is used to:
a. keep the modulation close to 100% c. maximize transmitted power
b. keep the modulation below 100% d. all of the above
ANS: D
6. With high-level AM:
a. all RF amplifiers can be nonlinear c. minimum RF power is required
b. minimum modulation power is required d. all of the above
ANS: A
7. With high-level AM:
a. the RF amplifiers are typically Class A c. the RF amplifiers are typically Class C
b. the RF amplifiers are typically Class B d. the RF amplifiers are typically Class AB
ANS: C
8. With low-level AM:
a. the RF amplifiers must be Class A c. the RF amplifiers must be linear
b. the RF amplifiers must be Class B d. the RF amplifiers must be low-power
ANS: C
9. Power amplifiers must be linear for any signal that:
a. is complex c. has variable frequency
b. has variable amplitude d. all of the above
ANS: B
10. In high-level AM, "high-level" refers to:
a. the power level of the carrier c. the power level of the final RF amplifier
b. the power level of the modulation d. none of the above
ANS: D
ANS: A
22. An indirect FM modulator:
a. requires a varactor in the carrier oscillator
b. varies the phase of the carrier oscillator
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
ANS: B
23. AFC stands for:
a. Amplitude to Frequency Conversion c. Automatic Frequency Control
b. Automatic Frequency Centering d. Audio Frequency Control
ANS: C
24. Frequency multipliers are:
a. essentially balanced modulators c. essentially mixers
b. essentially Class C amplifiers d. none of the above
ANS: B
25. With mixing:
a. the carrier frequency can be raised
b. the carrier frequency can be lowered
c. the carrier frequency can be changed to any required value
d. the deviation is altered
ANS: C
COMPLETION
1. The accuracy and stability of a transmitter frequency is fixed by the
____________________ oscillator.
ANS: carrier
2. In the USA, the ____________________ sets requirements for accuracy and stability
of a transmitter's
frequency.
ANS: FCC
3. In Canada, _________________________ sets requirements for accuracy and stability
of a transmitter's
frequency.
ANS: Industry Canada
4. Frequency ____________________ is the ability of a transmitter to change frequency
without a lot of
retuning.
ANS: agility
5. Power output of SSB transmitters is rated by ____________________.
ANS: PEP
6. Reducing the dynamic range of a modulating signal is called ____________________.
ANS: compression
7. The opposite of compression is called ____________________.
ANS: expansion
8. ALC is a form of ____________________.
ANS: compression
9. High-level modulation allows the RF amplifiers to operate more
____________________.
ANS: efficiently
10. Low-level modulation requires the RF amplifiers to be ____________________.
ANS: linear
11. To isolate the oscillator from load changes, a ____________________ stage is used.
ANS: buffer
12. The peak collector voltage in a Class C RF amplifier is ____________________ than
the DC supply
voltage.
ANS: higher
13. Most practical transmitters are designed to operate into a ____________________ohm load.
ANS: 50
14. Transmitters built with transistor RF amplifiers often use a ____________________
network for
impedance matching.
ANS: T
15. Matching networks also act as filters to help reduce ____________________ levels.
ANS: harmonic
16. Severe impedance ____________________ can destroy a transmitter's output stage.
ANS: mismatch
17. Transceivers combine a transmitter and a ____________________ into one "box".
ANS: receiver
18. To allow a high modulation percentage, it is common to modulate the
____________________ as well as
the power amplifier in transistor modulators.
ANS: driver
19. Pulse-width modulation is the same as pulse-____________________ modulation.
ANS: duration
20. Switching amplifiers are sometimes called Class ____________________ amplifiers.
ANS: D
21. Because the sideband filter in a SSB transmitter is fixed, ____________________ is
used to operate at
more than one frequency.
ANS: mixing
22. To generate a SSB signal, it is common to start with a ____________________
signal.
ANS: DSBSC
23. Indirect FM is derived from ____________________ modulation.
ANS: phase
24. Using a varactor to generate FM is an example of a ____________________
modulator.
ANS: reactance
25. The modern way to make a stable VFO is to make it part of a
____________________ loop.
ANS: phase-locked
SHORT ANSWER
1. If a 50-MHz oscillator is accurate to within 0.001%, what is the range of possible
frequencies?
ANS:
50 MHz 500 hertz
2. What is the efficiency of a 100-watt mobile transmitter if it draws 11 amps from a
12-volt car battery?
ANS:
75.8%
3. The power amplifier of an AM transmitter draws 100 watts from the power supply
with no modulation.
Assuming high-level modulation, how much power does the modulation amplifier
deliver for 100%
modulation?
ANS:
50 watts
4. If the final RF amplifier of an AM transmitter is powered by 100 volts DC, what is
the maximum
collector voltage at 100% modulation?
ANS:
400 volts
5. Suppose the output of a balanced modulator has a center frequency of 10 MHz.
The audio modulation
frequency range is 1 kHz to 10 kHz. To pass the USB, what should be the center
frequency of an ideal
crystal filter?
ANS:
10.005 MHz
6. Suppose you have generated a USB SSB signal with a nominal carrier frequency
of 10 MHz. What is the
minimum frequency the SSB signal can be mixed with so that the output signal has
a nominal carrier
frequency of 50 MHz?
ANS:
40 MHz
7. Suppose you have an FM modulator that puts out 1 MHz carrier with a 100-hertz
deviation. If frequency
multiplication is used to increase the deviation to 400 hertz, what will be the new
carrier frequency?
ANS:
4 MHz
8. Suppose you had an FM signal with a carrier of 10 MHz and a deviation of 10 kHz.
Explain how you
could use it to get an FM signal at 100 MHz with a deviation of 20 kHz.
ANS:
First, put the signal through a frequency doubler to get a 20-MHz carrier with a 20kHz deviation. Then
mix that signal with an 80-MHz carrier to generate a 100-MHz carrier with 20-kHz
deviation.
Chapter 6: Receivers
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The two basic specifications for a receiver are:
a. the sensitivity and the selectivity
b. the number of converters and the number of IFs
c. the spurious response and the tracking
d. the signal and the noise
ANS: A
ANS: B
34. The important property of a SAW is:
a. it stabilizes the audio in a receiver c. it is a stable bandpass filter
b. it allows software radios to be built d. none of the above
ANS: C
35. The main function of the AGC is to:
a. keep the gain of the receiver constant
b. keep the gain of the IF amplifiers constant
c. keep the input to the detector at a constant amplitude
d. all of the above
ANS: C
36. DSP stands for:
a. Dynamic Signal Properties c. Distorted Signal Packet
b. Direct Signal Phase d. Digital Signal Processor
ANS: D
37. SINAD stands for:
a. Sinusoidal Amplitude Distortion
b. Signal and Noise Amplitude Distortion
c. Signal-plus-Noise-to-Noise Ratio
d. Signal-plus-Noise and Distortion-to-Noise and Distortion Ratio
ANS: D
38. TRF stands for:
a. Tuned Radio Frequency c. Transmitted Radio Frequency
b. Tracking Radio Frequency d. Tuned Receiver Function
ANS: A
COMPLETION
1. Almost all modern receivers use the _________________________ principle.
ANS: superheterodyne
2. The first radio receiver of any kind was built in the year ____________________.
ANS: 1887
3. When two tuned circuits ____________________ each other, it means that when the
frequency of one is
adjusted, the other changes with it.
ANS: track
4. The ____________________ effect causes the resistance of wire to increase with
frequency.
