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Instructors Manual 3rd Edition
Instructors Manual 3rd Edition
Air Conditioning
A Practical Introduction
third edition
David V. Chadderton
14th November 2013
Introduction
Air Conditioning, A Practical Introduction, third edition, Instructors Manual complements
the textbook with a bank of multiple choice answer questions. Questions cover the range of
topics in the text book and more. The objective of this manual is to provide a teaching,
learning and testing resource that the author never had, but would have appreciated.
The comprehensive contents list is hyperlinked to all chapters and subject sections to make
navigation and return to the table of contents easy.
The subjects within this manual can be of valuable assistance to instructors of courses
other than within those of building services engineering, architecture, surveying and
construction.
Wherever air conditioning systems, climate variation, low energy uncooled buildings,
cooling load calculation, annual energy, psychrometrics, fan applications, air duct design,
building management systems (BMS), commissioning, maintenance, air duct acoustics, post
occupancy assessment, thermal environment, human comfort, energy economics, ventilation,
assessing a project cost and selling price and the use of units of measurement are studied,
users will find material of benefit.
Instructors can easily edit and adapt the questions provided for their own purposes and
create unique testing assignments.
There are over 1300 questions . These repeat questions in the printed book and add many
multiple choice answer questions. They are collected into subject groups and also into random
subject sections.
Correct responses are in red as the Instructors Manual is only provided as downloadable
files to instructors. The user edits the highlighted answers when preparing them for student
use. Question grouping allows rapid access to each topic area. Some questions require more
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knowledge than is provided in the printed book. Users need to draw upon on-site observation
and experience plus further investigation, discussion, questioning and searching the internet.
Multiple choice questions usually have responses with only one correct answer, although
discussion may occur where shades of opinion are not clear-cut for every application. In order
to stimulate users away from only seeking one answer, many questions are provided with
more than one correct response.
Correct answers are only one part of the whole solution; just select from answers provided.
Use these questions for class and individual revision. Even the spurious alternatives
provide a valid means of revising understanding and reinforcement of learning. They all
require mental gymnastics to evaluate them. Groups of questions can be provided to students
for assignments. Test students understanding by requiring explanations for why answers are
incorrect.
The author has found that students respond well to competition between groups when led
by the instructor as it adds an element of fun to learning. A class quiz of twenty-five questions
is about right for a one hour session for groups of up to five students each. The quiz leader
fires a question at a named individual, allows no conferring within the group, awarding one
point for the correct response and taking a point away from the group if incorrect, then throws
the question open to anyone to answer for a point.
Alternatively, display a question with optional responses though a data projector for the
class from the files provided. Correct solutions appear on a second slide highlighted in red.
The instructor challenges a group to discuss and agree the correct responses within say thirty
seconds, awarding a point for fully accurate answers.
Sets of questions are suitable for college internal websites where students are allowed
limited time for undertaking tests and assignments. Files of questions may be emailed to
students for response by a specified date and time.
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Some of these multiple choice questions are reproduced in the printed book to stimulate
interest and prepare readers for tests; they appear in the questions bank and in each chapter.
Such duplication from the manual does not create conflict as the textbook and the manual
have different readerships. The instructor is provided with all the available questions in this
manual.
The author expects users to find as much enjoyment and educational benefit in answering
and discussing these questions as he did in producing them. Happy quizzing!
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Contents
4 Psychrometric design
Psychrometric chart
5 System design
Air conditioning systems
Air curtains
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6 Ductwork design
Air flow capacity
Air pressure
Duct pressures
Measurements
Static regain
7 Controls
Actuators
Building management systems
Components
Control mode
Control schematics
Fan control
Refrigeration system control
Wiring diagram
9 Fans
Commissioning fans
Fan and system operation
Fan control
Fan curves
Fan testing
Fan types
Fans and systems
Opening force
10
Fluid flow
Air ducts
Flow calculation
Gas
Heating systems
Thermal storage
11
Acoustic knowledge
Addition of sounds
Attenuation
Basics
Decibel
Design cases
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12
Project
13
Question bank
Acoustics
Acronyms
Air conditioning
Air quality
Building management systems
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CO2 emissions
Density
Electrical
Fabric energy storage
Fans
General knowledge
Government policies
Heat transfer
Low energy buildings
Lucky dip
Refrigeration systems
Sustainability
Temperature
Thermal comfort
Ventilation
Volume
14
Understanding units
Density
Electrical
Energy
Frequency
General knowledge
Heat transfer
Mathematics
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Pressure
Temperature
Units
Volume
The end
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Case studies
1. What is your opinion of The Shard building( 46 London Bridge Street, London, SE1
9SG) at London Bridge station? A one word answer was it? Prefer to pass on to the next
question? Know the answer without calculation? A great deal of work went into it and the
substantial building is expected to stand there for 50 plus years, so we cannot ignore it. In the
context of peak summertime temperature, what would happen on the intermediate 68th floor
viewing deck?
Visit the-shard.com website, also in Wikipedia, and look at the features. Locate the corner
of Borough High Street, St. Thomas Street and Bedale Street in Google Earth and stand there
to view The Shard at a distance. Move around The Shard and its surroundings. View the many
photographs taken and relate the design to its surroundings. Many views show construction
underway.
Each level has floor to ceiling triple glazing with automatic internal blinds. Assume the
glazing to be clear/clear/heat absorbing. There is no point in lowering internal blinds on the
windows of this viewing deck as there would be no view out. The 68th floor dimensions are
approximately 12 m 12 m 3 m high. The building faces approximately N, S, E and W.
The inner core comprises lift shafts and various rooms. We will consider this to be a
lightweight construction. Only a few lower floors will have any shading from surrounding
low height buildings.
Copy a workbook file, rename it as shard and enter the data to predict the peak
summertime temperature without any air conditioning. As a simplification, ignore the inner
core walls as they add thermal mass and make the internal conditions worse.
Triple glazing U 3 W/m2 K, Y 3 W/m2 K, f 1.0, lag 0 h, solar correction factor 0.37 and
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alternating solar correction factor 0.35; ceiling U 0 W/m2 K, Y 0.3 W/m2 K, f 0.5, lag 10 h;
floor U 0 W/m2 K, Y 1.5 W/m2 K, f 0.9, lag 10 h. There are no walls, the perimeter is all glass,
there are 20 occupants during 10.0022.00 h and no lights are switched on.
Answer. The viewing deck is uninhabitable without air conditioning from 06.30 to 20.30 h as
tei remains above 26oC, peaking at 43oC at 15.00 h, as we expected.
2. An outstanding design using natural ventilation with no cooling is the London Olympic
2012 Velodrome in Stratford. (CIBSE Journal, October 2012, Built for Speed, pp. 3036.)
Locate Quartermile Lane alongside the Velodrome, look around the site and view the many
photographs. Some show construction work underway. Note the extensive low and high level
exterior ventilation louvres and strips of roof lights admitting fully diffused daylight. The
entrance foyers are glazed but fully shaded with large flat verandas. Concourse glazing
provides daylight into the spectator area all around the building. The designers intention was
to maintain 28oC d.b. air at track level.
Visit the london2012.com website, look at the features and take the virtual tour of the
Velodrome and watch the construction videos. There are two entrance foyers on the short
sides, one facing approximately south and the other approximately north.
All dimensions are approximations for the purpose of this exercise: floor 100 m 50 m;
average internal height 12 m; perimeter double glazing, above the track, is 2.5 m high; each
entrance foyer double glazing is 32 m 3 m; eight double glazed roof lights of 80 m 1 m.
We will consider this to be a lightweight construction. Copy a workbook file, rename it as
velodrome and enter the data to predict the peak summertime temperature without any air
conditioning. Enter data for the building as if it were rectangular with a flat roof.
Triple glazing U 3 W/m2 K, Y 3 W/m2 K, f 1.0, lag 0 h, solar correction factor 0.6 and
alternating solar correction factor 0.5; wall U 0.3 W/m2 K, Y 0.8 W/m2 K, f 0.6, lag 6 h; roof
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U 0.25 W/m2 K, Y 1.5 W/m2 K, f 0.9, lag 3 h; concrete floor U 0.1 W/m2 K, Y 3 W/m2 K, f
0.7, lag 10 h.
Make sure to correct the cell references for the time lags given. Calculate the peak
summertime environmental temperature for an empty building with no lighting switched on.
Select an assessment for the building leakage rate and test other values. Then save the file as
velodrome2 and add 6000 spectators, 200 track personnel and 356 down lights of 1 kW each
for television use. Consider occupancy time to be 10.00 h to 24.00 h.
Answer. Our assumption of a rectangular building, not the rounded shape, north and south
entrance glazing that is very well shaded from solar gain by verandas, and full occupancy,
have led to our overestimation of the heat gains. We have no published information of the
natural ventilation rate. For leaky standard, empty Velodrome, tei of 28oC is exceeded from
12.00 to 17.00 h but falls away rapidly in the evening, as is expected for the UK. When fully
occupied, 28oC is exceeded from 10.00 to 19.00 h even with 8.3 air changes per hour, and
then falls away. Indoor air temperature could be 12oC below environmental, as discussed
earlier. We have predicted a peak tei of 32.4oC when there are 8.3 air changes/h and 42.1oC
when there are 3 air changes/h, meaning a measurable range for tai to be 3040oC d.b. This
can be considered to be a very satisfactory outcome from such a simplified assessment as the
designers published modelling predictions show track air to be 30oC and 36oC around the
spectators and ceiling.
3. Locate the Woodhouse Medical Centre at 57 Skelton Lane, Woodhouse, near Sheffield
with Google Earth. Constructed in 1989, it was intended as a low energy green building,
single-storey with brick/block walls and high thermal insulation and natural ventilation
(PROBE 6, Woodhouse Medical Centre, BSJ August 1996). Look around to observe how the
medical centre fits in with nearby architecture consisting of 12-storey brick and tile
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traditional and well-established houses and public buildings. It blends very easily with its
semi-rural surroundings. Windows are small, openable and are shaded with eaves. We will
calculate summertime temperature for the front part of the left hand building facing onto
Skelton Lane showing three small windows facing the lane. This square floor plan is 14 m
14 m and has 3 m room height. 4 m2 of single glazing face north onto Skelton Lane, 12 m2
face west, none face east. The south end is an attached internal wall. Consider the 6 m2 of
openable single glazed roof lights to be on a horizontal roof. Window U 3 W/m2 K, Y 3 W/m2
K, f 1.0, lag 0 h, solar correction factor 0.76 and alternating solar correction factor 0.5; walls
U 0.4 W/m2 K, Y 3 W/m2 K, f 0.4, lag 10 h, ceiling U 0.3 W/m2 K, Y 0.7 W/m2 K, f 1, lag 10
h; floor U 0.25 W/m2 K, Y 1.5 W/m2 K, f 0.9, lag 10 h; internal wall U 1.5 W/m2 K, Y 5 W/m2
K, f 0.5, lag 10 h. There are 10 occupants during 09.0020.00 h. Copy a workbook file,
rename it as woodhouse and enter the data to predict the peak summertime temperature.
Answer. Tight air leakage standard selected. The occupants did not make use of the manually
controlled ventilators, windows or openable roof lights; summer overheating led to the
installation of room air conditioners. No air leakage test was conducted. 26oC is exceeded
during working hours of 10.3019.30 h.
4. What result do you expect from calculation of peak internal summertime temperature in a
UK commercial building that was designed for air conditioning, windows not openable, every
workstation having a computer, shaded glazing to avoid sun glare for all workstations,
artificial lighting continuously on and occupancy around 8 m2 per person?
Answer. Little point in making the calculation. Internal heat gains from people, lighting and
computer systems may exceed heat gains from the external environment. Internal heat gains
are a constant and may exceed heat loss from the building during cold weather. Mechanical
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ventilation and air conditioning is a necessity. No way could any form of uncooled ventilation
system maintain comfort.
5. Locate the Tower of London, central White Tower, with Google Earth. Constructed in
1078, it would have been the epitome of construction design and skill at the time. What sort
of peak summertime temperature might the original residents and guests experience? Look
around to observe how the White Tower fits in within the Tower of London architecture.
Other surrounding buildings did not exist in the present form, so ignore them. Ignore the
dungeons for calculation purposes. Windows are small, probably not openable and have no
shading or eaves. The square floor plan is approximately 20 m 20 m and a total of 13 m
height. Facades face virtually N, S, E and W. Natural ventilation from doors and chimneys
from open log fireplaces would create a draughty environment. There is around 25 m2 of lead
light single glazing on each faade. Solid stone walls probably 1 m thick or more U 3 W/m2
K, Y 5 W/m2 K, f 0.5, lag 10 h; windows U 6 W/m2 K, Y 6 W/m2 K, f 1.0, lag 0 h, solar
correction factor 0.76 and alternating solar correction factor 0.5; roof heavyweight
construction U 3 W/m2 K, Y 5 W/m2 K, f 0.5, lag 10 h; stone floor U 0.4W/m2 K, Y 4 W/m2
K, f 0.6, lag 10 h. 120 occupants 24 hours a day for staff, soldiers and prisoners. Combustion
of hydrocarbon fuel, wood and candles, for cooking, lighting and water heating, will not be
counted in this calculation. Copy a workbook file, rename it as white tower and enter the data
to predict the peak summertime temperature. Overall time lag for the building would be
measured in days and probably felt cold indoors all summer. Visit a castle or cathedral to
observe internal air conditions in summer, that is, on a warm summer day. Compare what you
calculate with modern buildings known to you.
Answer. Using an average air leakage standard, a consistently warm internal environment
during summer is maintained. Thermal storage time lags are so long, days rather than hours,
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that once warmed, the inside remains warm; rather like in deep caves. On a typical London
summer day, the interior does not overheat and peaks at 26.2oC environmental temperature,
not that the builders would have understood that at all. Note the evenly warm conditions only
ranging between 22.3oC and 26.2oC. We have no reason to think that weather was
significantly different in 1078 to today, apart from being told that today is warmer due to our
use of hydrocarbon fuels. What has modern design learned? Obviously we design and build
much faster in modern times as compared to ancient builders, but our glass-ridden,
lightweight steel and concrete towers are uninhabitable without mechanical cooling and
mechanical ventilation. Have we improved on the ancients work? Have a look and visit
buildings of 1000 years of age. All buildings require maintenance or they fall down, so there
is no change there. We might conclude that modern life has been a retrograde step in the
design of buildings and led us to burn more hydrocarbon fuels that emit carbon dioxide into
the atmosphere, which leads to climate change, global warming and a need to reduce our
dependence on such fuels. What do you think?
6. Calculate the peak summertime temperature in a caravan. These are a popular means of
holidaying, preferable to frame tents for keeping rain out and for surviving a camping
experience in muddy fields. Windows are small, openable, no eaves and have interior shading.
A typical floor plan is 6 m 2 m and 2 m height. A camper selects a southern England costal
site and places the caravan so the long side faces south for the view. There are 2 m2 of
darkened single polycarbonate glazing on each facade U 3 W/m2 K, Y 3 W/m2 K, f 0.5, lag 0
h, solar correction factor 0.2 and alternating solar correction factor 0.2; walls and roof are of
the same construction of galvanised steel frame, aluminium external skin, 50 mm glass fibre
insulation and 5 mm board U 1 W/m2 K, Y 1 W/m2 K, f 1.0, lag 1 h; carpeted, uninsulated
wood floor U 2W/m2 K, Y 2 W/m2 K, f 1, lag 1 h. Two occupants remain in the caravan all
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day, resting. They keep all windows and doors fully open and the ventilation standard is
leaky. Ignore lighting, cooking, refrigerator, TV and hot water heat gains. Compare the living
conditions with those of a brick building. Copy a workbook file, rename it as caravan and
enter the data to predict the peak summertime temperature.
Answer. Notice how the internal environmental temperature tracks the outside air
temperature. With so little thermal lag in the structure of the lightweight caravan and a
necessarily high ventilation rate, internal conditions are outside air plus solar heat gains for
the ventilated box. 26oC environmental temperature is exceeded during 10.0018.30 h. The
occupants are on holiday, they might switch on a fan to improve air flow and adjust clothing
to be more comfortable. If this was the office or factory of their employment, they would
complain, but here they accept discomfort, and almost certainly choose to sit in the shade
outdoors.
7. Corrugated galvanised, or colour bonded, sheet steel commenced being used as a building
material in the 1840s and remains in extensive use today. It was easily transported to
Australia and the Americas by early traders until local production took over. Some architects
choose to use it as a feature of their designs. Calculate the peak summertime temperature in a
building constructed of a steel frame and uninsulated corrugated steel on a cast concrete floor.
Such buildings are a well-known van factory in Southampton, many industrial buildings and
garden sheds. Single-storey colonial period houses in the 1800s were lined with painted
hessian and later, insulated and lined with plasterboard. Copy a workbook file, rename it as
corrugated iron and enter the data to predict the peak summertime temperature.
Take a floor plan of 15 m 15 m and 2.8 m height facing N, S, E and W. There are 5 m2 of
clear single glazing on each facade U 6 W/m2 K, Y 6 W/m2 K, f 0.5, lag 0 h, solar correction
factor 0.76 and alternating solar correction factor 0.66; walls and roof are of the same
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construction of galvanised steel frame, single sheet of corrugated galvanised sheet steel U 6
W/m2 K, Y 6 W/m2 K, f 1.0, lag 1 h; concrete floor U 0.4 W/m2 K, Y 2 W/m2 K, f 1, lag 10 h.
There are no permanent occupants, lights and equipment are not operating, doors are closed
and air leakage rate is taken as tight. What happens if the walls and roof are insulated to U 1
W/m2 K and Y 1 W/m2 K? Compare the living conditions with those within other buildings.
Answer. 26oC environmental temperature is exceeded during 09.3018.45 h with a peak of
32.5oC without insulation. Opening up the doors and windows to maximise outdoor air
ventilation makes little difference. The lack of thermal insulation and storage in the structure
allows indoor temperature to match that outdoors overnight. Insulating the walls and roof
reduces the peak temperature to 29.6oC and maintains a warmer interior overnight. Increasing
the ventilation lowers interior temperatures and makes the building more manageable. The
principle advantage of using corrugated steel is in creating shade; it also heats up rapidly to a
high temperature and convects heat away. In addition, it is a cheap and weatherproof building
material, easily transported and erected. In temperate climates, it needs a lot of added thermal
and sound insulation.
8. Holidaying, or for other reasons living under canvas, is an experience of living outdoors
with minimal shelter that many of us have had. An aluminium frame tent 4 m 4m and 2 m
high covered in thin waterproofed canvas with a built-in ground sheet, has a south facing front
entrance and window amounting to clear glazing of 4 m2. Window, door, walls and roof all
have U 6 W/m2 K, Y 6 W/m2 K, f 1.0, lag 0 h. Glazing solar correction factor 0.76 and
alternating solar correction factor 0.66; earth floor U 1 W/m2 K, Y 4 W/m2 K, f 0.6, lag 10 h.
There are no occupants for the purpose of this calculation. Calculate summertime temperature
in the tent when the door is closed and outside air is almost still. Comment on the living
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conditions provided. Copy a workbook file, rename it as tent and enter the data to predict the
peak summertime temperature.
Answer. 26oC environmental temperature is exceeded during 09.0019.00 h with a peak of
34.1oC using a tight leakage standard. Opening up the doors and windows to maximise
outdoor air ventilation makes little difference. The lack of thermal insulation and storage in
the structure allows indoor temperature to match that of outdoors overnight. When we live
outdoors, we accept discomfort as part of the experience and adjust our activities to suit the
conditions. We might complain, but there is no point as being there is our fault. However, we
might appreciate our centrally heated, draught proof, cooled and electrically lit homes and
workplaces more as a result.
cellar and access manhole in the front footpath for deliveries by manually carried sacks from a
horse-drawn cart. Central heating? No such thing for mill workers. Such houses date back to
the 1850s. Look around to observe nearby architecture consisting of small terraced shops,
two-storey red Lancashire brick and tile traditional houses, modern houses looking the same
as the 1800s design, larger houses and public buildings. New industry and housing is
changing the landscape. What is the large green dome seen from the corner of Hurst and Hilda
Streets? A mosque. This shows the changing demographics. Also cars fill any available
parking space. Notice the modern UPVC framed windows, probably double glazed, rather
than the original wood frames. Doors now are also either smart, glazed UPVC or decorative
wood. A permanent air brick below the front window allows through draft for the open coal
fires.
Calculate summertime temperature for an inner terraced house in Hurst Street. Floor plan
is 4.25 m width of house, 9 m length and 2.7 m room height (bricks counted for dimensions).
9 m2 of single glazing face east onto Hurst Street, 10 m2 at the rear elevation face west, none
facing north or south. Window U 5.7 W/m2 K, Y 5.7 W/m2 K, f 1.0, lag 0 h, solar correction
factor 0.76 and alternating solar correction factor 0.5; walls U 1.5 W/m2 K, Y 4.5 W/m2 K, f
0.4, lag 10 h, roof U 2.3 W/m2 K, Y 2 W/m2 K, f 1, lag 10 h; suspended timber floor with
perimeter wall air bricks U 2 W/m2 K, Y 3 W/m2 K, f 0.6, lag 10 h; north and south party
walls U 0 W/m2 K, Y 6 W/m2 K, f 1, lag 10 h. Ignore the intermediate timber first floor
thermal data as it has negligible thermal storage and time lag. Use the average leakage
standard. Adjoining houses are maintained at the same temperature. No solar shading was
used as daylight penetration was paramount. There are four occupants (parents plus two
young working people) when they are not at work during 18.0007.00 h. Ignore heat gains
from candle lighting, cooking and water heating; bathing was likely conducted in public baths
or in front of the open coal fire in the living room.
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Answer. Housing faces east and west in streets like Hurst. All occupants were at work all day.
Large windows admitted daylight and morning sunshine into east facing bedrooms and the
living room to wake people; late evening sunshine warmed the rear elevation and yard. The
opposite side of the street did not enjoy these advantages. 26oC environmental temperature is
exceeded during 08.0020.00 h with a peak of 28.2oC during 16.0018.00 h. Overnight
temperature only dropped to 23.3oC so the houses remained warm in summer.
10.
Traditional style small terraced 23-bedroom homes formed the basic accommodation
for working families in the UK since the industrial revolution of the 1700s. They still do.
Many become second homes in holiday regions. Many are larger, have gardens and a garage,
but have a look at any street of newly constructed terraced homes; they are fundamentally the
same as Hurst Street, Oldham, as in question 9. Hurst Street houses need to be modernised to
work towards meeting the objectives of the HM Government Carbon Plan 2011.
Copy the Oldham file and save as Oldham improved. The floor plan is 4.25 m wide, 9 m
long and with 2.7 m room height. UPVC framed double glazing 9 m2, with internal blinds,
face east onto Hurst Street. Heritage laws do not allow changes to the street frontage of these
houses. Rear windows are 10 m2 UPVC framed double glazing facing west. Window U 2.3
W/m2 K, Y 2.3 W/m2 K, f 1.0, lag 0 h, solar correction factor 0.15 and alternating solar
correction factor 0.11; walls U 0.2 W/m2 K, Y 2 W/m2 K, f 0.4, lag 10 h, roof U 0.2 W/m2 K,
Y 2 W/m2 K, f 1, lag 10 h; insulated suspended timber floor U 0.2 W/m2 K, Y 2 W/m2 K, f
0.6, lag 10 h; north and south party walls U 0 W/m2 K, Y 6 W/m2 K, f 1, lag 10 h. Ignore the
intermediate timber first floor thermal data as it has negligible thermal storage and time lag.
Use the tight air leakage standard, as mechanical ventilation with heat reclaim is installed.
Adjoining houses are maintained at the same temperature.
There are two occupants in the house all day and night on a particular summer weekend
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day, or public holiday. There are six lights of 70 W each on during 17.0024.00h. Electrical
equipment, refrigerators, dishwasher, laundry, computers, communications, entertainment,
garden lighting, ornamental pond pump, exterior security lights, battery charging, cooking
and water heating provide an average electrical demand of 500 W continuously.
What effect do raising thermal insulation values, solar and ventilation control, and todays
use of electrical energy have on a Hurst Street house peak summertime temperature and
achievement of the Governments emission targets?
Answer. Unfortunately a bad outcome is found. 26oC environmental temperature is
continuously exceeded and has a peak of 29.1oC. The occupants will find indoor home
conditions too hot and will not accept them. Opening windows to create through flow from
the street to the back garden would help but without a prevailing wind, the house would be
very uncomfortable. The occupants have air conditioning in their cars, in shopping malls,
hotels, air transport, restaurants and in the offices where they work. They might be satisfied
by purchasing several 100 W portable fans to cool them, but will be severely tempted to
install a reverse cycle packaged air conditioning unit for their home, adding another 1 kW of
electrical demand.
Copy the Oldham improved file and save it as Oldham unpowered. Delete the occupants,
lighting and the entire electrical load. The uninhabited house remains comfortable with an
average tei of 22.9oC and a peak of 24.3oC. The problem is not the insulated house. It is the
electrical demand that occupants create which causes overheating and a need for a mechanical
cooling system. Will our craving for modern living overcome the objectives of the Kyoto
Protocol 1997 and the HM Government Carbon Plan 2011? It is possible. What do you think?
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General knowledge
11.
What are the differences between the designers and users of a building?
12.
Why would a very simple calculation of steady state heat gains and losses not provide
13.
How many people use the computer building energy management system, BEMS, in a
large office building, university campus and hospital every day and week?
1. Everyone in the building.
2. Specialist maintenance contractor.
3. One person has the expertise and time to use it.
4. Nobody.
5. Everyone in the property and facilities management department.
14.
1. Owner.
2. Facilities manager.
3. Building services engineer.
4. Employees.
5. Architect.
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15.
1. Architect.
2. Employees.
3. Owner.
2. Facilities manager.
3. Building services engineer.
16.
Which is correct about what we have learnt from these peak summertime temperature
predictions?
1. Every UK building is comfortable all year.
2. Air conditioning is a necessity in the UK.
3. UK buildings become overheated occasionally.
4. White Tower is a better design than The Shard.
5. Nothing has been learned from history.
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Air filters
1. Explain with the aid of sketches and manufacturers information how air filters are tested
and rated for the following tasks: air flow, face velocity, initial and final pressure drop and
dust spot efficiency.
2. Explain what is meant by the air filter terms: dry testing, dust, smoke, mists, impingement,
cyclone, washable, diffusion filter and viscous film.
3. State suitable applications for the following types of air filter, giving examples: absolute,
dry, viscous, panel, bag, electrostatic, adsorption and mechanical collectors.
4. What are the important factors to be considered and provided for air filter installations?
Applications
5. List the applications of the 16 types of air conditioning system and discuss the suitability
of each with colleagues.
6. The single duct air conditioning system provides the basic design for the other
configurations that overcome its limitations. Discuss this statement and state the ways in
which it can be adapted for multi-zone applications.
7. The variable air volume system has become very popular for office accommodation.
Explain its principles of operation and limitations. Including the topics of room air
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circulation, zone volume control, economy control of the fans, duct air static pressure
modulation and the satisfaction of user thermal and aural comfort.
8. Explain with the aid of sketches or literature how cooling coil face and bypass dampers
function, why they may be used and their purpose.
Damper schedule
9. A single duct air conditioning system with recirculation is to have variable quantities of
fresh air admitted into an office building when it is between 12oC and 23oC. Outside these air
temperatures, the minimum outdoor air of 25% of the supply quantity is to be used. Outdoor
air at 14oC can be 100% of the supply air quantity to the rooms. When the fresh air reaches
21oC outside, its proportion must commence reduction towards the minimum at 23oC. Draw a
graph of the damper operation to scale and fully explain the sequence of operation of the
system during both increasing and reducing outdoor air temperatures.
Heat pumps
10.
State the advantages that can be gained by using a water source heat pump air
conditioning system capable of simultaneous cooling and heating of adjacent zones. List
suitable applications. Comment upon the maintenance required for such systems.
11.
