Ano Part-3 2016

CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY BANGLADESH
AIR NAVIGATION ORDER

(REGULATIONS)
ANO PART 3 APPROVED TRAINING ORGANISATIONS
ISSUE: ORIGINAL
NOVEMBER 2016
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Civil Aviation Authority Bangladesh
ANO Part-03
APPROVAL
This ANO Part 3 contains the Certification and Administration of Approved Training Organizations (ATOs). It has been
developed in pursuance to Bangladesh Ordinance 1960 and the Authority vested upon Chairman CAA Bangladesh
under Rule 4 of CAR 1984.
This ANO Part 3 comprises three areas; the Main Content, the Appendices and the Attachments. While the Main
content outlines the description that specifies the various regulatory requirements of CAAB, the Appendices and the
Attachments provide the required Guidance Materials and/or the Implementation Standards to be used in conjunction
with the Main Content.
This ANO Part 3 has been primarily structured in conformance with ICAO Annex 1 for Personnel Licensing and ATO
Doc 9841. Other reference materials used are - ICAO Annex 6 for Operation of Aircraft, Licensing Doc 9379,
Inspection Doc 8335, FSTD Doc 9625, HP Doc 9683, Safety Oversight Doc 9735, SMS Doc 9859, PANS Training Doc
9868, Runway Incursion Doc 9870 and UPRT Doc10011. Additionally, guidance has been taken from CFR 14 Part 141
of FAA.
Since ATOs are the main stakeholders for basic pilot trainings - both knowledge and skill, that enable pilots to obtain
licences; mandatory licensing requirements could be found duplicated in this ANO, in line with the Licensing ANO (Part
2) of CAAB. Such duplication has been incorporated for ready references and conveniences of the ATOs. In case of
any differences or conflicting contents, the licensing ANO shall prevail.
This ANO Part 3 shall supersede all previous ANOs and Circulars related to Certification and Administration of ATOs.
This ANO Part 3 is hereby approved and shall come into force with immediate effect.
Air Vice Marshall Ehsanul Gani Chaudhury, GUP, ndu, psc,

Chairman
ANO Part-03
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ANO Part-03
TABLE OF CONTENTS
SECTION
TOPICS
PAGE
3.1
GENERAL
3.1.1
Applicability
3.1.2
Definitions
3.1.3
Abbreviations
25
3.2
CERTIFICATION OF A TRAINING ORGANISATION AND CONTINUED VALIDITY
27
3.2.1
Applicability
27
3.2.2
General
27
3.2.3
Approved Training Organisation Certificate
27
3.2.4
Advertising
28
3.2.5
Application for an ATO Certificate
28
3.2.6
Issuance of an ATO Certificate
29
3.2.7
Duration and Renewal of ATO Certificate
29
3.2.8
Continued Validity of Approval
29
3.2.9
Inspection
29
3.2.10
Suspension or Revocation
30
3.2.11
Changes to the ATO and Certificate Amendments
30
3.2.12
Location of the ATO
31
3.2.13
Facilities, Equipment and Material General Requirements
31
3.2.14
Personnel General Requirements
31
3.2.15
Record Keeping General Requirements
32
3.2.16
ATO Approved for Testing
32
3.2.17
Quality Assurance and Quality System
32
3.2.18
ATO Training and Procedures Manual General Requirements
32
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ANO Part-03
3.2.19
Duty Period Limitations
33
3.2.20
ATO Safety Management System
33
3.2.21
Outsourcing to Third-Party Providers
33
3.3
REQUIREMENTS FOR INSTRUCTION FOR FLIGHT CREW LICENCES
33
3.3.1
General
33
3.3.2
Curriculum Approval
34
3.3.2.1
Flight Crew Training Courses
34
3.3.2.2
Additional Courses
34
3.3.2.3
Training Course Approval Qualification Based and Alternate Means Of Compliance
34
3.3.2.4
Training Course ApprovalAlternative Means of Compliance and Competency Based