ANS: skin
5. The superhet was invented in the year ____________________.
ANS: 1918
6. In a receiver, the ____________________ refers to the input filter and RF stage.
ANS: front end
7. In a superhet, the output of the ____________________ goes to the IF amplifiers.
ANS: mixer
8. In a superhet, the ____________________ frequency is the difference between the
local oscillator
frequency and the received signal frequency.
ANS:
intermediate
IF
frequency range of the BFO if the maximum acceptable baseband shift is 100 hertz?
ANS:
1.5 MHz 100 hertz
6. The transformer of a double-tuned IF amplifier has a Q of 25 for both primary and
secondary. What value
of kc do you need to achieve optimal coupling?
ANS:
0.06
7. What value of transformer coupling would a double-tuned 10-MHz IF amplifier
with optimal coupling
need to get a bandwidth of 100 kHz?
ANS:
0.01
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The first digital code was the:
a. ASCII code c. Morse code
b. Baudot code d. none of the above
ANS: C
2. In digital transmission, signal degradation can be removed using:
a. an amplifier c. a regenerative repeater
b. a filter d. all of the above
ANS: C
3. TDM stands for:
a. Time-Division Multiplexing c. Ten-Digital Manchester
b. Time-Domain Multiplexing d. Ten Dual-Manchester
ANS: A
4. Hartley's Law is:
a. I = ktB c. C = B log2(1 + S/N)
b. C = 2B log2M d. SR = 2fmax
ANS: A
5. The Shannon-Hartley theorem is:
a. I = ktB c. C = B log2(1 + S/N)
b. C = 2B log2M d. SR = 2fmax
ANS: B
6. The Shannon Limit is given by:
a. I = ktB c. C = B log2(1 + S/N)
b. C = 2B log2M d. SR = 2fmax
ANS: C
7. The Nyquist Rate can be expressed as:
a. I = ktB c. C = B log2(1 + S/N)
b. C = 2B log2M d. SR = 2fmax
ANS: D
8. Natural Sampling does not use:
a. a sample-and-hold circuit c. a fixed sample rate
b. true binary numbers d. an analog-to-digital converter
ANS: A
9. Which is true about aliasing and foldover distortion?
a. They are two types of sampling error.
mu
23. In Europe, compression is done using the ____________________-law equation.
ANS: A
24. A ____________________ is an IC that converts a voice signal to PCM and vice
versa.
ANS: codec
25. In a PCM system, the samples of the analog signal are first converted to
____________________ bits
before being compressed to 8 bits.
ANS: 12
26. The number of bits per sample transmitted in delta modulation is
____________________.
ANS:
1
one
27. Delta modulation requires a ____________________ sampling rate than PCM for the
same quality of
reproduction.
ANS: higher
28. ____________________ noise is produced by a delta modulator if the analog signal
doesn't change.
ANS: Granular
29. In delta modulation, ____________________ overload can occur if the analog signal
changes too fast.
ANS: slope
30. The ____________________ size varies in adaptive delta modulation.
ANS: step
31. Adaptive delta modulation can transmit PCM-quality voice at about
____________________ the bit rate
of PCM.
ANS: half
32. Unipolar NRZ is not practical because most channels do not have
____________________ continuity.
ANS: DC
33. In AMI, binary ones are represented by a voltage that alternates in
____________________.
ANS: polarity
34. Long strings of ____________________ should be avoided in AMI.
ANS: zeros
35. Manchester code has a level ____________________ in the center of each bit
period.
ANS: transition
36. Manchester coding provides ____________________ information regardless of the
pattern of ones and
zeros.
ANS: timing
ANS:
56 kbps
8. Assuming maximum input and output voltages of 1 volt, what is the output
voltage of a -law compressor
if the input voltage is 0.388 volt?
ANS:
0.833 volt
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. DTMF stands for:
a. Digital Telephony Multiple Frequency c. Dual-Tone Multifrequency
b. Dial Tone Master Frequency d. Digital Trunk Master Frequency
ANS: C
2. PSTN stands for:
a. Public Switched Telephone Network c. Primary Service Telephone Network
b. Private Switched Telephone Network d. Primary Service Telephone Numbers
ANS: A
3. POTS stands for:
a. Private Office Telephone System c. Primary Operational Test System
b. Primary Office Telephone Service d. Plain Old Telephone Service
ANS: D
4. LATA stands for:
a. Local Access and Transport Area c. Local Area Telephone Access
b. Local Access Telephone Area d. Local Area Transport Access
ANS: A
5. A LATA is a:
a. a local calling area c. a way of accessing a tandem office
b. a type of digital local network d. a way of accessing a central office
ANS: A
6. Central offices are connected by:
a. local loops c. both a and b
b. trunk lines d. none of the above
ANS: B
7. Local loops terminate at:
a. a tandem office c. a central office
b. a toll station d. an interexchange office
ANS: C
8. Call blocking:
a. cannot occur in the public telephone network
b. occurs on the local loop when there is an electrical power failure
c. occurs only on long-distance cables
d. occurs when the central office capacity is exceeded
ANS: D
9. In telephony, POP stands for:
a. Post Office Protocol c. Power-On Protocol
b. Point Of Presence d. none of the above
ANS: B
10. The cable used for local loops is mainly:
a. twisted-pair copper wire c. coaxial cable
a. 6 c. 24
b. 12 d. 60
ANS: B
23. Basic FDM groups can be combined into:
a. supergroups c. jumbogroups
b. mastergroups d. all of the above
ANS: D
24. In telephone system FDM, voice is put on a carrier using:
a. SSB c. PDM
b. DSBSC d. PCM
ANS: A
25. PABX stands for:
a. Power Amplification Before Transmission
b. Private Automatic Branch Exchange
c. Public Automated Branch Exchange
d. Public Access Branch Exchange
ANS: B
26. SLIC stands for:
a. Single-Line Interface Circuit c. Subscriber Line Interface Card
b. Standard Line Interface Card d. Standard Local Interface Circuit
ANS: C
27. In DS-1, bits are "robbed" in order to:
a. provide synchronization c. cancel echoes
b. carry signaling d. check for errors
ANS: B
28. "Bit-stuffing" is more formally called:
a. compensation c. justification
b. rectification d. frame alignment
ANS: C
29. ISDN stands for:
a. Integrated Services Digital Network c. Integrated Services Data Network
b. Information Services Digital Network d. Information Systems Digital Network
ANS: A
30. Basic ISDN has not been widely adopted because:
a. it took to long to develop
b. it is too slow
c. it has been surpassed by newer technologies
d. all of the above
ANS: D
31. ADSL stands for:
a. All-Digital Subscriber Line c. Allocated Digital Service Line
b. Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line d. Access to Data Services Line
ANS: B
32. Compared to ISDN, internet access using ADSL is typically:
a. much faster c. much more expensive
b. about the same speed d. none of the above
ANS: A
COMPLETION
1. A ____________________ is a local calling area.
ANS: LATA
1. For a certain telephone, the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook. If
the loop current is 40
mA, what is the DC resistance of the local loop?
ANS:
1000 ohms
2. For a certain telephone, the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook. If
the loop current is 40
mA, what is the DC resistance of the telephone?
ANS:
200 ohms
3. Which two DTMF tones correspond to the digit "1"? (Use the table in the text.)
ANS:
697 Hz and 1209 Hz
4. Calculate the dB of VNL required for a channel with a 3 ms delay.
ANS:
1 dB
5. If a telephone voice signal has a level of 0 dBm, what is its level in dBrn?
ANS:
90 dBrn
6. A telephone test-tone has a level of 80 dBrn at a point where the level is +5dB
TLP. If C-weighting
produces a 10-dB loss, what would the signal level be in dBrnc0?
