Allen Kota Test Papers (Medical)

Test - 1 (Objective)
Time : 3 Hrs.
Aakash Explorer for AIIMS-2017

Online Test 1
MM : 200
[ PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer :
1.
The refractive index of water measured by the relation
real depth
is found to have values of 1.34, 1.38,
apparent depth
1.32 and 1.36. Find the mean value of refractive index with perentage error.
(1) 1.35 1.48%
(2) 1.35 0%
(3) 1.36 6%
(4) 1.36 0%
2.
If time period (T) of vibration of a liquid drop depends on surface tension (S), radius (r), of the drop and density
of the liquid then find expression of T.
(1) T K r 3 / S
(2) T K 1/2 r 3 / S
(3) T K r 3 / S1/2
3.
(4) T = K r3/S

If A B 3 A.B , find the value of A B .
1/ 2
AB
(1) A 2 B 2
(2) A + B
(3)
4.
B2 3 AB
1/2
(4) (A2 + B2 + AB)1/2

A 4i 2 j 3k , B i j 2k and C 2i 2 j 4k then find A.(B C) .
(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 6
(4) 0
5.
Which of the following equations represent the motion of a body moving with constant finite accelerations? (x
represent displacement, t denotes time and a, b and c are constants.
(1) x = (a + bt)(c + at)
(2) x = a(t/c)
(3) x = (a + t)(b + t)(c + t)
(4) x = a + bt/ct
1/28

6.
A particle has an initial velocity of 3i 4 j and a acceleration of 0.4i 0.3 j . Find its speed after
10 sec.
(1) 10 units
(2) 7 2 units
(3) 7 units
(4) 10 2 units
7.
A particle moves according to equation x = acost. Find the distance covered by it in 2.5 sec.
(1) 2a
(2) 3a
(3) 4a
(4) 5a
8.
A body is fired vertically upwards. At half the maximum height, the velocity of body is 10 m/s. Find the maximum
height raised by body.
(1) 0 m
(2) 10 m
(3) 15 m
(4) 20 m
9.
A particle is projected from ground. If equation of trajectory is y x
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
x2
2
then find its time of flight.
2
g
3
g
9
g
2
g
10. A rocket of initial mass m0, moving with velocity v, discharges a jet of gases of mean density and effective area
A. Find the minimum velocity v which enables the rocket to move vertically w.r.t. fuel gases.
(1)
g
m0 A
(2)
gA
m0
(3)
m0 g
A
(4)
2m0 gA
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11.
Find the tension needed to hold the cart in equilibrium if there is no friction.
W
T
(1)
3
W
4
(2)
2
W
2
(3)
2
W
3
(4)
4
W
3
30
12. Three identical particles are joined together by a rigid thread as shown in figure. All three particles are moving in
a horizontal circle on a horizontal plane about O. If the velocity of outermost particle is v0, then find the ratio of
tensions in three sections of string.
O
l
(1) 3 : 5 : 7
(2) 3 : 4 : 5
(3) 7 : 11 : 6
(4) 3 : 5 : 6
13. The only force acting on a 2 kg block as it moves along positive x-axis has a component Fx = 6x N, where x is
in metre. The velocity of body at x = 3 m is 8 m/s. Find its velocity at x = 4 m.
(1) 10 m/s
(2) 9 m/s
(3) 7.4 m/s
(4) 6.6 m/s
14. Two block each of mass m moving with speed v, collide with the spring of force constant K as shown in figure.
Find the maximum compression of spring.
m
(1)
mv 2
K
(2)
2mv 2
K
(3)
mv 2
2K
(4) Zero
3/28
15. After a perfectly inelastic collision two objects of same mass and initial speed, found to move together at half
their initial speed. Find the angle between initial velocities of objects.
(1) 30
(2) 60
(3) 120
(4) 45
16. Three equal masses m each are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle of side a. Find the escape velocity
of an object from circumcentre (centroid) of triangle.
(1)
2 3Gm
a
(2)
3Gm
a
(3)
6 3Gm
a
(4)
3 3Gm
a
17. Two metal spheres of equal radius r are touching each other. The force of attraction between them is F then
(1) F r6
(2) F r4
(3) F r2
1
(4) F 2
r
18. A uniform sphere of radius R is placed on a rough horizontal surface and given a linear velocity v0 and angular
velocity 0 as shown. The sphere comes to rest after moving same distance to right. It follows that
v0
(1) v0 = 0R
(2) 2v0 = 50R
(3) 5v0 = 20R
(4) 2v0 = 0R
19. The velocity of small ball of mass M and density d1 when dropped in a container filled with glycerine becomes
constant after sometimes. If the density of glycerine is d2, then find viscous force acting on ball.
(1)
Md1g
d2
d2
(2) Mg 1 d
1
(3)
Mg (d1 d2 )
g
(4) Md1d2
4/28
20. Two blocks of mass m and 2m are connected to a massless spring of force constant k. The spring is stretched
by x0 and blocks are made to oscillate on smooth surface. Find the amplitude of motion of mass m.
m
(1)
x0
3
(2)
2 x0
3
2m
(3) x0
(4)
x0
6
21. A U - tube of non-uniform cross section has area A and 2A of its two limbs. It contains non-viscous liquid of mass
m. If its displaced slightly, then find time period of oscillation of liquid in the U-tube.
2A
m
(1) T 2
m
3gA
(2) T 2
m
2gA
(3) T 2
m
gA
3m
gA
22. Assuming no heat losses, the heat released by condensation of x gram of steam at 100C can be used to convert
y gram of ice 0C into water at 100C. Find ratio x : y
(4) T 2
(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 3
(4) 3 : 1
23. Two uniform rods A and B of length l and 2l and radius 2r and r are heated to same temparature. Find the ratio
of increase in volume of A and B.
(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 4
24. If one mole of monoatomic gas is mixed with one mole of diatomic gas then find of the mixture.
(1) 1.40
(2) 1.50
(3) 1.53
(4) 3.07
5/28
25. P V diagram for the following cyclic process is
V
C
B
A
T
P A
(1)
P A
(2)
C
V
P A
B
(3)
C
V
P
(4)
A
B
C
V
26. Relation between U, P and V for one mole ideal gas is given as U = 3 + 2PV then gas is
(1) Monoatomic
(2) Diatomic
(3) Triatomic
(4) Mixture of monoatomic and diatomic
x
27. A transverse wave is described by equation y y0 sin 2 ft . The maximum particle velocity is four times
the wave velocity if

(1)
y0
4
(2)
y0
2
(3) y0
(4) 2 y0
6/28
28. The equation of stationary wave along stretched string is given by y 5 sin
and t in second. The separations between two adjacent nodes is
x
cos 40t ,where x and y are in cm
3
(1) 1.5 cm
(2) 3 cm
(3) 6 cm
(4) 4 cm
29. Drops of liquid of density are floating half immersed in a liquid of density . If the surface tension of liquid is
T, then find the radius of the drop.
(1)
3T
g 3
(2)
6T
g 2
(3)
3T
g 2
(4)
3T
g 4 3
30. For the potential V
1 2
( y 4 x ) , find gravitational field at (1, 1).
2
(1) 2i + j V/m
(2) 2i + j V/m
(3) 2i j V/m
(4) 2i + 2j V/m
l
r
and radius
of same material. The free end of small
2
2
rod is fixed to a rigid base and free end of larger rod is given a twist of , find the twist angle at the joint.
31. A rod of length l and radius r is jonied to a rod of length
(1)
(2)
(3)
5
6
8
9
32. A particle performs SHM in a straight line. In the first second, starting from rest, it travels a distance a and in
next second it travels a distance b in same direction. Find the amplitude of SHM.
(4)
(1) a b
(2)
2a b
3
(3)
2a 2
3a b
(4)
3b2
2a b
7/28
33. A rod of mass M and length L is hinged at its centre of mas so that it can rotate in a vertical plane. Two springs
each of constant K are connected at its ends as shown in figure. Find the time period of SHM.
(1) 2
M
6K
(2) 2
M
3K
(3) 2
ML
K
(4)
M
6K
34. Efficiency of a heat engine working between 500 K and 1000 K is