Training and Assessment
35
3.3.3
Personnel
36
3.3.4
Facilities Required for Flight Crew Training
37
3.3.4.1
Training Facilities
37
3.3.4.2
Training Aircraft
38
3.3.4.3
Flight Simulation Training Devices
39
3.3.4.4
Aerodromes and Sites
39
3.3.5
Additional, Specific Operating Rules for Flight Crew Training
40
3.3.5.1
Training and Procedures Manual
40
3.3.5.2
Record Keeping for Flight Crew Training
40
3.3.5.3
Graduation Certificate
41
3.3.5.4
Examining Authority for ATOs Teaching Flight Crew Curriculums
41
3.3.5.5
Student Transfer of Credit Between ATOs Teaching a Flight Crew Curriculum
42
3.3.5.6
Inspections of The ATOs Teaching Flight Crew Curricula
42
3.3.6
Designated Pilot Examiners
43
3.3.6.1
General
43
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ANO Part-03
3.3.6.2
General Requirements and Skill Test
43
3.3.6.3
Experience Requirements for Private Pilot Examiner (PPE)
44
3.3.6.4
Experience Requirements for Commercial & Instrument Rating Pilot Examiner (CIRE)
44
3.3.6.5
Experience Requirements for Commercial Pilot Examiners (CE)
45
3.3.7
Status of Ex-Caab Inspectors
46
3.3.8
Inspectors/Examiners Fees
46
CONTENT OF THE TRAINING AND PROCEDURES MANUAL (Ref Doc 9841)
49
1. General
49
2. Staff Training
50
3. Client Training Programmes
50
4. Tests & Checks Conducted by the ATO for the Issuance of a Licence or a Rating
52
5. Records
52
6. Safety Management System (If Applicable)
52
7. Quality Assurance (QA)
52
8. Appendices
52
9. Flight Training General
53
10. Aircraft Operating Information
53
11. Routes
53
12. Flight Training Plan
53
QUALITY ASSURANCE & THE QUALITY SYSTEM OF THE ATO (Ref Doc
9841)
55
1. Quality Policy and Strategy
55
2. Quality Manager
55
3. Quality Assurance (QA)
55
4. Quality System For The ATO
56
5. Organizational Risk Profile
57
APPENDIX - A
Part I
Part II
APPENDIX - B
APPENDIX - B
ANO Part-03
6. Risk Management Plan
57
7. Coherence Matrix
57
8. Corrective and Preventive Action Reports
58
9. Quality-Related Documentation
58
10. QA Audit Programme
58
11. Quality Inspection
58
12. Quality Audits
59
13. Auditors
59
14. Auditors Independence
59
15. Audit Scheduling
60
16. Monitoring and Corrective Action
60
17. Continuous Improvement Process
60
18. Management Review and Analysis
61
19. Records
61
20. QA Responsibility for Satellite ATOs
62
21. QA Training
62
APPENDIX - C
RESERVED
63
APPEBDIX - D
THE SAFETY MANAGEMENT SYSTEM (SMS) OF THE ATO (Ref Doc 9841)
65
1. Safety Policy
65
2. Safety Manager
65
3. Safety Management System
65
ATO AUDIT CHECKLIST
67
1. Applicability
67
2. Instruction to Use
67
3. Operations Audit
67
3.2 General Information of the ATO
68
(Contd.)
APPENDIX - E
vi
APPENDIX - E
(Contd.)
ANO Part-03
3.3 Management and Organization
69
3.4 Documents, Equipments and Manuals
71
3.5 Training Records
72
3.6 Operations
73
3.7 Findings; 3.8 Comments; 3.9 Recommendations
75
76
4. AIR WORTHINESS AUDIT

4.1 Manpower, Manuals, Documents
APPENDIX - F
76
4.2 Aircraft And Maintenance
77
78
5. Financial
79
80
REQUIREMENTS, PRIVILEGES & LIMITATIONS FOR INSTRUCTORS OFATOs
81
1. Purpose
81
2. Applicability
81
3. Instructors for Pilot Licensing
81
3.1 General Requirements
81
4. Flight Instructors
81
4.1 Flight Instructor Rating Requirements, Skill Test and Proficiency Check
81
4.2 Validity
88
4.3 Renewal
88
4.4 Renewal Time Frame:
88
4.5 Reissue
88
4.6 Additional Flight Instructor Rating.
88
4.7 Flight Instructor Records
88
4.8 Flight Instructor Limitations and Qualifications
89
vii
APPENDIX F
(Contd.)
APPENDIX - G
ANO Part-03
4.9 Flight Instructors Categories (Aeroplanes & Helicopters)
91
4.9.1 Categories, Requirements, Privileges & Limitations of Flight Instructors
91
4.9.2. Check Pilot (of ATOs)
91
5. Ground Instructors
92
5.1 Category and Privileges of Ground Instructors
92
5.2 Ground Instructor Authorizations
92
6 Requirement for Initial, Recurrence, Transition Training of Simulator Flight