ANS:
65 dBrnc TLP
16. BISYNC:
a. is an IBM product c. requires the use of DLE
b. is a character-oriented protocol d. all of the above
ANS: D
17. HDLC:
a. is an IBM product c. is identical to SDLC
b. is a bit-oriented protocol d. all of the above
ANS: B
18. The use of flags in SDLC requires:
a. "bit-stuffing" c. FEC
b. different flags at either end of a frame d. ARQ
ANS: A
19. The initials ARQ are used to designate:
a. automatic request for resynchronization c. automatic receiver queue
b. automatic request for retransmission d. automatic request for queue
ANS: B
20. ARQ is used to:
a. correct bit errors c. put data into a temporary buffer
b. correct synchronization problems d. none of the above
ANS: A
21. FEC stands for:
a. Fixed Error Control c. Forward Error Correction
b. Forward Error Control d. False Error Condition
ANS: C
22. VRC is another name for:
a. FEC c. LRC
b. ARQ d. parity
ANS: D
23. CRC stands for:
a. Control Receiver Code c. Cyclic Redundancy Check
b. Correct Received Character d. Cycle Repeat Character
ANS: C
24. Huffman codes:
a. allow errors to be detected but not corrected
b. allow errors to be detected and corrected
c. allow alphanumeric data to be corrected
d. allow alphanumeric data to be compressed
ANS: D
25. Run-length encoding is used to:
a. encrypt data c. correct data
b. compress data d. none of the above
ANS: B
26. Public-key encryption:
a. allows the use of digital signatures c. avoids the "password problem"
b. is used to convey symmetric keys d. all of the above
ANS: D
27. SDLC stands for:
a. Synchronous Data Link Control c. Synchronous Data Link Character
b. Synchronous Data Line Control d. Synchronous Data Line Character
ANS: A
ANS: flag
16. The first eight bits of an SDLC frame are ____________________.
ANS: 01111110
17. BCC stands for ____________________ check character.
ANS: block
18. DLE stands for data link ____________________.
ANS: escape
19. HDLC uses bit-____________________ to prevent accidental flags.
ANS: stuffing
20. ____________________ errors cause many consecutive bits to be bad.
ANS: Burst
21. FEC stands for ____________________ error correction.
ANS: forward
22. An ____________________ scheme corrects errors by requiring the retransmission
of bad blocks.
ANS: ARQ
23. Parity fails when an ____________________ number of bits are in error.
ANS: even
24. CRC codes are particularly good at detecting ____________________ errors.
ANS: burst
25. Huffman coding and run-length encoding are examples of data
____________________.
ANS: compression
26. A ____________________ is an encoding scheme that is not public in order to
protect data.
ANS: cipher
27. A ____________________ is often used to generate an encryption key because it is
easier to remember.
ANS: password
28. If the key is ____________________ enough, private-key encryption can be quite
secure.
ANS: long
29. Messages cannot be ____________________ using a public key.
ANS: decrypted
30. Because it is ____________________-intensive, public-key encryption can be slow.
ANS: computation
SHORT ANSWER
1. How many different characters could be encoded using a six-bit code?
ANS:
64
2. What is the numerical difference between ASCII 'a' and ASCII 'A' if you treat them
as hexadecimal (hex)
numbers?
ANS:
20 hex (32 decimal)
3. The ASCII codes for the characters '0' through '9' are what hex numbers?
ANS:
30H to 39H
4. If an asynchronous frame is used to send ASCII characters in the form of bytes (8
bits), what is the
shortest time it could take to send 1000 characters if each bit in a frame is 1 msec
long?
ANS:
10 seconds
5. Suppose an asynchronous frame holds 8 bits of data, a parity bit, and two stop
bits (it could happen).
Calculate the efficiency of the communication system.
ANS:
66.7%
6. Suppose a synchronous frame has 16 bits of non-data in the front and a 16-bit
BCC at the end. The frame
carries 1024 bytes of actual data. Calculate the efficiency of the communication
system.
ANS:
97.0%
ANS: Contention
9. A ____________________ occurs when two nodes transmit simultaneously on the
same baseband cable.
ANS: collision
10. In CSMA/CD networks, all collisions must be ____________________.
ANS: detected
11. Carrier-Sense means that a node "listens" for the cable to be
____________________ before using it.
ANS:
quiet
free
unused
available
12. A "____________________" cable links clusters of computers together.
ANS: backbone
13. 100BaseT cables can reliably carry up to ____________________ bits per second.
ANS: 100 mega
14. In CSMA/CD, packets must have a ____________________ length to ensure that
collisions are detected.
ANS: minimum
15. In CSMA/CD, the ____________________ of a cable is limited to ensure that
collisions are detected.
ANS: length
16. A unique numerical address is provided to a node by its ____________________.
ANS: NIC
17. A 100BaseTX cable is a ____________________ cable.
ANS: fiber-optic
18. Hubs can be ____________________ to form, in effect, one big hub.
ANS: stacked
19. A switch looks at the ____________________ of each incoming packet.
ANS: address
20. The effect of a switch is to greatly reduce ____________________.
ANS: contention
SHORT ANSWER
1. Explain how a network can be a physical bus but a logical ring.
ANS:
A token-passing network sends the token from node to node in a prescribed order.
So it doesn't matter
how the physical connection is made. It still works like a token-passing ring.
2. What is the key difference between a hub and a switch?
ANS:
A hub sends incoming packets out to all other ports on the hub. A switch sends a
packet to a specific port
based on the address in the packet.
3. What is the advantage of a CSMA/CD network over a basic star network?
ANS:
If the central computer in a star network fails, the entire network is inoperative. If a
node fails in a
CSMA/CD network, it can be disconnected and the network still functions.
4. Why do CSMA/CD packets have a minimum size limit?
ANS:
If a packet is too short, nodes at either end of a cable could get on, send a packet,
and get off before the
packets travel far enough to collide. The collision would not be detected.
5. What is a NIC address, and why is it unique?
ANS:
The address is a long binary number "burned" into a NIC's memory chip at the
factory. Each factory uses
a different sequence of numbers, so the chances of two NICs on the same network
having the same
address is extremely small.
10. A bridge:
a. separates a network into "collision domains"
b. looks at the address of each packet
c. operate at the data-link level
d. all of the above
ANS: D
11. IP stands for:
a. Internet Process c. Interconnect Protocol
b. Internet Protocol d. Interconnect Procedure
ANS: B
12. TCP stands for:
a. Transmission Control Process c. Transfer Connection Protocol
b. Transmission Control Protocol d. none of the above
ANS: B
13. Together, TCP/IP consists of:
a. 5 layers c. an application and a process
b. 7 layers d. datagrams
ANS: A
14. IP is a:
a. connection-oriented protocol c. connectionless protocol
b. virtual circuit d. non-robust protocol
ANS: C
15. The "lifetime" of a packet in an IP network:
a. is essentially forever
b. depends on elapsed time since transmission
c. depends on number of "hops" between nodes
d. is approximately 200 milliseconds
ANS: C
16. UDP stands for:
a. User Datagram Protocol c. User Data Packet
b. User Data Protocol d. Universal Data Packet
ANS: A
17. HTTP stands for:
a. High-speed Transmission Test Procedure
b. High-Level Transfer Test Procedure
c. Hypertext Transmission and Transport Procedure
d. Hypertext Transport Protocol
ANS: D
18. HTTP allows the use of:
a. dumb terminals c. browsers
b. file transport d. none of the above
ANS: C
19. HTML stands for:
a. Hypertext Markup Language c. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Layer
b. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Level d. High-speed Transfer-Mode Language
ANS: A
20. HTML allows:
a. telneting c. web page layout
b. high-speed file transfer d. all of the above
ANS: C
ANS:
If they didn't, then the number of "lost" packets traveling around the network would
continuously
increase. At some point, there would be no bandwidth left to carry real traffic.
