1.

Progressive decrease in signal strength

with increase in distance.
B. Attenuation
2. Radio communication in the Philippines
is regulated by _____.
C. NTC
3. Which is not a common microwave
application.
B. Mobile Radio
4. The most widely used microwave
antenna.
B. Axial Feed Parabolic
5. Microwaves from 10.9 GHz to 36 GHz is
considered as _____ band.
D. K
6. A waveguide is also a _____.
B. High Pass Filter
7. Method of diversity reception where
the signal is transmitted on 2 different
frequencies over the same path.
C. Frequency
8. When the value of k increases from a
value less than 1, the effective result is
a _____ of the equivalent curvature.
A. Flattening
9. Space diversity transmission means
receiving on 2 or more _____.
C. Antennas operating on the same
frequency
10. It is the progressive increase in the
width of the pulse bit with increase in
distance.
C. Dispersion

11. This occurs when the LOS beam is at a

point of grazing over a knife edge
obstacle.
B. Diffraction
12. Atmospheric condition is not controlled
by _____.
D. Frequency
13. When the clearance above the
obstruction is equal to the radius of the
Fresnel zone, RSL (or MRS) _____.
C .Decreased
14. A measure of traffic intensity.
A. Erlang
15. Descending pass from a
communications satellite means a pass
from _____.
A. North to South
16. The dielectric material of an optical
fiber surrounding the core.
A. Cladding
17. DWDM with 40 microwave lengths is at
STM-64 results to what bit rate in Gbps.
B. 400
18. What is the FSL in dB of a satellite
communications system operating at
36,000 km above the earth at 400 GHz.
C. 196
19. At 10pps and fastest speed,
approximately how many seconds will it
take to dial 2475000 using a telephone
set with the traditional decadic rotary
dial plate.
C. 10

1. An antenna which is not resonant at a

particular frequency and so can be used
over a wide band of frequencies is
called _____.
B. Aperiodic
2. The capture area of an antenna is
directly proportional to _____.
C. Gain of the Antenna
3. Consists of a number of dipoles of equal
size, equally spaced along a straight line
with all dipoles
D. Broadside
4. When a transmission line uses ground
return.
C. Unbalanced
5. What quarterwave transformer will
match a 100 ohm line to an antenna
whose value is 175 ohm?
A. 132.29 ohm
6. What is the velocity factor for a nonfoam dielectric 50 ohm or 75 ohm
flexible coaxial cable such as RG 8, 11,
58 and 59?
C. 0.66
7. What is the free space loss in dB,
between two microwave parabolic
antennas 38.0 km apart operating at 7.0
GHz?
D. 140.89 dB
8. Top loading is used in antenna in order
to increase its _____.
C. Effective Height
10. Electomagnetic radiation theory was
profounded by _____.
D. James Clerk Maxwell

11. Impedance inversion may be obtained

with _____.
B. A quarter-wave line
12. As a wave propagates down a
transmission line, _____.
D. its amplitude remains the same
13. Indicate the three types of transmission
line energy losses
C. Radiation, I^2R, and dielectric
heating
14. If the distance from a transmit antenna
is doubled, the power density is _____.
D. decreased by a factor of 4
15. The characteristic impedance at radio
frequency of a coaxial cable with
L=0.118H/ft and C=21pF/ft is
B. 75 ohms
16. The SWR for a 75 ohms line that is
terminated with a 50 ohms load is
D. 1.5
17. Which of the following statements are
true?
C. All of the choices
18. Indicate which one of the following
terms applies to troposcatter
propagation
C. Fading
19. An antenna is to be installed to receive
a line-of-sight wave transmitted from
an antenna located at a distance of 50
mi from the installation and which is
750 ft in height. The minimum
necessary height of the receiving
antenna is
B. 63.5 ft

20. The maximum usable frequency for a

critical frequency of 12 MHz and an
angle of incidence of 70 degrees is
C. 35 MHz
21. The video signal amplitude determines
the quality of the picture otherwise
known as
D. Contrast
22. Which of the following is not a lowimpedance microphone?
D. Crystal
23. It is a wave motion consisting of a series
or rarefactions and compressions
produced by a vibrating body in a
medium
C. Sound
24. It is the unit of pitch
A. Mels
25. What is the minimum sound pressure
needed to evoke auditory sensation?
B. Threshold of audibility
26. Calculate the horizontal resolution
possible if the modulating signal
bandwidth is equal to 5 MHz.
C. 535 lines
27. The horizontal synchronization pulse is
_____% of the total horizontal trace
and retrace interval.
C. 8
28. The video intermediate frequency is
equal to _____
B. 45.75 MHz