Instructor (SFI) Rating (Aeroplane And Helicopter)
93
6.1 General
93
6.2 Ground Training
93
6.3 Flight Training
94
6.4 Privileges
94
6.5 Validity of Rating
94
6.6 Application
94
TRAINING AND TESTING REQUIREMENTS FOR SP, PPL, CPL & IR
95
1. General
95
1.1 Documentation of Training and Aeronautical Experience
95
1.2 Training Conducted in an Approved Training Organisation
95
1.3 Use of Flight Simulation Training Devices
95
1.4 Knowledge and Skill Tests and Checks: Time, Place, Designated Persons and
Format
96
1.5 Knowledge and Skill Tests and ChecksPrerequisites, Passing Grades and
Retesting after Failure
96
2. Student Pilot License (SPL)
97
97
2.2 Student Pilot Manoeuvres and Procedures for Pre-Solo Flight Training-Aeroplane
Category
98
2.3 Student Pilot Manoeuvres and Procedures for Pre-Solo Flight Training-Helicopter
Category
98
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APPENDIX G
(Contd.)
ATTACHMENT 1
ANO Part-03
3. Private Pilot Licence (PPL)
99
3. 1 General Requirements
99
3.2 Experience, Flight Instruction and Skill Test for the PPL Aeroplane Category
101
3.3 Experience, Flight Instruction and Skill Test for the PPLHelicopter Category
105
4. Commercial Pilot License (CPL)
108
108
4.2 Experience, Flight Instruction and Skill Test for the CPLAeroplane Category
111
4.3 Experience, Flight Instruction and Skill Test for the CPLHelicopter Category
115
5. Instrument Rating (IR)
118
118
5.2 Experience, Flight Instruction, Skill Test and Proficiency Check for the IR
120
PILOT SKILL TEST STANDARDS FOR AIRPLANE AND HELICOPTER
125
1.1 Introduction
125
1.2 General Information
125
1.3 Skills Test Standards Concept
125
1.4 Skill Test Description
125
1.5 Use of the Skill Tests Standard
126
1.6 Special Emphasis Areas
127
1.7 Aircraft and Equipment Required for the Skills Test
127
1.8 Flight Instructor Responsibility
127
1.9 Examiner Responsibility
128
1.10 Satisfactory Performance
128
1.11 Unsatisfactory Performance
128
1.12 Notice of Discontinuance or Denial
129
1.13 Single-Pilot Resource Management (SRM)
129
1.14 Applicants Use of Checklists
132
ix
ATTACHMENT 1
(Contd.)
ATTACHMENT-2
ANO Part-03
1.15 Use of Distractions during Skills Tests
132
1.16 Positive Exchange of Flight Controls
132
1.17 Stalls and Spin Awareness
132
ADDITION OF LICENCE/RATING TO EXISTING LICENCE/RATING HOLDERS
135
2.1Addition of an Airplane Single-Engine Land Rating to an Existing Private Pilot

License
135
2.2 Addition of an Airplane Single-Engine Sea Rating to an Existing

License
136
Private Pilot
2.3 Addition of An Airplane Single-Engine Land Rating to an Existing Commercial

Pilot Licence
137
2.4 Addition of an Airplane Single-Engine Sea Rating to an Existing Commercial Pilot

Licence
138
2.5 Addition of Instrument Rating
139
2.6 Addition of Flight Instructor Rating
140
2.7 Renewal or Revival of a Flight Instructor Rating
141
SKILL TEST STANDARD: PPL & CPL (ASEL & ASES)
143
3.1 Applicants (or ATOs) Skills Test Checklist
143
3.2 Examiners Skill Tests Checklist
144
3.3 Areas & Tasks
144
3.4 Areas of Operations &Tasks (PPL & CPL) (ASEL & ASES)
146
ATTACHMENT-4
RESERVED
169
ATTACHMENT-5
INSTRUMENT RATING SKILLS TEST STANDARDS (AIRPLANE AND

HELICOPTER)
171
5.1 Introduction
171
5.2 Aircraft and Equipment Required for Instrument Skills Test
171
5.3 Use of Caab-Approved Flight Simulation Training Device (FSTD)
172
5.4 Instrument Skill Test
173
5.4.1 Applicants (or ATOs) Skill Test Checklist
173
ATTACHMENT-3
ATTACHMENT-5
(Contd.)
ANO Part-03
5.4.2 Examiners Skill Test Checklist