ANS: D
12. For QAM, the two dimensions of its symbol space are:
a. amplitude and frequency c. frequency and phase angle
b. amplitude and phase angle d. I-bits and Q-bits
ANS: B
13. The specs of the old Bell type 103 modem were:
a. 300 bps, full-duplex, FSK c. 1200 bps, full-duplex, FSK
b. 600 bps, full-duplex, FSK d. 1200 bps, half-duplex, FSK
ANS: A
14. ITU is an abbreviation for:
a. International Telephony Unit c. International Telecommunications Union
b. International Telephony Union d. International Telecommunications Units
ANS: C
15. The ITU is under the auspices of:
a. CCITT c. IEEE
b. the U.N. d. ANSI
ANS: B
16. High-speed modems equalize the line to compensate for:
a. noise and interference
b. uneven phase and frequency response
c. low SNR
d. inconsistent bit rates at either end of channel
ANS: B
17. The bits sent to allow equalization are called:
a. Gaussian bits c. a training sequence
b. random bits d. a random sequence
ANS: C
18. The V.90 standard is issued by:
a. the EIA c. the ITU
b. the TIA d. the ISO
ANS: C
19. MNP2, MNP3, MNP4, and MNP10 are all:
a. data-compression schemes c. both a and b
b. error-correction protocols d. none of the above
ANS: B
20. MNP5 and V.42 bis are both:
a. data-compression schemes c. both a and b
b. error-correction protocols d. none of the above
ANS: A
21. In RS-232, flow control is done using:
a. RTS/CTS handshake c. both a and b
b. XON/XOFF characters d. none of the above
ANS: C
22. The official name for RS-232C is:
a. RS-232C c. ISO-232C/D
b. EIA-232D d. ANSI-232C
ANS: B
23. In RS-232, a modem would be:
a. a DTR c. a DCE
b. a DSR d. a DTE
ANS: C
24. In RS-232, a personal computer would be:
a. a DTR c. a DCE
b. a DSR d. a DTE
ANS: D
25. On a DB-9 RS-232 connector, signal ground is pin:
a. 1 c. 5
b. 3 d. 7
ANS: C
26. On a DB-25 RS-232 connector, signal ground is pin:
a. 1 c. 5
b. 3 d. 7
ANS: D
27. The minimum lines required for RS-232 are:
a. TD and RD c. TD, RD, DSR, and signal ground
b. TD, RD, and signal ground d. TD, RD, RTS, CTS, and signal ground
ANS: B
28. Hardware flow control uses:
a. XON and XOFF c. RTS and CTS
b. TD and RD d. DSR and DCD
ANS: C
29. Software flow control uses:
a. XON and XOFF c. RTS and CTS
b. TD and RD d. DSR and DCD
ANS: A
30. Which voltage represents a binary zero on an RS-232 data pin:
a. +15 volts c. +9 volts
b. +12 volts d. all of the above
ANS: D
31. DSL stands for:
a. Data Signal Line c. Digital Subscriber Line
b. Digital Signal Line d. Double-Speed Loop
ANS: C
32. ADSL stands for:
a. Asynchronous DSL c. Analog DSL
b. Asymmetrical DSL d. All DSL
ANS: B
33. In a CATV system, HFC stands for:
a. Head Frequency Control c. Hybrid Fiber-Coax
b. Hybrid Frequency Control d. Hybrid Fiber Control
ANS: C
34. In a CATV system, CMTS stands for:
a. Cable Modem Terminal Server c. Cable Modem Terminal System
b. Cable Modem Transmission System d. Cable Modem Transmission Server
ANS: A
35. A "splitter" at the subscriber end is not required for:
a. Any DSL scheme c. ADSL Lite
b. ADSL d. none of the above
ANS: C
COMPLETION
19. A ____________________ modem cable is used to connect two DTEs via their serial
ports.
ANS: null
20. ADSL stands for ____________________ DSL.
ANS: Asymmetrical
21. A typical CATV system is organized as a ____________________ network.
ANS: tree
22. In a CATV system using cable modems, a ____________________ is used to put
several channels of data
onto a fiber-optic backbone.
ANS: CMTS
23. ____________________ is the process of synchronizing transmitted data from cable
modems to a CMTS.
ANS: Ranging
24. ____________________ systems send high-speed data over a POTS line while
sharing the line with dialup
service.
ANS: ADSL
25. The ____________________ version of ADSL does not require a splitter at the
subscriber end.
ANS: lite
26. ____________________ modulation divides the line bandwidth into many narrow
bands called tones or
bins for ADSL.
ANS: DMT
27. A DSLAM is a DSL Access ____________________.
ANS: Multiplexer
SHORT ANSWER
1. Calculate the bits per second capacity of a system sending 1000 symbols per
second with 16 possible
states per symbol.
ANS:
4000
2. How many points will be on the constellation diagram of a QAM system using 8
phase angles and 2
amplitude levels?
ANS:
16
3. A CATV system has 100 cable-modem customers sharing a single channel with a
data rate of 36 Mbps. If
half the modems are active at any given time, what bit rate can a customer expect?
ANS:
720 kbps
4. A DMT system uses 4.3-kHz bins on a 1-MHz cable. Approximately how many bins
are there?
ANS:
230
5. Assuming a maximum symbol rate of 400 per second, how many possible states
must a symbol have to
achieve a data rate of 1200 bps?
ANS:
8
ANS: D
12. Spread-spectrum can be done by using:
a. computer-controlled frequency reuse c. direct-sequence method
b. frequency-hopping d. all of the above
ANS: D
13. The term "chip rate" is used in describing:
a. computer-controlled frequency reuse c. direct-sequence method
b. frequency-hopping d. all of the above
ANS: C
14. For a given data rate, direct-sequence systems, compared to standard RF
systems, use:
a. about the same bandwidth c. much less bandwidth
b. much more bandwidth d. approximately double the bandwidth
ANS: B
15. "Processing gain" is another term for:
a. RF gain c. spreading gain
b. computer speed d. improved signal-to-noise ratio
ANS: C
16. To calculate processing gain, divide the transmitted RF bandwidth by:
a. the digital data bit rate c. the S/N ratio
b. bandwidth of original baseband d. the chip size
ANS: B
17. A receiver for frequency-hopping spread-spectrum would be:
a. a narrowband receiver c. a direct-conversion receiver
b. a wideband receiver d. a CDMA receiver
ANS: A
18. A receiver for direct-sequence spread-spectrum would be:
a. a narrowband receiver c. a direct-conversion receiver
b. a wideband receiver d. a "chip-rate" receiver
ANS: B
19. CDMA:
a. cannot be used with frequency-hopping spread-spectrum
b. cannot be used with direct-sequence spread-spectrum
c. cannot be used on an RF channel
d. allows many transmitters to use a band simultaneously
ANS: D
20. For optimal performance, CDMA requires the use of:
a. orthogonal PN sequences c. true-random PN sequences
b. non-orthogonal PN sequences d. none of the above
ANS: A
COMPLETION
1. Multiplexing allows many signals to ____________________ a channel.
ANS: share
2. Three methods of multiple access are FDMA, TDMA, and ____________________.
ANS: CDMA
3. In FDM, each signal uses part of the bandwidth ____________________ of the time.
ANS: all
4. In TDM, each signal uses all of the bandwidth ____________________ of the time.
ANS: part
1. What does Hartley's Law tell us about the relationship between time and
bandwidth for digital
transmission?