Explain with the aid of sketches and sample graphs how the supply duct air
temperatures are controlled in a dual duct air conditioning system to provide the maximum
operational economy while satisfying the users comfort needs.
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12.
List the applications for independent air conditioning units, split systems, reversible
heat pumps, chilled ceilings and district cooling, commenting upon their design
characteristics and maintenance requirements. Acquire manufacturers literature for a variety
of equipment and apply them to the Sijoule PLC building.
13.
Make sketches of the building you are familiar with and propose suitable designs for air
14.
Describe with the air of sketches and manufacturers literature how the following air
conditioning heart recovery devices save energy: recuperator, run-around coil, thermal wheel,
heat pipe, regenerator, heat pump. Comment on their suitability to buildings of your choice
and their capital and energy cost implications.
15.
Identify locations where ground or air sourced heat pumps are used as a heat source or a
heat sink for an air conditioning system. Briefly describe the system, where it is located and
the capacity and application of the installation. Comment on its suitability for other locations.
Humidifiers
16.
List the range of humidifiers available for use in air conditioning systems, sketch their
Page 29 of 441
17.
Discuss the statement, evaporative cooling has applications but is not free. Explain the
principles of adiabatic saturation cooling, where it may be applied, that is world location and
type of cooling requirement, and the costs of operating such systems.
List the ways in which free cooling maybe achieved, sketch and describe suitable
pre-cooling can reduce the electrical energy used by a refrigerated air conditioning system;
state where such systems might be used, in which climates and for which applications.
Project building
20.
Study the drawings of the Sijoule PLC building and write lists and notes on the heating,
ventilating and air conditioning systems that are likely to be needed. List the assumptions that
you make on the location and use of the building. Discuss your results with colleagues. This
exercise is suitable for groups of students to formulate different proposals and then present
them to the class.
21.
Create suitable air conditioning zones for the Sijoule PLC building, stating the reasons,
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22.
Calculate the peak solar heat gains through the unprotected windows for each side of
the Sijoule PLC building using only the glazing heat gain data in the Air Handling Zones
section of this chapter. State the dates and times of these occurrences and the influence that
they will have on the building peak refrigeration plant capacity.
23.
Form syndicates of four students to propose air conditioning designs for the Sijoule
The consulting engineer who is engaged for a fee calculated from a fixed percentage of
the total cost of the installation is to use the independence of this position to propose
designs that will fully satisfy the clients stated requirements.
(c)
The design and installation contractor who is engaged in a competitive situation against
other, similar companies and is to propose designs that maximise the likelihood of
gaining the contract.
(d)The manufacturer of a wide range of air conditioning products who offers a design service
free of charge to the client.
The three engineers are to formulate proposals for different air conditioning designs and
present them to the client with arguments in favour of their companys suitability.
Presentations should be made on acetate sheets of the building drawings with coloured
sketches of the systems proposed on the plans, sections and elevations for the benefit of the
whole student group. It may be possible to integrate such group activity with architectural,
building and surveying student groups.
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Discuss the statement this building is air conditioned with reference to what this will
mean, the systems that must be installed and the possible satisfaction of user thermal comfort.
25.
26.
Define the term low cost air conditioning. State the ways in which it can be achieved.
27.
List the reasons for the air conditioning of the different categories of buildings, such as
residential, office, retail, containment and manufacturing, and write notes to explain each
reason.
28.
Summarise in your own words the considerations involved in making use of outdoor air
to cool a building without the use of refrigeration. State the limitations inherent in such
designs and the ways in which outdoor air can be cooled without refrigeration.
29.
Sketch the air handling arrangement for a single duct variable air temperature
recirculation system, state the necessary components and explain how the design is used to
satisfy the room cooling and heating loads.
Zones
30.
List the reasons for creating air conditioning zones and the zones that may be formed
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31.
State the reasons for creating different air static pressures in rooms or zones, explain
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Admittance values
1. What are admittance values?
1. Solar heat gain factors for windows and opaque structures.
2. The opposite of resistance values.
3. The number of people who can pass through the buildings entry and transportation
systems at peak flow periods.
4. Always twice the thermal transmittance value.
5. Thermal factors evaluating heat flows into thermal storage of the structure.
Air quality
3. Which of these is not correct about indoor air quality?
1. Cannabis smoke contains carbon monoxide, benzene and toluene.
2. Tobacco smoke contains carbon monoxide, benzene and toluene.
3. Internal combustion engines emit carbon monoxide and many other atmospheric
pollutants.
4. Normal breathing increases the carbon dioxide content of room air.
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4. Where could carbon monoxide, benzene and toluene gases have come from if detected
within an occupied building?
1. Water chiller plant room refrigerant leakage.
2. Hydrocarbon natural gas combustion water heating plant.
3. Drains and sewers.
4. Cleaning fluids and off-gassing from furnishings.
5. Outside air intake to air handling unit, AHU, or people smoking tobacco or cannabis.
5. Which of these is where indoor odours, vapours and gases come from?
1. Radon gas emanating from the ground beneath the building.
2. Carbon monoxide from traffic.
3. People, our clothes and what we put on our skin.
4. Passively acquired cigarette smoke prior to entry into the office building.
5. Last nights spicy meal.
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Page 36 of 441
10.
Which is the internal air quality recommended upper limit for percentage of occupants
11.
1. Oles.
2. Fangers.
3. Decipol.
4. Olf.
5. Millilitres per square meter of floor area.
12.
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13.
14.
15.
16.
3. Suppression of house dust mites, condensation and mould growth due to warmer
environment.
4. Inadequate removal of house dust mites, condensation and potential mould growth.
5. Lower energy costs.
17.
18.
19.
1. Tobacco smoke.
2. Volatile organic compounds, VOC, from cleaning fluids.
3. Nitrogen.
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4. Carbon monoxide.
5. Nitrogen dioxide.
20.
21.
1. Cigar smoke.
2. Carbon dioxide.
3. Benzene, toluene, formaldehyde and ethylene glycol.
4. Carbon tetrachloride.
5. NOx.
22.
When carbon dioxide level in occupied rooms is sensed for control of ventilation
airflow, what is the maximum set point used, approximately, in parts per million, ppm?
1. 100.
2. 700.
3. 250.
4. 1000.
5. 5000 (health limit of CO2 in air).
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23.
What is radon?
24.
What form of reduction occurs when ventilation removes tracer gas or contaminant?
25.
26.
Which of these is a correct reason for outdoor air ventilation rate control and provision?
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3. Maintains high humidity within a building to ensure mould spores and dust mites
remain.
4. Allergic skin reactions and asthma have no causal relationship to dust mites.
5. There is no correlation to chronic illness and mortality from ventilation.
27.
1. Identifying smells.
2. Breathing onto others.
3. A measuring instrument.
4. Tasting them in our mouth.
5. Olfactory response.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
Biological effluent:
35.
Biological loading:
36.
37.
1. Is easily achievable.
2. Cannot be achieved in buildings over 15 years old.
3. Deteriorates with building age.
4. A compromise between conflicting requirements and cost.
5. Only needs simple instrumentation to analyse.
38.
39.
Where does dust and dirt appear in ducted ventilation and air conditioning systems?
1. Blown through air ducts, deposited in rooms and removed by cleaning and vacuuming.
2. Retained in air handling unit air filters.
3. Nowhere but in air filters.
4. On fan blades and casings.
5. Inside air ducts and in all items of plant.
40.
What can be done to maintain the health and safety of the internal surfaces of ducted
2. Increase air velocity to blow deposits out of ducts and terminal units outside of
occupied hours.
3. Change air filters regularly.
4. Internal visual inspection, compressed air brushing, scraping and vacuum cleaning.
5. Nothing more than maintaining air filters to keep air and ducts clean.
41.
1. Mould spores in warm humid uncleaned air and water building services systems.
2. Contaminated outdoor air.
3. Low air humidity.
4. Contacting people with breathing infections.
5. Warm humid air in crowded buildings or transportation.
42.
43.
1. Low relative humidity or volatile organic compounds, VOC, released into room air
from furnishings, cleaning fluids, paint and chemicals.
2. Badly fitting contact lenses.
3. Unclean conditioned air.
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4. Airborne bacteria.
5. Common cold and flu.
Explain how condensation can occur both in cool climates such as the UK and in hot
humid tropical climates, causing damage to buildings, plant and equipment. Sketch examples
of how such risks are combated.
45.
different climate regions, namely, Arctic, northern Europe, Middle East, desert,
Mediterranean, equatorial and sub-tropical. Identify each climate location being described.
State which form of air conditioning is used in each location and give reasons for their
suitability.
46.
List the eight climate regions found within the tropics. State a typical location for each
and what types of air conditioning system are used for commercial and domestic buildings.
What do people without access to air conditioning do in each of the eight regions to maintain
their living conditions? Would you abandon your present lifestyle to live in any or all of these
eight regions if you had no access to air conditioning, and why?
47.
Use the file Around the world.xls to compare air conditioning cooling loads for different
locations and climates. Add further locations and data as needed. Copy the file Shard in
Dubai.xls with another name and use it to estimate air conditioning loads and costs around the
world as you decide.
Page 47 of 441
48.
Use the file Around the world.xls and copy the file Shard in Dubai.xls with another
name and use it to estimate air conditioning loads and costs as if it were built in Doha, Qatar.
Find the climate data for Doha. Comment on what you find.
Buildings responses
49.
Which buildings have a fast response, such as within an hour, to variations in outdoor
50.
51.
1. Store rooms.
2. Most offices.
3. Traditional stone churches.
4. Areas more than 5.0 m from external walls.
5. Zones that are air conditioned.
52.
Solar radiation, wind and outside air temperature can cause greater discomfort where?
53.
54.
Which of these buildings have a slow response, several hours, to variations in weather?
List and discuss the merits of the methods used to generate electrical power. What
should the UK policy be for the next 100 years in relation to the HM Government Carbon
Plan 2011? Should any country rely upon another country for its power supply in the long
term? Will one European country become the dominant supplier of power, if so, what would
be the advantages and disadvantages of such a policy?
56.
Discuss the application of CHP systems in relation to density of heat usage, local and
national government policy, possible plant sites, complexity of existing underground services,
ground conditions, costs of competing fuels, type and age of buildings, traffic disruption
during installation and better control of pollution. (The term density of heat usage refers to
the actual use of heat in megajoules per unit ground plan area m2, including all floors of
buildings and appropriate industrial processes requiring the sort of heat to be sold.)
57.
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58.
1. No such thing.
2. Three systems of electricity generation on a site.
3. A site where heating, cooling and water heating are all provided by electricity.
4. Diesel or gas engine drives an alternator for site electricity generation, waste heat used
to produce hot water heating as well as chilled water through absorption refrigeration.
5. Space heating, water heating and chilled water for air conditioning all provided by one
fuel source.
Combustion
59.
60.
1. Optimum efficiency.
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61.
Degree days
62.
63.
64.
65.
How can Discounted Cash Flow calculation aid analysis of an energy-saving project?
67.
68.
State how Internal Rate of Return of a cash flow is an aid to making the decision to
invest.
Page 53 of 441
Energy audit
69.
State the function of an energy audit. What data are collected? How are the data
70.
71.
72.
A factory uses 20000 1 of oil for its heating and hot-water systems, 160000 kWh of
electrical power and 300000 kWh of gas for furnaces in a year. Fixed charges are 800 for the
oil, 700 for the electrical equipment and 1200 for gas equipment. Use the data provided in
this chapter and current energy prices to produce an overall energy audit based on the
gigajoule unit and find the average cost of all the energy used.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
4. Only analyses heating, ventilating, air conditioning and electrical lighting energy use.
5. Conducted by an experienced and qualified energy auditor.
Energy cost
78.
Calculate the annual cost of a gas-fired heating system in a house with a design heat
loss of 30 kW at -2C for 16 h per day, 7 days per week for 30 weeks in the year. Use the data
provided in this chapter and the current fuel price.
79.
Find the total annual cost of running a gas-fired heating and hot-water system in a house
with four occupants if its design heat loss is 32 kW. Maintenance charges amount to 160 per
year.
80.
81.
A city centre building in England has a predicted energy consumption of 1500000 kWh
per year for only the space heating system. The design engineer is to recommend the energy
source and system type to be used on the basis of minimising the greenhouse gas emissions.
The average seasonal usage efficiency of the alternative systems are 95% for electrical
heating systems of various types, 75% for gas-fired radiator heating system, 65% for coalfired radiator heating system and 75% for an oil-fired ducted warm air heating system. How
might renewable energy sources be used? Calculate the carbon emission in tonnes per year
and make a suitable recommendation to the client.
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General knowledge
82.
How can heat leakages due to inadequate thermal insulation and damaged pipes or
cables be detected?
83.
How can building designers help users feel comfortable in their workplace?
84.
State the factors that are taken into account when designing for the provision of
85.
List the atmospheric pollutants that are likely to be present within normally occupied
buildings. Identify those pollutants that are used for the design of the ventilation system, the
filtration equipment, acoustic insulation and general maintenance during occupation.
86.
State why continuous logging is of value to the energy audit engineer, environmental
system design engineer, building designer and building occupants, giving reasons for your
statements.
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87.
88.
1. Sleeping cycle.
2. Metabolic activity.
3. Time of day.
4. Clothing.
5. Location.
89.
90.
91.
2. Rainwater.
3. Uncleaned air conditioning ducts.
4. Stored water in building services systems.
5. Carpet dust.
92.
93.
94.
1. No such thing.
2. The efficiency of using each primary energy source.
3. Compares the efficiency of using hydrocarbon fuel sources with nuclear generated
electricity.
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95.
1. per m2 floor area for a month or year of a single energy source or fuel.
2. per m2 floor area for a month or year of all energy sources or fuels.
3. Energy use kWh per Degree Day.
4. Energy use MJ per person per year.
5. kWh/yr energy-saving proposal.
96.
Heat gains
97.
State the sources of heat gain that will affect the internal thermal environment in
98.
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99.
Describe the angular position of the sun in relation to the four walls and the roof of a
100. Explain what is meant by the incidence of solar radiation upon a surface and define how
it is found for vertical walls, horizontal roofs and sloping surfaces. State the reason for
needing to know the incidence in the calculation of solar radiation heat gains to a surface.
101. A surveyor needed to assess the height of a tower and measured an angle of 52o from
the ground to the top of the tower at a distance of 35m from it. Calculate the building height.
Answer. 44.8 m.
102. A 19-storey office building was being built on a hillside and the surveyor needed to
check the height of the structural steelwork during construction. The nearest point of the top
of the structure was at an elevation of 40o from the surveyors position and 55 m horizontally
away. The furthest point of the steel frame down the hill was 75 m from the surveyor when
measured down the slope of the hill and at decline angle of 12o. Calculate the overall height of
the frame and the average floor to floor height.
Answer. Total height 46.15 m + 15.593 m, 61.744 m, 3.25 m each.
103. A building has a side 30 m long that slopes forwards from ground level at 78o from the
horizontal. The roof line is at 66o from the ground at a distance of 32 m from the foot of the
wall. Calculate the vertical height of the building, the length of the sloping face and the
sloping face area.
Answer. Vertical height 20.139 m, sloping face length 20.59 m and area 617.7 m2.
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104. A vertical wall in London faces south. At 10.00 hours sun time on 22 June the solar
altitude is 55o and solar azimuth 128o. Calculate the wall solar azimuth and incidence angles.
Answer. 52o, 69.3o.
105. Atrium glazing in Glasgow, latitude 55o 52'N, faces west and slopes 12o forwards from
the vertical. The sun time is 13.00 hours on 21 August, the solar altitude is 45o and the solar
azimuth is 201o. The intensity of the direct solar radiation normal to the sun is 840 W/m2.
Calculate the incidence angle and the solar intensity upon the glazing.
Answer. D 69o, F 87o, 44.3 W/m2.
106. A flat plate solar collector near Sidney at latitude of 35o S slopes at 45o to the horizontal
and faces north. At 12.00 hours sun time on 21 December the solar altitude is 78o, azimuth 0o
and direct intensity normal to the sun is 918 W/m2. Find the incidence angle by sketching the
angles and not applying the general equation then calculate the solar intensity that is normal to
the collector surface.
Answer. D 0o, F 33o, 686.9 W/m2.
107. A solar collector in south east England faces due south at an angle of 40o to the
horizontal. Calculate the maximum solar irradiance and state when this will occur.
Answer. From CIBSE the maximum may occur on 22 September at 12 00 h, ITHd 625 W/m2,
ITVd 710 W/m2, IdHd 190 W/m2, ITSd 878.4 W/m2. Check other dates and times.
108. A window facing south is 4 m long and 3 m high and has a shaded area of 5 m2. Solar
altitude is 55o, solar azimuth is 12o east of south, direct solar irradiance normal to the sun is
540 W/m2 and diffuse irradiance is 210 W/m2. The glazing transmissibility of direct and
Page 62 of 441
diffuse irradiances are 0.74 and 0.69. Calculate the solar heat gain transmitted through the
glass.
Answer. IDVd 303 W/m2, QD 1569.5 W, Qd 1738.8 W, total 3308.3 W.
109. The upper glazing on an atrium slopes at 60o to the horizontal and faces southeast. It is
2 m long and 2 m high and has a shaded area of 1 m2. At 10.00 h on 22 September the design
direct solar irradiance on a horizontal surface is 355 W/m2. The design direct solar
irradiance on a vertical surface is 525 W/m2. The design diffuse irradiance is 160
W/m2. The glazing transmissibility of direct and diffuse irradiances are 0.46 and 0.4.
Calculate the solar heat gain transmitted through the glass.
Answer. IDSd 632 W/m2, QD 872 W, Qd 256 W, total 1128 W.
110. Find the glass temperature tg, total heat flow into the room Q and the total transmittance
T for 6 mm silver reflective float glass that is in a total solar irradiance of 625 W/m2 at 08.00
h on 21 June facing east. The external and internal air temperatures are 31oC and 23oC. The
absorptivity A of the glass is 0.29, the transmissibility T is 0.43 and reflectance R is 0.28. The
glass is low emissivity and has values of Rsi 0.3 m2 K/W and Rso 0.07 m2 K/W.
Answer. tg 39.8oC, Q 324 W/m2, total T 0.52.
111. Find the glass temperature tg, direction of heat flow Q and the total transmittance T for
10 mm bronze tinted heat absorbing float glass that is in a total solar irradiance of 175 W/m2
at 13.00 h on 21 December facing west. The external and internal air temperatures are 2oC
and 18oC. The absorptivity A of the glass is 0.67, the transmissibility T is 0.29 and reflectance
R is 0.04. The glass is high emissivity and has values of Rsi 0.12 m2 K/W and Rso 0.03 m2
K/W due to its exposed location.
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Answer. tg 4.8oC, Q 59 W/m2, total T 0.34, heat flow outwards from the room.
112. A new light coloured flat roof of 25 m 15 m is over a production area that is to be
maintained at a resultant temperature of 19oC by an air conditioning system. The thermal
transmittance of the roof is 0.4 W/m2 K and the admittance is 0.7 W/m2 K. The 24 hour
average outdoor environmental temperature for a roof on 23 July in Southampton is 22oC.
The roof decrement factor is 0.99 and its time lag is 1 hour. The outdoor environmental
temperature at 13.00 h is 37.5oC. The room height is 3 m and it has 0.5 air changes per hour
due to the infiltration of outdoor air. Calculate the room cooling load through the roof for
14.00 h.
2402 W, net Qu 2666 W.
Answer. Fu 0.54, Fv 0.92, Fy 0.96, Qu 264 W,
113. A south facing office wall is 30 m long and 4 m high. The thermal transmittance of the
wall is 0.33 W/m2 K and the admittance is 2.4 W/m2 K. The office has a volume of 1440 m3
and is to be maintained at a resultant temperature of 20oC by an air conditioning system. The
24 hour average outdoor environmental temperature for a dark coloured wall on 23 July in
Bournemouth is 26oC. The wall decrement factor is 0.35 and its time lag is 9 hours. The
outdoor environmental temperature at 08.00 h is 25.5oC. The room has 1.5 air changes per
hour due to the infiltration of outdoor air. Calculate the room cooling load through the wall
for 17.00 h.
-12 W, net Qu 454 W.
Answer. Fu 0.98, Fv 0.5, Fy 0.88, Qu 466 W,
114. A south east facing top floor London office is similar to that shown in figure 3.14. The
exposure is normal. The office is to be maintained at a resultant temperature of 19oC. There
are two sedentary occupants and two continuously used computers having power
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consumptions of 250 W each. The air conditioning plant operates for 10 hours per day. There
are 1.5 air changes per hour due to natural infiltration of outdoor air. The adjacent offices,
corridor and office below, are maintained at the same temperature as the example office.
Room volume V is 600 m3. The glazing cooling load peak is 313 W/m2 at 11.00 h on 22
September and the correction factor for glass and shading types is 0.55. Use the data provided
and calculate the peak cooling load for the room air conditioning unit. The thermal data are
shown in tables 3.6 and 3.7.
A m2
U W/m2 K
Glass
25
3.3
External wall
60
Internal wall
Y W/m2 K
Lag h
3.3
0.3
2.7
0.28
100
1.5
0.72
Floor
200
1.2
2.4
0.7
Roof
200
0.25
0.8
0.99
(AU)
(AY)
Lag h
24 h teo
24 h tao
time h
teo
External wall
23.5
15.5
0300
10.5
Roof
20
15.5
1000
33.5
tao
Window
15.5
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1100
17
Swing eo
ao
Answer. Solar gain through the glazing 4304 W, 24 hour mean conduction through the
structure 151 W, swing in the conduction gain 329 W, ventilation air infiltration 820 W,
occupancy gain 180 W, electrical equipment emission 500 W, total heat gain 3684 W.
A m2
U W/m2 K
(AU)
Y W/m2 K
(AY)
Lag h
S glass
5.7
5.7
N glass
3.3
3.3
S wall
0.3
2.5
0.3
E wall
0.4
0.7
W wall
0.4
0.7
N wall
0.3
0.3
2.5
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floor
1.8
2.8
0.7
roof
0.25
0.9
0.9
It is expected that the peak cooling load for the top floor will occur at the time and date of
the peak irradiance on the south glazing, that is noon sun time on 22 September and 21
March. This might not be the case and other times and dates could be analysed for
comparison. South single glazing has a cooling load of 333 W/m2 and a correction factor of
0.77, the north double glazing has a cooling load of 104 W/m2 and a correction factor of 0.95.
Lag h
24 h teo
S wall
25
E wall
W wall
24 h tao
time h
teo
15.5
0400
10.5
20.5
15.5
0300
10.5
20.5
15.5
0300
10.5
N wall
17
15.5
0400
10.5
roof
20
15.5
1000
33.5
tao
S glass
15.5
1200
18.5
N glass
15.5
1200
18.5
Swing eo
Swing ao
Answer. Fu 0.94, Fv 0.93, Fy 0.89, F2 1.17, solar gain through the glazing 14208 W, 24 hour
mean conduction through the structure 1554 W, net swing in the conduction gain 2324 W,
outdoor ventilation air infiltration 912 W, indoor air infiltration 1216 W, occupancy gain
3600 W, electrical equipment emission 5050 W, mean conduction gain from below 6545 W,
total net gain 30477 W, 30.477 kW, 14.5 W/m3 of the office volume.
Page 67 of 441
116. Calculate the net heat transfer through a west facing single glazed window for 22 April
at 14.00 h when the cooling load is 207 W/m2 with a shading correction factor of 0.77, Fu/Fv
is 0.9, Fu/Fy is 0.95, outside air temperature is 14.8oC, room resultant temperature 21oC, 24
hour mean external air temperature is 9oC, window U value is 5.7 W/m2 K and dimensions are
2.5 m 1.5 m.
Answer. 485 W.
117. List the ways in that the south facing office in example 3.17 could be made comfortable
with passive architectural changes and mechanical cooling methods.
118. A west facing Plymouth office of 15 m 5 m 3 m high has double glazed gold
coloured heat reflecting window openings of 25 m2. The surrounding rooms are all similar.
There are six occupants emitting 90 W and five electrical items of 150 W each. The office is
used for 8 hours in each 24 hours. Windows and door are shut at other times and the
ventilation rate is 1.5 air changes per hour. Use the data provided to estimate the 24 hour
mean and peak internal environmental temperatures. The peak solar irradiance on a west
facing vertical window is 625 W/m2 at 16.00 h on 21 June in south east England and the daily
mean is 185 W/m2. The mean solar gain correction factor for the glazing without blinds is
0.25 and the alternating factor is 0.2. The thermal data are shown in tables 3.10 and 3.11.
A m2
U W/m2 K
Glass
3.3
External wall
0.57
(AU)
Y W/m2 K
3.3
3.6
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(AY)
lag h
0.31
Internal wall
3.6
0.62
Floor
4.3
0.59
Ceiling
0.46
Lag h
External wall
24 h teo
24 h tao
24.5
16.5
time h
teo
0700
15.5
tao
Window
16.5
1600
22
Swing
Swing ao
4095 W,
Answer. Total mean gain Q 1586 W, mean tei 24.7oC, total swing in gains
119. A vehicle production factory that was constructed in 1960 at Southampton is 100 m
100 m 10 m high and has no glazing. The structural steel frame is clad in corrugated metal
sheet with no insulation for the walls and a lightweight flat roof, all painted white externally.
The workforce of 200 occupies two 8 hour shifts per 24 hours, emitting 110 W each. Heat
producing motors, lights, tools and processes generate 50 kW during the working periods. The
100% outdoor air mechanical ventilation systems operate for 24 hours per day and 7 days per
week and produce one air change per hour. The thermal data are shown in tables 3.12 and
3.13. Use the data provided to estimate the peak internal environmental temperature.
A m2
U W/m2 K
(AU)
Y W/m2 K
5.7
5.7
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(AY)
Lag h
E wall
5.7
5.7
W wall
5.7
5.7
N wall
5.7
5.7
Floor
1.7
5.2
0.72
Roof
1.1
1.2
0.99
Lag h
24 h teo
S wall
22.5
19
1200
36
E wall
22.5
19
1200
26.5
W wall
22.5
19
1200
26.5
N wall
20
19
1200
26
Roof
22
19
1100
34.5
24 h tao
Time h
teo
tao
Air
19
1200
21.5
Swing eo
Swing ao
399.375 kW,
Answer. Mean internal gain 48 kW, mean tei 21.2oC, total swing in gains
120. Describe, with the aid of sketches, how shading devices and glass types are used to
assist in the provision of thermal comfort within buildings and how they affect the natural
illumination and cooling plant loads.
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121. A window 3 m long and 2 m high is recessed 200 mm from the face of a building. The
wall azimuth is 170o and the solar azimuth at 13.00 h sun time is 190o. Calculate the shade
width on the window.
Answer. 73 mm.
122. A window 3.5 m long and 1.75 m high is recessed 150 mm from the face of the
building. The solar altitude at 15.00 h on 24 August is 37o and the solar azimuth is 240o. The
wall azimuth is 275o. Calculate the unshaded area of the glass.
Answer. 5.473 m2.
123. State the ways in which the shaded areas of buildings can be predicted and the use of
this information.
124. Calculate the net heat transfer through a south facing single glazed window on 21
December at latitude of 51.7oN at noon when the solar irradiance cooling load is 273 W/m2,
the outside air temperature is 5oC and the room resultant temperature is 20oC. The 24 hour
mean outdoor air temperature is 2oC. The window is 2.5m 2.5m and its thermal
transmittance is 5.7 W/m2 K.
Answer. Net gain of 531 W.
Heat transfer
125. Which are correct about heat transfer?
1. Latent heat transfer changes the dry bulb temperature of air.
2. Latent heat transfer does not affect the dry bulb temperature of air.
3. Latent heat transfer occurs when a mass of water is evaporated into air.
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129. Which of these correctly describes how heat transfers within buildings?
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Humidity
147. Which is correct about air humidity?
1. Moisture in room air finds its own way out of the building.
2. Moisture gained by room air will always condense somewhere and drain away.
3. Moisture within building air will always condense into liquid at the lowest surface
temperature location.