5.4.3 Areas &Tasks (IR)
173
174
5.4.4 Areas of Operations &Tasks

ATTACHMENT- 6
ATTACHMENT-7
173
FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR SKILLS TEST STANDARDS (AEROPLANE)
185
6.1 Introduction
185
6.2 Knowledge and Skill
185
5.3 Task Objective
185
6.4 Caab IT Manual
185
6.5 Unlisted Task
185
6.6 Simulated Emergency Procedure
185
6.7 Examiner Acts as Applicant
186
6.8 Special Teaching Ability
186
6.9 Satisfactory Performance
186
6.10 Unsatisfactory Performance
186
6.11 Initial Flight Instructor Certification
187
6.12 Flight Instructor Aeroplane Single Engine
187
187
6.12.2 Examiners Test Checklist
188
6.12.3 Area and Tasks
188
6.12.4 Areas of Operation and Tasks
190
CATEGORIZATION OF ATOs, MAN-POWER REQUIREMENT AND AIRCRAF

INSTRUCTOR-STUDENT RATIO
231
7.1 Introduction
231
7.2 Complexity
231
7.3 Size
231
7.4 ATO Personnel Requirements
231
xi
ATTACHMENT-7
(Contd.)
ATTACHMENT-8
ATTACHMENT-9
ATTACHMENT-10
ANO Part-03
7.5 Student and Aircraft Ratio
232
7.6 Instructor and Student Ratio
232
DESIGNATED PILOT EXAMINER (DPE) (INITIAL AND RECURRENT COURSE)
233
8.1 Introduction
233
8.2 Eligibility for Application
233
8.3 Role of Inspector
233
8.4 Course Curriculum
233
8.5 Skill test
234
ATO CERTIFICATION PROCESS
235
9.1 Purpose
235
9.2 Background.
235
9.4 Pre-Application Phase.
236
9.5 Formal Application Phase.
238
9.6 Document Evaluation Phase.
238
9.7 Demonstration and Inspection Phase.
239
9.8 Certification Phase.
240
9.9 ATO Certification Job Aids and Schedule of Events
241
1. Pre-Application Phase
241
2. Formal Application Phase
241
3. Document Evaluation Phase
242
4. Demonstration & Inspection Phase
244
5. Certification Phase
245
SPECIMEN FORMS
247
01. Caab Form No. 10-1; Certificate of Approval (COA)
249
02. Caab Form No. 10-2; Training Specificatios
251
03. Caab Form No.10- 3; Prospective Operators Pre-Assessment Statement (POPS)
255
xii
ATTACHMENT-10
(Contd.)
ANO Part-03
04. Caab Form No. 10-4; Sample of Formal Application Letter
257
05. Caab Form No. 10-5; Application Form for Issuance of Student Pilot License
(SPL)
259
06. Caab Form No. 10-6; Application Form for Renewal of SPL
261
07. Caab Form No. 10-7; Application Form for Issuance of Private Pilot Licence
(PPL)
263
08. Caab Form No. 10-8; Application Form for Renewal/Revival of Private Pilot
License (PPL)
265
09. Caab Form No. 10-9; Application Form for Issuance of Commercial Pilot Licence
(CPL)
267
10. Caab Form No. 10-10; Application Form for Renewal/Revival of Commercial Pilot
(CPL);
269
11. Caab Form No.10-11; Application Form for Issuance of Instrument Rating (IR)
271
12. Caab Form No. 10-12; Application Form for Renewal/Re-Issue of Instrument
Rating (IR)
273
13. Caab Form No. 10-13; Application Form for Issuance of Flight Instructor Rating
(FIR)
275
14. Caab Form No. 10-14; Application Form for Renewal/Revival of Flight Instructor
Rating (FIR)
15 Caab Form No. 10-15; PPL and CPL (Aeroplane) Skill Test Assessment Form for
Licensing;
277
16. Caab Form No. 10-16; Instrument Rating (Aeroplane) Skill Test Assessment
Form
17. Caab Form No. 10-17; Flight Instructor Rating/Examiner (Aeroplane) Skill Test
Assessment Form
281
18. Caab Form No. 10-18; Application Form for Issuance/Renewal/Re-Issue of

Simulator Flight Instructor/Examiner Rating (SFI/SFE)
285
19. Caab Form No. 10-19; Instructor Ground Class / Presentation Assessment Form
287
20. Caab Form No. 10-20; Ground Instructors Authorization Certificate
289
21. Caab Form No. 10-21; Flight Instructor Categorization Certificate
291
22. Caab Form No. 10-22; Designated Pilot Examiner (DPE) Certificate
293
xiii
279
283
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ANO Part-03
AMENDMENTS
Location
Date
Description
xv
ANO Part-03
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xvi
ANO Part-03
ANO Part 3 Approved Training Organisations