(1) 0.6
(2) 0.8
(3) 0.4
(4) 0.55
35. Two ideal gas at temperature T1 and T2 are mixed there is no loss of energy. The masses of molecules are m1
and m2 and no. of molecules are n1 and n2 respectively. Find temp. of mixture
(1)
T1 T2
2
(2)
T1 T2
n1n2
(3) T1 + T2
(4)
n1T1 n2T2
n1 n2
36. Two blocks of 4 kg and 6 kg are attached by spring, they are hanging in verticle position, lower spring breaks
due to excessive force. Find acceleration of 4 kg block just after breaking.
k1 = 200
4 kg
k2 = 100
6 kg
8/28
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
15 m/s2
25 m/s2
10 m/s2
Zero
37. If F
K
i and if particle starts from x = a, find its speed when it will reach distance x from origin O.
x2
1
(1)
2K x a 2
m ax
(2)
2K a x 2
m ax
(3)
K ax 2
m x a
1/2
m a x
2K x
38. A stone of mass m is whirled in verticle circle with constant speed v by attaching it with a string. Find the difference
between tension at lowest and highest point.
(4)
(1) mg
(2) 2mg
2mv 2
r
(4) Zero
(3)
39. If interatomic potential energy u
5 , find interatomic separation (r) at equillibrium.

11
r
r
1/6
11
(1)
1/6
11
(2)
1/6
5
(3)
11
1/6

(4)
11
40. A particle is projected from ground with speed u such that herizontal range is R and maximum height is H. Find
angular velocity about point of projection when it is at highest position.
HRu
(1)
(2)
(3)
u
H
(4)
4H
R 2 16H 2
4HRu
4H 2
R 2 16H 2
uR
H R 16H 2
2
9/28
In the following questions (41 to 60), a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R).
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (1).
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark
(2).
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false, then mark (3).
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false statements, then mark (4).
mass
x , the dimensional formula of x is LT2.
area
R : Quantities with different dimensions cannot be multiplied.

42. A : If A.B B.C , then A may not be equal to C .
41. A : In the equation momentum p
R : The dot product of two vectors involves cosine of the angle between two vectors.
43. A : For a non-uniform motion the magnitude of instantaneous velocity is equal to instantaneous speed.
R : A particle in non-uniform motion may move along a curved path.
44. A : For the motion of electron around nucleus Newtons second law is used.
R : Newtons second law can be used for motion of any object.
45. A : Cream gets separated out of milk when it is churned, it is due to centrifugal force only.
R : Gravitational force does not play significant role to separate cream from milk.
46. A : The linear momentum of body increases by 50%, the corresponding increase in kinetic energy is 100%.
K
P
P2
2
, then it may be written as
.
K
P
2m
47. A : A body becomes massless at centre of earth.
R : Kinetic energy, K
R : This follows from g ' g 1

R
48. A : A particle always moves in direction of net force acting on particle provided it starts from rest.

R : When a body starts from rest with an acceleration, its velocity v at so v || a .
49. A : Potential energy is defined only for conservative forces.

dU
R : For conservative forces F
n
dr
50. Consider the situation shown in figure. The acceleration of block m1 is a at the instant.
A : The magnitude of spring force is m1a at this instant.
m1
m2
m1a
at this instant.
k
51. A : Internal forces cant change kinetic energy of a system of particles.
R : The extension in the spring must be
R : Internal forces can change momentum of a system of particles.

52. A : The acceleration due to gravity does not depend upon mass of body on which gravitational force is applied.
R : The acceleration due to gravity is a universal constant.
53. A : Youngs medulus for a perfectly plastic body is zero.
R : For a perfectly plastic body restoring force is zero.
54. A : The viscosity of a liquid increases with rise of temperature.
R : The density of a liquid increases with rise of temperature.
10/28
55. A : A particle executes SHM with frequency f. The frequency with which total mechanical energy of particle
oscillates is 2f.
R : Both kinetic as well as potential energy of particle in SHM oscillate with a frequency f.
56. A : When a simple pendulum is made to oscillate on surface of moon, its time period is more as compared to
earth.
R : Gravity is smaller at moon than at earth.
57. A : Two SHMs along x and y axis with angular frequency ratio 1 : 2 = 1 : 2 with same amplitude result in curved
path on super position.
R : x and y displacements are related as y x 2 in this case.
58. A : For process Q = 100 J and W = 120 J, then temperature of gas in process should increase.
R : Work done by the gas is greater than heat supplied hence U > 0.
59. A : Entropy measures the degree of disorder in a physical system.
R : Reversible adiabatic process are isentropic.
60. A : To drink, chilled juice we use ice cubes at 0C instead of cold water at 0C.
R : Ice tends to absorb heat from juice for its melting, this makes juice cooler.
[ CHEMISTRY ]
61. The molar ratio of Fe2+ to Fe3+ in a mixture of FeSO4 and Fe2(SO4)3 having equal number of sulphate ions in both
ferrous and ferric sulphate is
(1) 1 : 2
(2) 3 : 2
(3) 2 : 3
(4) None of these
62. Electron density in the YZ plane of 3d
x2 y 2
is
(1) Zero
(2) 0.50
(3) 0.75
(4) 0.90
63. The uncertainties in the velocities of two particles, A and B are 0.05 and 0.02 m/s respectively. The mass of B
x A
is five times to that of the mass of A. What is the ratio of uncertainties in their positions x ?
B
(1) 2
(2) 0.25
(3) 4
(4) 1
64. The value of electronegativity of atom A and B are 1.2 and 4.0 respectively. The percent ionic character of A B
bond is
(1) 50%
(2) 72.24%
(3) 55.3%
(4) 43%
11/28

65. What is the correct order of decreasing bond angle?
(1) NH4 NH3 NH2
(2) NH3 NH2 NH4
(3) NH2 NH3 NH4
(4) NH3 NH4 NH2
66. Planar structure is shown by
(1) CO2
3
(2) BCl3
(3) N(SiH3)3
(4) All of these
67. According to MOT, C2 molecule has
(1) One and one -bond
(2) Only two -bonds
(3) Only two -bonds
(4) One and two -bonds
68. If helium is allowed to expand in vacuum, it liberates heat because
(1) Helium is an inert gas
(2) Helium is an ideal gas
(3) The inversion temperature of helium is very low
(4) Helium is one of the lightest gas
69. The temperature of the system decreases in an
(1) Adiabatic compression
(2) Isothermal compression
(3) Isothermal expansion
(4) Adiabatic expansion
70. Which statement is correct at Equilibrium?
(1) G = 2.303RT log Kc
(2) G = 2.303T log Kc
(3) G = 2.303T log Kc
(4) G = 2.303T log Kc
71. Which is Lewis base? I2 + I I3
(1) I2
(2) I3
(3) I
(4) None of these
72. 106 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
(1) Between 5 and 6
(2) Between 6 and 7
(3) Between 10 and 11
(4) Between 7 and 8
12/28
73. The tendency of BF3, BCl3 and BBr3 to behave as Lewis acid decreases in the sequence
(1) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3
(2) BCl3 > BF3 > BBr3
(3) BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3
(4) BBr3 > BF3 > BCl3
74. Inorganic benzene is
(1) B3H3N3
(2) BH3NH3
(3) B3H6N3
(4) H3B3N6
75. Supercritical CO2 is used as
(1) Dry ice
(2) Fire lighting
(3) A solvent for extraction of organic compound from natural sources
(4) A highly inert medium for carrying out various reaction
76. In borax bead test which compound is formed?
(1) Ortho borate
(2) Meta borate
(3) Double oxide
(4) Tetra borate
77. During Lassaignes test N and S present in an organic compound changes into
(1) Na2S and NaCN
(2) NaCNS
(3) Na2SO4 and NaCN
(4) Na2S and NaCN
O
78. IUPAC name of the following compound is
CN
CH3
CH3
(1) N, N-dimethyl cyclopropane carboxamide

(2) N-methyl cyclopropanamide
(3) Cyclo propionamide
(4) None of these
79. Maximum enol content is in
(1) CH3 C CH3
O
(2) CH3 C CH2 C CH3

O
(3) CH3 C H
O
(4) CH3 C CH2 C H

O
13/28

80. Which will not show geometrical isomerism?
(1) CH3 CH = NOH
(2)
(3) HO N = N OH
(4) (CH3)2C = NOH
81. Which of the following is most basic?
(1) Benzamide
(2) Butamine
(3) Nitrobenzene
(4) Benzene
82. The most reactive nucleophile among the following is
(1) CH3O
(2) C6H5O
(3) (CH3)2CHO
(4) (CH3)3CO
83. Which of the following is an aromatic compound?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
84. Octane number can be changed by
(1) Isomerisation
(2) Alkylation
(3) Cyclisation
(4) All of these
85. What is obtained when potassium succinate solution is electrolysed?
(1) Ethane
(2) Ethene
(3) Ethyne
(4) All of these
14/28
86.