4. Natural ventilation does not remove moist air from a building.
5. Only mechanical exhaust systems remove moist air from a building.
Measuring instruments
159. Sling psychrometer:
1. Is a psychiatrist suspended out of a window.
2. Contains thermocouples.
3. Is a paper and pencil test conducted on job-seekers.
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4. Is an outdated instrument.
5. Has both wet and dry bulb mercury in glass thermometers.
5. Low cost, reliable, calibrated and non-electronic way to assess the cooling power of
room air, but is outdated.
1. Aerial scanning from a helicopter, plane or balloon using an infra-red recording camera.
2. Manufacturing industry uses non-touch infra-red scanning on production lines.
3. Satellite scanning images.
4. Infra-red scanning displays where buildings have wasteful hot surfaces.
5. Ultra-violet data loggers.
168. What are needed to aid finding the mean radiant temperature of an enclosure?
1. Kata thermometer.
2. Globe thermometer.
3. Dry and wet bulb thermometers.
4. Surface temperature thermocouples, dry bulb thermometer and a measuring tape.
5. Silvered globe thermometer and anemometer.
2. Time of day.
3. Shift work times.
4. Overbearing management style over workforce.
5. Illegal medication.
184. Which symptom does not manifest with sick building syndrome?
1. Lethargy.
2. Headaches.
3. Excessive alcohol consumption.
4. Aching muscles.
5. Catarrh.
195. Air conditioning engineers consider atmospheric air pressure to consist of which?
1. Polluted air.
2. Vapours, gases and water vapour.
3. Around 800.0 mb from dry gases plus 213.0 mb due to water vapour.
4. Around 700.0 mb from dry clean gases, 200 mb from polluting vapours and dusts plus
113.0 mb due to water vapour.
5. Around 990.0 mb from dry gases plus 20.0 mb due to water vapour.
Terminology
Page 92 of 441
196. Explain the use of the peak summertime internal environmental temperature in the
analysis of the thermal comfort conditions. Include in your explanation when it is needed to
be calculated, what importance it has to the building owner and the design engineer and what
part it plays in the decisions to be made on the choice of air conditioning system.
197. Explain why thermal admittance, decrement factor, surface factor, structural time lag
and environmental temperature swing are used in preference to thermal transmittance in the
assessment of summer internal conditions.
198. List the advice that can be given to the owner of a building that suffers from summer
overheating. Explain why the use of additional outdoor air mechanical ventilation may be an
unsuitable solution for some applications but correct for some buildings.
199. Draw a graph showing the balance temperature for a building from the following data:
(a) Constant heat gain from the occupants, lights and electrical equipment of 10 kW
(b) Solar gains of 20 kW at an outdoor air temperature of 0oC, 30 kW at 10oC, 50 kW at 20oC
and 70 kW at 30oC
(c) Conduction and ventilation heat loss of 90 kW at 0oC zero at 21oC and a heat gain of 30
kW at 30oC.
Thermal comfort
200. Which is correct about thermal comfort?
1. Elderly sedentary people can develop hyperthermia in winter.
2. Hypothermia is eradicated in the UK due to government policies.
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202. In well-insulated buildings having modest glazing areas and little air movement, which
will operative temperature be closest to?
1. Globe temperature.
2. Mean radiant temperature.
3. Wet bulb temperature.
4. Dry bulb air temperature.
5. Environmental temperature.
4. Calculated from the room air velocity, globe and dry bulb air temperatures at the point
of measurement.
5. Same as mean radiant temperature.
205. State how extremes of heat and cold affect the workers on a site, what environmental
measurements can be taken, and the corrective actions are possible to ensure safe and healthy
working conditions.
206. Describe with the aid of sketches how each of the following instruments function: dry
bulb thermometer, wet bulb thermometer, globe thermometer, vane anemometer,
thermocouple, thermistor and infra-red scanner.
207. An open plan office is designed for sedentary occupation and is to have general air
movement not exceeding 0.2 m/s and an air temperature of 22C d.b. in winter. It is expected
that a globe temperature of 20C would be found at the centre of the room volume. What
would be the, mean radiant, resultant, environmental and operative temperatures?
Answer. 17.9oC, 17.2oC, 19.3oC, 20.3oC.
208. A lecture theatre is designed for sedentary occupation and is to have general air
movement not exceeding 0.5 m/s and an air temperature of 21C d.b. in winter. It is expected
that a globe temperature of 18C would be found at the centre of the room volume. What
would be the, mean radiant, resultant, environmental and operative temperatures?
Answer. 13oC, 11.3oC, 15.7oC, 20oC.
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209. A conference room is designed for sedentary occupation and is to have general air
movement not exceeding 0.35 m/s and an air temperature of 24C d.b. in summer. It is
expected that a globe temperature of 21C would be found at the centre of the room volume.
What would be the, mean radiant, resultant, environmental and operative temperatures?
Answer. 16.8oC, 15.4oC, 19.2oC, 21.4oC.
210. Survey the factors affecting thermal comfort and explain what they mean.
211. What was the earlier name for operative temperature regarding comfort assessment?
1. Wet resultant temperature.
2. Wet bulb globe temperature.
3. Dry resultant temperature.
4. Environmental temperature.
5. Dry bulb air temperature.
213. Which is not correct for evaluation of heat stress index, HSI?
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1. 33% of mean radiant temperature plus 67% of air dry bulb temperature.
2. 50% of globe temperature plus 50% of air dry bulb temperature.
3. 40% of mean radiant temperature plus 25% of air dry bulb temperature plus 35% of
globe temperature.
4. 75% of mean radiant temperature plus 25% of globe temperature.
5. 50% of mean radiant temperature plus 50% of air dry bulb temperature.
2. Large areas of perimeter glazing are very comfortable to sit alongside all day when at
work.
3. Lots of solar radiation through office windows leads to happy staff.
4. Air dry bulb temperature and mean radiant temperature should be approximately the
same.
5. Trees alongside office windows always shade sunshine allowing control of mean radiant
and air temperatures.
247. Which is the appropriate moving air speed for comfort criteria?
1. 20oC d.b. air should be moving at around 0.1 m/s at neck level.
2. 30oC d.b. air can be moving at 1.25 m/s at head level for sedentary workers.
3. Should be above 2.0 m/s to create a stimulating environment.
4. Almost stagnant air around sedentary workers is preferable to avoid hot or cold
draughts.
5. Constant air velocity, temperature and direction is preferred so it is predictable for
sedentary workers.
249. Which is not an appropriate statement for moving air comfort criteria?
1. Variable air velocity and temperature is preferred.
2. Varying the air velocity during the occupied day is impossible.
3. Varying air velocity during the working day may require the supply air fan to have a
variable speed control.
4. Low energy buildings with natural ventilation systems have air velocity variations due
to changes in prevailing winds.
5. Low energy buildings may have active systems to vary air movement around occupants.
4. Measured with a 100 mm diameter blackened copper ball suspended in the room.
5. Cannot be measured by a building management computer system.
5. Calculated from 30% of the air wet bulb temperature plus 40% of the 100 mm diameter
globe temperature plus 30% of the air dry bulb temperature.
259. Which of these working environments outdoors may lead to construction worker heat
stress?
1. High radiant heat load, moderate dry bulb temperature and low humidity.
2. Clear blue sky, high air temperature, no shade and low humidity.
3. Clear blue sky, all work conducted beneath solid roofing, moderate air dry bulb
temperature and 90% relative humidity.
4. Clear blue sky, outdoor air 31oC d.b., 18oC w.b., variable warm wind.
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5. Clear blue sky, all work conducted beneath solid roofing, portable cooling fans used to
raise air velocity around worker, outdoor air 41oC d.b and 20% relative humidity.
260. Which of these working environments may lead to construction worker heat stress?
1. High radiant heat load, outdoor work, outdoor air 25oC d.b. and low humidity.
2. Indoor work in confined space, outdoor air 24oC d.b., high humidity and adequate
ventilation.
3. Clear blue sky, outdoor air 35oC d.b., 20oC w.b., little wind, all work conducted in a
deep underground mining tunnel.
4. Clear blue sky, outdoor air 29oC d.b., high humidity, little wind, all work conducted
beneath concrete floor slabs with no perimeter walling.
5. Completely cloudy sky, high air dry bulb temperature, strong wind from inland and high
humidity.
5. Clear blue sky, outdoor air 38oC d.b., 20oC w.b., moderate wind, continuous aerobic and
anaerobic exercise within a basement gymnasium for one hour.
5. Relative humidity.
5. Heat stroke.
272. How much should core body temperature be allowed to vary due to hot or cold heat
stress?
1. 1oC.
2. 2oC.
3. 3oC.
4. 4oC.
5. 5oC.
273. An index of heat stress is based on a ratio of heat transfers. Which is it?
1. Allowed exposure time.
2. Wind chill index.
3. Kata cooling power.
4. Dry resultant temperature.
5. Heat stress index.
Thermal insulation
Page 116 of 441
275. List the ways in which existing residential, commercial and industrial buildings can
have their thermal insulation improved. Discuss the practical measures that are needed to
protect the insulation from deterioration.
276. Review the published journals and find examples of buildings where the existing
thermal insulation has been upgraded. Prepare an illustrated presentation or article on a
comparison of the outcomes from the cases found.
277. Write a technical report on the argument in favour of adding thermal insulation to
existing buildings. Support your case by referring to government encouragement, global
energy resources, atmospheric pollution, legislation, cost to the building user and the
profitability of the users company.
278. A flat roof over a bedroom causes intermittent condensation during sub-zero outdoor air
temperatures. The roof has normal exposure. The owners want to eliminate the condensation
and reduce the thermal transmittance to 0.15 W/m2 K. Thermocouple temperature sensors
were used to assess the average thermal transmittance of the roof structure. On the day of test,
the indoor air, ceiling surface and outdoor air temperatures were 16C, 11C and 2C.
Calculate the existing thermal transmittance of the roof and the thickness of expanded
polystyrene slab that would be needed.
Answer. Rsi 0.1 m2 K/W, Q 50 W, U 2.78 W/m2 K, Rn 6.67 m2 K/W, 221 mm.
279. An external solid brick wall is to be insulated with phenolic foam slabs 0.025 W/m K
held onto the exterior brickwork with UPVC hangers. Expanded metal is to be fixed onto the
outside of the foam and then cement rendered to a thickness of 12 mm 0.5 W/m K. The wall
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has a sheltered exposure. The intention is to reduce the thermal transmittance to 0.3 W/m2 K.
Thermocouple temperature sensors were used to assess the average thermal transmittance of
the wall prior to the design work. On the day of test, the indoor air, interior wall surface and
outdoor air temperatures were 15C, 12.7C and 6C. Calculate the existing thermal
transmittance of the wall and the thickness of phenolic foam that would be needed. If the
foam is only available in multiple thicknesses of 10 mm, state the thermal transmittance that
will be achieved for the wall. Calculate the internal surface temperature that should be found
on the wall for a day when the indoor and outdoor air temperatures are 18C and 0C.
Answer. Rsi 0.12 m2 K/W, Q 19.2 W, 114 mm, 120 mm used, Un 0.29 W/m2 K, 17.4oC.
280. The roof over a car manufacturing area consists of 4 mm profiled aluminium sheet 50
W/m K on steel trusses. Wood wool slabs, 25 mm 0.1 W/m K, are fitted below the roof
sheets. The roof trusses remain uninsulated as they protrude through the wood wool. The
trusses cause condensation to precipitate onto the vehicle bodies during cold weather. The
roof is to be insulated with polyurethane board 0.025 W/m K, which will be secured to the
underside of the roof trusses. The roof has a normal exposure. The intention is to reduce the
thermal transmittance to 0.25 W/m2 K. Thermocouple temperature sensors were used to assess
the average thermal transmittance of the roof prior to the insulation. On the day of test the
indoor air under the roof was 13C, internal roof surface temperature was 11C and the
outdoor air temperature was 2C. Calculate the existing thermal transmittance of the roof and
the thickness of polyurethane that would be needed. The insulation is only available in
multiple thicknesses of 10 mm. State the thermal transmittance that will be achieved for the
roof. Calculate the internal surface temperature that should be found on the newly insulated
roof for a day when the indoor and outdoor air temperatures are 16C and 5C.
Answer. Rsi 0.1 m2 K/W, Q 20 W, U 1.82 W/m2 K, extra Ra 0.18 m2 K/W; 81.75 mm, 90 mm
used, Un 0.23 W/m2 K, new Q 4.83 W, 15.5oC.
U values
281. State what is meant by the following terms:
(a)
thermal resistance;
(b)
thermal conductivity;
(c)
thermal resistivity;
(d)
(e)
thermal transmittance;
(f)
(g)
surface resistance;
(h)
cavity resistance;
(i)
emissivity;
(j)
admittance factor;
(k)
282. The following materials are being considered for the internal skin of a cavity wall:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
100 mm mineral fibre slab 0.035 W/m K and 15 mm plasterboard 0.16 W/m K;
(f)
40 mm glass fibre slab 0.035 W/m K, 150 mm lightweight concrete block 0.19
W/m K and 15 mm lightweight plaster 0.16 W/m K
Page 119 of 441
Compare their thermal resistances and comment upon their suitability for a residence.
6 mm single glazed window 1 W/m K, Rsi 0.13 m2 K/W, severe exposure Rse 0.04
m2 K/W;
(b)
6 mm double glazed window, glass 1 W/m K, Rsi 0.13 m2 K/W, Ra 0.18 m2 K/W,
Rse 0.04 m2 K/W;
(c)
220 mm solid brick wall 0.84 W/m K and 13 mm lightweight plaster 0.16 W/m
K, Rsi 0.13 m2 K/W, Rse 0.04 m2 K/W;
(d)
220 mm solid brick wall 0.84 W/m K, 150 mm glass fibre quilt 0.035 W/m K and
10 mm plasterboard 0.16 W/mK, no cavity Rsi 0.13 m2K/W, Rse 0.04 m2 K/W;
(e)
105 mm brick wall 0.84 W/m K, 10 mm air space Ra 0.18 m2 K/W, 40 mm glass
fibre slab 0.045 W/m K and 100 mm lightweight concrete block 0.19 W/m K, Rsi
0.13 m2 K/W, Rse 0.04 m2 K/W;
(f)
40o pitched roof, 10 mm tile 0.84 W/m K, roofing felt 0.5 W/m K and 10 mm flat
plaster ceiling 0.16 W/m K with 100 mm glass fibre quilt 0.04 W/m K laid
between the joists, Ra 0.16 m2 K/W, Rsi 0.1 m2 K/W, Rse 0.04 m2 K/W;
(g)
double glazed door of dimensions 1 m 2 m U 3.6 W/m2 K. Exposure is normal. One long
and one short wall are external and constructed of 105 mm brick, 10 mm air space, 40 mm
polyurethane board, 150 mm lightweight concrete block and 13 mm lightweight plaster. The
internal walls are of 100 mm lightweight concrete block and are plastered. There is a solid
ground floor with edge insulation U 0.34 W/m2 K. Adjacent rooms are at a resultant
temperature of 18C. Calculate the steady-state heat loss from the room for a convective
heating system. Brick 0.84, polyurethane 0.025, lightweight concrete 0.2 and plaster 0.16
W/m. Ra 0.18 m2 K/W, Rsi 0.13 m2 K/W, Rse 0.04 m2 K/W.
Answer. 2330.5 W.
286. A single-storey factory is allowed to have 35% of its wall area as single glazing U 5.7
W/m2 K and 20% of its roof area as single glazed roof lights U 5.7 W/m2 K as a design
limitation, while wall and roof U values are not to exceed 0.6 W/m2 K. An architect proposes
a building to meet this standard of dimensions 50 m 30 m 4 m high with a wall U value of
0.4 W/m2 K, a roof U value of 0.32 W/m2 K, 20 double glazed windows each of area 16 m2
having a U value of 3.3 W/m2 K and 35 roof lights each of area 10 m2 having a U value of 5.3
W/m2 K. Does the proposal meet the design restriction and what is the rate of heat loss per m2
floor area?
Answer. Allowed heat loss per degree Celsius difference inside to outside is 3746.8 W/K;
thus the proposal complies. Proposed heat loss 3407 W/K.
287. Calculate the boiler power required for a building with a heat loss of 50 kW and an
indirect hot water storage system for 20 people, each using 50 litre of hot water at 65C per
day. The cylinder is to be heated from 10C in 2.5 h. Add 10% for pipe and cylinder heat
losses and 25% for rapid heating from a cold start.
Answer. 83.14 kW.
2. Universal ASHRAE temperature difference used for building heat gain calculation.
3. Integration of U values and areas during a time interval.
5. A low energy building wall has 1.0 m thickness of phenolic foam having a thermal
conductivity of 0.04 W/m K making a thermal resistance of 25.0 m2 K/W.
5. Thermocouple temperature sensors have to be buried into drilled holes through the
structure.
Units of measurement
299. What are meant by unity brackets?
1. Something fictitious.
2. I do not understand them.
3. Easily remembered technique for conversion of units.
4. Can only convert millimetres into metres.
5. Cannot be used for real engineering calculations.
4. 1 mm = 103 m.
5. 1 GW = 1000 MW.
Ventilation
306. Which is correct about ventilation?
1. Natural ventilation of buildings is a nuisance.
2. Natural ventilation of occupied buildings does not need to be controlled.
3. Occupiers must always open and close windows to provide natural ventilation.
4. Natural ventilation is an important part of overall building design.
5. Good building design eliminates uncontrolled infiltration of outside air.
1. One third of the volumetric air change rate multiplied by daily degree days above base
temperature.
2. 33% of normal building volume per degree temperature difference to calculate energy
usage cost.
3. A design guide to the plant room floor area likely to be required for air handling units.
4. A fraction of the nominal building volume multiplied by air temperature difference.
5. Volumetric specific heat capacity of air, times number of air changes per hour, times
room volume, times indooroutdoor air temperature difference, calculates natural
ventilation rate of heat loss for a heating system.
4 Psychrometric design
Psychrometric chart
1. Air in a room is at 22oC d.b. and 15oC w.b. Find the conditions from a chart and verify it
from the data tables: percentage saturation, specific volume, dew point, specific enthalpy and
moisture content.
Answer. 46%, 0.846
m3
kg
kJ
kg
2. Outdoor air at 0oC d.b. and 100% saturation is heated with a low pressure hot water coil to
30oC d.b. Sketch the psychrometric cycle on a chart and identify all the condition data for
both entry and exit states.
kg
kJ
m3
kg
kJ
m3
kg
3. Air at 12oC d.b and 20% saturation is heated through an increase of 25 K and then
adiabatically humidified to 90% saturation. Sketch the cycle and identify all the condition
data for the end states.
kg
kJ
Answer. Entry 12oC d.b., 4.1oC w.b., 20%, 0.00175 kg, 16.5 kg, 0.81
kg
kJ
Heated to 37oC d.b., 15.3oC w.b., 4%, 0.00175 kg, 41.5 kg, 0.881
kg
kJ
m3
kg
kg
Humidified 15.8oC d.b., 14.8oC w.b., 90%, 0.0102 kg, 41.5 kg, 0.832
m3
m3
kg
4. Summer outdoor air at 30oC d.b., 21oC w.b. is cooled to 12oC d.b. and 90% saturation.
Sketch the psychrometric cycle and identify all the condition data for the end points.
kg
kJ
kJ
m3
kg
5. Outdoor air at 28oC d.b., 22oC w.b. passes through a direct expansion cooling coil where
the refrigerant evaporates at 5oC. Assume that the air side dew point of the coil is 5oC and that
100% contact factor is maintained. Sketch the psychrometric cycle and identify all the
condition data for the coil air on and air off states. Calculate the reductions in specific
enthalpy and moisture content per kg of air produced.
kg
kJ
kJ
m3
kg
m3
kg
6. Recirculated room air at 21oC d.b., 50% saturation is mixed in equal amounts with summer
outdoor air at 31oC d.b., 22oC w.b. Sketch the mixing process and state the condition of the
mixed air.
kg
kJ
Answer. 26oC d.b., 18.6oC w.b., 48%, 0.0103 kg, 52.4 kg, 0.861
m3
kg
7. An air handling unit receives recirculated room air at 23oC d.b., 50% saturation and a flow
rate of 2
m3
s
, and fresh air at 5oC d.b., 100% saturation with a flow rate of 0.5
m3
s
. The mixed
air is heated with a low pressure hot water heater coil to 35oC d.b. and then adiabatically
Page 133 of 441
humidified to 24oC d.b. Sketch the psychrometric cycle, identify each condition point and
calculate the heater coil load in kW.
kg
kJ
Answer. Mixed 17.4oC d.b., 13oC w.b., 61%, 0.0076 kg, 36.5 kg, 0.833
kg
kJ
Heated 35oC d.b., 19.5oC w.b., 21%, 0.0076 kg, 54.8 kg, 0.883
kg
kJ
m3
kg
m3
kg
Humidified 24oC d.b., 19.3oC w.b., 64%, 0.0121 kg, 54.8 kg, 0.858
54.922 kW.
m3
kg
8. Calculate the heater coil duty when air is heated from 10oC d.b., 8oC w.b. to 40oC d.b.
when the inlet air volume flow rate is 3
mass flow rate.
m3
s
9. A cooling coil has an air inlet condition of 29oC d.b., 21.8oC w.b. and an air outlet state of
13oC d.b., 90% saturation. Sketch the cycle and mark on the sketch all the condition data.
Calculate the cooling duty of the coil when the inlet air flow to the coil is 4
kg
kJ
kJ
10.
m3
kg
m3
kg
m3
s
m3
s
m3
s
mixed air is heated to 32oC d.b. prior to being supplied to the rooms. Sketch the cycle and
calculate the heater coil duty.
Answer. 163.5 kW.
11.
An air handling unit mixes 0.8 m3/s of fresh air at 32oC d.b., 23oC w.b. with 4
m3
s
of
recirculated room air at 22oC d.b., 55% saturation. The mixed air passes through a chilled
water cooling coil whose dew point is 6oC d.b. Incomplete contact between the air and dew
point surfaces causes 10% of the mixed air to bypass the cooling effect. This 10% air flow
mixes with the 90% that contacts the wet surfaces and is cooled to the coil dew point. Sketch
the mixing and cooling process and identify all the data. Calculate the refrigeration capacity
of the cooling coil in kW and ton refrigeration, given that 1 ton refrigeration is 3.517 kW, and
the rate of moisture removal from the air in kg/h.
kJ
kg
Answer. Mixed 23.7oC d.b., 0.010 kg, 55%, 17.5oC w.b., 49.5 kg. Cooled 7.8oC d.b., 0.0063
kg
kJ
, 95%, 7.4oC w.b., 23.7 kg. Duty 145 kW, 41.232 ton refrigeration, condensate 74.867 kg/h.
kg
12.
Outside air at 5oC d.b., 80% saturation enters a preheater coil and leaves at 24oC d.b.
m3
s
specific volume, the heated air moisture content and percentage saturation. Calculate the
heater coil duty.
Answer. 5.9oC w.b., 0.7615
13.
m3
kg
kg
A cooling coil has chilled water passing through it at a mean temperature of 10oC. An
m3
s
at 28oC d.b., 23oC w.b. enters the coil and leaves at 15oC d.b. Find the
Page 135 of 441
leaving air wet bulb temperature and percentage saturation. Calculate the refrigeration
capacity of the coil.
Answer. 14.2oC w.b., 91% saturation, 48.055 kW.
14.
m3
s
of air that has been recirculated from an air conditioned room, is at 22oC d.b., 50%
m3
of fresh air that is at 10oC d.b., 6oC w.b. Calculate the dry
bulb air temperature and moisture content of the mixed air. Plot the process on a
psychrometric chart and read the specific enthalpy, specific volume and wet bulb temperature
of the mixed air.
kg
kJ
m3
kg
, 13.9oC w.b.
The cooling coil of a packaged air conditioner in a hotel bedroom has refrigerant in it at
a temperature of 16oC. Room air at 31oC d.b., 40% saturation enters the coil and leaves at
20oC d.b. at a flow rate of 0.5
m3
s
air wet bulb temperature and specific volume. Calculate the total cooling load in the room.
Answer. No, 21.2oC w.b., 0.877
16.
m3
kg
, 6.681 kW.
Air in an occupied room is measured to be 24oC d.b. and 16oC w.b. with a sling
psychrometer. Calculate the following physical properties and verify them from CIBSE tables
and the psychrometric chart, commenting upon any differences found: saturation vapour
pressure, saturation moisture content, vapour pressure, moisture content, percentage
saturation, specific volume, density, specific enthalpy, dew point.
kg
kg
Answer. ps 2.9808 kPa, gs 0.01885 kg, for tsl 16oC ps 1.8159 kPa, pv 1.276 kPa, g 0.00793 kg,
kJ
kg
PS 42 %, h 44.3 kg, pv 1276 Pa, v 0.8523 m3 per kg dry air, density 1.173 m3 , tdp 11.03oC.
Accuracy is acceptable for most purposes.
17.
Outdoor air is at 1oC d.b. and 0.5oC w.b. Calculate the physical properties of the air and
kg
Answer. ps 0.6564 kPa, gs 0.00406 kg, for tsl 0.5oC ps 0.633 kPa, pv 0.6 kPa, g 0.0037 kg, PS
kJ
kg
91%, h 10.26 kg, v 0.781 m3 per kg dry air, density 1.28 m3 , tdp 0.01oC.
18.
Outdoor air is at 32oC d.b. and 22oC w.b. Calculate the physical properties of the air and
kg
Answer. ps 4.751 kPa, gs 0.0306 kg, for tsl 22oC ps 2.641 kPa, pv 1.966 kPa, g 0.0123 kg, PS
kJ
kg
40%, h 63.65 kg, v 0.881 m3 per kg dry air, density 1.135 m3, tdp 17.3oC.
5 System design
10.
Which is a correct description of the fan coil unit air conditioning system?
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
1. Around 75% of the supply air from an FCU is recirculated room air.
2. FCU passes the minimum quantity of recirculated room air.
3. FCU passes the maximum quantity of recirculated room air.
Page 143 of 441
18.
1. Unit is self-controlled.
2. Unit is manually controlled and adjustable by user.
3. FCU terminal unit has a maintenance access panel suitable for inspection, repair, filter
changing and unit replacement.
4. Fan motor never needs replacing.
5. FCU running always linked to lighting automatic controls.
19.
20.
Air curtains
21.
1. Minimises air leakage through an open doorway into and out of an air conditioned,
heated or refrigerated building.
2. To warm the street entrance to a retail premises.
3. To stop street debris blowing into the building.
4. Discourage people standing near doorways.
5. A statement of importance of the building.
22.
Which of these is most likely to determine the energy performance of an air curtain?
23.
25.
26.
28.
29.
30.
1. Minimised to avoid recirculating dust and vapour pollutants back into the occupied
building.
2. It is an expensive waste of fan energy and duct material.
3. Maximised to take advantage of air that is already at the correct room air temperature.
4. Minimised to avoid CO2 build-up in occupied rooms.
5. Minimised to control cooling and heating energy use.
31.
1. Saves energy
2. Recirculates humidity, dust and smoke produced in rooms.
3. Biological contamination generated in one room circulates to other rooms.
4. May need a recirculation air fan as well as ductwork.
5. Varied to control room air CO2 and temperature.
32.
33.
4. Air flow rate sensor installed in duct to measure and control recirculated flow rate from
BMS.
5. Creates additional noise at the AHU.
34.
Chilled beams
35.
1. Motorised damper in ducted air stream controls room air flow through the finned beam.
2. Chilled water flow to each zone controlled by a motorised valve.
3. Chilled water flow switched on/off.
4. Control panel by each workstation allows each person to vary cooling capacity.
5. Chilled water flow rate and temperature for the entire system is modulated in the chiller
plant room according to a schedule of outdoor air temperature,
36.
1. Structural steel beam exposed in the occupied room and cooled by a supply air stream
from a directional grille.