3.1
3.1.1
GENERAL
Applicability
(a)
3.1.2
This Part prescribes the requirements for issuing approvals to organisations for the training of
aviation personnel and prescribes the operating rules for the holders of an approved training
organisation (ATO) certificate.
Definitions
(a)
For the purposes of this Part, the following definitions apply

(1)
Accelerate-stop distance available (ASDA) - The length of the take-off run available
plus the length of stop way, if provided.
(2)
Acceptable - A rule of construction in this Part that means that the CAAB has reviewed
the method, procedure, or policy and has neither objected nor approved its proposed
use or implementation.
(3)
Accident - Definition used in a safety management context. An occurrence associated

with the operations of an aircraft which, in the case of a manned aircraft, takes place
between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight until such time
as all such persons have disembarked, or in the case of an unmanned aircraft, takes
place between the time the aircraft is ready to move with the purpose of flight until such
time as it comes to rest at the end of the flight and the primary propulsion system is shut
down, in which:
(i)
A person is fatally or seriously injured as a result of: being in the aircraft, or

direct contact with any part of the aircraft, including parts which have become
detached from the aircraft, or direct exposure to jet blast, except when the
injuries are from natural causes, self-inflicted or inflicted by other persons, or
when the injuries are to stowaways hiding outside the areas normally available
to the passengers and crew; or
(ii)
The aircraft sustains damage or structural failure which: adversely affects the
structural strength, performance or flight characteristics of the aircraft, and would
normally require major repair or replacement of the affected component, except
for engine failure or damage, when the damage is limited to a single engine,
(including its cowlings or accessories), to propellers, wing tips, antennas,
probes, vanes, tires, brakes, wheels, fairings, panels, landing gear doors,
windscreens, the aircraft skin (such as small dents or puncture holes), or for
minor damages to main rotor blades, tail rotor blades, landing gear, and those
resulting from hail or bird strike (including holes in the Radom); or
(iii)
The aircraft is missing or is completely inaccessible.

Note 2: An aircraft is considered to be missing when the official search has been
terminated and the wreckage has not been located.
(4)
Issue: Original
Accountable manager - The person acceptable to the CAAB who has corporate CAAB
for ensuring that all operations and maintenance activities can be financed and carried
out to the standard required by the CAAB, and any additional requirements defined by the
operator.
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ANO Part-03
(5)
Acrobatic flight - Manoeuvres intentionally performed by an aircraft involving an abrupt

change in its attitude, an abnormal attitude, or an abnormal variation in speed.
(6)
Aerial work - An aircraft operation in which an aircraft is used for specialized services
such as agriculture, construction, photography, surveying, observation and patrol, search
and rescue, aerial advertisement, etc.
(7)
Aerodrome - A defined area on land or water (including any buildings, installations and
equipment) intended to be used either wholly or in part for the arrival, departure and
surface movement of aircraft.
(8)
Aerodrome operating minima - The limits of usability of an aerodrome for:

(i)
Takeoff, expressed in terms of runway visual range and/or visibility and, if

necessary, cloud conditions;
(ii)
Landing in precision approach and landing operations, expressed in terms of

visibility and/or runway visual range and decision altitude/height (DA/H) as
appropriate to the category of the operation;
(iii)
Landing in approach and landing operations with vertical guidance, expressed in

terms of visibility and/or runway visual range and decision altitude/height (DA/H);
and
(i)
Landing in non-precision approach and landing operations, expressed in terms

of visibility and/or runway visual range, minimum descent altitude/height
(MDA/H) and, if necessary, cloud conditions.
(9)
Aerodrome traffic zone - Airspace of defined dimensions established around an

aerodrome for the protection of aerodrome traffic.
(10)
Aeronautical experience - Pilot time obtained in an aircraft, approved flight simulation

training device for meeting the training and flight time requirements of these ANOs.
(11)
Aeroplane - A power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift in flight chiefly from
aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of flight.
(12)
Aeroplane flight manual - A manual, associated with the certificate of airworthiness,

containing limitations within which the aeroplane is to be considered airworthy, and
instructions and information necessary to the flight crew members of the safe operation of
the aeroplane.
(13)
Aided night flight - For a flight in which a pilot uses night vision goggles, the portion of
the flight in which the pilot uses night vision goggles to maintain visual surface reference.
(14)
Air operator - An organisation which undertakes to engage itself in domestic or

international commercial air transport, directly or indirectly or by a lease or any other
arrangement.
(15)
Air operator certificate (AOC) - A certificate authorizing an operator to carry out