ANS:
The more bandwidth, the less time it takes to send a given amount of information.
So the more bandwidth
available, the higher the possible bit rate.
2. How many signals could fit into 1 MHz of bandwidth if each signal required 100
kHz of bandwidth and
the separation between adjacent channels was 10 kHz?
ANS:
9
3. Why is it difficult to jam a spread-spectrum signal?
ANS:
Jamming requires an interference signal of sufficient power in the same part of the
spectrum the
information signal occupies. Because a spread-spectrum signal is, by definition,
spread out over a very
wide bandwidth, jamming can interfere with only a small fraction of the total signal.
4. Why is it difficult to eavesdrop on a spread-spectrum signal?
ANS:
In a spread-spectrum transmission, the signal power at any given frequency in its
band is so low that it is
virtually indistinguishable from noise. An eavesdropper would not know a signal was
being sent. And
without knowing the exact sequence being used, it is virtually impossible to "despread" the signal.
5. Why is autocorrelation used to receive direct-sequence spread-spectrum signals?
ANS:
Autocorrelation allows a signal to be "pulled out of" the noise even when the signalto-noise ratio is less
than one, as it is in spread-spectrum.
6. What is meant by "orthogonal sequences" in CDMA?
ANS:
During transmission, the PN sequences determine which parts of the available
bandwidth the spreadspectrum
signal will occupy. Assume you have two PN sequences: PN1 and PN2. At some point
in time,
suppose PN1 would cause a transmission to occupy frequencies f11, f12, f13, and so
forth. Now suppose
PN2 would cause the transmission to occupy frequencies f21, f22, f23, and so forth.
If the two sets of
frequencies, (f11, f12, f13, ...) and (f21, f22, f23, ...), have no frequencies in
common, then the two PN
sequences are said to be orthogonal.
ANS: opposite
13. The apparently stationary pattern of waves on a mismatched cable is called a
____________________
wave.
ANS: standing
14. SWR stands for ____________________-wave ratio.
ANS: standing
15. The ideal value for SWR is ____________________.
ANS: one
16. Transmission line impedances can be found using a ____________________ chart.
ANS: Smith
17. Short transmission-line sections called ____________________ can be used as
capacitors or inductors.
ANS: stubs
18. Any cable that radiates energy can also ____________________ energy.
ANS: absorb
19. A ____________________-dB loss in a cable means only half the power sent reaches
the load.
ANS: 3
20. It is often best to measure SWR at the ____________________ end of a cable.
ANS: load
21. Besides heat from I2R, the power a cable can carry is limited by the
____________________ voltage of
its dielectric.
ANS: breakdown
22. To normalize an impedance on a Smith Chart, you divide it by
____________________.
ANS: Z0
23. The ____________________ of a Smith Chart always represents the characteristic
impedance.
ANS: center
24. A ____________________ wavelength transmission line can be used a transformer.
ANS: one-quarter
25. A slotted line is used to make measurements in the ____________________ domain.
ANS: frequency
SHORT ANSWER
1. A transmission line has 2.5 pF of capacitance per foot and 100 nH of inductance
per foot. Calculate its
characteristic impedance.
ANS:
Z0 = 200 ohms
2. Two wires with air as a dielectric are one inch apart. The diameter of the wire is .
04 inch. Calculate,
approximately, its characteristic impedance.
ANS:
386 ohms
3. If a coaxial cable uses plastic insulation with a dielectric constant r = 2.6 , what
is the velocity factor for
the cable?
ANS:
0.62
4. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0.8, how long would it take a signal to travel
3000 kilometers along the
cable?
ANS:
12.5 ms
5. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0.8, what length of cable is required for a 90
phase shift at 100 MHz?
ANS:
0.6 meters
6. A cable has a VSWR of 10. If the minimum voltage along the cable is 20 volts,
what is the maximum
voltage along the cable?
ANS:
200 volts
7. A lossless line has a characteristic impedance of 50 ohms, but is terminated with
a 75-ohm resistive load.
What SWR do you expect to measure?
ANS:
1.5
8. If a cable has an SWR of 1.5, what will be the absolute value of its voltage
coefficient of reflection?
ANS:
0.2
9. A generator matched to a line with a voltage coefficient of reflection equal to 0.2
transmits 100 watts into
the line. How much power is actually absorbed by the load?
ANS:
96 watts
10. Using a Smith Chart to analyze a 50-ohm cable, what would be the normalized
value of an impedance
equal to 200 + j50 ohms?
ANS:
4 + j1
ANS: circular
15. An antenna is said to have ____________________ in a certain direction if it
radiates more power in that
direction than in other directions.
ANS: gain
16. The watts per square meter of a radio wave ____________________ as the wavefront moves through
space.
ANS: decrease
17. Reflection of plane-waves from a smooth surface is called ____________________
reflection.
ANS: specular
18. ____________________ is the "bending" of radio waves as they travel across the
boundary between two
different dielectrics.
ANS: Refraction
19. The process of ____________________ makes radio waves appear to "bend around
a corner".
ANS: diffraction
20. ____________________ waves travel from transmitter to receiver in a "line-of-sight"
fashion.
ANS: Space
21. ____________________ waves are vertically polarized radio waves that travel along
the earth's surface.
ANS: Ground
22. ____________________ waves are radio waves that "bounce off" the ionosphere
due to refraction.
ANS: Sky
23. The ____________________ zone is a region where sky waves cannot be received.
ANS: skip
24. "Ghosts" on a TV screen are an example of ____________________ distortion.
ANS: multipath
25. The "fast fading" seen in mobile communications is caused by
____________________ waves interfering
with direct waves.
ANS: reflected
26. Cell phones typically operate at a ____________________ power level.
ANS: low
27. The ____________________ of frequencies allows many cell-phone users to share a
geographical area.
ANS: reuse
28. ____________________ is when a cell-site uses three directional antennas, each
covering a third of the
cell area, to reduce interference.