2. Refrigerated pipe within a room.
Page 149 of 441
37.
1. 19oC.
2. 12oC.
3. 6oC.
4. 70oC.
5. 5oC.
39.
1. Modulating damper.
2. Electronic control system.
3. Modulating water flow valve.
4. Manually set only once by the commissioning engineer.
5. All valves remain fully open to maximise available cooling during hot weather.
Page 150 of 441
40.
41.
42.
Water pumps for chilled, heating and condenser water circulation have:
43.
1. 6oC to 12oC.
2. 4oC to 18oC.
3. Below room air dew point.
4. Minimum of room air temperature minus 10oC.
5. Above room air dew point.
Commissioning
44.
Cooling towers
45.
46.
47.
48.
1. Quiet operation.
2. Uses almost no water.
3. Potential source of water-based Legionella bacteria for outdoor air.
4. Compact unit usually installed within a chiller plant room.
5. Functions equally well in any outdoor climate.
49.
50.
51.
52.
4. Dust storm, bird droppings, leaves, pollen and dust from nearby building sites deposit in
tower and may overcome biocide.
5. Bleed-off water to sewer passes through an air gap and water seal P-trap. Loss of water
seal from evaporation can occur in warm weather while tower remains inactive. Sewer
gases enter tower allowing airborne bacterial infection to spread.
Design calculation
53.
An office has a sensible heat gain of 22 kW when the room air temperature is 23oC d.b.
Calculate the necessary volume flow rate of supply air to maintain the room at the design
temperature when the supply air temperature can be 14oC d.b.
Answer. 1.999
54.
m3
s
changes per hour of cooled outdoor air supplied at 16oC d.b. Calculate the maximum cooling
loads that the equipment can meet.
Answer. Q 1.2
55.
m3
s
, SH 7.287 kW.
changes per hour of cooled supply air. The cooling plant load is 19 kW. Calculate the
required supply air temperature.
Answer. Q 2.25
m3
s
, ts 15.1oC.
56.
An exhibition hall has a winter sensible heat loss of 96 kW when the room air
temperature is 18oC d.b. Calculate the necessary volume flow rate of supply air to maintain
the room at the design temperature when the supply air temperature is 40oC.
Answer. Q 3.891
57.
m3
s
at 18oC d.b. and has three air changes per hour of recirculated air supplied at 25oC d.b.
Calculate the maximum heat loss from the building that the system can meet.
Answer. Q 2
58.
m3
s
, SH 16.49 kW.
An open plan office is 30 m 12 m 2.8 m. It is maintained at 19oC d.b. and has six air
changes per hour of supply air for both summer and winter. The room heat loss is 27 kW.
Calculate the required supply air temperature.
Answer. Q 1.68
59.
m3
s
, ts 33oC.
A single duct air conditioning system serves a theatre of 1500 m3 that has a sensible
heat gain of 52 kW and a winter heat loss of 39 kW. It is maintained at 22oC d.b. during
winter and summer. The summer supply air temperature is 14oC d.b. The vapour pressure of
the supply air is 1044 Pa in summer and winter. The supply air fan is fitted upstream of the
heater and cooler coils and operates in an almost constant air temperature that is close to that
of the room air. Calculate the mass flow rate of the supply air in summer, the room air change
rate, the winter supply air temperature and comment upon the volume flow rate under winter
heating conditions.
, N 12.8 h , v 0.822
m3
kg
, m 6.466
kg
s
0.863
m3
60.
An office has a sensible heat gain of 16 kW and seven occupants each having a latent
kg
, Q 5.58
m3
m3
heat output of 50 W when the room air condition is 23oC d.b., 50% saturation. Calculate the
necessary volume flow rate of supply air and its moisture content to maintain the room at the
design state when the supply air temperature can be 14oC d.b. The room air moisture content
kg
is 0.008905kg.
Answer. Q 1.454
61.
m3
s
kg
, gs 0.008825 kg.
A room has a sensible heat gain of 66 kW and a latent heat gain of 3 kW. The room air
condition is 21oC d.b. and 50% saturation. The supply air temperature is 13oC d.b. Plot the
room and supply conditions and sensible to total heat ratio line on a psychrometric chart.
m3
s
kg
, gs 0.007709 kg.
Calculate the summer air flows for all the ducts shown on figure 5.4 using the following
data:
Room
Volume m3
SH kW
Occupants
Office
3500
65
70
Corridor
400
12
Toilet
550
= 14oC d.b.
= 19oC d.b.
OA requirement = 12person s.
The office and toilet doors each have a grille of free area of 0.25 m2 into the corridor. The
m
Answer. All air flows s, fresh air inlet 960, total supply 12821, office supply 10630, office
extract duct 9942, corridor supply and extract 1962, toilet supply duct 229, transfer grille into
corridor and toilet 688, toilet separate exhaust 917, plant exhaust 43, plant recirculation duct
11861.
63.
A space has sensible heat gains of 60 kW and 3 kW latent. The space condition is 20oC
d.b., 50% saturation. The supply air temperature is 15oC d.b. Calculate the supply air quantity
and moisture content needed.
Answer. 9.846
64.
m3
s
kg
, 0.0073 kg.
kW when the latent heat gain is 1 kW. The room condition is to be maintained at 21oC d.b.,
50% saturation by a ventilation rate of eight air changes per hour. Calculate the required
supply air condition.
Answer. Q 0.4
65.
m3
s
kg
A shop has solar heat gains of 8 kW and an internal air condition of 20oC d.b., 50%
saturation. There will be 25 occupants emitting 110 W of sensible heat and 50 W of latent
heat each. There are 2 kW of heat gains from lighting and 1 kW of heat output from
Page 158 of 441
refrigerated display cabinets. If the supply air can be at 16oC d.b., calculate its quantity and
moisture content.
Answer. SH gain 13.75 kW, Q 2.83
66.
m3
s
kg
, 0.00725 kg.
An office floor is to have a single duct air conditioning system. Use a psychrometric
chart and the data provided to find the peak summer and winter design loads and air
conditions.
Summer room air 23oC d.b., 50% saturation.
Summer outdoor air 29oC d.b., 22oC w.b.
Winter room air 19oC d.b., 50% saturation.
Winter outdoor air 1oC d.b., 2oC w.b.
Summer supply air temperature 15oC d.b.
Office volume 900 m3.
Glazing area 45 m2.
External wall area 100 m2.
Office has 25 occupants, 90 W sensible, 50 W latent each.
l
There is one air change per hour of infiltration by the outdoor air into the office.
The peak cooling load through the west facing glazing is 314 W/m2 at 16.00 h on 21 June.
A solar gain correction factor of 0.48 applies to the reflective glazing.
Ignore heat gains through the structure.
Surrounding rooms are at the same conditions.
W
Use the simplest forms of heat gain and loss calculation to obtain approximate plant loads.
W
m3
s
, N 5.3
air change
h
kg
, gr 0.008905 kg, gs
kJ
0.008590 kg, fresh air proportion 22.5%, tm 24.4oC d.b., tm 17.8oC w.b., hm 50 kg, 0.856
W
m3
kg
supply 15oC d.b., 13oC w.b., cooling coil 20.665 kW. Winter SH loss 9.57 kW, 10.6 m3, Q
1.331
m3
0.822
m3
67.
A Melbourne hotel has a dual duct air conditioning system. Use a psychrometric chart
kg
kg
kJ
, mixed air tm 14.5oC d.b., gm 0.006 kg, room 45% saturation produced, hm 29.75 kg,
kJ
, supply 25.1oC d.b., 14.7oC w.b., hs 40.55 kg, heating coil 17.488 kW.
and the data provided to find the peak summer and winter design loads, air conditions and
supply air flows from the hot and cold ducts for one room.
Summer room air 22oC d.b., 50% saturation.
Summer outdoor air 39oC d.b., 23oC w.b.
Winter room air 20oC d.b., 50% saturation.
Winter outdoor air 3oC d.b., 2oC w.b.
Summer supply air temperature 16oC d.b.
Air leaves the plant cooling coil in summer at 13oC d.b.
Air leaves the plant heating coil in winter at 25oC d.b.
Glazing area is 12 m2 and external wall area is 30 m2.
Room has two occupants, 90 W sensible, 50 W latent each.
l
OA provision is 12person s .
The peak cooling load through the north facing glazing is 347 W/m2 at noon on 21 January.
A solar gain correction factor of 0.66 applies to the shading.
Ignore heat gains through the structure.
Surrounding rooms are at the same conditions.
W
Use the simplest forms of heat gain and loss calculation to obtain approximate plant loads.
W
air change
kg
enters from the hot duct at 23oC and 281 s is from the cold duct at 13oC, gs 0.008282 kg, fresh
l
air 6%. Winter ts 23oC d.b., tm 19oC d.b., total supply Q 402 s comprising 268 s, 25oC from
l
the hot duct plus 134 s at 19oC from the cold duct.
68.
is permitted.
(a)
Calculate the fresh air quantity required to provide 12.5 l/s per person; 4.25 m3/s.
If the air change rate is not to be less than five changes per hour, find the following:
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
69.
Air enters an office through a 250 mm 200 mm duct at a velocity of 5 m/s. The room
70.
has sensible heat gains of 30 kW and latent heat gains of 3 kW. Room and supply air
temperatures are to be 23C d.b. and 14C d.b. respectively. Room air moisture content is to
be maintained at 0.008 kg H2O/kg air. Calculate the supply air volume flow rate, the room air
change rate and the supply air moisture content.
Answer. 2.68 m3/s, 10.72 air changes/h, 0.0076 kg H2O/kg air.
71.
To avoid draughts, a minimum supply air temperature of 30C d.b. is needed for the
heating and ventilation system serving a public room. The room has an air temperature of
21C d.b. and a sensible heat loss of 18 kW. It is proposed to supply 2 m3/s of air to the room.
Calculate the supply air temperature that is required. If it is not suitable, recommend an
alteration to meet the requirements
Answer. ts 28.6oC d.b., reduce supply air quantity to 1.7 m3/s and use ts, 30oC d.b. if the room
air change rate will not be less than 4 changes/h.
72.
maximum occupancy will be 100 people. The supply air for each person is to comprise 20 l/s
of fresh air and 20 l/s of recirculated air. Allowing 10% natural exfiltration, calculate the
room air change rate, the air flow rate in each duct and the dimensions of the square supply
duct if the limiting air velocity is 8 m/s.
Answer. 15 air changes/h, 710 mm 710 mm, 2 m3/s fresh air, 2 m3/s recirculated air, 3.6
m3/s extract air, 4 m3/s supply air duct 0.4 m3/s natural exfiltration.
73.
An office is 15.0 m 7.0 m 2.8 m and has 11.0 air changes per hour from air supplied
through a duct where it flows at a velocity of 8.5 m/s. Which two answers are correct?
1. Supply air flow rate is 1.20 m3/s.
2. Supply air flow rate is 750.0 l/s.
3. Supply air flow rate is 0.9 m3/s.
4. Duct dimensions are 325 mm 325 mm.
5. Duct dimensions are 650 mm 325 mm.
74.
An open plan workspace is 22.0 m 10.0 m 3.5 m and has 15.0 air changes per hour
from air supplied through a duct where it flows at a velocity of 5.0 m/s. Which two answers
are correct?
1. Supply air flow rate is 3208 l/s.
2. Supply air flow rate is 14.25 m3/s.
3. Supply air flow rate is 0.64 m3/s.
4. Duct dimensions may be 4.0 m 160 mm.
5. Duct dimensions should be 800 mm 800 mm.
75.
A gymnasium is 25.0 m 12.0 m 4.0 m and has 6.0 air changes per hour from air
supplied through a duct where it flows at a velocity of 7.5 m/s. Which two answers are
correct?
Page 163 of 441
76.
A hotel dining room is 12.0 m 6.0 m 3.0 m and has 12.0 air changes per hour from
air supplied through a duct where it flows at a velocity of 4.5 m/s. Which two answers are
correct?
1. Supply air flow rate is 0.72 m3/s.
2. Supply air flow rate is 1800 l/s.
3. Supply air flow rate is 1.8 m3/s.
4. Duct dimensions are 400 mm 400 mm.
5. Duct dimensions are 160 mm 160 mm.
77.
A retail shop is 22.0 m 6.5 m 3.5 m and has 7.5 air changes per hour from air
supplied through a duct where it flows at a velocity of 9.5 m/s. Which two answers are
correct?
1. Supply air flow rate is 0.085 m3/s.
2. Supply air flow rate is 1043 l/s.
3. Supply air flow rate is 10.4 m3/s.
4. Duct dimensions are 335 mm 335 mm.
5. Duct dimensions are 990 mm 990 mm.
78.
An office is 13.0 m 5.0 m 2.85 m and has airflow of 0.75 m3/s from air supplied
through a duct where it flows at a velocity of 6.5 m/s. Which two answers are correct?
1. Room air change rate is 146 per hour.
2. Room air change rate is 0.146 per minute.
3. Room air change rate is 14.6 per hour.
4. Duct dimensions are 110 mm 110 mm.
5. Duct dimensions are 340 mm 340 mm.
79.
An entrance hall is 10.0 m 4.5 m 6.5 m and has airflow of 0.975 m3/s from air
supplied through a duct where it flows at a velocity of 6.5 m/s. Which two answers are
correct?
1. Room air change rate is 12.0 per hour.
2. Room air change rate is 2.0 per minute.
3. Room air change rate is 288 per 8 hour working day.
4. Duct dimensions are 390 mm 390 mm.
5. Duct dimensions are 2500 mm 125 mm.
80.
An industrial workshop is 25.0 m 12.5 m 4.5 m and has a heating system airflow of
700 litre/s from air supplied through a duct where it flows at a velocity of 10.0 m/s. Which
two answers are correct?
1. Room air change rate is 18.0 per hour.
2. Room air change rate is 1.8 air changes per hour.
3. Room air change rate is 1792 air changes per hour.
4. Duct dimensions are 390 mm 390 mm.
5. Duct dimensions are 840 mm 840 mm.
Page 165 of 441
81.
A small office of 3.0 m 4.0 m 2.8 m has 4.0 air changes per hour from air supplied
through a duct where it flows at a velocity of 6.0 m/s. Which two answers are correct?
1. Supply air flow rate is 2.24 m3/s.
2. Supply air flow rate is 37.0 l/s.
3. Supply air flow rate is 0.37 m3/s.
4. Duct dimensions are 80 mm 80 mm.
5. Duct dimensions are 250 mm 125 mm.
82.
An atrium 15.0 m 9.0 m 12.0 m high has 4.5 air changes per hour from air supplied
through a duct where it flows at a velocity of 4.5 m/s. Which two answers are correct?
1. Supply air flow rate is 2.025 m3/s.
2. Supply air flow rate is 202.5 l/s.
3. Supply air flow rate is 0.675 m3/s.
4. Duct dimensions could be 2.0 m 225 mm.
5. Duct dimensions should be 670 mm 670 mm.
83.
A lecture theatre is 18.0 m 20.0 m 4.5 m and has 9.5 air changes per hour from air
supplied through a duct where it flows at a velocity of 7.5 m/s. Which three answers are
correct?
1. Supply air flow rate is 2.655 m3/s.
2. Supply air flow rate is 4275 l/s.
3. Supply air flow rate is 4.275 m3/s.
4. Duct dimensions are 755 mm 755 mm.
5. Duct dimensions are 600 mm 590 mm.
Page 166 of 441
84.
A conference hall is 55.0 m 27.0 m 3.6 m and has 15.0 air changes per hour from air
supplied through a duct where it flows at a velocity of 4.5 m/s. Which two answers are
correct?
1. Supply air flow rate is 22.275 m3/s.
2. Supply air flow rate is 5940 l/s.
3. Supply air flow rate is 2.228 m3/s.
4. Duct dimensions are 1000 mm 5000 mm.
5. Duct dimensions are 2000 mm 2475 mm.
85.
A swimming pool hall is 70.0 m 35.0 m 5.5 m and has 6.0 air changes per hour
from air supplied through a duct where it flows at a velocity of 12.5 m/s. Which two answers
are correct?
1. Supply air flow rate is 46.8 m3/s.
2. Supply air flow rate is 23400 l/s.
3. Supply air flow rate is 22.46 m3/s.
4. Duct dimensions are 1340 mm 1340 mm.
5. Duct dimensions are 2000 mm 1875 mm.
86.
A room 3.0 m high has 20.0 air changes per hour from air supplied through a 650 mm
500 mm duct where it flows at a velocity of 6.5 m/s. Which two answers are correct?
1. Supply air flow rate is 6.5 m3/s.
2. Supply air flow rate is 975 l/s.
3. Supply air flow rate is 2.113 m3/s.
4. Floor area is 58.5 m2.
Page 167 of 441
87.
Outdoor supply air rate recommended for office ventilation is which value in litre per
88.
A conference room 5.0 m high has 16.0 air changes per hour from air supplied through
a 1350 mm 2500 mm duct where it flows at a velocity of 4.5 m/s. Which two answers are
correct?
1. Supply air flow rate is 0.253 m3/s.
2. Supply air flow rate is 950 l/s.
3. Supply air flow rate is 15.188 m3/s.
4. Floor area is 42.75 m2.
5. 683.46 m2.
Duct insulation
89.
1. Air conditioning ducts do not need thermal insulation as heat gains and losses are
minimal.
2. Thermal insulation should be installed within sheet metal air ducts.
3. Return air ducts are always insulated.
Page 168 of 441
4. Thermal insulation on supply air ducts maintains air condition and should usually be
used.
5. Thermal insulation thickness of 1015 mm is all that is ever justifiable.
90.
Duct noise
91.
1. Fans are directly bolted to sheet metal ducts to ensure joints do not vibrate free.
2. Fan blade vibration causes noise in air ducts.
3. Dirt accumulation on centrifugal fan blades may cause unbalanced vibration.
4. Fans are the source of noise and vibration in air duct systems.
5. Fan rubber belt drive from the motor isolates the fan from motor vibration.
92.
1. Ducts are mounted on springs to isolate vibration from the building structure.
2. Fan and motor are solidly bolted to a concrete plant base to isolate noise and vibration.
3. Noise from sources within the building cannot enter air ducts and transfer elsewhere.
4. Fans have a flexible airtight fabric connection with air conditioning ducts to stop
transmission of vibration.
5. Noise created in one room cannot travel through an air conditioning duct and enter
another room.
Fans
93.
94.
95.
Discuss the relative merits of centrifugal and axial flow fans used in ventilation systems
96.
97.
General knowledge
98.
99.
Which are the two types of heat transfer taking place during ventilation of a building?
100. Show two methods of allowing fresh air to enter a room where extract ventilation is by
mechanical means and the incoming air is not to cause any draughts.
101. Sketch and describe two different types of heating system for each of the following
applications: house, office, commercial garage, shop, warehouse and heavy engineering
factory.
102. Why may the water in large heating systems be pressurised? Explain how pressurisation
systems work.
103. How do heating systems alter the mean radiant temperature of a room? Give examples.
104. What factors are included in the decision on the siting of a heat emitter? Give examples
and illustrate your answer. What safety precautions are taken in buildings occupied by very
young, elderly, infirm or disabled people?
105. How can radiant heating minimise fuel costs while providing comfortable conditions?
Give examples.
106. Sketch the installation of a ducted warm air heating system in a house and describe its
operation.
107. List the characteristics of electrical heating systems and compare them with other fuelbased systems.
108. Outline the parameters considered when deciding whether to use a one- or two-pipe
distribution arrangement for a radiator and convector low pressure hot water heating system.
111. How are mild steel heating and water service system pipes joined?
1. Grooved or welded pipes with bolted flanges.
2. Compression fittings.
Page 173 of 441
113. Gas that is vented from a closed hot water circulation system may be:
1. Dissolved oxygen.
2. Air entrained into the systems by the pump.
3. Cavitation air bubbles produced in the pump impeller
4. Methane from oxidation of black steel (could possibly be from 1, 2 and 3 also).
5. Steam.
120. How much of an increase in thermal efficiency can be obtained from using a
condensing boiler?
1. 5%.
2. 10%.
3. 15%.
4. 25%.
5. 100%.
123. How do condensing boilers withstand acidic corrosion from wet flue gas?
1. All heat transfer surfaces are stainless steel or cast aluminium.
2. Steel heat transfer surface is heat treated and coated.
3. Heat exchanger replaced at five yearly intervals.
4. Carbon fibre laminated stainless steel heat transfer surfaces used in primary and
secondary heat exchangers.
5. Condensation confined within a stainless steel secondary heat exchanger.
124. Which of these is not a correct location for a metal hot water or chilled water radiant
panel?
1. Ceiling perimeter above a window.
2. In the floor.
3. External wall beneath a window.
4. Internal wall facing a window.
Page 177 of 441
Health hazards
126. How can a chilled water cooling coil in an AHU become a health hazard?
1. They cannot, condensation washes the coil clean and drains away, cleaning the coil.
2. They cannot, as upstream air filter does not allow any dust to pass through to the coil.
3. They cannot, as chilled water and surface condensate temperatures always remain
below threshold for Legionella bacteria growth.
4. They cannot, as daily condensation always refills the water seal in the waste trap to the
sewer.
5. Dust passed by air filters accumulates in coil drain tray forming warm moist breeding
ground for bacteria that may pass into air conditioned rooms with air flow.
127. How could a chilled water cooling coil distribute bacteria into occupied air conditioned
rooms?
1. It cannot, as air temperature remains too cool.
2. It will not under normal operation.
Page 178 of 441
3. Condensate water trap between drain tray and sewer always maintains a water seal.
4. Water seal in P-trap between drain tray and sewer may become dehydrated and allow
sewer gases to pass into the air handling unit and supply duct.
5. It will not when adequately maintained in accordance with codes and standards.
Heat exchangers
128. What does air-to-air passive heat exchanger mean?
1. Duct to recirculate outgoing ventilation air to the outside air intake of an AHU.
2. Actively pumps heat from exhaust air into incoming fresh air.
3. Only used in summer weather to provide free cooling.
4. Only runs in winter to avoid freezing low temperature hot water heating coils.
5. Flat metal plate heat exchanger separating exhaust air stream from incoming outdoor
air.
131. Which is the most efficient way of recovering energy from room air?
1. Recirculation.
2. Sensible heat recovery thermal wheel.
3. Total heat recovery thermal wheel.
4. Plate heat exchanger.
5. Run-around pipe coils.
2. Sealed evacuated tube has one end warmed by outgoing room air while the other end
warms incoming outdoor cool air.
3. Sealed pipe containing a wick and refrigerant. Refrigerant liquid evaporates and
condenses at opposite ends between outgoing and incoming air streams, recovering
available heat difference.
4. Vacuum tube one metre long evaporates hydrocarbon in the warm air end and
condenses it in the cool air other end, transferring waste heat.
5. Compressed heat transfer fluid in sealed tube transfers heat by conduction and
convection between ends of tube.
135. Which is the typical thermal efficiency of an air-to-air heat recovery system?
1. Always 100%.
2. 90%.
Page 181 of 441
3. 85%.
4. 80%.
5. 40% to 85% range.
Heat transfer
136. Which correctly describes heat transfer?
1. Sensible heat transfer comprises all types.
2. Latent heat transfer raises temperature.
3. Sensible heat transfer is logged by a thermocouple and thermistor.
4. Latent heat transfer is hidden from view.
5. Sensible heat transfer only takes place through conduction and convection.
3. Evaporative coolers and cooling towers rely on latent heat transfer to remove sensible
heat from the water passing through.
4. Evaporative coolers work less efficiently in warm humid climates.
5. Cooling towers already have saturated air, so there is no latent heat transfer with the
circulating water.
141. Sketch and describe a micro bore heating installation serving hot water radiators. State
its advantages over alternative pipework systems.
142. A medium pressure hot water heating system is designed to provide a heat output of 100
kW with flow and return temperatures of 110C and 85C respectively. Calculate the pump
water flow rate required in litres per second.
Answer. 0.95 litre/s.
143. Find the dimensions of a double-panel steel radiator suitable for a room having an air
temperature of 15C when the water flow and return temperatures are 86C and 72C
respectively and the room heat loss is 4.25 kW.
Answer. 2.4 m long 700 mm high.
144. The two-pipe heating system shown in figure 7.14 is to be installed in an office block
where radiators 1, 2 and 3 represent areas with heat losses of 12 kW, 20 kW and 24 kW
respectively. Water flow and return temperatures are to be 90oC and 75oC respectively. The
pipe lengths shown are to be multiplied by 1.5. Pump A (figure 7.13) is to be used. Pipe heat
losses amount to 10% of room heat losses. The friction loss in the pipes is equivalent to 25%
of the measured length. Find the pipe sizes.
Answer. X 42 mm, Y 35 mm, Z 28 mm, Radiator 1 22 mm, Radiator 2 28 mm.
145. A hot water radiator central heating system is commissioned and tested while the
average outdoor air is 3C and there is intermittent sunshine and a moderate wind. The
building is sparsely occupied. Water flow and return temperatures at the boiler are 90C and
80C respectively and the room average temperature is 27C. The heating system was
designed to maintain the internal air at 22oC at an external air temperature of 1C with flow
and return temperatures of 85C and 73C respectively. State whether the heating system met
its design specification and what factors influenced the test results.
Page 184 of 441
Nuclear power
148. Which is correct about nuclear sourced conventional power generation?
1. Nuclear power stations never create any greenhouse gases.
2. They will become the sole means of generating electricity.
3. They are too dangerous to build.
4. Spent nuclear fuel rods are safe to handle.
5. Spent nuclear fuel rods remain radioactive for thousands of years.
Observations
150. Heres a challenge. On a hot sunny day, preferably during a series of them, visit a
variety of buildings where you have permission to enter and write a report on how successful
they are at maintaining indoor air comfort conditions. A suitable range of building types
include a holiday tent, caravan, building site cabin, portable office or beach hut. Compare
brick cavity traditional houses with timber frame with weatherboard homes. Find how
uninsulated metal clad industrial buildings, that is, large tin sheds, cope with hot weather. Are
naturally ventilated brick and concrete built commercial and academic buildings comfortable?
Do stately homes, castles and religious buildings that have stood for hundreds of years
maintain indoor comfort or do they remain cold indoors? Would you be willing to work in a
multi-storey commercial building that does not have air conditioning? Feel free to develop
other locations for assessment and in any country.
151. Study a commercial or academic building that you are familiar with. Sketch and
describe how it is ventilated, heated and cooled. Do the systems perform satisfactorily? Are
you actively involved with controlling the systems? If you were to redesign the HVAC
systems for low energy use in compliance with the HM Government Carbon Plan 2011, what
would you recommend? Write an illustrated report of your recommendations with economic
Page 186 of 441
justification, CO2 and other greenhouse gas emission reductions and whether such a project
may ever be implemented; if so, when.
152.
Explain how solar control is achieved on a west facing window in a warm climate at
a latitudes of 35o south around midday and how and if it may be applied to commercial
buildings in other latitudes. Computer simulation may be popular for such analysis but how
could you physically model shading for design assessment at almost no cost
Psychrometric chart
153. Why is a psychrometric chart used?
1. Personality testing of employees.
2. Psychiatric evaluation process.
3. Plots heat transfers in air conditioning.
4. Tests psychomotor reflex activity.
5. Vapour-compression refrigeration cycle is drawn on it.
1. Takes data from a sling psychrometer and provides a means of finding percentage
saturation, moisture content and specific enthalpy of humid air.
2. Shows variation of physical properties of dry air with atmospheric pressure.
3. Plots wet bulb temperature against vapour pressure.
4. Shows atmospheric vapour pressure for dry bulb air temperatures from 10oC to 60oC.
5. Plot of air dew point against dry bulb air temperatures.
3. Straight line between two dry bulb temperatures at constant moisture content from right
to left.
4. Angled straight line between two dry bulb temperatures from left to right.
5. Straight line between two dry bulb air temperatures at constant moisture content from
left to right.
160. Which of these does not correctly describe a cooling process line on a psychrometric
chart?