specified commercial air transport operations.
(16)
Air traffic control (ATC) clearance - Authorisation for an aircraft to proceed under
conditions specified by an air traffic control unit.
Note: For convenience, the term air traffic control clearance is frequently abbreviated to
clearance when used in appropriate context. The abbreviated term clearance may be
prefixed by the words: taxi, takeoff, departure, en-route, approach or landing, to indicate
the particular portion of flight to which the air traffic control clearance relates.
(17)
Issue: Original
Aircraft - Any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the reactions of
the air other than the reactions of the air against the earths surface.
November, 2016
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ANO Part-03
(18)
Aircraft avionics - A term designating any electronic device including its electrical part
for use in an aircraft, including radio, automatic flight control and instrument systems.
(19)
Aircraft category - Classification of aircraft according to specified basic characteristics,

e.g. Aeroplane, helicopter, glider, free balloon, airship, powered-lift.
(20)
Aircraft certificated for multi-pilot operation - A type of aircraft which the State of
registry has determined, during the certification process, can be operated safely with a
minimum crew of two pilots.
(21)
Aircraft certificated for single-pilot operation - A type of aircraft which the State of
registry has determined, during the certification process, can be operated safely with a
minimum crew of one pilot.
(22)
Aircraft engine - Any engine used, or intended to be used, for propulsion of aircraft and
includes all parts, appurtenances, and accessories thereof other than propellers.
(23)
Aircraft operating manual -.A manual, acceptable to the State of the operator,
containing normal, abnormal and emergency procedures, checklists, limitations,
performance information, details of the aircraft systems, and other material relevant to the
operation of the aircraft.
Note: The aircraft operating manual is part of the operations manual.
Issue: Original
(24)
Aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot - A type of aircraft that is required to be

operated with a co-pilot as specified in the flight manual or by the air operator certificate.
(25)
Aircraft technical log - Documentation for an aircraft that includes the maintenance
record for the aircraft and a record for each flight made by the aircraft. The aircraft
technical log is comprised of a journey records section and a maintenance section.
(26)
Airframe - The fuselage, booms, nacelles, cowlings, fairings, airfoil surfaces (including
rotors but excluding propellers and rotating airfoils of a power plant), and landing gear of
an aircraft and their accessories and controls.
(27)
Airman - This term refers to

(i)
Any individual who engages, as the person in command or as pilot, mechanic, or

member of the crew, or who navigates an aircraft while the aircraft is underway;
(ii)
Any individual in charge of the inspection, maintenance, overhauling, or repair of

aircraft, and any individual in charge of the inspection, maintenance,
overhauling, or repair of aircraft, aircraft engines, propellers, or appliances; or
(iii)
Any individual who serves in the capacity of flight operations officer.
(28)
Airmanship - The consistent use of good judgment and well-developed knowledge, skills
and attitudes to accomplish flight objectives.
(29)
Airship - A power-driven lighter than air aircraft.
(30)
Airway - A control area or portion thereof established in the form of a corridor.
(31)
Airworthiness directive - Continuing airworthiness information that applies to the

following products: aircraft, aircraft engines, propellers, and appliances. An airworthiness
directive is mandatory if issued by the State of Design.
(32)
Airworthy - The status of an aircraft, engine, propeller or part when it conforms to its
approved design and is in a condition for safe operation.
(33)
Alerting service - A service provided to notify appropriate organisations regarding

aircraft in need of search and rescue aid, and assist such organisations as required.
November, 2016
Page 3 of 295
(34)
ANO Part-03
Alternate aerodrome - An aerodrome to which an aircraft may proceed when it becomes

either impossible or inadvisable to proceed to or land at the aerodrome of intended
landing. Alternate aerodromes include the following:
(i)
Takeoff alternate - An alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft can land should

this become necessary shortly after takeoff and it is not possible to use the
aerodrome of departure.
(ii)
En-route alternate - An aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land

after experiencing an abnormal or emergency condition en route.
(iii)
Extended diversion time operations (EDTO) en-route alternate - A suitable and

appropriate alternate aerodrome at which an aeroplane would be able to land
after experiencing an engine shut-down or other abnormal or emergency
condition while en route in an EDTO operation.
(iv)
Destination alternate - An alternate aerodrome to which an aircraft may proceed

should it become either impossible or inadvisable to land at the aerodrome of
intended landing.
Note: The aerodrome from which a flight departs may also be an en-route or a
destination alternate aerodrome for that flight.
(35)
Alternate means of compliance - A pre-approved manner of achieving regulatory

compliance that has been determined to be an acceptable substitute to the regulatory
requirements.
Note: An example of alternate means of compliance would be the CAABs acceptance of
reduced training time for personnel undergoing a specific air operators approved aircraft
type-rating training programme from those training time requirements traditionally
prescribed for approved programmes of a more generic nature leading towards the same
aircraft type-rating.
(36)
Alternative means of compliance - An approved alternative from those prescribed