29. Calculate the luminance of a signal, if

the television receives 1V of red, 1V of
blue and 2V of green.
B. 1.59 V
30. The amplitude of the chrominance
determines the _____ of the picture
A. Saturation

1. Spacing in DWDM is by _____ while

CWDM is by _____.
C. frequency, wavelength
2. _____ is a composite signal with an
infinite bandwidth.
D. digital signal
3. In FHSS, the pseudorandom code is
applied to
B. the carrier frequency
4. CDMA utilizes what type of wideband
technology?
C. Spread Spectrum
5. The maximum value of quantization
error is always _____.
B. equal to half the resolution
6. Non linear coding is a solution to
minimizing quantization error by
making the resolution _____ at low
amplitude signals and _____ at high
amplitude signals.
A. Smaller, larger
7. Which encoding method attempts to
solve the loss of synchronization in long
strings of 0s?
D. B8ZS
8. What is the frame rate of 5 device
synchronous TDM system, when the bit
rate of each channel is 1000 kbps, no
synchronization bits are added and bit
interleaving is used?
B. 1000 frames per second
9. The bandwidth necessary to send 8
QAM signal is _____ when the input bit
rate is 24 kbps.
C. 8 kHz

10. Which digital modulation technique is

appropriate for a transmission media
that has a bandwidth of 40 kHz and an
input data rate to the modulator is
equal to 4 kbps?
B. 1024 QAM
11. Calculate the minimum number of bits
of information which must be given to
permit the correct selection of one
event out of 32 equiprobable events.
C. 5 bits
12. A binary source sends a binary 1 with a
probability of 0.3. Evaluate the average
information for the source.
D. 0.881 bit
13. A broadcast television channel has a
bandwidth of 6MHz. Calculate the
maximum data rate that could be
carried in a TV channel using a 16
level code. Ignore noise.
C. 48 Mbps
14. Sixteen different levels (symbols) are
used to encode binary data. The
channel bandwidth is 36 MHz. The
maximum channel capacity is
A. 288 Mbps
15. An analog telephone line has a SNR of
45 dB and passes audio frequencies
over the range of 300 kHz to 3300 kHz.
A modem is to be designed to transmit
and receive data simultaneously over
this line without errors. If the frequency
range 300 kHz to 12000 kHz is used for
the transmitted signal, what is the
maximum transmitted data rate?
A. 13.4538 Mbps

16. In synchronous TDM, the number of

timeslots in a frame is
A. equal to the number of sending
devices
17. If the ASCII character L (42h) is sent and
the character A (41h) is received, what
type of error is this?
C. Burst error
18. Entropy of two equiprobable messages
is
C. one
19. In CRC, there is no error if the
remainder at the receiver is _____.
D. zero
20. If the data unit is 11011001, the divisor
1010, and the remainder 110, what is
the dividend at the receiver?
C. 11011001110
21. Entropy is basically a measure of
B. average information
22. DS 1, an application of TDM, has how
many voice channels?
B. 24
23. A measure of how much information
can be transferred through a
communication system in a given
period of time
D. information capacity
24. Characteristic if sinewaves that describe
the position of the waveform relative to
time zero.
B. phase

25. A PCM code word was obtained using a

30 kHz sampling frequency. What is the
maximum input frequency?
C. 15 kHz
26. _____ is the measurement of how fast
data can pass through an entity.
D. Throughput
27. Logical topologies can only be
B. Bus and ring
28. _____ is the data link sub layer that is
closest to the physical layer
B. Media Access Control
29. The access method of Ethernet
technologies is
C. CSMA/CD
30. A Fast Ethernet technology that uses
CAT3 UTP
A. 100BaseTX

1. What produces the sidebands in

C. Baseband frequency
2. Which one of the following emission
transmit the lower sideband and half of
the upper sideband.
D. A3H
3. The process of impressing the
intelligence on the carrier is called
B. modulation
4. The modulated peak value of a signal is
125 V and the unmodulated carrier
value is 85V. What is the modulation
index
A. 0.47
5. An 891 kHz carrier having an amplitude
of 80 V is modulated by a 4.5 kHz audio
signal having an amplitude of 45 V. The
modulation factor is
A. 0.56
6. What is the decibel attenuation of a
filter with 100 mV input and a 1 mV
output at a given frequency?
A. 40 dB
7. Determine the input impedance of a T
pad with a series arm of 100 ohm and
shunt arm of 1750 ohm and a
terminating impedance of 450 ohm
C. 518.478 ohm
8. Three identical circuits having 10 dB
signal to noise ratio each are
connected in tandem with each other.
What is overall S/N
A. 5.23 dB
9. The noise figure of the first circuit in
tandem connection is 10.5 dB while its

power gain is 15. What is the overall

noise figure if the second circuit has a
noise figure of 11 dB?
C. 10.79 dB