Hg2 /H
Ph C C CH3
(A)
The product A, is
(1) Ph C CH2 CH3
O
(2) Ph CH2 C CH3

O
(3) Ph C = CH CH3
OH
(4) Ph CH2 CH CH3

OH
87. In the following reaction
CH3
Br2
h
The product formed is
CH2 Br
(1)
CH3
Br
(2)
(3)
CH3
Br
CH3
(4)
Br
88. When 10 ml of 0.1 M acetic acid (pKa = 5.0) is titrated against 10 ml of 0.1 M ammonia solution (pKb = 5.0)
the equivalence point occurs at pH
(1) 5.0
(2) 6.0
(3) 7.0
(4) 9.0
89. NaH when dissolved in water produces
(1) Acidic medium
(2) Basic medium
(3) Neutral medium
(4) Cannot be predicted
15/28
90. Oxidation number of Cr in K3CrO8

(1) +15
(2) +6
(3) +5
(4) +8
91. Which of the following substance acts as oxidising as well as reducing agent?
(1) Na2O
(2) SnCl2
(3) NaNO3
(4) NaNO2
92. If 11.1 mg of CaCl2 and 12 mg of MgSO4 are present in 2 L of water, what is its hardness (in gram CaCO3/PPM)?
(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 15
(4) 20
93. Blackened oil painting can be restored into original form by the action of
(1) Chlorine
(2) BaO2
(3) H2O2
(4) MnO2
94. The ionic mobility of alkali metal ion in aqueous solution is maximum for
(1) K+
(2) Rb+
(3) Li+
(4) Na+
95. Correct order of stability of group II A metal carbonates is
(1) MgCO3 > CaCO3 > SrCO3 > BaCO3
(2) BaCO3 > SrCO3 > CaCO3 > MgCO3
(3) SrCO3 > BaCO3 > CaCO3 > MgCO3
(4) CaCO3 > MgCO3 > BaCO3 > SrCO3
96. A catalyst that can be employed for Friedel Crafts acylation
(1) Anhydrous CuCl2
(2) Anhydrous BCl3
(3) Anhydrous CaCl2
(4) Hydrated AlCl3
97. The hydrocarbon which does not decolourise alkaline KMnO4 solution and also does not give any precipitate with
ammoniacal silver nitrate in
(1) Benzene
(2) Acetylene
(3) Propyne
(4) 1-butyne
16/28
98. Photochemical smog is due to the presence of

(1) Oxides of sulphur
(2) Oxides of nitrogen
(3) Oxides of carbon
(4) Lead
99. The correct order in which the O O bond length inceases is
(1) H2O2 < O2 < O3
(2) O3 < H2O2 < O2
(3) O2 < O3 < H2O2
(4) O2 < H2O2 < O3
100. Triple point of water is
(1) 273 K
(2) 373 K
(3) 203 K
(4) 193 K
(2).
101. A : A spectral line will be observed for a 2px 2py transition.
R : The energy is released in the form of wave of light when electron drops from 2px to 2py orbital.
102. A : The free gaseous Cr atom has six unpaired electrons.
R : Half-filled s-orbital has greater stability.
103. A : The O O bond length in H2O2 is shorter than that of O2F2.
R : H2O2 is an ionic compound.
104. A : C H bond in ethyne is shorter than C H bonds in ethene.
R : Carbon atom in ethene is sp hybridised while it is sp2 in ethyne.
Pb
.
105. A : At high pressure, the compressibility factor Z is 1
RT
R : At high pressure van der Waals equation is modified as P(V b) = RT.
106. A : Meniscus of liquid disappears at the critical temperature.

R : Density of liquid and gaseous phase become equal at the critical temperature.
107. A : The increase in internal energy (E) for the vaporisation of one mole of water at 1 atm and 373 K is not zero.
R : For isothermal process E = 0.
108. A : Water in liquid state is more stable than ice at room temperature.
R : Water in liquid form has higher entropy than ice.
109. A : Addition of silver ion to a mixture of aqueous sodium chloride and sodium bromide solution will first precipitate
AgBr rather than AgCl.
R : Ksp of AgCl < Ksp of AgBr.
110. A : Increasing pressure on pure water decreases its freezing point.
R : Density of water is maximum at 4C.
17/28
111. A : Among the alkali metals, lithium salts exhibit the least electrical conductance in aqueous solution.
R : Smaller the radius of hydrated cation, lower is the electrical conductance in aqueous solution.
112. A : Bleaching powder is a mixed salt.
R : In the presence of CoCl2 bleaching powder decomposes to give CaCl2 and O2.
113. A : Silicones are hydrophobic in nature.
R : Si O Si linkage are moisture sensitive.
114. A : Oils are purified by steam distillation.
R : The compounds which decompose at their boiling points can be purified by steam distillation.
115. A : Boiling points of cis-isomers are higher than trans-isomers.
R : Dipole moments of cis-isomers are higher than trans-isomers.
116. A : A compound with delocalised electron is more stable than that compound would be, if all its electrons were
localised.
R : The extra stability, a compound gains as a result of having delocalised electrons, is called delocalisation
energy.
117. A : Cyclopentadienyl anion is much more stable than allyl anion.
R : Cyclopentadienyl anion is aromatic in character.
118. A : 1-butene on reaction with HBr in the presence of peroxide produces 1-bromobutane.
R : It involves the formation of a primary radical.
119. A : Alkali metals dissolve in liquid ammonia to give blue solutions.
R : Alkali metals in liquid ammonia give solvated species of the type [M(NH3)n]+ (M = alkali metals).
120. A : LiCl is predominantly a covalent compound.
R : Electronegativity difference between Li and Cl is too small.
[ BIOLOGY]
121. Proposal of binomial nomenclature was given by
(1) Bentham and Hooker in their publication Genera plantarum
(2) Caspar Bauhin in his book Systema naturae
(3) Carolous Linnaeus in his book Philosophia botanica
(4) Caspar Bauhin in his book Pinax
122. Which of the following do not characterise Glycolysis?
(1) Breakdown of C C bonds
(2) Decarboxylation
(3) Dehydrogenation
(4) Phosphorylation
123. How many different categories are represented in box given below?
Diptera, Felidae, Poaceae, Sapindales, Primata,

Carnivora, Ranales, Hominidae, Convolvulaceae
(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) Five
18/28
124. Select the odd one w.r.t. five kingdom system