ANS: Sectoring
29. The use of ____________________ chips makes cell phones a practical technology.
ANS: microprocessor
SHORT ANSWER
1. A certain dielectric has permittivity of 6.3 1010 F/m and the same permeability
as free space. What is
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The real part of an antenna's input impedance is due to:
a. the radiated signal c. the SWR
b. the reflected signal d. all of the above
ANS: A
2. A half-wave dipole is sometimes called:
a. a Marconi antenna c. a Yagi antenna
b. a Hertz antenna d. none of the above
ANS: B
3. The end-to-end length of a half-wave dipole antenna is actually:
a. one wavelength c. slightly longer than a half-wavelength
b. one half-wavelength d. slightly shorter than a half-wavelength
ANS: D
4. The radiation of energy from an antenna can be seen in the:
a. standing wave pattern around the antenna c. radiation resistance of the antenna
b. SWR along the feed cable d. I2R loss of the antenna
ANS: C
5. Measured on the ground, the field strength of a horizontally polarized half-wave
dipole antenna is
strongest:
ANS: D
17. As the length of a "long-wire" antenna is increased:
a. the number of lobes increases c. efficiency decreases
b. the number of nodes decreases d. none of the above
ANS: A
18. Arrays can be:
a. phased c. parasitic
b. driven d. all of the above
ANS: D
19. An array with one driven element, a reflector, and one or more directors is
called a:
a. Marconi c. Log-Periodic Dipole
b. Yagi d. stacked array
ANS: B
20. LPDA stands for:
a. Low-Power Dipole Array c. Log-Periodic Dipole Array
b. Low-Power Directed Array d. Log Power Dipole Array
ANS: C
21. The radiated beam from a parabolic "dish" transmitting antenna is:
a. collimated c. dispersed
b. phased d. none of the above
ANS: A
22. The energy picked up by a parabolic antenna is concentrated at the:
a. center c. focus
b. edges d. horn
ANS: C
23. Antennas are often tested in:
a. an echo chamber c. a vacuum chamber
b. an anechoic chamber d. an RF reflective chamber
ANS: B
24. Field strength at a distance from an antenna is measured with:
a. a slotted line c. an EIRP meter
b. a dipole d. a field-strength meter
ANS: D
COMPLETION
1. An antenna is the interface between the transmission line and
____________________.
ANS: space
2. Hertz antenna is another name for a half-wave ____________________.
ANS: dipole
3. The length of a half-wave dipole is about ____________________ % of a half-wave in
free space.
ANS: 95
4. The ____________________ resistance is the portion of an antenna's input
impedance due to transmitted
radio waves leaving the antenna.
ANS: radiation
5. Input impedance at the center feed point of a resonant half-wave dipole is about
____________________
ANS: 70
6. Input impedance at the center feed point of a resonant folded dipole is about
____________________
ANS: 280 300
7. The vertical angle of radiation is called the angle of ____________________.
ANS: elevation
8. Antenna radiation patterns are typically drawn on graphs with
____________________ coordinates.
ANS: polar
9. As compared to a ____________________ source, a half-wave dipole has a gain of
about 2 dBi.
ANS:
point
isotropic
10. Antenna gain measured in ____________________ is with reference to a half-wave
dipole.
ANS: dBd
11. ____________________ is the same as the gain for a lossless antenna.
ANS: Directivity
12. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole is ____________________ dB.
ANS: 0
13. The ____________________ of a directional antenna is the angle between its halfpower points.
ANS: beamwidth
14. ERP stands for ____________________ radiated power.
ANS: effective
15. ERP is the power input to the antenna multiplied by the antenna's
____________________.
ANS: gain
16. A ____________________ is required to connect a coaxial cable to a center-fed
dipole antenna.
ANS: balun
17. A horizontally mounted dipole will radiate waves with ____________________
polarization.
ANS: horizontal
18. A folded dipole has ____________________ bandwidth than a standard dipole.
ANS:
wider
greater
more
19. A monopole antenna is typically mounted in the ____________________ direction.
ANS: vertical
20. The length of a typical monopole antenna is ____________________ wavelength.
ANS:
one-quarter
1/4
21. A monopole antenna mounted high on a tower typically uses a
____________________ plane.
ANS: ground
22. A vertical antenna has an _________________________ radiation pattern for groundbased receivers.
ANS: omnidirectional
23. The number of driven elements in a Yagi antenna is typically
____________________.
ANS: one
24. The reflector on a Yagi antenna is called a ____________________ element.
ANS: parasitic
25. An LPDA is a ____________________ dipole array.
ANS: log-periodic
26. If an LPDA had five elements, the number of driven elements it had would be
____________________.
ANS: five
27. All the waves that hit the surface of a parabolic antenna merge at the
____________________.
ANS: focus
28. A ____________________ beam has all its individual rays parallel to each other.
ANS: collimated
29. A microwave ____________________ antenna is essentially an extension of a
waveguide.
ANS: horn
30. An ____________________ chamber is often used to test microwave antennas.
ANS: anechoic
SHORT ANSWER
1. Calculate the physical length of a half-wave dipole for use at 300 MHz.
ANS:
475 millimeters
2. How much power will a 95% efficient antenna radiate if driven with 100 watts?
ANS:
95 watts
3. If an antenna has 10.14 dB of gain compared to a point source, how much gain
does it have compared to a
half-wave dipole?
ANS:
8 dB
4. What is the ERP of an antenna with 10 dBd of gain and driven by one watt?
ANS:
10 watts
5. A resonant antenna has an input impedance of 100 ohms and is driven by 100
watts. What is the RMS
current in the antenna?
ANS:
1 ampere
6. A resonant antenna has an input impedance of 100 ohms and is driven by 100
watts. What is the RMS
voltage at the feed-point of the antenna?
ANS:
100 volts
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The microwave frequency range is considered to start at:
a. 100 MHz c. 10 GHz
b. 1 GHz d. 100 GHz
ANS: B
2. The UHF range is:
a. below the microwave range c. above the microwave range
b. inside the microwave range d. same as the microwave range
ANS: A
3. The dominant mode of a waveguide depends on:
a. the shape of the waveguide c. the point of signal injection
b. the power level of the signal d. none of the above
ANS: A
4. The dominant mode of a rectangular waveguide is:
a. TE 01 c. TE 10
b. TM 01 d. TM10
ANS: C
5. The dominant mode of a circular waveguide is:
a. TE 01 c. TE 11
b. TM 01 d. TM11
ANS: C
6. Circular waveguides use TM 01 mode because:
a. it is dominant c. it is the only mode possible
b. of its circular symmetry d. it is more efficient
ANS: B
7. The characteristic impedance of a waveguide:
a. is fixed
b. depends on the frequency it carries
c. depends on the longer dimension of its cross section
d. both b and c
ANS: D
8. Power can be coupled into or out of a waveguide:
a. with a magnetic field probe c. through a hole in the waveguide
b. with an electric field probe d. all of the above
ANS: D
9. Directional couplers for waveguides are characterized by:
a. their insertion loss c. their directivity
b. their coupling specification d. all of the above
ANS: D
10. Striplines and microstrips are used to:
a. couple sections of waveguide c. couple components on a circuit board
b. couple waveguides to antennas d. none of the above
ANS: C
11. A resonant cavity is a type of:
a. tuned circuit c. antenna
b. defect in a waveguide d. none of the above
ANS: A
12. A TEE connector used with waveguides is:
a. an H-plane TEE c. a "magic" TEE
b. an E-plane TEE d. all of the above
ANS: D
13. TWT stands for:
a. Transverse Wave Transmission c. Traveling-Wave Tube
b. Transverse-Wave Tube d. Traveling-Wave Transmission
ANS: C
14. An "isolator" is a device that:
a. isolates frequencies in a waveguide
b. allows a signal to pass in one direction only
c. separates signals among various ports
d. prevents microwaves from leaking out of a waveguide
ANS: B
15. A "circulator" is a device that:
a. rotates signal polarity in a waveguide
b. allows a signal to pass in one direction only
c. separates signals among various ports
d. prevents microwaves from being "trapped" in a waveguide
ANS: C
16. GaAs stands for:
a. gallium arsenide c. gallium astenite
b. gallium assembly d. none of the above
ANS: A
17. IMPATT stands for:
a. impact avalanche and transit time c. implied power at transmission terminal
b. induced mobility at transmission time d. none of the above
ANS: A
18. YIG stands for:
a. Yttrium-Iron-Gallium c. Yttrium-Iron-Garnet
b. Yttrium-Iron-Germanium d. none of the above
ANS: C
19. A YIG can be tuned by applying:
a. an electric field c. mechanical pressure
b. a magnetic field d. an "exciter" signal
ANS: B
20. The device commonly used in microwave ovens is the:
a. TWT c. magnetron
b. klystron d. YIG
ANS: C
21. The device commonly used in satellite communications is the:
a. TWT c. magnetron
b. klystron d. YIG
ANS: A
22. The device commonly used in UHF transmitters is the:
a. TWT c. magnetron
b. klystron d. YIG
ANS: B
23. A microwave phased array is often made using:
a. slots c. Fresnel lenses
b. Yagis d. all of the above
ANS: A
24. RADAR stands for:
6. In digital microwave systems, the energy per bit per ____________________ is a key
parameter.