1. Cannot be precisely drawn on the chart due to variation of air percentage saturation
within the air spaces around a cooling and dehumidification coil.
2. Only the end points of the line are known precisely.
3. Line drawn represents overall picture of cooling process through the coil.
4. Curved line downwards from right to left between two moisture contents.
5. Straight line angled downwards between two pairs of coordinates from air dry bulb
temperature and moisture content.
161. Which of these describes the leaving air condition when warm humid air enters a chilled
water cooling coil?
1. Higher moisture content.
2. Higher specific enthalpy.
3. Same moisture content.
4. Lower dry bulb air temperature and around 90% saturation.
5. 100% saturated air at same moisture content.
165. Which does not correctly describe humidification processes on a psychrometric chart?
1. Increases air moisture content.
2. Straight line from left to right angled upwards.
3. Vertical line towards saturation curve.
4. Angled line upwards from right to left towards saturation curve.
5. Adiabatic saturation line.
166. Which does not correctly describe humidification processes on a psychrometric chart?
1. Water sprays onto a chilled water cooling coil.
2. Steam injection provides better air cleanliness.
3. Straight line moving away from 100% percentage saturation curve.
4. Straight line moving towards the 100% percentage saturation curve.
5. Adiabatic saturation line.
Refrigeration
167. Which correctly describes a refrigeration compressor?
1. Uses gas-driven engine producing refrigeration.
2. Car engine adapted for refrigerant gas drives the cooling system.
3. Similar operation to that of an air compressor.
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177. Which of these is not correct about how absorption refrigeration functions?
1. Coefficient of performance of around 1.0.
2. Utilises waste heat, such as process steam, as its heat energy input.
3. Has boiling, evaporation, condensing, pressure reduction and pumping processes.
4. Can only operate with a gas-fired burner as the source of heat input.
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2. Water.
3. Hydrocarbon oil.
4. Toxic.
5. Fluorinated hydrocarbons.
5. Condenser rejects the heat extracted from within the building to the outside
environment.
4. Thermostatic expansion valve stops and starts the flow of refrigerant from a digital
controller.
5. TEV is an evaporator isolating valve.
189. How does a basement 700 kW centrifugal refrigeration compressor normally reject heat
to the outdoor environment in a city centre building?
1. Basement air cooled heat exchanger and ducted outdoor air circulation.
2. Condenser cooling water ejects heat into sewer water through a second heat exchanger.
3. Condenser cooling water passes through multiple plastic pipes buried in soil heat sink.
4. Condenser cooling water circulates between a basement located compressor and a roof
mounted finned tube fluid cooler with several axial fans.
5. Evaporative cooling tower located in basement plant room and ducted to outdoors.
190. Identify which statement correctly describes the operation of the vapour compression
refrigeration cycle:
1. A compressor pump drives liquid refrigerant around the system.
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5. Flammable.
196. What happens to chlorinated fluorocarbons when released into the atmosphere?
1. Dissolved by nearby water and rain.
2. Harmlessly coexist in the atmosphere.
3. Vaporise and dispersed by wind and rain.
4. Degraded by ultra-violet solar radiation releasing chlorine into upper atmosphere that
remains there for many years.
5. Degraded by infra-red solar radiation in the upper atmosphere releasing harmless oxides
of chlorine, carbon and fluorine.
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197. What happens to chlorinated fluorocarbons when released into the atmosphere?
1. Do no known harm.
2. Become diluted within the vast atmosphere forming ice crystals.
3. Release carbon in gaseous form that ought to be recycled as fuel.
4. Degraded by ultra-violet and infra-red solar radiation in the upper atmosphere thus
destroying all its chemical compounds into harmless atoms.
5. Chlorine released into atmosphere, destroys atmospheric ozone, allowing increased
solar radiation onto Earth, expected to cause ecological and human damage.
203. Which is the reason to use ice thermal storage in a HVAC refrigeration system?
1. Reduce water chiller plant room space requirement.
2. Reduce number of water chillers needed.
3. Reduce water chiller run time.
4. Install smaller capacity refrigeration compressors.
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204. How can HVAC chiller plant running cost be lowered without reducing cooling
capacity or quality of service?
1. Install phase change ice thermal storage tanks charged during off-peak electrical tariff
times.
2. Reset evaporating temperature to a higher value.
2. Install one large capacity high efficiency water chiller instead of several smaller units.
3. Install several small capacity water chillers and a load control switching program to
optimise plant operation.
5. Reset condensing pressure to a lower value.
205. The average heating, ventilating and air conditioning cooling load during a 10-hour
working day of an office building is 200 kW. Which of these is an appropriate ice thermal
storage chiller capacity when off-peak electricity is available for 7 hours at night?
1. 286 kW.
2. 29 kW.
3. 140 kW.
4. 200 kW
5. Cannot be calculated from this information.
206. How can an off-peak ice making chiller be more efficient to operate than a daytime
water chiller?
1. Greater temperature difference between evaporation and condensing temperatures.
2. Lower outdoor nighttime dry and wet bulb air temperatures.
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207. Which if these is not a reason to use ice or chilled water thermal storage for air
conditioning?
1. Reduce greenhouse gas generation.
2. Smaller water chillers.
3. Can use ozone-friendly refrigerant.
4. Reduce total plant room space.
5. Lower capital cost.
208. Which statement best describes how the cooling plant matches its output to the
requirements of the building?
1. Manually determined water chiller running times.
2. Outside weather sensor switches water chillers.
3. Water chiller switching table programmed.
4. Heating system reheats rooms when they are overcooled.
5. Room air thermostats are averaged to switch water chillers.
209. Which of these are used in water chillers for air conditioning systems?
1. Evaporative cooling.
2. Reciprocating compressors.
3. Screw compressors.
4. Ground source heat pumps.
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5. Absorption refrigeration.
210. Describe the operation of the vapour compression refrigeration cycle and sketch a
complete system employing chilled water distribution to cooling coils in an air conditioning
system.
211. Discuss the uses of the absorption refrigeration cycle for refrigerators and air
conditioning systems.
212. Show how refrigeration systems can be used to pump heat from low temperature
sources, such as waste water, outdoor air arid solar collectors, to produce a usable heat
transfer medium for heating or air conditioning systems.
213. Multiple water chillers and water heaters are connected to system pipework:
1. Alongside each other.
2. In series with each other.
3. Independently of each other.
4. In parallel with each other.
5. In any combination of pipes.
214. Which are typical through the wall packaged room air conditioner components?
1. Refrigeration compressor.
2. A building management system control connection.
3. Ducted supply air system.
4. Condenser finned pipe coil.
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5. Fans.
215. Identify which of these statements correctly describe the operation of the vapour
compression refrigeration cycle.
1. A compressor pump drives liquid refrigerant around the system.
2. Refrigerant condenses at 40oC to reject heat from the building.
3. Refrigerant gas vaporises at 30oC and at high pressure to absorb heat from the building.
4. An expansion valve drops refrigerant gas pressure.
5. Heat is absorbed from the building by vaporising refrigerant at low pressure at around
5oC.
5. Ground source heat pumps are the least efficient method of cooling a building.
1. Variable speed drive compressors match cooling and heating demand from multiple
evaporator room units and use less energy than single speed compressors.
2. Not a good idea as inverter drives create additional high frequency noise.
3. Higher cost of inverter driven compressors make system uneconomic.
4. On/off compressor control is more energy efficient.
5. Essential to use latest technology.
222. Which method of controlling the capacity of a refrigeration system offers significant
saving in electrical power?
1. Compressor on/off switching.
2. Compressor cylinder head valve unloading by holding open.
3. Refrigerant hot gas bypass around the compressor.
4. Variable frequency compressor drive.
5. Thermostatic expansion valve refrigerant flow control.
3. Centrifugal.
4. Screw.
5. Piston.
225. When the coefficient of performance during heating, COPH, of a vapour compression
refrigeration cycles is 3.5, which of these is the correct compressor power input to generate
3.5 kW of heating?
1. 3.5 kW.
2. 1 kW.
3. 35 kW.
4. 10 kW.
5. Must be measured.
226. When the coefficient of performance during cooling, COPR, of a vapour compression
refrigeration cycles is 2.5, which of these is the correct compressor power input to generate
2.5 kW of cooling?
1. 2.5 kW.
2. 1 kW.
3. 25 kW.
4. 10 kW.
5. Something else.
227. When the coefficient of performance during heating, COPH, of a vapour compression
refrigeration cycles is 3, which of these is the correct compressor power input to generate 750
kW of heating?
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1. 750 kW.
2. 2250 kW.
3. 100 kW.
4. 250 kW.
5. 75 kW.
228. When the coefficient of performance during cooling, COPR, of a vapour compression
refrigeration cycles is 2.25, which of these is the correct compressor power input to generate
225 kW of cooling?
1. 225 kW.
2. 22.5 kW.
3. 506 kW.
4. 100 kW.
5. 2.25 kW.
231. A room has a sensible heat gain of 10 kW and a supply air temperature of 10C d.b.
Find the supply air rate required to keep the room air down to 20C d.b.
Answer. 0.793 m3/s.
232. Ten people occupy an office and each produces 50 W of latent heat. The supply air flow
rate is 0.5 m3/s and its temperature is 12C d.b. If the room is to be maintained at 21C d.b.
and 50% saturation, calculate the supply air moisture content.
Answer. 0.007469 kg H2O/kg air.
233. The cooling coil of a packaged air conditioner in a hotel bedroom has refrigerant in it at
a temperature of 16C. Room air enters the coil at 31C d.b. and 40% saturation and leaves at
20C d.b. at a rate of 0.5 m3/s.
(a)
(b)
Find the room air wet bulb temperature and specific volume.
(21.2oC w.b., 0.877 m3/kg)
(c)
System applications
234. Single duct air conditioning systems are used:
Page 211 of 441
236. Which are correct about variable air volume air conditioning systems?
1. Have a terminal unit at the room end of a duct to increase the supply air quantity.
2. Reduce the amount of air supplied to each room due to cooling load variations.
3. Have air handling unit fan speed controllers to maintain a constant supply and
recirculation air duct static air pressures.
4. Are used in multi-room buildings.
5. Are only used to condition large entertainment or hospital operating theatres.
System components
242. Why are motorised dampers fitted into the outside air and return air intakes to the air
handling unit in a large air conditioning system?
1. Close off the air supply during a storm.
2. Stop sucking dust into the building.
3. Vary the winter and summer intake of outdoor air.
4. Shut the air conditioning down at night.
5. Fully open up during fire mode.
243. What connects an air conditioning duct to the supply air grille in the ceiling of an
office?
1. Fan coil unit.
2. Pump.
3. Silencer chamber.
4. Galvanised metal box.
5. Flexible tube.
247. Which are correct about the location of air conditioning fan coil units?
1. In a plant room.
Page 215 of 441
249. Which of these are examples of good engineering practice in the HVAC plant room?
1. Concrete plinths and anti-vibration mountings for rotating machines.
2. Telephones and computers.
3. Hard surfaced thermal insulation.
4. Artificial lighting and emergency exit lighting.
5. Low headroom under pipes and air ducts.
254. Why might an under floor air distribution system, UFAD, have benefits?
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1. It is not a new idea; the same as ancient Roman hypocaust system but now used for
cooling.
2. Fan terminal unit, FTU, within floor void provides flexible modular low velocity supply
air.
3. Noisy fan within a dusty under floor void is a health and maintenance hazard.
4. Cannot provide local heating.
5. Only used in raised floors for cabling of large computer server rooms.
255. Why might an under floor air distribution system, UFAD, with multiple fan terminal
units, FTU, have benefits?
1. Not used in commercial buildings as impractical and costly.
2. Keeping many under floor fan coil units and their air filter clean and dust-free requires
excessive maintenance work that disrupts office work.
3. Saves having a central air handling unit plant room.
4. Provides controllable microclimate at each workstation.
5. Many small fans, coils, filters and controllers are cheaper than one large air handling
unit.
Ventilation strategies
256. What does assisted natural ventilation system mean?
1. Manually openable windows, louvres and skylights.
2. May have mechanically operated ventilation devices.
3. Natural ventilation systems linked to a building management system computer.
4. Fully controlled air conditioning.
5. Always refers to natural air inlet and air outlet systems.
Page 218 of 441
262. Sketch and describe the arrangements for natural and mechanical ventilation of
buildings. State two applications for each system.
263. Describe the operating principles of four different systems of air conditioning. State a
suitable application for each.
264. State, with reasons, the appropriate combinations of natural and mechanical ventilation
for the following: residence, city office block, basement boiler room, industrial kitchen,
internal toilet accommodation, hospital operating theatre, entertainment theatre.
265. Explain, with the aid of sketches, how the external wind environment affects the
internal thermal environment of a building.
266. List the procedure for the design of an air conditioning system for an office block.
267. Which is an appropriate statement for displacement ventilation moving air comfort
criteria?
1. Displacement supply air inlets blow air across feet.
2. Displacement supply air inlets diffuse heating air into occupied rooms just beneath the
ceiling.
3. Displacement supply air inlets diffuse air into the room to avoid causing draughts.
4. Floor supply air grilles keep feet warm.
5. Low level and floor supply air grilles are not practical.
271. Which is correct about the supply of outdoor air into a building?
1. Does not need to be filtered in the UK.
2. Does not need to be filtered in clean air localities.
3. Only needs to be filtered when there is a health or medical need by the occupants.
4. Air filtration is only necessary in health care, laboratory and museum buildings.
5. Incoming outdoor air is always filtered to maintain a clean and dust-free internal
environment.
6 Ductwork design
1. 3
Answer. 3.82 s .
2. Calculate the carrying capacities of air ducts of 400 mm, 600 mm, 1 m and 2 m diameters
m
m3
s
, 2.26
m3
s
, 6.28
m3
s
, 25.13
m3
s
3. The temperature of air in a 400 mm diameter duct is 32oC d.b. on a day when the
atmospheric pressure was 101105 Pa. The static pressure of the air in the duct was 45 mm
m
water gauge below the atmosphere. The average air velocity was measured as 7 s . Calculate
the air density, velocity pressure and total pressure.
kg
m3
s
are to flow through a 500 mm diameter duct at a static pressure of 300 Pa above the
atmospheric pressure of 101500 Pa and at a temperature of 26oC d.b. Calculate the air density,
velocity and total pressures.
kg
m3
s
duct that then reduces to 1000 mm diameter and remains at 1000 mm for 20 m. The air total
Page 224 of 441
pressure at the commencement of the 1300 mm duct is 600 Pa above atmospheric. The
kg
reducer is the 60o concentric type. Air density is 1.2 m3. Frictional pressure loss rates are
0.23
Pa
m
Answer.
Node
Pt Pa
Pv Pa
Ps Pa
600
22
578
595
22
574
591
62
529
573
62
511
Pa
m
m3
s
duct that then reduces to 400 mm diameter and remains at 400 mm for 30 m. The air total
pressure at the commencement of the 600 mm duct is 250 Pa above atmospheric. The reducer
kg
is the 30o concentric type. Air density is 1.15 m3. Frictional pressure loss rates are 0.85
Pt Pa
Pa
m
Pv Pa
Ps Pa
250
29
221
240
29
211
237
146
91
42
146
104
Air pressure
Page 225 of 441
Pa
m
in
7. Calculate the density of air for a temperature of 25oC d.b. when the atmospheric pressure is
101600 Pa.
kg
atmospheric pressure.
Answer. 46.6oC d.b.
Duct pressures
10.
An air duct branch is similar to that shown in figure 6.7. Use the data provided to
calculate all the duct pressures at the nodes. 800 mm diameter duct 12 is 22 m long and
carries 3
m3
s
m3
s
m3
s
contraction has a velocity pressure loss factor of 0.05. Air density is 1.2 m3. Pressure drop
rates are: duct 12 0.43
400 Pa.
Pa
m
Pa
Pa
Answer.
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Node
11.
Pt Pa
Pv Pa
Ps Pa
400
21
379
391
21
370
389
30
360
379
30
349
375
23
352
365
23
342
An air duct branch is similar to that shown in figure 6.7. Use the data provided to
calculate all the duct pressures at the nodes. 700 mm diameter duct 12 is 20 m long and
carries 3
m3
s
m3
s
vanes. Use circular duct data. Ignore the fact that turning vanes are not fitted to a circular
kg
branch. The vanes are in the branch duct. Air density is 1.2 m3. Pressure drop rates are: duct
12 0.85
Answer.
Node
Pa
m
, duct 34 0.4
Pt Pa
Pa
m
Pv Pa
Pa
m
Ps Pa
200
36
164
183
36
147
183
16
167
175
16
159
170
38
132
166
38
128
12.
m3
s
duct to the fan is 500 mm diameter. Static pressure at the fan inlet was measured as 90 mm
water gauge relative to standard atmospheric pressure. Ductwork system had a calculated
resistance of 2000 Pa. Air density is 1.16
m
kg
m3
Answer. v1 15.3 s , pv1 136 Pa, v2 12.5 s , pv2 91 Pa, ps1 883 Pa, pt1 747 Pa, ps2 1162 Pa, pt2
1253 Pa, FTP 2000 Pa, FVP 91 Pa, FSP 1909 Pa.
13.
The duct system shown in figure 6.16 is to be installed in a false ceiling over offices and
corridors. The air handling plant comprises the fresh air inlet, filter, chilled water cooling coil
and an axial flow fan, and are located in a plant room. Office A is supplied with 1.5
office B has 2.5
m3
s
m3
s
and
. Find suitable sizes for the ducts and state the performance specification
m
s
m
s
m
s
m
s
constructed from 45o louvres having a free area of 60% and wire mesh. The filter, supply
grille and cooling coil have air pressure drops of 65 Pa, 30 Pa and 40 Pa, respectively. The
contractions in the duct are at an angle of 60o and the enlargement is at 40o. Ducts are to be
sized for an air temperature of 20oC d.b.
Answer. There is more than one correct solution to this question. Ducts sizes can be:
Section 12, 1200 mm 1500 mm;
Section 34, 600 mm 600 mm;
Section 56, 1200 mm 700 mm;
Page 228 of 441
pv
lm
Pa
Pa
Pa
12
0.05 2.3
23
0.07 2.3
34
45
Section
Pa
0
10*
0.07 105
105*
2.16 11.7 82
0.04 3
3*
0.24 5.1
15
0.36 29
29*
56
16
0.24 5.1
15
0.35 5
9*
67
0.42 5
15
1.25 49
49*
68
15
0.31 4.5
12
0.09 31
36
Index route *
14.
10
206 Pa
The ducts shown in figure 6.16 are an extract system removing air from two workshops
where low velocity air and heat reclaim are employed. The air flow direction arrows are to be
reversed in figure 6.16. Reverse the direction of node numbering starting with 1 at Workshop
B and 2 at Workshop A. All the duct lengths are three times those shown. The air handling
plant comprises a fan, heat reclaim cooling coil, a noise attenuator in place of the filter shown
and an exhaust grille to outdoors. Workshop A has an extract rate of 3.5
extraction of 2.5
m3
s
m3
s
. Find suitable sizes for the ducts and state the performance specification
m
s
m
s
m
s
m
s
constructed from 45o louvres having a free area of 70% and wire mesh. The attenuator, extract
Page 229 of 441
grilles and cooling coil have air pressure drops of 135 Pa, 70 Pa and 90 Pa respectively. The
contractions in the duct are at an angle of 45o and the enlargement is at 30o. Ducts are to be
sized for an air temperature of 20oC d.b.
Answer. There is more than one correct solution to this question. Ducts sizes can be:
Section 12, 2000 mm 1600 mm;
Section 23, 1350 mm 1600 mm;
Section 34, 650 mm 650 mm;
Section 56, 1000 mm 800 mm;
Section 67, 800 mm 600 mm;
Section 68, 800 mm 450 mm.
Length
pv
lm
Pa
Pa
Pa
12
0.02
2.1
23
0.06
2.9
0.07 225
34
2.9
45
56
Section
5*
226*
60 *
0.6
7.9
37
0.04 5
5*
48
0.6
7.9
37
0.35 13
29
42*
67
0.81
7.7
35
1.25 114
78
68
45
7.4
33
0.09 73
45
118*
Index route *
Pa
Measurements
456 Pa
15.
State the three measurements made of air pressure within a duct, the direction they act,
what each is used for and the scientists name that is used to connect them. State the formulae
connecting the three pressures.
16.
Explain, with the aid of sketches, how the three airway pressures are measured. List all
the equipment that would be needed. State how each item would be used.
17.
A commissioning engineer needs to know the volume flow rate and mass flow rate of
air through a 600 mm diameter duct. State all the measurements that are necessary and how
they are to be acquired. Write all the formulae that would be needed and show the units of
measurement used.
18.
Sketch graphs of the three airway pressures changing along a duct of length l m and
(b)
(c)
The duct is on the suction side to a fan and air total pressure is below atmospheric
pressure.
(d)
The duct tapers from 1 m diameter to 500 mm diameter along length l m. Pressures
remain above atmospheric pressure.
(e)
The duct enlarges from 300 mm diameter to 600 mm diameter while the total
pressure remains below atmospheric pressure.
(f)
(g)
Room air returns to the air handling plant through ducts that have inadequate joint
sealing along their entire length, causing significant leakage. Total pressure at the
commencement of the duct is above atmospheric. Static pressure within the duct
starts at below atmospheric pressure.
Static regain
19.
Calculate the static regain and pressure changes that occur when 3
m3
s
flow through a 10
m long, 450 mm diameter duct that then enlarges to 700 mm diameter and remains at 700 mm
for 20 m. The air total pressure at the commencement of the 450 mm duct is 400 Pa above
kg
atmospheric. The enlarger is the 30o concentric type. Air density is 1.24 m3. Frictional
pressure loss rates are 8
Answer.
Pt Pa
Node
Pa
m
Pv Pa
Pa
m
Ps Pa
400
221
179
320
221
99
144
38
106
126
38
89
20.
A 500 mm diameter duct supply air duct suddenly enlarges into a 1 m diameter plenum
chamber containing filters. Calculate the static regain and pressure changes that occur when
1.5
m3
s
flows through the 35 m long, 500 mm diameter duct, enlarges, and then flows through
the 1 m diameter plenum for 5 m. The air total pressure at the commencement of the 500 mm
duct is 200 Pa above atmospheric. Refer to figure 6.3 for the enlarger pressure loss factor. The
kg
Pt Pa
Pa
m
Pv Pa
Pa
m
Ps Pa
200
36
164
165
36
129
145
143
145
143
Actuators
1. State the types of actuators used to control heating, ventilating and air conditioning
equipment. Sketch and describe their operating principles.
2. Discuss the use of pneumatic actuators. Include in your discussion their operating
principles, the plant necessary, their interaction with electrical, electronic and digital signals,
their advantages and limitations.
4. Which of these comments are factually correct about a building management system and
are not just an opinion?
1. Physical security protection is now out of date.
2. Allows one person to control and monitor a large facility.
3. Digital recording cameras stop illegal break-ins and escapes.
4. Turn off the power source and it is useless.
5. RS232 and RS484 are types of automatic control system.
10.
11.
12.
Identify the vital components for user interfacing with a building management system.
13.
How often does the building management system communicate data with sensors and
actuators?
1. When the server is switched on by a person.
2. Only when required.
3. Only when measured conditions change.
4. Regular polling.
Page 236 of 441
14.
What forms does building management system data not take when passing through the
communications cabling?
1. Alternating current of over 1.0 amp.
2. Light pulses through fibre optic cables.
3. Internet protocol data packets.
4. Electrical direct current below 0.10 amps.
5. Voltage of 10 volt maximum.
15.
What types of cable system are not normally used for building management system
communications cables?
1. Copper wire.
2. Screened TV aerial cable.
3. RS 485 copper.
4. RS232 copper.
5. Fibre optic.
16.
How does the building management system control engineer recognise what a control
point does?
1. Gives each one a unique number.
2. Gives each one a unique name.
3. Uses an easily identified code description.
4. Writes a digital bar code number.
5. Attaches a detailed description label.
17.
Which of these will the building management system user not see on the computer
screen?
1. Mimic drawings of the mechanical and electrical services systems.
2. Scale drawings of the building.
3. Floor plans showing sensor and camera positions.
4. Energy use reports.
5. On/off status of equipment and warning and alarm messages of faults.
18.
1. No such thing.
2. Water chiller, flow control valve and temperature sensor temperature sensors.
3. Water system.
4. Air handling unit.
5. Printed circuit board in an outstation.
19.
Roughly what is the average installation cost of a building management system point?
20.
How many primary, or main, users are there likely to be of a building management
2. One hundred.
3. Three to ten.
4. Everyone in the building.
5. All employees and contractors.
21.
Who are the likely secondary, infrequent, users of a building management system, in
any building?
1.
Financial accountant.
2.
Building surveyor.
3.
Maintenance contractor.
4.
Police.
5.
Any staff.
6.
7.
8.
Architect.
9.
10.
11.
12.
Security staff.
22.
What opens and closes a water flow control valve or an air damper in a computer-based
building management system?
3. Hydraulic actuator.
4. Geared drive.
5. Winding gear.
23.
Which component of a building management system controller takes input and output
direct current voltages from sensors and actuators, changing them into computer data?
1. Multiplexer.
2. The ethernet.
3. Analogue to digital converter.
4. EPROM and RAM chips.
5. Arithmetic logic unit, ALU.
24.
25.
Acquire manufacturers literature that demonstrates the use of computer screen system
logic diagrams for air conditioning systems. Note how the air circulation, detectors and
control systems are represented. Choose a different type of air conditioning system and create
an equivalent diagram. List all the data points to be used, with sample data.
26.
List all the points that are to be connected into the automatic control system. A point is
where a detector, switch, control panel, outstation, modem or other item, is wired into the
automatic control system. The control, commissioning and maintenance engineers need to
know this information.
27.
1. Ethernet.
2. RS484.
3. RS232.
4. RS124.
5. C-bus.
28.
29.
Which of these does the building management system control system programming do?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
Draw graphs.
9.
10.
30.
system?
1. Armed guards.
2. Intruder protection bars at windows.
3. Digital or video camera recording.
4. Guard dogs.
5. Record of personnel movements.
6. Identity badging and door swipe cards.
7. Fibre optic cable network communications.
8. Telephones.
9. Asset tracking e-tags.
31.
Which of these comments are factually correct about a building management system
32.
Identify which of these is not one of the main parts of a control system:
33.
1. Switching heating and cooling valves fully open and closed only.
2. Calculating a control output signal to correct the zone temperature.
3. Issuing digital pulses to moves actuators.
4. Receiving signals from sensors and issuing output signals.
5. Searching the computer network for data.
34.
35.
1. Memory chips.
2. Video output device.
Page 243 of 441
3. Communications BUS.
4. Valve and air damper actuators.
5. Calculation unit and data store.
36.
Outstation and main control boxes of a building management system are normally
found in:
1. Terminal air conditioning units.
2. Plant rooms.
3. Computer rooms.
4. Services shafts.
5. The office of the building management personnel.
37.
1. With a screwdriver.
2. At the server computer.
3. Remotely through the internet.
4. By calibrating room air temperature sensors with a thermometer.
5. With a laptop computer communicating directly with each control box.
38.
39.
40.
41.
How often does the building management system communicate data with sensors and
actuators?
1. When required by the engineer.
2. Several times per hour.
3. A few times daily.
4. Multiple times a minute.
5. When required to generate activity reports.
42.
What forms does building management system data take when passing through the
communications cabling?
Page 245 of 441
43.
What types of cable system are used for building management system communications
cables?
1. 240 volt alternating current.
2. Screened TV aerial cable.
3. RS 485 and RS232 copper 10 volt twisted pair.
4. Mineral insulated copper conduit.
5. Any earthed cable.
44.
How many primary, or main, users are there likely to be of a building management
45.
3. Printed circuit boards hidden away in metal or plastic boxes in plant rooms.
4. Water and air temperature sensors.
5. Hand held devices.
46.
Which of these does the building management system control system programming
do?