(1) New kingdom created fungi on the basis of type of reproduction
(2) Body organisation is of cellular level in kingdom Monera and Protista
(3) Algae is classified into three classes
(4) Organ system level of body organisation is absent in kingdom Plantae
125. Shape of bacterium which is mostly non-motile in nature
(1) Vibrio
(2) Coccus
(3) Bacillus
(4) Spiral
126. A pigment bacterio-rhodopsin develops in strong sunlight in the membrane of
(1) Oxyphotobacteria
(2) Halophiles
(3) Filamentous bacteria
(4) More than one option is correct
127. Find out the correct match
(1) Paralytic shell fish poisoning Gymnodinium
(2) Longitudinal binary fission Diatoms
(3) Indicators of water pollution Dinoflagellates
(4) Producer decomposer protist Euglena
128. Ergot of Rye is caused by
(1) Erysiphe graminicola
(2) Claviceps purpurea
(3) Albugo candida
(4) Phytophthora infestans
129. Water splitting complex is associated with PS-II and
(1) Is located on stroma side of Granum
(2) Is mineral protein complex
(3) Oxidises water to release O2
(4) Store H+ transiently
130. (A) Envelope in viruses is made up of proteins, lipids and carbohydrates.
(B) Animal viruses generally contain ss or ds DNA and ss RNA as genetic material.
(C) Viruses are facultative parasite and are inert outside their specific host cell.
(D) An inert virus is called virion.
How many statement/s is/are incorrect for virus?
(1) (A) & (C) are incorrect
(2) (B), (C) & (D) are incorrect
(3) (B) & (C) are incorrect
(4) Only (D) is incorrect
19/28
131. Non flagellated gametes are produced in

(1) Fucus
(2) Volvox
(3) Spirogyra
(4) Dictyota
132. The event which is a precursor to the seed habit in pteridophyte is
(1) Development of zygote into young embryos independent from sporophyte
(2) The female gametophyte remains on the parent sporophyte for variable periods
(3) Homosporous condition in which both male and female sex organ develop on same thallus
(4) More than one option may be correct
133. Which of the following is devoid of porins?
(1) Mitochondria and chloroplast
(2) Gram +ve bacteria and mitoplast
(3) Gram ve bacteria and chloroplasts
(4) Gram ve bacteria and mitochondria
134. How many statements are correct about gymnosperms?
(A) Always heterosporous.
(B) The multicellular female gametophyte is retained within the megasporangium.
(C) The male and female gametophytes have an independent existence.
(1) (A) & (B) are correct
(2) (B) & (C) are correct
(3) (A) & (C) are correct
(4) All statements are correct
135. Polyteny
(1) Result in Polyploidy
(2) Is common in Tapetum
(3) Shows increase in chromosome number without increase in genetic material
(4) Is 1st observed in amphibian oocytes
136. Alternate, opposite and whorled phyllotaxy is found in respectively
(1) Guava, mustard and Nerium
(2) Sunflower, Calotropis and Alstonia
(3) Nerium, Calotropis and china rose
(4) Sunflower, mustard and Nerium
137. The flowers are developed on inner wall of the hollow cavity in
(1) Compound corymb type of inflorescence in cauliflower
(2) Cyathium type of inflorescence in Poinsettia
(3) Hypanthodium type of inflorescence in Ficus
(4) Verticillaster type of inflorescence in Salvia
20/28
138. Reserve for replenishment of damaged cells of meristem is

(1) Rhytidome and present in the root meristem
(2) Quiescent centre and present in the root meristem
(3) Phellogen and present in shoot apical meristem
(4) Tyloses and present in shoot apical meristem
139. Nexin protein is found in
(1) Cilia
(2) Microbodies
(3) Microfilaments
(4) More than one option may be correct
140. Match the following column and choose the correct option from the given
Column I
Column II
a. Breakdown of xenobiotics
(i) Actin
b. Contraction of micro-filaments
(ii) Dynein
c. Movement of cilia and flagella
(iii) Colchicine
d. Inhibition of polymerisation of microtubules
(iv) Peroxisomes
Correct answer is
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
(2) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
141. Match the name of the animal (in Column I) with one characteristic (in Column II) and the phylum/class (in Column
III) to which it belongs.
Column I
(1) Ascidia
Column II
Retrogressive
metamorphosis
(2) Salamandra Body covered by
dermal scales
Asymmetrical
(3) Pila
body and torsion
(4) Euplectella Porous body with
cnidoblasts
Column III
Cyclostomata
Reptilia
Mollusca
Porifera
142. The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is due to

(1) The absence of myofibrils in the central portion of A-band
(2) The central gap between myosin filaments in the A-band
(3) The central gap between actin filaments extending through myosin filaments in the A-band
(4) Extention of myosin filaments in the central portion of the A-band
143. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to the endocrine system?
(1) Oxytocin and vasopressin synthesised by hypothalamus and transported to hypophysis via portal circulation.
(2) Hyperthyroidism in pregnancy leads to stunted growth, mental retardation, abnormal skin, deaf-mutism etc.
(3) Glucocorticoids inhibit cellular uptake and utilisation of amino acids.
(4) PTH increases Ca2+ absorption from digested food and reabsorption of Ca2+ by bones.
21/28
144. Exoskeleton of arthropods and fungal cell walls are composed of

(1) Sulphur containing polysaccharide
(2) Nitrogen containing polysaccharide
(3) Protein
(4) Lipid
145. The diagram given here is the standard ECG of a normal person. The ST interval of ECG eventually correlates
to
T
Q
(1) Contraction of both the atria

(2) Pressure of blood in aorta
(3) End of depolarisation of ventricles
(4) Relaxations of auricles and ventricles
146. Select the correct statement with respect to locomotion in humans.
(1) Gouty arthritis characterised by deposition of uric acid crystals in joints and their inflammation is an
autoimmune disease
(2) The thoracic vertebrae show highly reduced centra and spines
(3) A decreased level of oestrogen in post-menopause females causes osteoporosis
(4) The joints between cranial plates are cartilagenous in nature
147. The availability of ADH in circulation ensures
(1) More electrolyte absorption at the level of PCT
(2) Active absorption of Na+ in thick and thin segments of ascending limb of loop of Henle
(3) More water absorption with increased expression of aquaporin in cells of ducts
(4) Vasodilation of blood vessels leading towards glomeruli
148. One amongst the following is not the property of oestrogen hormone
(1) Fat deposition in thighs and hips
(2) Broadening of pectoral girdle
(3) Female pattern of body hair
(4) Menarche.
149. Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to Periplaneta americana.
(1) The malpighian tubules link to the gut close to the colon part of hind gut.
(2) Males and females bear 16 jointed anal styles.
(3) Grinding of food is carried out by mouth parts and gizzard.
(4) The alary muscle on their contraction help in expiration of the cockroach.
150. The supportive skeletal structures in the tracheal rings and at the ends of long bones are
(1) Sesamoid bone
(2) Spongy bone
(3) White fibrous cartilage
(4) Hyaline cartilage
22/28
151. The absorption of Na+, glucose and amino acids into blood of digestive tract occurs by
(1) Carrier mediated facilitated transport
(2) Secondary active transport
(3) Passive transport
(4) Facilitated diffusion
152. Identify the correct option of the tissue with respect to its location and function.
Function
Location
Tissue
(1) Ciliated epithelium
Intestine
(2) Cuboidal epithelium Nephron

(3) Microglia
Diffusion
Secretions or reabsorption
Brain
Secretions of myelin
Behind eye balls Shock absorption
(4) Areolar tissue
153. Which one of the following human organs is often called the blood bank of body?
(1) Gall bladder
(2) Kidney
(3) Spleen
(4) Liver
154. The first step in the digestion of milk in adult occurs by the contribution of
(1) Chief cells of stomach
(2) Oxyntic cells of stomach
(3) G cells of stomach
(4) Mucus cells of stomach
155. Which portion of nephrons lies in Renal Pyramids?
(1) PCT
(2) DCT
(3) Loop of Henle
(4) Bowmans capsule
156. The enzymes that cause synthesis of C S and P O bonds, belong to the category of
(1) Oxidoreductase enzymes
(2) Hydrolase enzymes
(3) Lyase enzymes
(4) Ligase enzymes
157. Select the answer with correct matching of the structure, its locations and function.
Structure
(1) S A node
(2) Cerebellum
Location
Function
Right auricle Generation of heart beats 70