approaches that has been demonstrated to consistently achieve or exceed the desired
outcomes as intended through regulation.
(37)
Altitude - The vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point,

measured from mean sea level (MSL).
(38)
Annexes to the Chicago Convention - The documents issued by the International Civil
Aviation Organization (ICAO) containing the Standards and Recommended Practices
applicable to civil aviation.
(39)
Approach and landing operations using instrument approach procedures Instrument approach and landing operations are classified as follows:
(i)
Non-precision approach and landing operations - An instrument approach and

landing which utilized lateral guidance but does not utilise vertical guidance.
(ii)
Approach and landing operations with vertical guidance - An instrument

approach and landing which uses lateral and vertical guidance but does not meet
the requirements established for precision approach and landing operations.
(iii)
Precision approach and landing operations - An instrument approach and landing

using precision lateral and vertical guidance with minima as determined by the
category of operation.
Note: Lateral and vertical guidance refers to the guidance provided either by a
ground based navigation aid or computer generated navigation data.
(iv)
Issue: Original
Category I (CAT I) operation - A precision instrument approach and landing with:

November, 2016
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(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
ANO Part-03
(A)
A decision height not lower than 60 m (200 feet); and
(B)
With either a visibility not less than 800 m or a runway visual range not
less than 550 m.
Category II (CAT II) operation - A precision instrument approach and landing

with:
(A)
A decision height lower than 60 m (200 feet), but not lower than 30 m
(100 feet); and
(B)
A runway visual range not less than 300 m.
Category IIIA (CAT IIIA) operation - A precision instrument approach and landing
with:
(A)
A decision height lower than 30 m (100 feet) or no decision height; and
(B)
A runway visual range not less than 175 m.
Category IIIB (CAT IIIB) operation - A precision instrument approach and landing
with:
(A)
A decision height lower than 15 m (50 feet) or no decision height; and
(B)
A runway visual range less than 175 m but not less than 50 m.
Category IIIC (CAT IIIC) operation - A precision instrument approach and landing
with no decision height and no runway visual range limitations.
Note: Where decision height (DH) and runway visual range (RVR) fall into
different categories of operation, the instrument approach and landing operation
would be conducted in accordance with the requirements of the most demanding
category (e.g. an operation with a DH in the range of CAT IIIA but with an RVR
in the range of CAT IIIB would be considered a CAT IIIB operation or an
operation with a DH in the range of CAT II but with an RVR in the range of CAT I
would be considered a CAT II operation).
Issue: Original
(40)
Approved - A rule of construction in this Part that means the CAAB has reviewed the
method, procedure, or policy in question and issued a formal written approval.
(41)
Approved curriculum - A set of special training courses in an area of specialization

offered by an ATO which is approved by the CAAB.
(42)
Approved maintenance organisation (AMO) - An organisation approved by the CAAB,

in accordance with ANO Part 6, to perform specific aircraft maintenance activities by the
CAAB. These activities may include the inspection, overhaul, maintenance, repair and/or
modification and release to service of aircraft or aeronautical products.
(43)
Approved training - Training carried out under special curricula and supervision
approved by the CAAB.
(44)
Approved training organisation (ATO) - An organisation approved by the CAAB, in

accordance with ANO Part 3, to perform flight crew training and other training approved
by the CAAB.
(45)
Apron - A defined area, on a land aerodrome, intended to accommodate aircraft for

purposes of loading or unloading passengers, mail or cargo, fueling, parking or
maintenance.
(46)
Area navigation (RNAV) - A method of navigation that permits aircraft operations on any
desired flight path within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids or within the
limits of the capability of self-contained aids, or a combination of these.
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ANO Part-03
Note: Area navigation includes performance-based navigation as well as other operations

that do not meet the definitions of performance-based navigation.
(47)
ATS or ATC route - A specified route designed for channeling the flow of air traffic as
necessary for the provision of air traffic services, defined by route specifications that
include an ATS or ATC route designator, the track to or from significant points (way
points), distance between significant points, reporting requirements, and as determined
by the appropriate ATS or ATC CAAB, the lowest safe altitude.
Note: The term ATS or ATC route is used to mean variously, airway, advisory route,
controlled or uncontrolled route, arrival or departure route.
(48)
Issue: Original
Authorised instructor - A person who