ANS: noise density
7. Multipath reception can cause 20 dB or more of ____________________.
ANS: fading
8. Two antennas stacked one above the other on a tower is an example of
____________________ diversity
in a microwave system.
ANS: space
9. The ability to use two frequencies simultaneously is an example of
____________________.
ANS: diversity
10. Microwave systems generally use less than ____________________ watts of power.
ANS: ten
11. ____________________ are necessary in a microwave system that extends beyond
the line-of-sight
distance.
ANS: Repeaters
12. Analog microwave systems use both IF and ____________________ repeaters.
ANS: baseband
13. Microwave digital radio techniques reduce the accumulation of
____________________ as a signal goes
from link to link.
ANS: noise
14. MMDS is unidirectional, but ____________________ is bidirectional.
ANS: LMDS
SHORT ANSWER
1. If the line-of-sight distance for an optical beam is 12 km, what would it be,
approximately, for a
microwave beam?
ANS:
16 km
2. A line-of-sight microwave link operating at 4 GHz has a separation of 40 km
between antennas. An
obstacle in the path is located midway between the two antennas. By how much
must the beam clear the
obstacle?
ANS:
16.4 meters
3. A transmitter and receiver operating at 1 GHz are separated by 10 km. How
many dBm of power gets to
the receiver if the transmitter puts out 1 Watt, and both the sending and receiving
antennas have a gain of
20 dBi?
ANS:
42.4 dBm
4. A microwave system has a feed-line loss of 2 dB and sees a sky temperature of
150 K. Calculate the noise
temperature of the antenna/feed-line system referenced to the receiver input.
ANS:
201 K
5. A microwave receiver receives 60 dBm of signal. The noise power is 100 dBm.
What is the carrier-tonoise
power ratio?
ANS:
40 dB
ANS: B
11. The blanking level corresponds to a luminance of:
a. white c. whiter than white
b. black d. blacker than black
ANS: B
12. The sync pulse level corresponds to a luminance of:
a. white c. whiter than white
b. black d. blacker than black
ANS: D
13. The vertical blanking pulse is serrated to:
a. maintain horizontal sync c. equalize the DC level
b. maintain vertical sync d. all of the above
ANS: A
14. When measured in lines, horizontal resolution:
a. is greater than vertical resolution
b. is about the same as vertical resolution
c. is less than vertical resolution
d. horizontal resolution is not measured in lines
ANS: B
15. The smallest picture element is called a:
a. dot c. pixel
b. pic d. none of the above
ANS: C
16. In a color TV receiver, Y I Q refers to:
a. luminance signal, in-phase color component, quadrature phase color component
b. composite color signal, in-phase color component, quadrature phase color
component
c. composite video signal, in-phase video component, quadrature video color
component
d. a method of demodulating stereo sound
ANS: A
17. Compared to the luminance signal, the horizontal resolution for color is:
a. much greater c. much less
b. about the same d. resolution does not apply to color
ANS: C
18. The modulation used for the video signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver
is:
a. SSB c. suppressed-carrier AM
b. vestigial sideband AM d. FM
ANS: B
19. The modulation used for the audio signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver
is:
a. SSB c. suppressed-carrier AM
b. vestigial sideband AM d. FM
ANS: D
20. The modulation used for the chroma signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver
is:
a. SSB c. suppressed-carrier AM
b. vestigial sideband AM d. FM
ANS: C
chrominance
9. The blanking period before the sync pulse is called the front ____________________.
ANS: porch
10. Odd and even fields are identified by the ____________________ of the vertical
sync pulse.
ANS: position
11. Each horizontal scan line takes ____________________ microseconds, not including
blanking.
ANS: 62.5
12. Horizontal blanking lasts ____________________ microseconds.
ANS: 10
13. Vertical blanking lasts about ____________________ milliseconds.
ANS: 1.3
14. Picture elements are called ____________________.
ANS: pixels
15. The maximum number of scan lines under NTSC is ____________________.
ANS: 525
16. The human eye is most sensitive to the color ____________________.
ANS: green
17. The color sub-carrier frequency is approximately ____________________ MHz.
ANS: 3.58
18. SAP stands for ____________________ audio program.
ANS: separate
19. The second anode of a CRT is often called the ____________________.
ANS: ultor
20. The accelerating voltage for a color CRT is about ____________________ kV.
ANS: 20 to 30
21. The inside of a CRT's face-plate is coated with ____________________ to generate
the picture.
ANS: phosphor
22. The horizontal output transformer is called the ____________________ transformer.
ANS: flyback
23. A good way to separate luma from chroma is to use a ____________________ filter.
ANS: comb
24. The color ____________________ turns off the color circuitry when a color TV is
receiving a
monochrome signal.
ANS: killer
25. Signal levels in cable TV systems are usually measured in ____________________.
ANS: dBmV
26. The antenna for a CATV system is located at the ____________________ end.
ANS: head
27. A ____________________ shows a color-bar signal with predetermined levels and
phases.
ANS: vectorscope
28. Color intensity is called ____________________.
ANS: saturation
29. The ____________________ of the chroma signal represents the color hue.
ANS: phase
ANS: downlink
4. A satellite in a ____________________ orbit appears to stay directly above one spot
on the equator.
ANS: geostationary
5. Non-geostationary satellites are sometimes called ____________________ satellites.
ANS: orbital
6. A geosynchronous orbit is about ____________________ km above the earth.
ANS: 35,780
7. A ____________________ is an outline of the area on the earth's surface that a
satellite broadcasts to.
ANS: footprint
8. All satellite orbits are ____________________ in shape.
ANS: elliptical
9. The ____________________ is the distance of a satellite's closest approach to the
earth.
ANS: perigee
10. The ____________________ is a satellite's farthest distance from the earth.
ANS: apogee
11. An antenna's ____________________ is its angular direction between east and
west.
ANS: azimuth
12. An antenna's ____________________ is its vertical angle with respect to the earth's
surface.
ANS: elevation
13. An antenna's ____________________ is the angle by which it is offset from the
earth's axis.
ANS: declination
14. Satellites using the ____________________ band operate on 12 GHz.
ANS: Ku
15. The time for a signal to make a round trip via satellite is about
____________________ milliseconds.
ANS: 500
16. A ____________________ is a type of repeater used on communications satellites.
ANS: transponder
17. Both the gain and the beamwidth of a dish antenna depend on its
____________________.
ANS: diameter
18. VSAT systems commonly use a ____________________ network configuration.
ANS: star
19. To date, LEO satellite systems have been a financial ____________________.
ANS: failure
20. C-band antennas are ____________________ than Ku-band antennas.
ANS: larger
SHORT ANSWER
1. A receiving antenna with a gain of 44.4 dBi looks at a sky with a noise
temperature of 15 K. The loss
between the output of the antenna and the input of the LNA is 0.4 dB, and the LNA
has a noise
temperature of 40 K. Calculate the G/T.