80/min. in all situations.
Controls respiration and
Hind brain
gastric secretions.
(3) Hypothalamus Forebrain
Controls body temperature

urge for eating and drinking.
(4) Otolithic organ Middle ear
Equalizes air pressure on

either sides of tympanic
membrane.
23/28
158. Given below are four statements ( A D ) regarding human blood circulatory system. Choose the correct ones.
(A) Internal valves are absent in pulmonary vein.
(B) Angina is acute chest pain that arises due to availability of adrenaline in circulation.
(C) Antibodies in plasma are globulins.
(D) Stroke volume is amount of blood ejected from each ventricle per minute.
(1) (A) & (B)
(2) (B) & (C)
(3) (A) & (C)
(4) (B) & (D)
159. In which one of the following enzymes Zn2+ is necessarily associated as an activator?
(1) Catalase
(2) Carboxypeptidase
(3) Hexokinase
(4) Tyrosinase
160. Injury to vagus nerve in human is not likely to affect
(1) Gastrointestinal movements
(2) Cardiac movements
(3) Tongue movements
(4) Pancreatic selection
(2).
161. A : Crossing over results in the exchange of genetic material between sister chromatids of homologous
chromosomes.
R : Crossing over occurs in the diplotene stage of prophase-I.
162. A : Root cap cells are rich in golgi bodies.
R : Golgi bodies are the main site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids.
163. A : Transport protein of endodermal cells are control points.
R : Endodermal cells of plants can adjust the quantity and types of solute that reach the xylem.
164. A : The stomata in plants closes during night.
R : An inhibitor abscissic acid (ABA) functions in the presence of CO2.
165. A : Absence of an essential mineral element causes deficiency in the plants.
R : The mineral element must be replaceable by another element.
166. A : Carotenoids are called shield pigments.
R : They absorb light of different wavelengths and transfer the energy to chlorophyll molecules.
167. A : Photolysis of water occurs in the lumen of thylakoid.
R : PS-II is present in Granum.
168. A : Oxygen acts as terminal electron acceptor during electron transport in inner mitochondrial membrane.
R : It becomes reactive and combines with protons to form metabolic water.
24/28
169. A : Some cells in plants develop the ability to divide and becomes meristematic.
R : The same apical meristem produces parenchyma, fibres, xylem, phloem, collenchyma and epidermis.
170. A : Lateral buds can grow even in the presence of apical bud.
R : Cytokinin application increases the supply of water and minerals to lateral buds.
171. A : Emphysema a disorder seen in smokers is characterised by retention of air in alveoli.
R : Cigarette smoke contains nicotine which is a hardening agent.
172. A : Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles that are transported from intestine into blood capillaries.
R : Lacteals provide bile salts for emulsification of fats in the lumen of small intestine.
173. A : The chemosensitive centre of medulla remains unaffected by level of oxygen in arterial blood.
R : The pneumotaxic centre in medulla reduces length of inspiration.
174. A : Ascaris is characterised by absence of true coelom but presence of metamerism.
R : In Ascaris self fertilisation is preferred over cross fertilisation.
175. A : A person undergoing prolonged fasting shows abnormal quantities of ketones in urine.
R : During fasting appearance of urea in urine stops.
176. A : Contractile vacuole in fresh water Protozoa helps in expulsion of water.
R : Osmolarity of fresh water is less than cytoplasm of cell.
177. A : The adrenal medulla secretes catecholamines, which stimulate glycogen breakdown.
R : The adrenal medulla is under direct regulation of Adenohypophysis.
178. A : Lecithin is a phosphorylated glyceride found in cell membrane.
R : Cholesterol is a membrane stabiliser.
179. A : Uricotelic mode of passing out nitrogenous waste is found in reptiles and birds.
R : Reptiles and birds consume very little quantity of water.
180. A : Shoulder joint and elbow joint are an example of synovial joints.
R : These two joints are biaxial joints.
[ GENERAL KNOWLEDGE]
181. The first woman President of Mauritius and a distinguished scientist is
(1) Ameenah Gurib-Fakim
(2) Angela Merkel
(3) Prativa Patil
(4) Sirimavo Bandaranaike
182. India's national aquatic animal is
(1) The River Crocodile
(2) The River Tortoise
(3) The River Mangur
(4) The River Dolphin
183. 'Outsider Art' means
(1) Raw art or self-taught art
(2) Ruin art or self-taught art
(3) Raw art or individual-taught art
(4) Raw artist or self-taught artist
25/28
184. Oxford Dictionary has announced which word as its "Word of the Year for 2015"?
(1) Face with Cold Sweat
(2) Face with Tears of Joy
(3) Face with Stuck-Out Tongue
(4) Flushed Face
185. Where will be the venue for Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation summit in 2016?
(1) Philippines
(2) Peru
(3) Chile
(4) Vietnam
186. Where is the sports stadium 'Green Park' located?
(1) Delhi
(2) Pune
(3) Kanpur
(4) Cuttack
187. Creator of the world famous Rock Garden of Chandigarh, ________ was born on December 15, 1924 whose
statues have also found a place in Capitol Children's Museum in Washington D.C. and the American Folk Art
Museum in New York City.
(1) Nec Chand Saini
(2) Nem Chand Saini
(3) Nek Chand Saini
(4) Nel Chand Saini
188. World's biggest animal cloning factory is present in
(1) USA
(2) China
(3) Japan
(4) UK
189. The World Bank approved $1.5 Billion loan to support the Government of India for the
(1) Kanya Bachao Abhiyan campaign
(2) Make in India campaign
(3) Pollution Free India campaign
(4) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan campaign
190. On which date International Day for Tolerance observed?
(1) November 14
(2) November 15
(3) November 16
(4) November 17
26/28
191. Which university is the world's largest university by enrollment with 34,99,999 students?
(1) Rajiv Gandhi University, Itanagar
(2) Indira Gandhi National Open University, New Delhi
(3) Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University, Hyderabad
(4) Mahatma Gandhi University, Kottayam
192. Which Award has recognized premier works in 23 Indian languages and includes six books of short stories,
six of poetry, four novels, two books each of essays, criticism and plays, and one memoir?
(1) Vysa Samman
(2) Murti Devi
(3) Sahitya Akademi
(4) Saraswati Samman
193. Orville and Wilbur Wright flew the first manned aircraft on
(1) December 17, 1906
(2) December 17, 1905
(3) December 17, 1904
(4) December 17, 1903
194. Team that won the 10th Savio Cup All India Basketball tournament 2015 is
(1) Indian Oil Corporation
(2) Oil & Natural Gas Corporation
(3) Life Insurance Corporation
(4) National Aluminium Company
195. Which state in India first time to implement the Radhakrishnan panel recommendations on Road Safety?
(1) Andhra Pradesh
(2) Uttar Pradesh
(3) Madhya Pradesh
(4) Delhi
196. Who is crowned Miss World 2015 at the final of the 65th Miss World Competition held in Sanya, south
China's Hainan Province?
(1) Rafaela Sofia Pardete from Portugal
(2) Mireia Lalaguna Royo from Spain
(3) Sacha Livingstone from Ireland
(4) Aditi Arya from India
197. What is the full form of IRNSS?
(1) India's Restricted Navigation Satellite System
(2) India's Regional Navigation Satellite System
(3) Indian Regional Navigating Satellite System
(4) Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System
27/28
198. Around how many percent of Indian women aged between 15 and 49 have anaemia or low blood cell count?
(1) 54%
(2) 55%
(3) 56%
(4) 57%
199. Stephen Hawking worldwide releases which award for scientists?
(1) Namesake
(2) Brainchild
(3) Handshake
(4) Hawking
200. The Nobel Prize amount for 2015 is set at Swedish kronor (SEK) is
(1) 6.0 million per full Nobel Prize
28/28
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