1. Measure room conditions occasionally.
2. Switch boilers and chillers on and off several times a day.
3. Calculate how much to open and close motorised valves and dampers.
4. Select the nearest correct response to condition changes.
5. Intelligently work out what to do.
47.
Which of these comments are factually correct about a building management system
48.
49.
What is the difference between building energy management systems, BEMS and
50.
Which reports does the building owner want from the BMS?
51.
Which reports does the building user or manager want from the BMS?
52.
Which reports does the energy auditor want from the BMS?
53.
Which reports does the control system maintenance technician want from the BMS?
54.
1. Front end PC system, robust metal boxes in plant rooms with circuit boards and many
10 volt wires to sensors and final control elements such as valve motors.
2. Multiple PCs around a large site with user access at each.
3. Only a metal cabinet containing logic controllers and wires.
Page 249 of 441
55.
56.
1. Room air thermostat switching pumps, valves and dampers on and off.
2. Room air thermostat modulating an electrically operated damper and valve.
3. Digital communications with electrical or pneumatic signals and actuator power
supply.
4. 415 volt control circuits, single and three phase controllers.
5. Manual control switches and valves.
6. Entirely pneumatic sensing devices and actuator power supply.
57.
What is an outstation?
5. Metal box control panel in a plant room with printed circuit boards, programmable logic
chips, RAM, EPROMS and 10 volt wires to sensors and control elements in the field.
58.
1. Physically looking at control valves and dampers to see what they are doing.
2. Reading a PC screen.
3. Downloading data from an outstation to a laptop through an RS485 cable.
4. Through the internet.
5. It is not.
59.
What is the input and output signal to a valve or damper actuator in a DDC system?
60.
What is the difference between a BMS front end PC and a field control panel?
61.
1. All control software is written onto the hard disk drive of the front end server PC and
accessed through the network by each controller.
2. System graphics and control software packages for each type of control function are cut
and pasted from a library into files on a laptop computer later downloaded to each
relevant field control panel through an RS485 data cable from the laptop.
3. Geeks at PC workstations spend 60 hours a week writing software that is sent through
the internet to the field control panels anywhere in the world.
4. I have no idea.
5. Software is generated by intelligent programming fuzzy logic neural network server
computers in Minneapolis.
62.
What is the name of the generic data communication system used in BMS?
1. Open system.
2. BACNet.
3. LONtalk.
4. Ethernet.
5. GSM telephone.
63.
64.
65.
1. BACNet.
2. LONtalk.
3. MODbus.
4. GSMnet.
5. ARCNet.
66.
1. Pager.
2. Mobile digital phone.
3. Two-way radio.
4. Handheld PDA.
5. Laptop computer.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
Outstation and main control boxes of a building management system are normally
found in:
1. Terminal air conditioning units.
2. Plant rooms.
3. Computer rooms.
4. Services shafts.
5. The office of the building management personnel.
73.
How many primary, or main, users are there likely to be of a building management
2. One hundred.
3. Three to ten.
4. Everyone in the building.
5. All employees and contractors.
74.
Components
75.
76.
77.
Explain how an analogue signal can be created and used to represent room air
temperature.
78.
Draw a graph of the output signal from a thermistor temperature sensor that has an
operating range of 0oC to 40oC and a constant current of 5 milliampere. A linear voltage
output of 010 volt is produced by the thermistor. 10 volt corresponds to 40oC air
temperature. Calculate the voltage that corresponds to an air temperature of 25oC and the
resistance of the thermistor at this value.
79.
80.
An open plan occupied space is served by a single duct variable temperature air
conditioning system. Explain how the average air temperature and humidity of the space can
be sensed and used for the control of the hot and chilled water diverting control valves. Sketch
the arrangement of the detectors, controllers and actuators on a plant schematic.
81.
A thermistor produces a 5 volt direct current output when passing a control current of
10 milliampere. Four thermistors are used to find the average of four air temperatures in a
lecture theatre. Draw a suitable wiring circuit that would produce an average voltage for use
by the controller. Calculate the resistance of the circuit. Validate your connection design by
calculating the circuit resistance from first principles.
82.
Explain the use of enthalpy control of the fresh air intake to a ducted ventilation or air
conditioning system. State why it is used and what limitations may arise.
83.
Explain, with the aid of sketches, what an electric solenoid, relay and contactor is. State
84.
Explain how a personal computer is used to monitor and control an air conditioning
system. State how 24 volt, 240 volt and 415 volt alternating current electric powered actuators
and plant are interfaced with the binary code used by the computer and network cables. Give
examples of the software used by the supervising computer and the engineering management
personnel in dealing with the data accessed.
85.
86.
Control mode
87.
Discuss, with examples, how lags occur in the detection and control of air conditioning
88.
integral, proportional plus integral plus derivative, offset, differential, boost, controlled
variable, controller, dead time, set point.
89.
State the ten controller operation methods used. Briefly describe the principle of each
method.
90.
Identify which of the following modes of automatic control are usually employed in
2. Integral action.
3. Derivative action.
4. Proportional plus integral action.
5. Fast response.
91.
Identify which of the following modes of automatic control are usually employed in
Control schematics
92.
A public entertainment theatre and conference centre seats 500 people. The basic layout
of the air conditioning system is shown in figure 7.7. Add a chilled water cooling coil and
three-port diverting valve on the chilled water circulation. The room condition is to be
maintained at 20oC d.b. 2oC and 50% percentage saturation 10%. The outdoor air
temperature varies from 10oC d.b. to 32oC d.b. during the year. Design an automatic control
system that will maintain thermal comfort throughout the year. Specify the types of detection
and control equipment necessary. Draw a schematic diagram of the air handling plant and
control system to describe its components, locations and modes of control. Draw operating
graphs for the controls to demonstrate the voltage signals that correspond to plant status.
Describe the logical operation of the control sequence. Chilled water is available at a flow
temperature of 6oC and hot water is at 82oC. Ignore the boiler and refrigeration plant
operations. Frost protection of the building and air handling plant is needed due to the low
Page 260 of 441
external air temperature. Make any assumptions that may be considered necessary. The design
may be discussed with colleagues, the tutor and suppliers of control systems.
93.
Explain the logical operation of the control of a variable air volume air conditioning
Fan control
94.
Discuss the four methods used to control the output performance of centrifugal and
axial flow fans. Illustrate the methods to show their application. Sketch the effect of each
method on a fan performance graph. Each graph is to identify the duct system resistance, the
control effect and the combined performance point. State the energy savings, advantages and
limitations of each method.
Explain the methods used to control the chilled water output performance of
refrigeration plant. Include the various types of refrigeration system and compressors.
96.
sets are to produce a flow temperature of 5oC when the return water is at 11oC. The minimum
chilled water temperature is 3oC. The tolerance of the chilled water temperature control is
0.5oC. Each cylinder corresponds to a cooling load dead band of 1oC around the set point.
Design a control schematic for the refrigeration plant. Draw a capacity control graph to show
the control steps and the mean chilled water flow temperature that will be produced.
97.
Water chillers are a major source of cooling for air conditioning. List the types of
packaged water chillers available; provide sketches to show their principle of operation and
typical application.
Answer. Vapour compression reciprocating, scroll, screw and centrifugal. Absorption, gas
fired, waste heat supplied.
98.
Multiple chillers are used in large buildings to match capacity with demand. Sketch and
describe the following means of providing a satisfactory cooling service while minimising
energy use. Parallel and series connected chilled water evaporators. Parallel and series
connected condenser water cooling heat exchangers. Chilled water primary circuit. Chilled
water secondary circuits. Chilled water common header. Constant pump speed primary chilled
water circuit. Variable speed secondary chilled water circuits. The use of chilled water
pressure difference sensors and control valves.
99.
Explain with the aid of sketches and manufacturers literature how the following systems
function and where they can be employed: direct air cooled condensers; water cooled and
evaporative condensers; open circuit cooling tower; closed circuit cooling towers; forced
draught cooling tower; induced draught cooling tower; cross draught cooling tower;
evaporatively precooled dry heat exchanger.
100. Controlling water chilling plant is a big part of economising on energy use. Explain
with the aid of sketches and resource material, the meaning of the following control methods:
each chiller in a multi-chiller installation is a capacity step; multi-compressor step control;
compressor cylinder unloading; variable speed control; hot gas bypass; evaporator pressure
regulator.
101. Explain how centrifugal, screw, gar and scroll refrigeration compressors are controlled
to match refrigeration demand.
102. Find a BMS companys single chiller control graphic and explain the control functions.
Show typical temperature set points.
103. Four centrifugal water chillers are connected in parallel to a common chilled water flow
and return header. Sketch the CHW pipe and chiller schematic. Show one typical pumped
secondary CHW circuit connected to the common header. The secondary circuit supplies
AHU coils through diverting control valves. Annotate the schematic to demonstrate how the
control system functions to minimise energy and show typical temperature set points.
104. A roof mounted cooling tower is to have a condenser water diverting valve to control
heat rejection capacity from a reciprocating water chiller located in the basement. Sketch and
describe the control schematic to demonstrate functionality and show typical temperature set
points.
105. Find a BMS manufacturers digital controller configuration schematic for multiple
water chillers and cooling towers. Explain the functionality of the system and show typical
temperature set points.
106. Sketch and describe a typical digital control schematic for multiple cooling towers and
show typical temperature set points.
107. Show a BMS manufacturers control graphic for multiple water chillers, show typical
temperature set points and explain its operation.
108. Decide on a climate region for your answer. Give reasons for sequencing unequally
sized water chillers in a large commercial building. For example, when each chiller capacity
is 15%, 25%, 60% of the designs cooling load. Quote a specific installation if one is known
to you.
Wiring diagram
109. Draw an electric wiring diagram, similar to figure 7.16, for the heating and ventilating
system in a shop. The supply and extract fan motors are single phase. The fresh air inlet fan
has an electric resistance heater that raises the supply air to 20oC. A low temperature limit
Page 264 of 441
thermostat in the supply duct switches the supply fan off after a 2 minute time delay. The
extract fan is started from a 30 second time delay unit after the supply fan has started. A time
controlled switch activates the fans and two fan powered single phase electric resistance
heaters in the shop. An air thermostat for each heater switches them on and off. Each fan and
heater has an on status indicator lamp. A frost thermostat is set at 8oC in the shop and it
overrides the time switch. Three smoke detectors switch on a smoke extract fan. The smoke
extract system is always operational and it has a ready status indicator lamp, a smoke alarm
indicator lamp and an audible smoke alarm.
110. Draw the wiring diagram for a three phase 415 volt power supply to two air
conditioning fans, a refrigeration compressor and a steam humidifier. Each item has a triple
pole and neutral isolating switch. The humidifier is controlled from a 10 volt control signal
from a humidity detector within the air duct. The supply duct air temperature controls a hot
water valve. There is an isolating switch for all the air conditioning circuits. An overload
circuit breaker protects the whole system. The plant room has a three phase distribution board.
Single phase is used by the temperature and humidity controller.
Commissioning work
1. Write a complete schedule for the commissioning work necessary on the air handling
equipment only for a single duct air conditioning system serving a lecture theatre. Heat is
provided from a low pressure hot water two -pipe system from a boiler house. Cooling is
provided by chilled water two-pipe systems.
2. Explain the difference between scheduled and unscheduled maintenance work on an air
conditioning system. State the items that will require replacement, their likely length of
normal service and whether they should be held in storage on the site.
3. List the order in which each part of an air conditioning system will be commissioned. State
the condition required of the building works for each stage of commissioning.
(b)
internal surfaces of air ducts, cooling towers, water storage tanks and water
circulation pipework systems need to be cleaned and disinfected;
(c)
(d)
methods available for the starting of the electrical motor drive on a fan;
(e)
(f)
proportional balancing;
(g)
(h)
(i)
(j)
(k)
(l)
tolerance limits;
(o)
5. List the instruments that may be needed to commission an air conditioning system.
Describe, with the aid of sketches, the operating principle and method of use of each
instrument.
Duct leakage
6. A leakage test on completed ductwork revealed the following data; duct static pressure 45
mm H2O, duct surface area 120 m2, duct air temperature 12oC, orifice plate flow coefficient
0.67, orifice throat diameter 70 mm, orifice pressure drop 160 mm H2O. Calculate whether
the duct system meets the maximum leakage criteria when it is calculated from
l
the test fan in order for the duct system to meet the maximum leakage criteria when it is
l
Maintenance work
10.
Describe how failure of plant during normal use is overcome to maintain the air
conditioning service.
11.
Discuss the approach to a suitable maintenance programme for the air conditioning in
(b)
university
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
12.
cooling tower on the roof of a hospital in a city. State the actions that are taken to ensure that
the tower operation will not cause health hazards to the patients and the public.
13.
Design a maintenance log for a city office building that has low pressure hot water
heating and a single duct heating and ventilation system. There is no refrigeration plant.
Maintenance work is to be carried out by contractors. The office users will allow some
interruption of the heating and ventilating systems during 09.0017.00 hours for repairs.
14.
Discuss the reasons for using standby plant in an air conditioned building. Include the
implications for plant room size, storage commitment, stock control, capital and recurring
costs for the user.
15.
List the frequency of visual checks, physical measurement, changeover of running plant
and planned replacement of the items and systems in an air conditioned building of your
choice from the types given in question 11
16.
Find the maintenance records for the building that is accessible to you. This may be a
residence, office, factory, warehouse, college or university. Request the help and cooperation
of the professionally employed maintenance engineering staff where this is applicable. Write
a report on the comprehensiveness of the records that are kept. Make appropriate
recommendations as to improvements that should be made.
17.
Compare the quality of maintenance work and its recording when it is conducted by
employees of the same organisation that uses the site, and contract companies. This may
involve the acquisition of information from several sources that are dissimilar. Discuss the
advantages and the budgetary control implications of each method.
18.
Draw a schematic diagram of part of an air conditioning system. Show the location of
all the necessary valves, dampers and controls. Number all the controls and test points and
produce a schedule of their data. Write on the diagram all the data that will be needed by the
commissioning and maintenance engineers.
19.
Design a maintenance log for the refrigeration plant of an air conditioning system that
serves a 10000 m2 floor area complex of offices and computer manufacturing facilities.
Evaporative cooling towers are located on the roof. Refrigeration plant is in a ground floor
plant room. Each room has a chilled water cooling coil and local temperature control. Make
any assumptions about the systems that are necessary. State the intervals between servicing
and replacement work.
20.
Explain the advantages gained when the original designer of an air conditioning system
publishes the schedules for commissioning and maintenance work. State the information that
is included and the form that the documentation should take. State how a computer-based
system can aid good maintenance practice.
9 Fans
Commissioning fans
1. Design the layout for a commissioning task sheet for the fan and duct systems within an air
conditioned building. The completed instructions will be implemented by a contract company
as the result of competitive tendering for the work. The document is to state the plant that is to
be commissioned and precisely what work is to be conducted.
m3
s
120 Pa. The 415 volt three phase driving motor has a power factor of 0.7. The overall
efficiency of the belt drive is 96%. The fan impeller has an efficiency of 60% at the design
flow. The fan power at zero air flow, when it is only generating static pressure within its
casing, is 20% of the design flow value. Calculate the motor power for the design and closed
damper conditions.
Answer. At the design air flow, power 4.286 kVA; at the closed damper air flow, power 0.857
kVA, phase current 1.19 ampere.
3. An axial flow fan runs at 940 RPM and has a blade angle of 28o. It passes air at a density
kg
of 1.21 m3 into a duct system that has a resistance of 100 Pa when the air flow is 5
l
m3
s
. The
outlet air velocity from the fan is 11 s. The 415 volt three phase drive motor has a power
factor of 0.92. The motor and drive has an overall efficiency of 65% and the impeller has an
efficiency of 80%. The minimum power consumption at zero air flow would be 0.25 kVA.
Page 273 of 441
The fan performance data are shown in table 9.8. Calculate and plot the fan characteristic
curves for fan velocity and static pressures, the duct system resistance and the motor input
power. Use file axial. Find the fan and system operating conditions and the current that will
be taken by the motor.
m3
FTP Pa
160
155
150
140
125
90
50
Answer. Q 4.9
m3
s
kg
4. A mixed flow exhaust fan runs at 1450 RPM and handles air at a density of 1.2 m3. The fan
outlet diameter is 500 mm. The duct system has a resistance of 600 Pa when the air flow is
l
1100 s. The outlet air velocity from the fan is 7.6 s . The 415 volt three phase drive motor has
a power factor of 0.7, the motor and drive has an overall efficiency of 70% and the impeller
has an efficiency of 82%. The minimum power consumption at zero air flow would be 0.4
kVA. The fan performance data are shown in table 9.9. Calculate and plot the fan
Page 274 of 441
characteristic curves for fan velocity and static pressures, the duct system resistance and the
motor input power. Use file axial. Find the fan and system operating conditions and the
current that will be taken by the motor.
Qs
FTP Pa
750
250
800
500
850
750
850
1000
780
1250
630
1500
450
1750
200
l
density of 1.18 m3. The fan outlet diameter is 750 mm. The duct system has a resistance of
m
500 Pa when the air flow is 4000 litre/s. The outlet air velocity from the fan is 7.6 s . The 415
volt three phase drive motor has a power factor of 0.92. The motor and drive has an overall
efficiency of 75% and the impeller has an efficiency of 71%. The minimum power
consumption at zero air flow would be 1.0 kVA. The fan performance data are shown in table
9.10. Calculate and plot the fan characteristic curves for fan velocity and static pressures, the
duct system resistance and the motor input power. Use file axial. Find the fan and system
operating conditions and the current that will be taken by the motor.
Table 9.10 Fan data for question 5.
l
Qs
FTP Pa
750
500
775
1000
780
1550
775
2000
765
2500
750
3000
700
3500
650
4000
576
4500
500
5000
360
5500
80
l
m3
s
frictional resistance is 450 Pa. The supply air filter has a pressure drop of 40 Pa when clean
and 180 Pa when it is ready to be changed. Use the average filter pressure drop for the
analysis. The air conditioning system is operated for 200 hours per month. The fan handles air
kg
at an average density of 1.2 m3 through the year. The fan impeller efficiency is 80%, motor
efficiency is 66% and the motor power factor is 0.92. Assume that the overall efficiency
Page 276 of 441
remains constant at any air flow. The motor power used at zero supply air flow is 0.8 kW. The
fan discharge duct is 700 mm 600 mm. Table 9.11 shows the supply air fan performance
data. The building is in southern England where the load profile on the air conditioning
system is indicated in Table 9.12. The supply air requirement for each month is the average
for the month to match the thermal loads. A higher temperature differential between the
supply and room air is maintained in winter and this reduces the supply air quantity. Free
cooling is used in the mild weather. Electricity costs 9 p/kVAh. The fan is operated at the
constant speed of 960 RPM.
Air flow Q s
FTP Pa
800
500
810
1000
820
1500
820
2000
800
2500
750
3000
650
3500
500
4000
300
4500
50
Heating/cooling load %
m3
s
January
35
1.05
February
42
1.26
March
56
1.68
April
76
2.28
May
97
2.91
June
100
3.0
July
97
2.91
August
90
2.7
September
77
2.31
October
57
1.71
November
40
1.2
December
31
0.93
Manual calculations and file vfc can be used to compare annual costs for the following:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Answer. Annual energy costs (a) 979.87, (b) 822.35, (c) 620.30, (d) 426.53. Annual cost
savings (a) 157.52, (b) 359.57, (c) 553.34.
Fan control
7. Discuss the equipment that is needed to start, control and monitor the safe operation of the
speed of electric drive motors on air conditioning system fans. State the economic and
Page 278 of 441
technical factors that are included in the decision as to which method is applied to an
application.
8. Explain the characteristics of the different methods of controlling the flow of air through a
ductwork system in relation to the energy cost of using the whole installation.
9. List the advantages that are gained by operating an air conditioning fan at the lowest
possible rotational speed while meeting the required duty.
Fan curves
10.
Explain what happens to the fan total pressure rise when the fan static pressure drops to
zero.
11.
Why can the duct system characteristic curve be calculated and drawn without reference
12.
State the fan laws and show how they are used to generate predictions of fan
performance.
13.
State the data that are obtained from standard tests on fans.
14.
Explain why and when fans would be connected in series with each other. Sketch the
combined characteristics of two fans that are closely connected in series. Sketch the duct
system resistance curve and identify the overall fan and system operational point.
Page 279 of 441
15.
Discuss how the equipment manufacturer and the building services designer obtain the
16.
Explain why the fan motor power consumption does not diminish to zero when the duct
Fan testing
17.
The Daylesford Impeller Company manufactures a range of centrifugal fans for air
l
conditioning systems. A prototype fan was tested at an air flow rate of passed 1800 s with an
impeller of 420 mm diameter producing a fan static pressure of 150 Pa when the impeller was
running at 1200 RPM. The measured electrical input power to the motor of the fan tested was
800 W. Predict the performance of a 700 mm diameter fan impeller that will be run at 16 hertz
and is to be geometrically similar to the prototype.
l
Sketch the characteristic curves for a backward curved centrifugal fan and ductwork
system to show the relationship between fan total, static and velocity pressures, motor power
and the ductwork system resistance. Do not look at any published graphics while undertaking
this question.
19.
List the overhead power requirements of a fan and electric motor drive plant. State
how these minimum power requirements affect the shape of the fan power characteristic
curve.
Page 280 of 441
20.
State the designers objectives when selecting the operating point on a fan characteristic
graph.
21.
Explain how fan manufacturers test fans and how they generate performance data for a
22.
State the electric motor speeds that are used and how these speeds are achieved.
23.
Explain, with the aid of practical examples, how the rotational speed of a fan impeller is
24.
25.
State the limiting factors that are included in the design of fan and duct systems.
26.
List the components of fan and drive systems. Comment upon how they are
27.
28.
Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of installing a large duty centrifugal fan
29.
List the safety features that are to be considered when designing a fan installation.
30.
Explain how the maintenance access to fans and their associated items of plant, such as
air filters, drive system and heat exchange devices, is provided during the design of the
overall system and building. State the importance of such access, the likely frequency of
maintenance work and the safety precautions that are to be taken.
31.
Discuss the problems that are associated with manual entry into a positively or
32.
State the problems that are associated with running a fan against closed duct dampers.
33.
What problems may be created within the ventilated rooms when starting a centrifugal
Opening force
34.
A forward curved centrifugal fan maintains a static air pressure of 75 Pa above that of
the atmosphere, within the fan acoustic plenum. An access door of 750 mm width and 2200
mm height allows entry for regular maintenance. The door is hinged along one vertical side
and has a handle in the opposite side. Calculate the manual force that is necessary to open the
door.
Answer. F2 6.3 kg.
Page 282 of 441
35.
The supply air outlet duct from a packaged roof mounted air conditioning unit is 500
l
mm wide and 700 mm high. The supply air flow to the duct system is to be 2700 s of air at
33oC d.b. during winter use. Calculate the velocity pressure of the supply air as it leaves the
packaged unit.
Answer. FVP 34 Pa.
10
Fluid flow
Air ducts
1. A 300 mm internal diameter galvanised sheet steel duct is to carry air at 20oC d.b. with a
pressure loss rate of 2
Answer. 0.507
m3
s
Pa
m
2. Calculate the air velocity in a 450 mm internal diameter galvanised sheet steel duct when
the air temperature is 20oC d.b. and the pressure loss rate is 0.6
Answer. Q 0.782
m3
s
Pa
m
, v 4.92 s .
3. An air conditioning system is to have galvanised sheet metal ducts carrying air at 20oC d.b.
m
at a maximum velocity of 7.5 s . The maximum allowable frictional resistance of straight duct
is to be 3
and 2
m3
s
Pa
m
. The air flow rates to be carried in different sections of duct are 0.12, 0.3, 0.6, 1
m3
s
d mm
0.12
200
0.3
250
0.6
350
450
600
Page 285 of 441
Flow calculation
4. State the engineering and economic objectives of heat distribution systems. Give examples
of good practice. Outline the economic considerations needed.
5. Calculate the maximum carrying capacity of a 28 mm copper pipe at a pressure loss rate of
1200
Pa
m
Answer. 1.014
kg
s
6. Find the copper pipe size appropriate to a cold water flow rate of 0.123
kg
s
Pa
and a pressure
Answer. 15 mm.
7. A low temperature hot water heating system that serves air conditioning heater coils, has a
two-pipe circuit that is to be sized on the basis of a constant pressure loss rate of 500
Pa
m
kg
s
kg
s
, 22 mm 0.311
kg
s
, 28 mm 0.624
kg
s
, 35 mm 1.12
kg
s
.
Page 286 of 441
kg
s
kg
s
, 42 mm 1.881
at 75oC.
kg
s
Gas
9. Find the flow rate of natural gas, methane, in a 15 mm copper pipe at a pressure loss rate of
12.5
Pa
m
.
l
Answer. 0.49 s.
10.
Pa
m
. Copper pipe is to be
used. Calculate the gas volume flow capacity of pipes from 22 mm to 54 mm nominal
diameter.
l
Calculate the water mass flow rates needed for LTHW and MTHW heating systems in
order to transfer 3.5 kW and 420 kW. State which system would be used for each heat load.
Answer. For LTHW and 3.5 kW, M 0.07
and 3.5 kW, M 0.027
12.
kg
s
kg
s
kg
s
kg
s
; for HTHW
Find a suitable copper pipe diameter for a LTHW heating system to transfer 25 kW
from the boiler to a system of heat emitters if the pressure loss rate is not to exceed 750
m
Pa
m
and
the water velocity is not to be above 1 s . State the actual pressure loss rate and water velocity.
Answer. M 0.497
kg
s
, 28 mm pipe,
330
Pa
m
, v 0.941 s .
13.
District heating is to have a total connected heat load of 550 kW using a MTHW system
having a flow temperature of 150oC and a return of 120oC. Water velocity can be up to 3
the underground distribution mains. The pressure loss rate is not to exceed 750
Pa
m
m
s
in
. If copper
pipe is to be used, what would be the appropriate size, actual pressure loss rate and water
velocity?
kg
Answer. M 4.316
14.
, 54 mm,
630
Pa
m
, v 2.11
The air conditioning system in a 20-storey office block is to comprise of air handling
plants and a basement boiler room. A total connected load of 100 kW was calculated.
Compare the diameters of LTHW heating system pipes with air ducts that would be needed
to transport the heating capacity vertically through the building. State how the design engineer
would configure the heating service to minimise the spaces occupied by the distribution
m
kg
s
, Q 7.331
m3
s
kg
s
, d 54 mm,
, d 1.1 m,
0.475
150
Pa
m
Pa
m
, v 0.96 s . For
m
air handling plant around the building to minimise air duct runs and supply each plant with
LTHW pipework.
15.
Calculate the pump and fan energy consumptions to operate LTHW or a ducted air
heating system where the boiler plant is 75 m from the heat load of 75 kW. Overall electromechanical efficiency of the pump and fan is 65%. Water velocity can be up to 2
m
m
s
and air
velocity up to 10 s . Frictional resistance of the pipeline fittings amounts to 25% of the length
of straight pipe and that for the air duct is 75% of the duct length.
Page 288 of 441
kg
s
, d 35 mm,
840
Pa
m
, v 1.83 s , pump
head H 157.5 kPa, pump power consumption 370.3 W. For galvanised steel air duct, Q 5.498
m3
s
, d 0.9 m,
1.665 kW.
0.75
Pa
m
Thermal storage
16.
Discuss why thermal storage is needed in heating and cooling services installations and
17.
A living room has an average rate of heat loss of 2.2 kW during a winter day while
occupied between 07.00 hours and 23.00 hours. An electrically charged off-peak storage
heater is to be installed to maintain comfort conditions. The charge period is 23.00 hours to
07.00 hours. Calculate the input power and the total energy storage required for the heater.
Answer. Stored energy 35.2 kWh, heater input power 4.4 kW.
18.
A building having an average rate of daily heat loss of 15 kW between 07.00 hours and
23.00 hours is to be heated from a hot water storage tank operating between 85oC and 60oC.