ANS:
25 dB
2. A receiver has a noise figure of 1.7 dB. Find its equivalent noise temperature.
ANS:
139 K.
3. A receiving antenna with a G/T of 25 dB is used to receive signals from a satellite
38,000 km away. The
satellite has a 100-watt transmitter and an antenna with a gain of 30 dBi. The signal
has a bandwidth of 1
MHz at a frequency of 12 GHz. Calculate the C/N at the receiver.
ANS:
38 dB
a. BSC c. RF interface
b. MTSO d. air interface
ANS: D
22. The optimum cell-site radius is:
a. 2 km c. as small as possible
b. 0.5 km d. none of the above
ANS: D
23. Phone traffic is measured in:
a. calls c. number of users
b. erlangs d. number of blocked calls
ANS: B
24. One way to increase the capacity of a cell phone system is:
a. increase the number of cells c. increase the ERP
b. decrease the number of cells d. decrease the ERP
ANS: A
25. CDPD stands for:
a. Code-Division Packet Data c. Coded Digital Packet Data
b. Cellular Digital Packet Data d. Cellular Digital Pulse Data
ANS: B
COMPLETION
1. AMPS uses the ____________________-MHz band.
ANS: 800
2. ____________________ is still the most common cellular phone system in North
America.
ANS: AMPS
3. Frequency ____________________ is what makes cellular phone systems complex.
ANS: reuse
4. A ____________________ occurs when an in-use cell-phone moves from one cell site
to another.
ANS: handoff
5. If a cell-site radius drops below ____________________ km, handoffs will occur too
frequently.
ANS: 0.5
6. The number of ERP classes in AMPS is ____________________.
ANS: three
7. A cell phone permanently installed in a car would be ERP class
____________________.
ANS:
I
one
8. The maximum ERP of class III cell phones is ____________________.
ANS: 600 mW
9. A portable, handheld cell phone would be ERP class ____________________.
ANS:
III
three
10. Mobile transmitter power is controlled by the ____________________.
ANS: land station
11. A MAC is a mobile ____________________ code.
ANS: attenuation
12. For security, you should always assume that AMPS transmissions are
____________________.
ANS: public
13. A mobile switching center is also called an ____________________.
ANS: MTSO
14. The optimum size of a cell site depends on the amount of ____________________.
ANS: traffic
15. Telephone call traffic is measured in ____________________.
ANS: erlangs
16. A cell phone moving into a site with no available frequencies will have a
____________________ call.
ANS: dropped
17. The reduction in cell size to increase traffic is called cell ____________________.
ANS: splitting
18. A ____________________ site is a very small unit that can mount on a streetlight
pole.
ANS: microcell
19. Very small cells called ____________________ are used for reliable indoor reception.
ANS: picocells
20. Compared with AMPS, digital cellular phones require ____________________
bandwidth.
ANS: less
SHORT ANSWER
1. Give two reasons why digital cell phone systems are more secure than analog cell
phone systems.
ANS:
1. Digital is inherently more secure because of its format.
2. Digitized voice signals are easily encrypted.
2. If a 28.8-kbps modem is being used over a cell phone, how many words of text
would be lost during a
100-msec handoff interruption assuming 10 bits per letter and 5 letters per word?
ANS:
57.6
3. A certain cell site contains 200 cell phones. The probability that a given cell
phone is being used is 15%.
What is the traffic in erlangs?
ANS:
30
4. What is "trunking gain"?
ANS:
For a given probability of being blocked, the maximum allowable traffic per channel
increases as the
number of channels increases.
6. Why would a battery in a GSM phone be expected to last longer than a battery in
a TDMA phone?
ANS:
A TDMA phone is active during one out of every three time slots. A GSM phone is
active during one out
of every eight.
7. What is the advantage of using offset QPSK over standard QPSK?
ANS:
With standard QPSK, the transmitted power repeatedly goes to zero. With offset
QPSK, it never goes to
zero. Linearity requirements are less strict for offset QPSK transmitters.
8. What is the "near/far" effect in CDMA, and what causes it?
ANS:
A stronger station farther away can "drown out" a weaker station that is near. This
happens when the
power transmitted by mobile units is not well controlled by the base.
ANS: A
7. The IEEE specification covering wireless LANs is:
a. 802.10 c. 802.12
b. 802.11 d. 802.13
ANS: B
8. The IEEE 802 spec for wireless LANs uses the:
a. VHF band c. ISM band
b. UHF band d. infrared band
ANS: C
9. The IEEE 802 document for wireless LANs specifies the use of:
a. CSMA/CA c. CDMA
b. CSMA/CD d. all of the above
ANS: A
10. BSS stands for:
a. Basic Service Set c. Bluetooth Service System
b. Basic Service System d. none of the above
ANS: A
11. Bluetooth uses:
a. CDMA c. QPSK
b. frequency hopping d. all of the above
ANS: B
12. Bluetooth uses the:
a. VHF band c. ISM band
b. UHF band d. infrared band
ANS: C
13. TDD stands for:
a. Time-Division Duplex c. Time Delay Difference
b. Time-Delayed Duplex d. Total Distance Delay
ANS: A
14. A Bluetooth "piconet" has:
a. 2 nodes c. 2 to 8 nodes
b. 2 to 4 nodes d. 2 to 16 nodes
ANS: C
15. Two or more connected piconets forms a:
a. micronet c. TDD net
b. multinet d. scatternet
ANS: D
16. The basic range of a Bluetooth device is:
a. 10 cm to 1 meter c. 10 cm to 100 meters
b. 10 cm to 10 meters d. within 10 feet
ANS: B
17. IRDA stands for:
a. Infrared Data Association c. Infrared Restricted Data Area
b. Infrared Digital Association d. Infrared Roaming Data Area
ANS: A
18. The range of an IRDA system is:
a. 1 meter c. 1 foot
b. 10 meters d. 10 feet
ANS: A
19. Infrared networks:
ANS: cladding
3. The ____________________ angle is where refraction changes to reflection.
ANS: critical
4. An electron-volt is a measure of ____________________.
ANS: energy
5. The numerical aperture is the ____________________ of the angle of acceptance.
ANS: sine
6. Optical fiber relies on total ____________________ reflection.
ANS: internal
7. Chromatic dispersion is also called ____________________ dispersion.
ANS: intramodal
8. With optical fiber, ____________________ light is more common than visible light.
ANS: infrared
9. In multimode fiber, ____________________ index has less dispersion than step index.
ANS: graded
10. For laser diodes, the term ____________________ is used instead of bandwidth.
ANS: linewidth
11. Dispersion can be expressed in units of ____________________ rather than
bandwidth.
ANS: time
12. ____________________ interference is when one pulse merges with the next pulse.
ANS: Intersymbol
13. The optical fiber is free to move around in a ____________________ cable.
ANS: loose-tube
14. The optical fiber is not free to move around in a ____________________ cable.
ANS: tight-buffer
15. A ____________________ is a short length of fiber that carries the light away from
the source.
ANS: pigtail
16. Good connections are more critical with ____________________-mode fiber.
ANS: single
17. A ____________________ diode is the usual light source for single-mode cable.
ANS: laser
18. The quantum of light is called the ____________________.
ANS: photon
19. A ____________________ diode is the usual light detector for single-mode cable.
ANS: PIN
20. For safety, you should never ____________________ at the end of an optical fiber
unless you know it is
not connected to a light source.
ANS: look