Online Test - 1
ANSWERS
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
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(1)
(1)
(4)
(4)
(1)
(2)
(4)
(2)
(1)
(3)
(1)
(4)
(4)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(2)
(3)
(2)
(2)
(1)
(3)
(3)
(2)
(1)
(4)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(4)
(3)
(1)
(3)
(4)
(1)
(1)
(2)
(1)
(2)
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(4)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(4)
(4)
(4)
(2)
(1)
(4)
(3)
(1)
(4)
(4)
(1)
(3)
(4)
(2)
(1)
(2)
(1)
(1)
(2)
(1)
(4)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(3)
(3)
(3)
(2)
(2)
(1)
(2)
(4)
81.
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120.
(2)
(4)
(1)
(4)
(2)
(1)
(3)
(3)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(2)
(3)
(2)
(2)
(2)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(1)
(4)
(3)
(4)
(3)
(1)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(2)
(3)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(1)
(2)
(1)
(3)
(2)
(3)
-1-
121.
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149.
150.
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158.
159.
160.
(4)
(2)
(2)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(4)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(2)
(2)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(2)
(1)
(3)
(3)
(3)
(3)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(3)
(3)
(2)
(3)
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200.
(4)
(2)
(1)
(1)
(4)
(2)
(2)
(2)
(2)
(1)
(2)
(4)
(3)
(4)
(3)
(1)
(3)
(2)
(1)
(3)
(1)
(4)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(2)
(4)
(3)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(2)
(4)
(2)
(4)
(2)
(1)
(3)
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

Online Test - 1
ANSWERS & HINTS

1.
Answer (1)
Mean value =
1.34 1.38 1.32 1.36

= 1.35
4
Mean error a) =
0.01 0.03 0.03 0.01

0.08
=
4
4
= 0.02
% error =
0.02
100%
1.35
= 1.48%
Hence, ref. index = 1.35 1.48%
2.
Answer (1)
T Sarbc
T = [MT2]a [L]b [ML3]c
T = Ma+c Lb-3c T-2a
2a = 1 b = +3c
a+c=0
c = +1/2
a = 1/2
b = +3/2
T k r 3 / S
3.
Answer (4)

A B 3 A.B
ABsin =
3 AB cos
= 60

|A B| ( A2 B 2 3 AB cos 60)1/2
= (A2 + B2 + AB)1/2
4.
Answer (4)

B and C are parallel vectors.
-2-
5.
Answer (1)
x = (a + bt) (c + at)
x = abt2 + (a2 + bc)t + ac
6.
dx
= 2abt + (a2 + bc)
dt
dv
= 2ab = constant
dt
Answer (2)

u 3i 4 j

a 0.4i 0.3 j
t = 10 sec

v u at

v (3i 4 j) (0.4i 0.3 j) 10

v 7i 7 j

v 7 2 units
7.
Answer (4)
x = acost
x
a
2 2.5
Time to come from extreme to mean postion = 0.5 sec and distance = a
Total time = 2.5 sec, hence distance = 5a
8.
Answer (2)
H
u2
u 2 2gh
2g
H
v 2 u 2 2g
2
(10)2 = u2 gH = gH
(10)2
10 m
10
Answer (1)
9.
y x
x2
2
y x 1
2
y x tan 1
R
tan= 1
R = 2m
= 45
u 2 sin 2
2
g
-3-
u 2 sin90
2
g
u 2g
T
T
2u sin
1
2
2 2g
g
2
g
10. Answer (3)

m.g = AV2 (thrust due to gases)
m0 g
A
11. Answer (1)
3W
2
N = Wcos30 =
Nsin30 = T
3W
4
12. Answer (4)
T
T3 T 3
T2 T2
T1 T1
l
l
l
T1 = m2 (3l)
T2 T1 = m2 (2l)
T2 = m2 (5l)
T3 T2 = m2 (l)
T3 = m2 (6l)
T1 : T2 :T3 = 3 : 5 :6
13.
Answer (4)
4
1
1
mv 2 mu2 Fx dx
2
2
3
4
1
m(v 2 (8)2 6 xdx
2
3
4
x2
1
2(v 2 64) 6
2
2 3
v2 64 = 3 (16 9)
v2 = 64 21
v=
43 = 6.6 m/s
14. Answer (2)
1
1
1
mv 2 mv 2 Kx 2
2
2
2
2
2
2mv = Kx
2mv 2
K
-4-
15. Answer (3)

2mu cos
v
u
2
2mu cos
cos
2mv
2
u
2m
2
2
2 2
= 60
2
u
2m
/2
u
m
120
16. Answer (3)
Gmm0
3
a
ve2
1
2
m0v e 0
2
6 3Gm
a
6 3Gm
a
ve
17. Answer (2)

F
Gm1m2
r2
4
4
G1 r 3 2 r 3
3
3
F
r2
F
16
G12 r 2 r 4
9
F r4
18. Answer (3)
0 = V0 at
0 = 0 t
V0 0
V0
0
ma m
0
V0
2
R2
ma 2
5
mR 2
5
V0
0
2
R2
F
F R 5
V0
2
R 0
5
5V0 = 20R
-5-
19. Answer (2)

At terminal speed,
Mg = FB + Fv
Fv = Mg FB
= Mg vd2g
Mg
d
M
d2 g Mg 1 2
d1
d1
20. Answer (2)

m1x1 = m2x2
x1 + x2 = x0
mx1 = 2mx2
x1 = 2x2
x2
x1
2
x1
x0
2
2 x0
x1
3
21. Answer (1)
x1
3h
P g
2
3
F
g 2 A h
2
F (3gA )h
h
2
2A
F = kh
T 2
m
3gA
22. Answer (3)

Heat lost = x 540
Heat gained = y 80 + y 100 1
180y = 540x
x:y = 1:3
23. Answer (3)
l1 = l
l2 = 2l
r1 = 2r
r2 = r
v1 = 4r l
2
v2 = 2r2l
v1 : v2 = 2 : 1
v1:v2 = 2 : 1
v constant
24. Answer (2)

f
n1f1 n2f2
n1 n2
1 3 1 5
4
2
2
2
1 1.5
f
4
-6-
25. Answer (1)
A
B
C
V
26. Answer (4)

U = 3 + 2PV
U = 3 + 2RT ( for one mole )
Cv
dU
2R
dT
CP = CV + R = 3R
r = 1.5
1.4 < r < 1.67
Hence it is mixture of monoatomic and diatomic.
27. Answer (2)
y y 0 sin 2 ft
wave velocity = f
Particle velocity
Vp y 0 f 2 sin2 ft
(VP)max = 2y0f
2y0f = 4f
y 0
2
28. Answer (2)
y 5 sin
x
cos 40t
3
for node, sin
x
0
3
x
n
3
x2 x1
3
3
(x2 x1) = 3 cm
29. Answer (3)

2RT
2
4
R 3 g R 3 g
3
3
R2
2R 2
g
g
3
3
R2
2 g
3
3T
(2 )g
-7-
30. Answer (3)

1 2
y 4x
2

v
v
E
i
i
x
y
1
1
4 i 2y j
2
2
= 2i yj

= E 2i j y 1
31. Answer (4)
4
r

r 4
2
2l
l
2
2
2

16
8 8 = a
8
9
32. Answer (3)
y = Acost
(A a) = Acos A (a + b) = Acos2
(a + b) = A 2 sin2
(a + b) = 2A (1 cos2)
Aa
a b 2A 1
A 2 A a 2
a b 2 A
A2
2A
a 2A a
A2
(a + b)A = 2(2Aa a2)
2a2 = (4a a b)A
a b
2a 2
3a b
33. Answer (1)
= Kx L
L
KL
2
KL2

2
= c
T 2
M, L
ML2
M
T 2 122 2
KL
6K
2
-8-
34. Answer (3)

Maximum efficiency 1
T2
0.5
T1
35. Answer (4)

f
f
f
RT n1 RT1 n2 RT2
2
2
2
n1 n2
T
n1T1 n2T2
n1 n2
36. Answer (1)

10g 4g = 4a
6g
= 15 m/s2
4
37. Answer (1)