The tank has electric immersion heaters operating between 23.00 hours and 07.00 hours.
Calculate the storage tank size needed, heater power and quantity of heat stored in MJ.
Answer. Storage capacity 864 MJ, heater power 30 kW, tank needs to be 2.907 m 2.907 m
1 m high.
19.
A 230 kW refrigeration compressor system chills water from 12oC to 7oC in an air
conditioning system. The compressor is not to cycle on/off more than four times per hour.
Page 289 of 441
During mild weather the building cooling load is 100 kW. Heat gains to the stored chilled
water amount to 15% of the cooling energy used. Calculate a suitable design for an
intermediate chilled water storage tank.
Answer. Cooling load 115 kW, compressor runs for 30 minutes per hour for four runs of 7.5
minutes each, chilled water storage tank size is 4.44 m 4.44 m 1 m.
11
Acoustic knowledge
1. Which is the smallest increment of sound pressure level detectable by the human ear?
1. 1 W/m2.
2. 1 bel.
3. 60 bel.
4. 100 N/m2.
5. 1 decibel.
10.
11.
1. Atmospheric wind.
2. Dynamic mechanical equipment.
3. Harmonic frequencies in electrical systems.
4. Building materials.
5. Information technology equipment.
12.
13.
14.
15.
1. Turbulent eddy currents shearing from blunt objects within air ducts.
2. High pressure water in circulating pipe systems.
3. Airflow across an air conditioned room.
4. Air flow round a bend in an air duct.
5. Water flow through a heat exchanger.
16.
17.
List the sources of noise that could be found within an air conditioned building.
18.
19.
State which items of mechanical services plant, equipment and systems within an
20.
21.
22.
23.
What is sound?
1. Electromagnetic radiation.
2. Molecular vibration of solid materials.
3. Radio frequency waves.
4. Anything that causes an ear response.
5. Pressure waves.
24.
1. Incompressible.
2. Supporting molecular vibration.
3. Compressible.
4. Inelastic.
5. Plastic.
25.
Addition of sounds
26.
A fan which produces a sound power level of 83 dBA at 1000 hertz is within the same
plant room as a gas-fired boiler that produces a sound power level of 85 dBA at 1000 hertz.
Calculate the combined sound power level that could enter the air duct system.
Answer. 87 dBA.
27.
A centrifugal fan which produces a sound power level of 88 dBA at 500 hertz is within
the same plant room as a refrigeration compressor that produces a sound power level of 88
dBA at 500 hertz. Calculate the overall sound power level within the plant room.
Answer. 91 dBA.
Attenuation
28.
Write a technical report on the equipment and materials that are used to reduce noise
transmission between the plant and the occupants of a building. Include sketches and data on
typical products that are available to the designer.
29.
Explain what is meant by the static insertion loss of an air duct silencer. State the types
30.
31.
State how lined and unlined air ducts reduce the transmission of sound.
32.
Obtain sound absorption data for a variety of building materials and acoustic linings for
air ducts from different sources. These can be used to update and expand the worksheet data
bank.
33.
Sketch and describe the most effective locations for absorbent duct lining materials and
duct attenuators.
34.
State why the whole of the available attenuation is not taken into account during the
design process.
35.
Create a combined table of data to compare the attenuation provided by circular and
rectangular attenuators, a 25 mm thick duct lining and a 50 mm thick duct lining for a 900
mm 600 mm air duct. A 2 m length of the duct is to be lined and this is to include one lined
bend. Discuss the relative merits of each of these methods of providing attenuation.
36.
Explain why there are practical limits to the attenuation of air flow in ducts.
37.
38.
Basics
39.
Should we be concerned with any linkage between the HM Government Carbon Plan
2011 and acoustics?
40.
41.
List the sources of a sound field in normally occupied rooms and spaces within air
conditioned buildings.
42.
State all the plant, equipment and systems that provide an acoustic environment in
rooms.
43.
Explain how two or more sources of acoustic energy are combined mathematically.
44.
Sketch and describe the ways in which acoustic energy is absorbed in an air ductwork
45.
Explain how sound enters, travels through, is attenuated by and escapes from, a ducted
Decibel
46.
Which is the smallest increment of sound pressure level detectable by the human ear?
1. 1 W/m2.
2. 1 bel.
3. 60 bel.
4. 100 N/m2.
5. 1 decibel.
47.
Explain why any decimal fraction of a decibel is not used in engineering design.
Design cases
48.
A model C44 supply air centrifugal fan passes 6500 s at a fan total pressure of 550 Pa.
The fan impeller runs at 14 Hz. The supply air ductwork system comprises of 8 m of lined
850 mm 750 mm duct, one lined bend with turning vanes, no branches, two unlined bends,
20 m unlined duct, one duct end reflection. The diffuser does not generate any noticeable
sound power but is near the wall and ceiling junction, so directivity Q is 4. The target room is
Page 301 of 441
a lecture theatre for 250 people. The theatre is 30 m 25 m and 6 m high. The nearest
recipients head is 3 m from a diffuser. The floor is carpeted. The ceiling has 15 mm
suspended acoustic tiles and 50 mm glass fibre matt. The walls are plastered brick. There are
no windows. Find the noise rating that is not exceeded in the theatre when empty and whether
it is suitable.
Answer. NR 35, yes.
49.
A model AX66 600 mm diameter supply air axial flow fan passes 2000 s at a fan static
pressure of 95 Pa. The fan impeller runs at 18 Hz. A circular attenuator is located downstream
of the fan. The supply air ductwork system comprises of 10 m of unlined straight 900 mm
700 mm duct from the fan to the first grille. The duct has a blank end and there are two
unlined bends in the duct. Air leaves the duct through a grille in the side of the duct. There is
no noise generation in the duct system or at the terminal grille. The ventilated office is 12 m
8 m and 3 m high. The nearest recipients head to the diffuser is at a distance of 1 m. The
floor is concrete, the ceiling is exposed 18 mm floor boards on timber joists and the walls are
plastered brick with 12 m2 of single glazing. Find the noise rating that is not exceeded at any
frequency for the occupied room and whether it is suitable.
Answer. NR 55, not suitable, more attenuation required or use a different fan.
50.
is supplied by a model CE45 centrifugal fan that passes 7500 s at a fan static pressure of 390
Pa. The fan impeller runs at 21 Hz. The fan sound power levels are: 87 dB overall, 60 dB at
31.5 Hz, 55 dB at 63 Hz, 65 dB at 125 Hz, 72 dB at 250 Hz, 76 dB at 500 Hz, 83 dB at 1 kHz,
84 dB at 2 kHz and 74 dB at 4 kHz and 64 dB at 8k Hz. The supply air ductwork system
Page 302 of 441
comprises of 4 m of lined straight 900 mm 900 mm duct, including two lined bends, and 12
m of the same size of unlined duct between the fan and the first air outlet grille. The duct has
a blank end. There is no noise generation in the duct system or at the terminal grille. The
nearest recipients head to the diffuser is at a distance of 2 m. Directivity Q is 2. The floor has
plastic tiles on concrete, the ceiling is 15 mm acoustic tile with 50 mm mineral fibre
insulation and the walls are plastered brick. The single glazed shop window is 25 m long and
3 m high. Find the noise rating that is not exceeded at any frequency in the supermarket and
whether it is suitable.
Answer. NR 20, highly suitable.
51.
by a model CE86 centrifugal fan that passes 4500 s at a fan static pressure of 275 Pa. The fan
impeller runs at 15 Hz. The fan sound power levels are: 77 dB overall, 40 dB at 31.5, Hz 45
52.
A model CE14 extract centrifugal fan removes six air changes per hour from a hotel
lounge room. The lounge is 8 m 6 m and 3 m high. The fan static pressure is 130 Pa and the
fan impeller runs at 17 Hz. The fan sound power levels are: 67 dB overall, 30 dB at 31.5 Hz,
35 dB at 63 Hz, 45 dB at 125 Hz, 52 dB at 250 Hz, 56 dB at 500 Hz, 63 dB at 1 kHz, 64 dB at
2 kHz, 54 dB at 4 kHz and 50 dB at 8kHz. The extract air ductwork system comprises of 3 m
of 600 mm 400 mm duct, one bend, a blank duct end and an extract air grille. The nearest
recipients head to the grille is at a distance of 1 m. Directivity Q is 8. The floor is carpeted,
the ceiling is hard plastered to the equivalent of a plastered wall and the walls are plastered
brick. There are single glazed windows amounting to 3 m long and 2 m high. Fabric curtains
and soft furniture have a surface area of 10 m2. Find the noise rating that is to be provided in
the lounge. Enter the data onto a working copy of the worksheet and calculate how to achieve
the required acoustic design criteria.
Answer. 1 m of lined duct reduces the critical 500 Hz SPL to NR 35 suitable for a lounge.
53.
An 1860 heritage building is typical of its era. No permanent structural alterations are
allowed by the Heritage Council. The owner asks a consultant to advise on how to lower the
noise level in the restaurant. The room is 35 m 20 m and 5 m high. Two long walls are bare
granite. End walls are all single glazing. Floor is bare polished timber on foundation walls.
Roof structure is bare varnished timber planks on timber frame with no thermal insulation,
and corrugated iron sheet; take its absorption data as for the floor. 150 patrons can be seated
and served by eight staff. There is no noise entering from outdoors or the kitchen. Chairs
scraping the floor are annoying. Background white noise, no distinct frequencies, appears
loud.
A model D45 supply air centrifugal fan passes 10000 s at a fan total pressure of 700 Pa.
The fan impeller runs at 12 Hz. The air conditioning supply air duct system comprises of 30
m of 950 mm 950 mm duct, four bends and four duct end reflection. The final diffuser does
not generate any noticeable sound power but is near the wall and ceiling junction, so
directivity Q is 4. The nearest recipients head is 3 m from a diffuser. Use file dbduct.xls to
calculate the aural environment when the restaurant is full and decide on the consultants
advice.
Answer. Without duct attenuation the restaurant experiences just over NR 60 and this is
unacceptable; NR 40 is needed. A serious problem is the harshness of the room, every surface
is hard, bouncing sound and creating multiple echoes with a reverberation time of 2.5 s at
1000 Hz, the most noticeable for listening. Hanging 250 m2 of acoustic panels from the
ceiling and 100 m2 of drapes to hide some of the stone wall halves reverberation time but does
not reduce room sound below NR 60; additionally lining 3 m of duct lowers the room to NR
35; this would greatly improve the aural environment without permanently losing the interior
heritage style.
Find the anticipated fan sound power level when a centrifugal fan is passing 1750 s at a
fan static pressure of 190 Pa for the range of frequencies from 31.5 Hz to 8000 Hz.
Answer. 86, 83, 80, 78, 74, 70, 65, 58, 48 dB.
55.
Find the anticipated fan sound power level when an axial flow fan is passing 3500 s at a
fan static pressure of 100 Pa for the range of frequencies from 31.5 Hz to 8000 Hz.
Answer. 83, 82, 81, 79, 77, 75, 72, 69, 65.
Page 305 of 441
Human ear
56.
57.
State the range of frequencies that are detectable by the human ear and the frequencies
that are used in acoustic design calculations. State the reasons for these two ranges being
different, if they are.
58.
59.
Presbycusis is:
60.
1. 20 Hz to 20 kHz.
Page 306 of 441
2. 2 Hz to 20 MHz.
3. 200 Hz to 200 MHz.
4. Infinitely wide.
5. 2 kHz to 20 MHz.
61.
What is noise?
1. Sound.
2. Acoustic power.
3. Unwanted sound.
4. Age-related sound.
5. Traffic, aeroplanes, pneumatic drills, fans, refrigeration compressors.
62.
1. Absolute measurement.
2. Comparing a sound with absolute zero sound level.
3. Relatively.
4. Subjectively.
5. Qualitative judgement.
63.
What is sound?
64.
Presbycusis is:
65.
1. Infinite.
2. 2 Hz to 20 Hz.
3. 200 Hz to 200 MHz.
4. 0 to 120 dBA.
5. 20 Hz to 20 kHz.
66.
What is noise?
1. Any sound.
2. Acoustic power measured in watts.
3. Any traffic.
4. Age-related sound.
5. Excess sound.
67.
1. We dont.
2. Comparing a sound with absolute zero sound level.
Page 308 of 441
Machinery noise
68.
An eight cylinder formula one car engine peaks at 20000 RPM. One of the sound
frequencies it produces is:
1. 8 Hz.
2. 20 kHz.
3. 400 Hz.
4. 2000 Hz.
5. 2667 Hz.
69.
A gas turbine rotates at 60000 RPM and has 50 blades on its largest diameter. One of
70.
An eight cylinder formula one car engine peaks at 20000 RPM. One of the sound
3. 2 kHz.
4. 40 Hz.
5. 20000 Hz.
71.
A twelve cylinder Italian formula one car engine peaks at 15000 RPM. One of the
72.
A gas turbine rotates at 60000 RPM and has 50 blades on its largest diameter. One of
73.
5. Piped systems.
74.
75.
76.
77.
What happens if an air conditioning fan is run at its natural frequency of vibration, say,
100 RPM?
Page 311 of 441
1. Nothing special.
2. Fan can continue to run at this speed indefinitely.
3. It is the ideal speed for the fan as it produces maximum aerodynamic efficiency.
4. Fan cannot vibrate.
5. Fan vibration can cause destruction.
Explain, with the aid of sketches, ways in which the noise and vibration produced by the
mechanical and electrical services of a building can be reduced before they become a
nuisance for the buildings users.
79.
80.
1. Damped vibration.
2. Strike a guitar string and it vibrates at up to four times its natural frequency depending
on volume of sound box.
3. Bounce a coil spring and it vibrates at its natural frequency of vibration.
4. A frequency mechanically forced upon an item, such as by a motor.
5. A material never vibrates at this frequency.
Noise rating
81.
1. Noise resonance.
2. Normal rating.
Page 312 of 441
3. No resonance.
4. Noise ratification.
5. Noise rating.
82.
1. No resonance.
2. Nocturnal rating.
3. Nil reverberation.
4. Naval rating.
5. Noise rating.
83.
84.
85.
1. Noise rating curves represent human ear response to the range of audible frequencies.
2. Sounds are equally loud to the human ear at any audible frequency.
3. Loudness is not related to sound pressure level.
4. Loudness relates solely to sound power level.
5. Ear response is a flat line over all frequencies.
86.
1. Noise rating curves specify equal sound power level for all frequencies.
2. Noise rating curves specify equal sound pressure level for any frequency.
3. Noise rating curves specify equal loudness for a range of frequencies.
4. Noise ratings are subjectively assessed.
5. Machines are given a noise rating value.
87.
88.
Explain how noise rating curves relate to the response of the human ear and are used in
The centrifugal fan in an air handling plant produces the noise spectrum shown in table
1 within an office. Calculate the sound pressure levels for noise ratings NR 35, NR 40, NR
45, NR 50 and NR 55 and plot the noise rating curves for the frequency range 31.5 Hz to 8
kHz. Plot the room sound pressure levels on the same graph and find which noise rating is not
exceeded.
Table 1 Noise spectrum in question 89
Frequency f Hz
31.5 63
2k
4k
8k
Room SPL dB
30
32
28
20
10
35
40
42
31
90.
A model XT45 water chiller is to be located within a plant room on the roof of a hotel in
a city centre. The plant room is 12 m long, 10 m wide and 3 m high. The room directivity
index is 2. The plant operator will normally be 1 m from the noise source. The floor is
concrete; the roof is lined internally with a 50 mm polyester acoustic blanket with a metallised
film surface. The plant room walls are 115 mm brickwork. There are no windows. The water
chiller manufacturer provided the sound power levels as 100 dB overall, 74 dB at 63 Hz, 89
dB at 125 Hz, 95 dB at 250 Hz, 97 dB at 500 Hz, 99 Hz at 1 kHz, 97 dB at 2 kHz and 90 dB
at 4 kHz.
(a)
Check that the correct data are entered onto the working copy of the original
worksheet file dbplant.wks and find the noise rating that is not exceeded within the
plant room. (NR 80)
(b)
The plant room has three external walls. The nearest openable window in nearby
buildings is at a distance of 15 m from a plant room wall. There is no acoustic barrier
between a plant room wall and the recipients window. The directivity index for the
outward projection of sound is taken as 3 dB. Find the noise rating at the recipients
window and state what the result means. (NR 25, no intrusive noise from the chiller)
(c)
A corridor adjoins the plant room. The target sound space, an office, is on the
opposite side of the corridor. The corridor is 10 m long, 1 m wide and 3 m high. It
has a room directivity index of 2, a carpeted concrete floor, plastered brick walls and
a plasterboard ceiling. The common wall between the plant room and the corridor is
10 m long, it is constructed with 115 mm plastered brickwork and it does not have a
door. There are no windows. There is no other sound barrier. Find the noise rating
which would be found at a distance of 0.5 m from the plant room wall while within
the corridor. (NR 45)
(d)
The target office is 10 m long, 10 m wide and 3 m high. The room directivity index
is 2. The nearest sedentary occupant of the office will be 1 m from the corridor wall.
The floor has pile carpet, the walls are plastered brick and there is a suspended
ceiling of 15 mm acoustic tile and 50 mm glass fibre matt. The office has four 2 m
2 m single glazed windows on two external walls. The office wall that adjoins the
corridor is 115 mm plastered brickwork and it has one 2 m2 door into the corridor.
Find the noise rating, NR, and sound pressure levels, SPL dB, that are experienced in
the target office. State what effect the office and plant room doors will have on the
noise rating in the target room. Recommend appropriate action to be taken with these
doors. (NR 20 when doors have equal sound reduction to the walls, have airtight
seals and are closed)
91.
A centrifugal fan is located within the basement plant room of an office building. The
plant room is 8 m long, 6 m wide and 3 m high. The room directivity index is 2 and the
plant operator will normally be 1 m from the noise source. The floor and ceiling are
concrete, there are four 230 mm brick walls and one acoustically treated door. There are no
windows in the plant room. The sound power levels of the fan are: 86 dB overall, 64 dB at
63 Hz, 66 dB at 125 Hz, 72 dB at 250 Hz, 80 dB at 500 Hz, 86 Hz at 1 kHz, 82 dB at 2
kHz and 77 dB at 4 kHz.
(a)
Find the noise rating that is not exceeded within the plant room. (NR 80)
(b)
A corridor and staircase connect the plant room to the reception area of the building.
The corridor is 6 m long, 1 m wide and 3 m high. It has a room directivity index of 2.
The corridor has a concrete floor, plastered brick walls and a plasterboard ceiling.
The common wall between the plant room and corridor is 2 m long. The sound
reduction index of the plant room door is 20 dB at each frequency from 125 Hz to 4
kHz. There is no other sound barrier. Find the noise rating that would be found at a
distance of 1 m from the plant room in the corridor. (65 dB due to sound escape
through door)
(c)
The reception area is 12 m long, 8 m wide and 3 m high. The room directivity index
is 2. There are 10 m2 of single glazed windows in reception. There is a door at the top
of the staircase down to the plant room. The stairs door is 1 m wide, 2 m high and it
has a sound reduction index of 20 dB at each frequency from 125 Hz to 4 kHz. The
nearest occupant will be 1 m from the stairs door. The floor has thermoplastic tiles
on concrete, the walls are plastered brick and there is a plasterboard ceiling. Find the
noise rating which is not exceeded in Reception. (NR 35)
92.
Oil-fired hot water boilers are located in a plant room in the basement of an exhibition
and trade centre building in a city centre. The plant room is 10 m long, 10 m wide and 5 m
high. The room directivity index is 2. The floor, walls and ceiling are concrete. There are no
windows. The reference sound power level of the boiler plant is 88 dBA.
(a)
Find the anticipated spectral variation in the sound power level for the frequency
range from 63 Hz to 4 kHz from table 15.4 and figure 15.1 Building Services
Engineering 6th edition, enter the data onto the worksheet and find the noise rating
that is not exceeded within the boiler plant room. (NR 75)
(b)
The plant room has three 100 mm concrete external walls. The nearest recipient
can be 1 m from the external surface of a boiler plant room wall. There is no
acoustic barrier between a plant room wall and a recipient. The directivity index
for the outward projection of sound is taken as 3 dB. Find the noise rating at the
nearest recipients position and state what the result means. (NR 45, equivalent to
the background noise level in a corridor)
(c)
A hot water pipe and electrical cable service duct connects the boiler plant room
to other parts of the building. The concrete-lined service duct is 30 m long, 2 m
wide and 1 m high. Both ends of the service duct have a 100 mm concrete wall.
Calculate the noise rating within the service duct at its opposite end from the
boiler plant room. (NR 35)
(d)
A conference room 115 mm brick wall adjoins the service duct at the furthest end
from the boiler plant room. The conference room is 12 m long, 10 m wide and 4
m high. The room directivity index is 2. The nearest sedentary occupant will be
0.5 m from the service duct wall. The floor has pile carpet, the walls are plastered
brick and there is a suspended ceiling of 15 mm acoustic tile and 50 mm glass
fibre matt. There are no windows. Find the noise rating that is produced in the
conference room by the boiler plant. (NR 20, there is no intrusive noise)
93.
A four-pipe chilled and hot water fan coil unit is located within the false ceiling space
above an office in an air conditioned building. Conditioned outdoor air is passed to the fan
coil unit through a duct system. The office is 5 m long, 4 m wide and 3 m high. The room
directivity index is 2. The office has a concrete floor with thermoplastic tiles and 115 mm
plastered brick walls. The 700 mm deep suspended ceiling has 12 mm fibreboard acoustic
tiles, recessed fluorescent luminaires, ducted supply and return air with a supply air diffuser, a
return air grille and a concrete ribbed slab for the floor above. The office has a double glazed
window of 2 m 2 m. The reference sound power level of the fan coil unit is 85 dBA. Enter
the ceiling space as the plant room and bypass the intermediate space data as directed.
(a) Find the anticipated spectral variation in the sound power level of the fan coil unit for
the frequency range from 63 Hz to 4 kHz from table 15.4 and figure 15.1 Building
Services Engineering 6th edition. Enter the data onto the worksheet and find the noise
rating that is not exceeded within the ceiling space above the office. (NR 60)
(b) Find the noise rating that is not expected to be exceeded within the office at head
height. Assume that the sound reduction of the acoustic tile ceiling is maintained across
the whole ceiling area. (NR 40)
(c) Sketch a cross-section of the fan coil unit installation and identify all the possible noise
paths into the office. (Through the supply and return air ducts, noise radiation from the
outer case of the fan coil unit, from the ceiling space through ceiling tiles, light fittings,
noise break-in from the ceiling space into the supply and return air ducts and then into
the office, structurally transmitted vibration from the fans, main air handling plant noise
through the outside air duct to the fan coil unit)
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(d) List the ways in which the potential noise paths into the office can be, or may need to
be, attenuated. (Acoustic lining in the outdoor air, supply air and return air ducts, antivibration rubber mounts for the fan coil unit and the fan within it, acoustic lining within
the fan coil unit, acoustic blanket above the recessed luminaires and above the ceiling
tiles)
An axial flow fan has an overall sound power level of 78 dB. The plant room has a
reverberation time of 2.5 seconds and a volume of 240 m3. Calculate the plant room
reverberant sound pressure level.
Answer. 72 dB.
95.
A fan and a refrigeration compressor are located within the same plant room. The
manufacturers state that the sound power levels are 79 dB for the fan and 80 dB for the
compressor. Calculate the combined sound power level in the plant room.
Answer. 82 dB.
96.
97.
An air conditioning centrifugal fan has an overall sound power level SWL of 75 dBA.
The fan is to be installed centrally within a plant room that has a room absorption constant R
of 12 m2. Calculate the sound pressure level that will be produced close to the fan, in the plant
room at 1000 Hz when the fan is operating, and also generally within the room.
Answer.r 100 mm SPL 87 dB; r 1 m SPL 71 dB.
98.
m high plant room. The fan sound power level at 1000 Hz is 89 dB. The room absorption
constant R at 1000 Hz is 8 m2 and the reverberation time is 0.4 s. Calculate the room sound
pressure level at a radius of 300 mm from the fan, and the reverberant room sound pressure
level.
Answer. Directivity Q 2, r 0.5 m SPL 92 dB, reverberant SPL 79 dB.
99.
level of 92 dBA. It is to be located within a concrete and brick plant room that has a
reverberation time of 1.8 s and a volume of 250 m3. Calculate the plant room reverberant
sound pressure level.
Answer. 84 dBA.
100. An air handling plant has an overall sound power level of 81 dB. The plant room has an
external wall of 10 m2 that has an acoustic attenuation of 35 dB and ventilation openings
having a free area of 3 m2. The windows of residential and office buildings are at a distance of
12 m from the plant room wall. Calculate the external sound pressure level at the windows
and recommend what, if any, attenuation is needed at the plant room.
Answer. Through the wall SPL2 19 dB; through air vent 49 dB; open air vent causes noise to
bypass the attenuation of the wall and may need acoustic louvres or an acoustic barrier.
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101. A forced draught gas-fired boiler has an overall sound pressure level of 96 dB. The
boiler plant room has an external wall of 60 m2 that has an acoustic attenuation of 25 dB and
two louvre doors to admit air for combustion. Calculate the external sound pressure level at a
distance of 20 m from the plant room wall. State your recommendations for the attenuation of
the boiler and the plant room.
Answer. Through the wall SPL2 47 dB; through air vents in doors 59 dB; open air vent causes
noise to bypass the attenuation of the wall; burner needs an acoustic enclosure.
4. Reflected sound.
5. Sound pressure level measured in an anechoic laboratory chamber.
Room absorption
124. What do room surfaces do to sound fields?
1. Do not restrain the sound field.
2. Radiate sound from the room.
3. Reflect sound waves.
4. Create noise.
5. Nothing significant.
128. A plant room for a refrigeration compressor is 6m 4m in plan and 3m high. It has four
brickwork walls, a concrete floor and a concrete roof. Select the surface absorption
coefficients for the frequency range 125 Hz to 4000 Hz. Calculate the room absorption
constant and the reverberation time for the plant room at each frequency. Do the calculations
manually and then enter the same data onto the worksheet to validate the results.
Answer.Reverberation time T 2.901 s at 125 Hz, 3.462 s at 250 Hz, 3.462 s at 500 Hz, 3.157 s
at 1 kHz, 2.752 s at 2 kHz and 3.253 s at 4 kHz.
144. A hotel bedroom is 6 m long, 5 m wide and 2.8 m high and it has a reverberation time
of 0.4 s. The air conditioning plant room generates a sound pressure level of 56 dB in the
service space above the ceiling of the bedroom. The plasterboard ceiling has a sound
reduction index of 16 dB. Calculate the sound pressure level in the bedroom.
Answer. 39 dB.
146. Define the terms sound power level and sound pressure level.
148. The frequency range used for assessment of sound power level, SWL, from machines is:
1. 0 to 200 MHz.
2. 1 kHz to 2 MHz.
3. 125 Hz to 8 kHz.
4. 63 Hz to 20000 Hz.
5. 125 kHz to 8 MHz.
3. Reflected sound.
4. Greatest noise source.
5. Summation of direct and reverberant sound fields.
156. Frequency range used for assessment of sound power level, SWL, from machines is:
1. 0 to 200 MHz.
2. 1 kHz to 2 MHz.
3. 125 Hz to 8 kHz.
4. 63 Hz to 20000 Hz.
5. 125 kHz to 8 MHz.
5. Acoustic output power pulsates and vibrates air, raising air pressure waves; eardrum
vibrates from air pressure waves.
162. Which is not a way to improve the sound insulation effectiveness of a single glazed
window?
1. Close it.
2. Seal all air gaps.
3. Leave window cracked open.
4. Seal gaps and double glaze.
5. Replace with thicker glass.
Terminology
165. Explain the meaning of SWL:
1. Selective wind loading.
2. Sound wind level.
3. Sound watts level, meaning power.
4. Sound pressure level, meaning energy.
5. Sound watts loudness, meaning loudness power.
3. Bounce a coil spring and it vibrates at twice its natural frequency of vibration.
4. A frequency that cannot be mechanically produced.
5. A material or item can only vibrate at this frequency.
170. List the ways in which mechanical and electrical services plant, equipment and systems
generate sound.