F
m
K
i
x2
dv
k
2
dt
x
dv dx
k
dx dt
x2
k
dx
x2
m v dv
v
v 2
k x dx

2
2 0 m a x
v2
2k x a
m ax
2k x a
m xa
38. Answer (2)

T2 mg
TH
mv 2
r
mv 2
mg
r
TL TH = 2mg
39. Answer (1)
U
r 11 r 5
du
11 5
12 6 0
dr
r
r
11
5
r6
1/6
11
r
-9-
40
Answer (2)
H
u 2 sin2
u 2 sin2
,R
2g
g
v1 u cos sin
r
r
uR
16H R
2
R
H2
4
u cos
u cos sin
H
R
2
R
H2
4
4uRH
2
4H 2
16H 2 R 2
41. Answer (4)

P
mass
x
area
[MLT1] = [ML2] [x]

[x] = [L3T1]
Assertion is wrong.
42. Answer (1)
AB cos1 = BC cos2
Amay not be equal to C.
Assertion is correct and reason correctly explains it.
43. Answer (2)
Assertion is correct as well as reason is indivisually correct but not correct explanation.
44. Answer (3)
Newton second law cannot be used for any object, specially relativistic objects.
45. Answer (4)
Centrifugal and gravitational forces both play the role in separating the cream.
46
Answer (4)
P2
2m
(1.5P )2
2.25K
2m
K
2.25K K
100
100 125%
K
K
47. Answer (4)
At centre of earth weight of the body becomes zero but mass can never be zero.
48. Answer (4)

In uniform circular motion Fnet v . Assertion is wrong.
49. Answer (2)

50. Answer (1)
F kx = m2a
kx = m1a
m1a
k
Hence reason correctly explains the statement.
- 10 -
51. Answer (4)

Internal force can change the kinetic energy of system of assertion is false.
52. Answer (3)
Acc. due to gravity is variable but it does not vary with mass of body.
53. Answer (1)
y
stress
strain
Restoring force
Area
As restoring force for perfectly plastic body hence y = 0
Stress =
54. Answer (4)
Viscosity of liquids decreases with temeprature.

55. Answer (4)
1
m2 A2 is const.
2
Hence it does not execute SHM.
T.F =
56. Answer (1)
TE 2
l
gE
TM 2
l
gm
TM
TE
g
gm ,
gE > gm
gE = 6gm
TM 6 TE
57. Answer (3)
y = Asin2t = 2A sint cost
2
x
x
1
A
A
y 2A
x2
y 2 x 1 2
A
x2
y 2 4 x 2 1 2
A
y 2 x 2 is not correct.
x y curved path.
58. Answer (4)
Q = 100 J, W = 120 J
U = Q W
= 100 120 = 20
Hence temperature should decrease.
59. Answer (2)
Reason does not explain the entropy.
60. Answer (1)
By coloriemetry principle the heat absorbed for melting of ice comes from water making water cooler.
- 11 -
61. Answer (2)

FeSO4 Fe+2 + SO42
Fe2(SO4)3 2Fe+2 + 3SO42
Suppose x mole SO42 ions are furnished by both FeSO4 and Fe2(SO4)3.
Number of mole of Fe+2 = x
Number of mole of Fe+3 =
2x
3
Fe+2 : Fe+3
x:
2x
3
3:2
62. Answer (1)
Electron density of 3d
x2 y 2
orbital in yz plane is zero.
63. Answer (1)

According to Heisenberg, x m v
h
4
For particle A,
x = xA
m=m
v = 0.05
x A m 0.05
h
4
(i)
For particle B,
x = xB
m = 5m
v = 0.02
h
4
xB 5m 0.02
(ii)
x A 5 0.02
(i)
2
and we get,
xB
0.05
(ii)
64. Answer (2)
eq.
xA = 1.2, xB = 4.0
% Ionic character = 16[xA xB] + 3.5[xA xB]2
= 16[1.2 4.0] + 3.5[1.2 4.0]2
= 44.8 + 27.44
= 72.24%
65. Answer (1)
NH4 NH3 NH2
This is because all of them involve sp3 hybridisation. The number of lone pair of electron present of N-atom
are 0, 1, 2 respectively.
Greater the number of lone pair, greater the repulsion on the bond pair, smaller is the bond angle.
66. Answer (4)
C in CO32 and B in BCl3 are sp2 hybridised. Thus acquire planar geometry, due to steric hinderance caused
by three bulky group make it planar for higher stability.
- 12 -
67. Answer (2)

C2 has two pair of electrons in 2p and 2p . Therefore, it has only two -bonds.
y
y
68. Answer (3)
Because the inversion temperature of helium is very low.
69. Answer (4)
In adiabatic expansion work is done by the system so it will lose heat to the surrounding. Thus, temperature
of the system decrease.
70. Answer (2)
Fact.
71. Answer (3)
I donates a pair of electron and I2 accepts it to form I3.
72. Answer (4)
OH
108
from NaOH
10 7
from H2O
73. Answer (3)

Due to p p back bonding.
74. Answer (3)
B3H6N3 inorganic benzene.
75. Answer (3)
Fact.
76. Answer (2)
CuO
B2 O3 Cu(BO2 )2
(Cupric metaborate)
(Blue beads)
77. Answer (2)

Na + C + N + S NaCNS
78. Answer (1)
Fact.
79. Answer (2)
Enol content stabilised by H-bonding.
80. Answer (4)
Same alkyl group attached to double bonded carbon.
81. Answer (2)
R NH2 + I effect of alkyl group.
+I effect
82. Answer (4)
CH3
CH3 C O
CH3
+I effect of R group, charge density on oxygen increase.
83. Answer (1)
2 system.
84. Answer (4)
Octane number can be changed by isomerisation, alkylation and cyclisation process.
- 13 -
85. Answer (2)

CH2 COOK
CH2
Electrolysed
CH2 COOK
CH2
+ 2CO2 + 2KOH + H2
86. Answer (1)
Ph C C CH3
Hg+2/H+
Ph C = C CH3
OH H
Ph C CH2 CH3
Tautomerism
O
87. Answer (3)
3 free radical is more stable.
88. Answer (3)
1
1
pH 7 pK a pK b
2
2
89. Answer (2)
H act as proton acceptor.

90. Answer (3)
O
Cr
O
OK+
OK+
+
OK
91. Answer (4)
Oxidation number of nitrogen is +3.

92. Answer (2)
CaCl2
111
103
CaCO3
100 103 mg
mg
11.1 mg of CaCl2 =
100 103 11.1
111 103
= 10 mg of CaCO3
MgSO4
120
103
mg
CaCO3
100 103 mg
12 mg of MgSO4 =
100 103 12
120 103
= 10 mg of CaCO3
In 2 lit. of water, total weight of CaCO3

= 10 + 10 = 20 mg
In 1 lit. = 20/2 = 10 mg
In 106 mg of water, total weight of CaCO3 = 10 mg
So in 106 part water, hardness of water in terms of CaCO3 = 10 ppm
93. Answer (3)
Fact.
94. Answer (2)
Minimum hydration.
- 14 -
95. Answer (2)

Mg+2 is smallest in size hence show high polarising power. Thus MgCO3 is most covalent and least stable.
96. Answer (2)
Lewis acid.
97. Answer (1)
Benzene.
98. Answer (2)
Fact.
99. Answer (3)
O
O=O
Bond order
=2
HOOH
Bond order
= 1.5
Bond order
=1
100. Answer (1)

Fact.
101. Answer (4)
2px and 2py same energy level.
102. Answer (3)
Cr = 3d54s1 six unpaired electron.
103. Answer (4)
H2O2 covalent in nature.
104. Answer (3)
CH2 = CH2 sp2, CH CH sp hybridised.
105. Answer (1)
At high pressure Z 1
Pb
and van der Waal equation P(V b) = RT.
RT
106. Answer (1)

Fact.
107. Answer (2)
Internal energy is a function of temperature.
108. Answer (2)
Fact.
109. Answer (3)
Fact.
110. Answer (2)
Abnormal property of H2O.
111. Answer (3)
Smaller radius, high charge density, high hydration.
112. Answer (2)
Fact.
113. Answer (3)
Fact.
114. Answer (3)
Fact.
115. Answer (1)
Fact.
- 15 -
116. Answer (2)

Fact.
117. Answer (1)
Cyclopentadienyl anion is aromatic in character.
118. Answer (3)
It forms 2 radical.
119. Answer (2)
Blue colour is due to solvated electrons.
120. Answer (3)
Covalent character is due to small size of Li+2 (polarisation).
121. Answer (4)
Proposal of binomial nomenclature was given by Caspar Bauhin.
122. Answer (2)
No CO2 release during glycolysis.
123. Answer (2)
Order and Families represented.
124. Answer (1)
Kingdom fungi was created on the basis of mode of nutrition.
125. Answer (2)
126. Answer (2)
Pigment bacteriorhodopsin is developed in the membranes of halophile which trap sunlight and forms ATP but
ATP do not involved in food production.
127. Answer (4)
128. Answer (2)
129. Answer (2)
Mn++, Cl and Ca++ are complexed with proteins.
130. Answer (3)
Viruses which infect animal cell usually contains ds DNA or ss or ds RNA as genetic material.
131. Answer (3)
In Spirogyra motile stage is absent i.e., flagellated spores and gametes are absent.
132. Answer (2)
Embryo is developed inside the archegonium.
133. Answer (2)
Mitoplast are mitochondria without outer membrane.
134. Answer (1)
Male and female gametophytes are not independent in Gymnosperms and Angiosperms.
135. Answer (2)
136. Answer (2)
137. Answer (3)
138. Answer (2)
139. Answer (1)
140. Answer (3)
- 16 -
141. Answer (3)

Ascidia belongs to Urochordata.
Salamandra is amphibian, scales are absent.
Cnidoblasts are not found in Porifera.
142. Answer (3)
143. Answer (3)
Oxytocin and vasopressin are directly released by neuron endings in posterior pituitary. Hypothyroidism leads
to mental retardation etc. PTH releases Ca2+ from bones.
144. Answer (2)
Nitrogen containing polysaccharide is chitin.
145. Answer (2)
ST interval corresponds to ventricular systole.
146. Answer (3)
Gouty arthritis is not autoimmune disease.
Thoracic vertebrae have well developed centra and spines.
Joints between cranial plates are fibrous in nature.
147. Answer (3)
More the water absorbed in the cortical part of collecting duct by ADH more concentrated is urine as it reaches
medullary region.
148. Answer (2)
Broadening of pectoral girdle is property of testosterone.
149. Answer (3)
Anal styles are seen only in males. Malpighian tubules link to gut close to ileum part of hind gut. Alary muscles
help in movements of blood through heart.
150. Answer (4)
151. Answer (2)
152. Answer (2)
Intestine does not have ciliated epithelium.
Microglia are phagocytic cells, myelin secretion is function of Oligodendrocytes.
Adipose tissue is present behind eye balls.
153. Answer (3)
In spleen fresh RBCs are stored.
154. Answer (2)
Oxyntic cells secrete HCl that causes coagulation of milk in adult.
155. Answer (3)
156. Answer (4)
157. Answer (3)
SA nodes can vary number of beats according to demand of body.
Medulla controls respiration and gastric secretions.
Otolithic organ detects changes in equilibrium of body.
158. Answer (3)
Angina is acute chest pain due to insufficiency of oxygen to heart muscle.
Stroke volume is amount of blood ejected from each ventricle per beat.
- 17 -
159. Answer (2)

Haeme is activator for catalase.
Mg2+ for Hexokinase
Ca2+ for Tyrosinase
160. Answer (3)
Tongue is controlled by Hypoglossal nerve.
161. Answer (4)
Crossing over occurs in pachytene stage of prophase-I in which exchange of genetic material takes place
between two non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.
162. Answer (2)
Golgi bodies secret mucilage in the root cap for lubrication.
163. Answer (1)
164. Answer (1)
165. Answer (4)
Plant cannot survive in absence of essential mineral elements.
166. Answer (2)
Carotenoids protect the other pigments from heat and photooxidation.
167. Answer (2)
168. Answer (2)
169. Answer (2)
170. Answer (1)
171. Answer (2)
172. Answer (4)
Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles that are transported from intestine into lecteals.
173. Answer (3)
Pneumotaxic centre is in Pons.
174. Answer (4)
175. Answer (3)
176. Answer (1)
177. Answer (3)
Adrenal cortex and not the adrenal medulla lies under control of adenohypophysis.
178. Answer (2)
179. Answer (1)
180. Answer (3)
Shoulder and elbow joints are multiaxial.
181. Answer (1)
182. Answer (4)
183. Answer (1)
184. Answer (2)
185. Answer (2)
186. Answer (3)
187. Answer (3)
188. Answer (2)
189. Answer (4)
- 18 -
190. Answer (3)

191. Answer (2)
192. Answer (3)
193. Answer (4)
194. Answer (2)
195. Answer (4)
196. Answer (2)
197. Answer (4)
198. Answer (2)
199. Answer (1)
200. Answer (3)

- 19 -

Allen Kota Test Papers (Medical)

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Test - 1 (Objective)

Aakash Explorer for AIIMS-2017

Aakash Explorer for AIIMS-2017

The refractive index of water measured by the relation

(4) (A2 + B2 + AB)1/2

Aakash Explorer for AIIMS-2017

A particle is projected from ground. If equation of trajectory is y x

then find its time of flight.

Aakash Explorer for AIIMS-2017

Aakash Explorer for AIIMS-2017

Aakash Explorer for AIIMS-2017

Aakash Explorer for AIIMS-2017

25. P V diagram for the following cyclic process is

the wave velocity if

Aakash Explorer for AIIMS-2017

30. For the potential V

31. A rod of length l and radius r is jonied to a rod of length

Aakash Explorer for AIIMS-2017

34. Efficiency of a heat engine working between 500 K and 1000 K is

Aakash Explorer for AIIMS-2017

39. If interatomic potential energy u

5 , find interatomic separation (r) at equillibrium.

Aakash Explorer for AIIMS-2017

41. A : In the equation momentum p

R : This follows from g ' g 1

A : The magnitude of spring force is m1a at this instant.

R : Internal forces can change momentum of a system of particles.

Aakash Explorer for AIIMS-2017

Aakash Explorer for AIIMS-2017

Aakash Explorer for AIIMS-2017

(1) N, N-dimethyl cyclopropane carboxamide

(2) CH3 C CH2 C CH3

(4) CH3 C CH2 C H

Aakash Explorer for AIIMS-2017

Aakash Explorer for AIIMS-2017

(2) Ph CH2 C CH3

(4) Ph CH2 CH CH3

87. In the following reaction

The product formed is

Aakash Explorer for AIIMS-2017

90. Oxidation number of Cr in K3CrO8

Aakash Explorer for AIIMS-2017

98. Photochemical smog is due to the presence of

R : At high pressure van der Waals equation is modified as P(V b) = RT.

106. A : Meniscus of liquid disappears at the critical temperature.

Aakash Explorer for AIIMS-2017

Diptera, Felidae, Poaceae, Sapindales, Primata,

Aakash Explorer for AIIMS-2017

124. Select the odd one w.r.t. five kingdom system

Aakash Explorer for AIIMS-2017

131. Non flagellated gametes are produced in

Aakash Explorer for AIIMS-2017

138. Reserve for replenishment of damaged cells of meristem is

c. Movement of cilia and flagella

d. Inhibition of polymerisation of microtubules

142. The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is due to

Aakash Explorer for AIIMS-2017

144. Exoskeleton of arthropods and fungal cell walls are composed of

(1) Contraction of both the atria

Aakash Explorer for AIIMS-2017

(2) Cuboidal epithelium Nephron

(4) Areolar tissue