171. Explain, with the aid of sketches and examples, how sound is transferred, or can be,
through a normally serviced multi-storey occupied building.
Page 341 of 441
172. Discuss the statement: Turbulent flows in building services systems create a noise
nuisance.
Project
1. A toilet extract system of air ductwork is part of a new construction project and is to have
the following components: 12 m of 400 mm 400 mm air ductwork, one stopped end, six 90o
curved bends, one 45o bend, two branches, two transforms downwards from the duct size, one
fire damper 400 mm 400 mm, two access doors 235 mm 90 mm, two test holes and seal,
one 600 mm 600 mm extract grille and damper, two axial flow fans, 0.47
m3
s
of anti-vibration mountings for 25 kg fans, two push button starters for 0.5 kW fans, two
contactor relays for fan interlocking, six 13 amp electrical socket outlets with PVC cable in
conduit, commercial. Make your own decisions about what else is to be included in the
contractors selling price and calculate your tender figure.
2. An air handling unit supplies heated air to a manufacturing area of a single-storey building.
The extract air has become contaminated and is discharged to the atmosphere. The factory is
in the north of England where the regional price variation is +18%. The ductwork installation
will require the use of scaffolding. Use the following information to calculate the contractors
tender price to the main contractor.
Supply ductwork: Air intake weatherproof grille 2 m 2 m and transition to the air handling
plant; one air handling unit 1 m 1 m in cross section with air heater, filter and centrifugal
fan which passes 3
m3
s
unit to a 800 mm 600 mm duct; 50 m of 800 mm 600 mm duct; five 800 mm 600 mm
90o curved bends; six branch ducts for grilles; six supply grilles with damper 600 mm 300
mm; one 800 mm 600 mm blank duct end; four access doors 235 mm 140 mm; three test
holes and seals.
Extract ductwork: air discharge weatherproof grille 2 m 2 m; one transition to the
centrifugal extract fan which carries 3
m3
s
fan; one transition from the extract fan to the ductwork; one motorised damper 800 mm 600
mm; 20 m of 800 mm 600 mm duct; two 800 mm 600 mm 90o square bends with turning
vanes; one transition to a 1 m 1 m grille; one extract grille and damper 1 m 1 m; one 800
mm 600 mm blank duct end; two access doors 235 mm 140 mm; one test hole and seal.
Control equipment: three air temperature detectors; 1 Pa XY36 control unit, list price 300
and 3 hours labour; two 2 kW fan push button starters; one contactor relay; two damper drive
motors; one 32 mm three-port hot water diverting valve.
Electrical supply: one four-way triple pole and neutral 415 volt distribution board; 120 m of 4
mm2 415 volt cable in conduit; six 240 volt 13 ampere socket outlets; PVC cable in conduit
for a commercial application.
Hot water pipework: 220 m of 40 mm black medium steel low pressure hot water heating
flow and return pipework, brackets and fittings; 220 m of 40 mm pipe thermal insulation; four
40 mm gate valves; one 40 mm commissioning double regulating valve; two air vents; two
water pipe test points.
Concluding items: regional variation 18%; hire of scaffolding prime cost sum 2500;
additional overhead 5%; safety risk item 750 for use of scaffolding; commissioning cost
275; decreased profit by 3% due to competition; fluctuation during contract 5%; there is only
the mechanical and electrical contractor on this existing site.
3. An air conditioning system is to be installed in a new information technology room for 200
personal computer work stations in a university located in Scotland, regional price variation
15%. There is no space for air ductwork, so packaged cooling units are to be installed within
the room. Refrigeration condensing units will be located on the flat roof of the room.
The room cooling load for each computer work station is calculated to be 200 watts from
the computer, 110 watts from the user, 25 watts from the lighting, 100 watts from solar heat
gains and 20 watts from the outdoor air ventilation. There are to be two refrigeration
condensing units on the roof in order to provide 100% standby capacity. Each condensing unit
is to have a 5.5 kW push button starter. A contactor relay is to be installed to avoid the
possibility of simultaneous operation of the two condensing units.
Each room cooling unit will have 12 m of 20 mm diameter refrigeration pipework from the
condensing units. Assume that this will be in black medium weight steel tube and fittings for
the purpose of this exercise only. Both pipes will be insulated. There are no control items or
valves in the pipelines as all the controls are part of the condensing unit and room unit
packages.
Each room cooling unit has a 13 ampere 240 volt socket outlet with PVC insulated cable in
conduit for a commercial application. Each condensing unit has 20 m of 6 mm2 415 volt three
phase cable in conduit. A four-way triple pole and neutral 415 volt distribution board is
installed for the refrigeration system.
An extra cost item of 2500 is to be allowed for repairs to the structure and decorations
which will be necessary as the result of the installation work. No additional overhead costs are
expected. There are no additional safety costs. Commissioning the installed system will take 2
days work.
A highly competitive price is to be tendered and the contractor will reduce the allowance
for profit by 8%. The contract price will be fixed for the duration of the agreed period and
Page 346 of 441
there is no main contractor or discount. Calculate the cooling load in kW and number and
capacity of the split package room cooling units which are to be used. Note that there are
several possible solutions and these will be reflected in the project price. Evaluate a
competitive project sell price.
13
Question bank
Acoustics
1. Sound waves repeat at a frequency due to:
1. Absorption by porous surfaces.
2. Wind forces.
3. Multiple sources of sound.
4. Passage of blades in a rotary machine such as a compressor, pump or turbine.
5. Variations in air pressure.
10.
1. Noise rating curves specify equal sound power level for all frequencies.
2. Noise rating curves specify equal sound pressure level for any frequency.
3. Noise rating curves specify equal loudness for a range of frequencies.
4. Noise rating are subjectively assessed.
5. Machines are given a noise rating value.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
Acronyms
18.
1. ASHRAE means Australian Society for Heating, Refrigerating and Air Engineering.
2. AIRAH means American Institute for Refrigeration and Air Heating.
3. CIBSE stands for The Chartered Institution of Building Services Engineers.
4. BSRIA stands for British Services Refrigeration Institute for Air Conditioning.
5. CIC is the Council for Industry and Construction.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
1. No meaning.
2. All Buildings Green Rationale.
3. All Building Greenhouse Rating.
4. Austrian Building Green Rating.
5. Australian Building Greenhouse Rating.
37.
38.
39.
1. ASHRAE means Australian Society for Heating, Refrigerating and Air Engineering.
2. AIRAH means American Institute for Refrigeration and Air Heating.
3. CIBSE stands for The Chartered Institution of Building Services Engineers.
4. BSRIA stands for British Services Refrigeration Institute for Air Conditioning.
5. CIC is the Council for Industry and Construction.
40.
1.
41.
42.
43.
44.
46.
Air conditioning
47.
1. Yes, absolutely.
2. Obesity is due to overeating only.
3. Obesity is due to working at computers too long each day.
4. Metabolism slows and we eat more in air conditioned environments.
5. Modern facilities tend to reduce our physical activity and lead us to eat less natural
food.
48.
49.
Does air conditioning lead to obesity? Which of these may not be a valid argument?
1. Keeping home, vehicle and workplace at one temperature all year round promotes body
fat.
2. Cool air temperature encourages fat burning.
3. Thermal neutrality can only maintain the obesity status quo.
4. Warm air temperature decreases natural appetite.
5. Natural body temperature regulation from variable air temperature is a good thing.
50.
Does air conditioning lead to obesity? Which of these may not be a valid argument?
1. Recent research suggests thermal neutrality removes the need for natural body
temperature regulation activity to burn fat.
2. Obesity is due to lack of exercise.
3. Obesity is due to inadequate sleep.
4. Obesity is due to endocrine disruptive substances found in food.
5. Cannot possibly be the fault of air conditioning.
51.
Does air conditioning lead to obesity? Which of these may not be a valid argument?
52.
Does air conditioning lead to obesity? Which of these may not be a valid argument?
Page 362 of 441
53.
1. Buildings packed to capacity with people, computer workstations and artificial lighting
usually need air conditioning in the UK.
2. The future habitability of planet Earth is assured whatever we may do to its natural
resources.
3. The pattern of energy use for the next 100 years of a buildings use has nothing to do
with its designers.
4. Building designers must ignore those few days in the year when hot humid weather
makes indoor conditions uncomfortable without mechanical cooling systems.
5. Correct design of glazing in commercial buildings for the UK always eliminates the
need for air conditioning.
54.
55.
56.
57.
1. No such thing.
2. Dry bulb mercury in glass thermometer immersed in a water tank.
3. Does not work in humid air
4. Used inside a 38 mm diameter black copper globe.
5. Mercury in glass thermometer having a wetted cotton sock covering the sensing bulb.
58.
59.
1. Spiral wound flexible fabric ducts make final connections to terminal units and diffuser
boxes.
2. Air ducts have taped joints for air tightness.
3. Air duct leakage is unimportant.
4. Galvanised sheet steel ductwork has riveted or flanged joints.
5. Air ducts can be cleaned internally.
60.
61.
Ventilation rates:
Page 365 of 441
62.
63.
1. Structural steel beam that is kept cool by the air conditioning system.
2. Structural steel beams supporting the weight of the air conditioning system water chiller
compressors.
3. Air conditioning surface operating at below the occupied room air dew point
temperature.
4. A chilled water surface providing only radiant cooling.
5. Finned pipes or flat panels at high level in offices providing a convective cooling
surface.
64.
65.
66.
Air quality
Page 367 of 441
67.
1. Identifying smells.
2. Breathing onto others.
3. A measuring instrument.
4. Tasting them in our mouth.
5. Olfactory response.
68.
69.
70.
1. Airborne fungi.
2. Noise.
3. Air filtration standard too high quality for the application.
Page 368 of 441
71.
1. Tobacco smoke.
2. Volatile organic compounds, VOC, from cleaning fluids.
3. Nitrogen.
4. Carbon monoxide.
5. Nitrogen dioxide.
72.
73.
74.
1. Cable conduit.
2. RS484.
3. 240 volt cables.
4. RS124.
5. Ethernet.
75.
1. Wi-Fi.
2. RS484.
3. RS232.
4. RS300.
5. Comm-bus on a motherboard.
76.
Which one of these would you not like to be a feature of an intelligent building?
1. Window external louvres control solar gain from solar radiation sensor on each facade.
2. Car park ventilation fan speed varied in speed to respond to carbon monoxide level
within underground car park.
3. Lift sensing controls that minimise travel time for every passenger to each destination
by means of the users electronic tag worn at all times.
4. Each workstation has air conditioning, lighting and glare control that adjusts to each
specific user.
5. Manual key entry to building, window shade adjustment, light switches and no personal
control over air conditioning.
CO2 emissions
77.
Which is correct for the level of CO2 emissions from the UK?
Density
78.
79.
80.
1. Cannot be measured.
Page 371 of 441
81.
82.
1. 11 g/cm3.
2. 1.2 103 kg/m3.
3. Specific gravity is 4.186.
4. 1000 tonne/m3 at 10oC.
5. 1 kg per litre.
Electrical
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
What do we know about the energy effectiveness of wind turbine electricity generators?
88.
What do we know about the energy effectiveness of wind turbine electricity generators?
1. They are very efficient at capturing free energy from the wind.
2. Propeller blades fly aeroplanes so must be very efficient turbines.
3. Annual average generation is around 35% of maximum potential.
4. Once installed they last forever.
5. Wind turbines create no noticeable downside on the environment.
89.
90.
91.
92.
94.
1.
None.
2.
They do not add or extract heat from air supplied through them.
3.
4.
Sound hollow to foot traffic and are an annoyance to the lower floor occupants.
5.
Fans
95.
General knowledge
96.
97.
98.
99.
A daytime use low energy primary school in northern England has walls, roof and floor
thermal transmittances below 0.2 W/m2 K. Windows are double glazed with a U value of 2
W/m2 K and natural ventilation is automatically controlled. A biomass condensing water
heater burning woodchip fuel provides low temperature under floor and convector heater
central heating. The water heater fuel hopper is filled daily. Locally sourced forest regrowth
creates a carbon neutral building load. Spot the most significant of the problems.
1. Perfect scenario as heating creates no additional greenhouse gases.
2. Incomplete combustion of woodchip is an environmental hazard.
Page 377 of 441
100. A newly constructed daytime use low energy primary school in northern England was
anticipated to consume around 20 kWh/m2 floor area of electricity in accordance with design
standards. The first two years of operation showed electrical energy consumption of 80
kWh/m2. Spot the most significant probable cause of this non-compliance.
1. More electrical equipment installed than intended.
2. Less efficient electrical equipment installed than design standards.
3. Laptop computers, lights and data projectors remain switched on continuously.
4. The new building proves to be so warm and useful, it becomes fully used for
community events after school hours, and evenings, weekends and school holidays.
5. Design data grossly under-estimates real usage.
101. A newly constructed 15 kW propeller blade wind turbine cost 50000. It is installed on
a site where wind is expected to provide an average usage efficiency of 35% over the whole
year. Potential energy generation value is 3000 per year. How many years will the wind
turbine take to recover its capital cost?
1. 15
2. 10
3. 16
4. 17
Page 378 of 441
5. 35
3. 0.802 m3/kg.
4. 1.205 kg/m3 at 20oC, 1013.25 mb.
5. 5.67 kg/m3.
Government policies
122. What do you think of the HM Government Carbon Plan 2011?
1. Will shake up the EU.
2. Will cease further carbon dioxide pollution.
Page 384 of 441
l
126. What is the HM Government Carbon Plan 2011 for?
1. Political gain within the UK.
2. Compliance with the Kyoto Protocol 1997.
3. Promotes green building design.
4. So that the UK performs better at reducing emissions than other EU nations.
5. To build more nuclear power stations.
Heat transfer
129. Which correctly describes heat transfer?
1. Sensible heat transfer comprises all types.
Page 386 of 441
Lucky dip
148. Which of these is correct?
Page 392 of 441
1. ASHRAE means Australian Society for Heating, Refrigerating and Air Engineering.
2. AIRAH means American Institute for Refrigeration and Air Heating.
3. CIBSE stands for The Chartered Institution of Building Services Engineers.
4. BSRIA stands for British Services Refrigeration Institute for Air Conditioning.
5. CIC is the Council for Industry and Construction.
149. Which does the HM Government Carbon Plan 2011 do for air conditioning in
buildings?
1. Has little effect on primary energy consumption.
2. Diminishes energy use in some buildings.
3. Prescribes how buildings are to be air conditioned.
4. Is an alternative to the EU ETS.
5. Encourages reducing CO2 emissions.
151. Which of these is not a common standard for data transmission in a BMS?
1. Ethernet.
2. RS484.
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3. RS232.
4. RS124.
5. C-bus.
157. AR, BER, SER, DEC and iSBEM all relate to which?
1. Electrical engineering services and systems.
2. They are meaningless acronyms.
3. Types of zero carbon buildings.
4. Emission rating of a building.
5. Types of energy audit.
A low energy building is one that requires the minimum amount of primary resource
energy to build it.
169. What does sustainability mean for low energy air conditioned buildings?
1. The mechanical and electrical services within this building all have a low maintenance
requirement.
2. All the water, sewerage, paper and plastic waste output from this building go to
recycling.
3. All the light bulbs and tubes from this building are recyclable.
4. Somebody has found a good argument why this design of building is less harmful to the
global environment than competitive designs.
5. This building has consumed, and will continue to consume, more of the Earths physical
resources than it can ever put back.
170. How is the air pressure sealing, or leaking, ability of a building found?
1. Close all doors and windows. Close spill air and exhaust air dampers. Run supply and
return air fans. Measure internal static air pressure for one hour to see if it can be
maintained at a set value.
2. Close all doors, windows, air vents, exhaust air outlet ducts and spill air dampers. Run
supply and return air fans. Raise building air static internal pressure to 50 Pa above
outdoor atmosphere barometric pressure. Switch fans off. Measure rate of decay of
indoor air pressure. Use formula to calculate air leakage rate from building.
Page 399 of 441
3. Switch off all fans. Seal all mechanical ventilation openings into building with
polythene sheet. Fit false main entrance door having a pressurising fan, duct and air
flow meter. Run pressurising fan to maintain a specified internal air static pressure.
Measure steady inflow rate, this is building airtightness measurement.
173. Where could carbon monoxide, benzene and toluene gases have come from if detected
within an air conditioned low energy building?
1. Water chiller plant room refrigerant leakage.
2. Hydrocarbon natural gas combustion water heating plant.
Page 400 of 441
178. Air conditioning engineers consider atmospheric air pressure to consist of which?
1. Polluted air.
2. Vapours, gases and water vapour.
3. Around 800.0 mb from dry gases plus 213.0 mb due to water vapour.
4. Around 700.0 mb from dry clean gases, 200 mb from polluting vapours and dusts plus
113.0 mb due to water vapour.
5. Around 990.0 mb from dry gases plus 20.0 mb due to water vapour.
180. Which is the likely outcome from inadequate outdoor air ventilation?
1. Comfortably warm houses and offices.
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2. Less draught.
3. Suppression of house dust mites, condensation and mould growth due to warmer
environment.
4. Inadequate removal of house dust mites, condensation and potential mould growth.
5. Lower energy costs.
5. NOx.
186. In well-insulated non air conditioned buildings having modest glazing areas and little
air movement, which will operative temperature be closest to?
1. Globe temperature.
2. Mean radiant temperature.
3. Wet bulb temperature.
4. Dry bulb air temperature.
5. Environmental temperature.
Refrigeration systems
188. How could a chilled water cooling coil distribute bacteria into occupied air conditioned
rooms?
1. It cannot, as air temperature remains too cool.
2. It will not under normal operation.
3. Condensate water trap between drain tray and sewer always maintains a water seal.
4. Water seal in P-trap between drain tray and sewer may become dehydrated and allow
sewer gases to pass into the air handling unit and supply duct.
5. It will not when adequately maintained in accordance with codes and standards.
191. Which might be a means of reducing the refrigeration system energy usage in a small
retail premises where food refrigeration, deep freezers and reverse cycle air conditioning are
all needed?
1. Install smallest capacity compressors possible.
2. Carry out frequent maintenance checks and parts replacement.
3. Switch reciprocating compressors off for as long as possible and maintain wide
temperature differentials.
4. Use same outdoor air cooled condenser for all three systems.
5. Variable refrigerant volume scroll compressor with software controlled digital operation
programmable for all variations in year round duties.
195. Which term is used to describe the thermal efficiency of a refrigeration cycle?
1. ODP.
2. COP.
3. E%.
4. RE.
5. Qr.
197. What is not a potential sink for heat rejected by the condenser of a refrigeration system?
1. Outside air.
2. River or sea water.
3. Sewer and surface water drain system flows.
4. Damp ground nearby.
5. Water circulation to other heat pumps requiring heating at the same time.
Sustainability
198. What does sustainability mean for low energy buildings?
1. No such thing as a modern sustainable building.
2. Everything used in the buildings service life comes from globally sustainable
resources.
3. This building is an example of good modern design practice.
4. All waste output from this building is recycled.
5. The building has been constructed from organically grown materials.
4. All the concrete and reinforcing steel in this building comes from self-sustaining
resources and recycled materials.
5. None of these answers.
2. All the materials used in the construction of this building came from recycled resources.
3. Some of the materials used in the construction of this building came from recycled
resources.
4. The Board Room executive table within this building was made from floor boards
recycled from our previous demolished old fashioned building.
5. This new building has some surface materials the owners can boast about as recycled.
Temperature
203. Which is correct about Kelvin?
1. Name of engineer who designed the first steam engine.
2. Unit of heat.
3. Measured in kJ/kg s.
4. Temperature scale.
5. Absolute temperature.
3. C = (F 32) 9.
5
4. C = (F + 32) 9.
9
5. C = (F 32) 5 180.
210. Which is correct about Celsius?
1. Called oC units.
2. Kelvin degrees plus 273.13.
3. Kelvin minus 180.
4. Commonly used for cryogenic applications.
5
5. C = (F 180) 9.
211. Which is correct about Celsius?
1. Temperature scale in the centimetre, gram, second (CGS), metric system.
2. Name of the Roman Senator in 35 AD who stabbed Caesar.
3. Normal body temperature is 41oC.
4. Defines normal human body temperature of 98.4 degrees.
5. Temperature scale in the metre, kilogram, second (MKS), metric system.
Thermal comfort
212. Thermal comfort PPD means?
1. Personal preferences determined.
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Ventilation
213. How is air leakage by a building measured?
1. Anemometer readings at every opening to outdoors.
2. Fill with smoke and time taken to fully disperse.
3. Cannot be done at all.
4. Large fan sucks air out of whole building at 50 Pa and flow measured.
5. Large fan pressurises building at 50 Pa and flow measured.
214. The required air leakage rate from a new building is in the range:
1. Half to one air change per hour.
2. 0.25 air changes per hour.
3. 1 to 10 m3/h m2 at 50 Pa internal air pressure.
4. 10 to 100 m3/h m2 at 25 Pa internal air pressure.
5. Must be zero.
Volume
215. Which is correct about volume?
1. 1 cubic centimetre water occupies 1 litre.
2. 1 tonne of water occupies 1000 m3.
3. 1 m3 = 1000 litre.
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218. A room 12 m long, 8 m wide and having an average height of 4 m, has a volume of
which?
1. 400 m3.
2. 62 m3.
3. 462 m3.
4. 384 m3.
5. 192 m3.
219. Which is the correct length of a 1200 m3 sports hall of average height 4 m and width 12
m?
1. 25 m.
2. 10 m.
3. 250 m.
4. 120 m.
5. 12.5 m.
14
Understanding units
Density
1. Which is correct about the density of humid air?
1. Decreases with increasing pressure.
2. Increases with increasing air temperature.
3. Varies with air temperature and pressure.
4. Not affected by humidity.
5. Increases as air velocity increases.
1. Cannot be measured.
2. Cannot be measured accurately.
3. Always relative to the specific gravity number.
4. 1000 times that of air.
5. Specific gravity is 1.0.
Electrical
7. Which of these has the correct electrical units?
1. 1 MW =103 W.
2. 103 kJ = 103 kW/s.
3. 1 W = 1 V 1 A.
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Energy
10.
11.
1. Ratio of .
v
2. Cannot be defined.
3. Varies with atmospheric pressure.
4. 1.012 kg K/W.
5. 1.012 kJ/kg K.
12.
1. 1.013 kW/kg K.
2. 1.012 MJ/kg K.
3. 4.186 kg K/kW.
4. 4.186 kJ/kg K.
5. 4.2 kg K/kJ.
13.
Frequency
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
General knowledge
20.
1. 10 m/s2.
2. 30 ft/s2.
3. 186000 miles per hour.
4. Gravity is static.
5. 9.807 m/s2.
21.
22.
1. 9.807 km/s2.
2. 9.807 ft/s2.
3. Speed of light.
4. Gravity acceleration varies with height above ground level.
5. 9.807 m/s2.
23.
24.
25.
Heat transfer
26.
27.
28.
1. Ratio of Cp/Cv.
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2. Cannot be defined.
3. Varies with atmospheric pressure.
4. 1.012 kg K/W.
5. 1.012 kJ/kg K.
29.
1. 1.013 kW/kg K.
2. 1.012 MJ/kg K.
3. 4.186 kg K/kW.
4. 4.186 kJ/kg K.
5. 4.2 kg K/kJ.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
1. Cannot be measured.
2. Cannot be measured accurately.
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36.
37.
1. 1 g/cm3.
2. 1.2 103 kg/m3.
3. Specific gravity is 4.186.
4. 1000 tonne/m3 at 10oC.
5. 1 kg per litre.
Mathematics
38.
1. A logarithm.
2. A variable number.
3. Always 10x, ten to the power x.
4. 2.718.
5. Has no meaning.
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39.
4. e = 1.
5. e1 = 2.718.
40.
1. An integral.
2. A variable number.
3. Always 10x, ten to the power x.
4. 2.718.
5. Has no meaning.
41.
1
5. e = 2.718.
Pressure
42.
1. 1.013 tonne/m2.
2. 1 bar.
3. 10000 N/m2.
4. 1013.25 mb.
5. 106 N/m2.
43.
1. 1013 tonne/m2.
2. 105 bar.
3. 109 N/m2.
4. 14.7 lb/in2.
5. 106 N/m2.
44.
45.
1. 9.807 m H2O.
2. 29.35 m H2O.
3. 10.3 m H2O.
4. 101325 kJ/m2.
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5. 1.205 kg/m2.
46.
1. 1 atmosphere =103 b.
2. 1 Pascal = 1 N/m2.
3. Pascal is a unit of radiation measurement.
4. 1 kN/m2 = 1 b.
5. 1 mb = 103 N/m2.
47.
1. 1.01325 mb = 1 atmosphere.
2. 1 MN = 103 kN/m2.
3. 1 b = 1 kN/m2.
4. 13.6 mb = 13.6 N/m2.
5. 1 b = 105 N/m2.
48.
1. 1 mb = 1 N/m2.
2. 1 b = 103 mb.
3. 1 mb = 103 N/m2.
4. 103 kN/m2 = 1 b.
5. 1 mb = 106 b.
49.
1. 1 Nm = 1 Pa.
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2. 1000 Pa = 1 atmosphere.
3. 1 kPa = 1 kN/m2.
4. 1 Pa = 1 mb.
5. 1 Pa = 1 N/m2.
50.
51.
52.
53.
1. 1000 tonne/m2.
2. 1 mbar.
3. 1 N/m2.
4. 1.01325 b.
5. 104 N/m2.
54.
1. 1000 tonne/m2.
2. 107 bar.
3. 106 N/m2.
4. 14.7 lb/in2.
5. Cannot be precise as sea levels change all the time
Temperature
55.
56.
57.
5. K = C 5 + 32.
58.
59.
60.
1. Latin name of inventor of Roman hypocaust under floor heating system in 200 BC.
2. Fahrenheit minus 32.
5
3. C = F 9 + 32.
5
4. C = 32 F 9.
5. C = (F 32) 9.
61.
1. Called oC units.
2. Kelvin degrees plus 273.13.
5
3. C = (F + 32) 9.
5. F = (C 32) 5.
62.
4. C = (F 180) 9 .
63.
Units
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64.
1. 1 newton = 1 kg 1 m/2.
2. 1 joule = 1 kg 1 m.
3. 1 watt = 1 kg g m/s2.
4. 103 joules = 3600 kN/m2.
5. 1 joule = 1 N/m2.
65.
66.
1. 1 W = 1 Nms.
2. 1 W = 1 Js.
3. 1 W/s = 103 J.
4. 1 W = 1 Nm/s.
5. 1 kW/h = 103 J/h.
67.
68.
69.
1. 1 MW =103 W.
2. 103 kJ = 103 kW/s.
3. 1 W = 1 V 1 A.
4. Electrical energy meters accumulate kW/h.
5. 103 W = 103 V 103 A.
70.
5. 1 kJ/s = 103 V 1 A.
71.
1. 103 W = 103 V 1 A.
2. 1 MWh = 103 Ws.
3. 1 kWh = 103 Ws.
4. 1 kWh = 1000 W/s.
5. 1 kWh = 1000 W/h.
72.
1. 1 atmosphere =103 b.
2. 1 pascal = 1 N/m2.
3. Pascal is a unit of radiation measurement.
4. 1 kN/m2 = 1 b.
5. 1 mb = 103 N/m2.
Volume
73.
74.
75.
76.
A room 12 m long, 8 m wide and having an average height of 4 m, has a volume of?
1. 400 m3.
2. 62 m3.
3. 462 m3.
4. 384 m3.
5. 192 m3.
77.
Which is the correct length of a 1200 m3 sports hall of average height 4 m and width 12
m?
1. 25 m.
2. 10 m.
3. 250 m.
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4. 120 m.
5. 12.5 m.
.
78.
The End