(i)
Holds a valid ground instructor certificate issued under this Part when
conducting ground training;
(ii)
Holds a current flight instructor certificate issued under this Part when
conducting ground training or flight training; or
(iii)
Is authorised by the CAAB to provide ground training or flight training under any
other ANO.
(49)
Balloon - A non-power-driven lighter-than-air aircraft.
(50)
Banner - An advertising medium supported by a temporary framework attached

externally to the aircraft and towed behind the aircraft.
(51)
CAAB - The civil aviation authority responsible for the oversight of civil aviation in
Bangladesh.
(52)
Cabin crew member - A crew member who performs, in the interest of safety of
passengers, duties assigned by the operator or the pilot-in-command of the aircraft, but
who shall not act as a flight crew member.
(53)
Calendar day - The period of elapsed time, using Co-ordinated Universal Time or local
time that begins at midnight and ends 24-hours later in the next midnight.
(54)
Calendar month - A period of a month beginning and ending with the dates that are
conventionally accepted as marking the beginning and end of a numbered month (as
January 1 through January 31 in the Gregorian calendar).
(55)
Calendar year - A period of a year beginning and ending with the dates that are
conventionally accepted as marking the beginning and end of a numbered year (as
January 1 through December 31 in the Gregorian calendar).
(56)
Causes - As relating to an aircraft accident or incident, actions, omissions, events,

conditions, or a combination thereof which led to the accident or incident.
(57)
Ceiling (Cloud) - The height above the ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of
cloud below 6,000 meters (20,000 feet) covering more than half the sky.
(58)
Certificate of airworthiness - A certificate, issued by the State of registry, when the

aircraft has been deemed fit and safe for flight and in conformity with the type design
approved by the State of design and maintained in accordance with the continuing
airworthiness requirements of the State of Registry.
(59)
Change-over-point - The point at which an aircraft navigating on an ATC route segment

defined by reference to very high frequency omni-directional radio ranges is expected to
transfer its primary navigational references from the facility behind the aircraft to the next
facility ahead of the aircraft.
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Note: Change-over-points are established to provide the optimum balance in respect of

signal strength and quality between facilities at all levels to be used and to ensure a
common source of azimuth guidance for all aircraft operating along the same portion of a
route segment.
(60)
Check airman (aeroplane) - A person who is qualified, and permitted, to conduct an

evaluation in an aeroplane, in a flight simulation training device for a particular type
aeroplane, for a particular Certificate holder.
(61)
Check airman (simulator) - A person who is qualified to conduct an evaluation, but only
in a flight simulation training device for a particular type aircraft, for a particular Certificate
holder.
(62)
Chicago Convention - (Convention) The Convention on International Civil Aviation

concluded in Chicago, U.S.A. in 1944, in effect, 1947. The Articles of the Chicago
Convention govern the actions of the contracting States in matters of international civil
aviation safety directly and through the Annexes to the Convention, which set forth ICAO
Standards and Recommended Practices.
(63)
Citizen of Bangladesh - This term refers to one of the following:

(i)
An individual who is a citizen of Bangladesh;
(ii)
A partnership of which each member is a citizen of Bangladesh; or
(iii)
A corporation or association created or organized and authorised under the laws

of Bangladesh.
(64)
Civil aircraft - Any aircraft other than a state or public aircraft.
(65)
Clearance limit - The point to which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control clearance.
(66)
Commercial air transport operation - An aircraft operation involving the transport of

passengers, cargo or mail for remuneration or hire.
(67)
Competency - A combination of knowledge, skills and attitudes (KSA) required

performing a task to the prescribed standard.
(68)
Competency based training and assessment - Training and assessment that are
characterised by a performance orientation, emphasis on standards of performance and
their measurement, and the development of training to the specified performance
standards.
Note: This training process is derived from a job and task analysis and is focused on the
achievement of well-defined, benchmarked standards of performance as opposed to
training programmes simply focused upon the acquisition of prescribed levels of
experience.
Issue: Original
(69)
Competency element - An action that constitutes a task that has a triggering event and a
terminating event that clearly defines its limits, and an observable outcome.
(70)
Competency unit - A discrete function consisting of a number of competency elements.
(71)
Complex aeroplane - An aeroplane that has retractable landing gear, flaps, and a
controllable pitch propeller; or in the case of a seaplane, flaps and a controllable pitch
propeller.
(72)
Configuration (as applied to the aeroplane) - a particular combination of the positions of

the moveable elements, such as wing flaps and landing gear, etc., that affect the
aerodynamic characteristics of the aeroplane.
(73)
Configuration deviation list (CDL) - A list established by the organisation responsible

for the type design with the approval of the State of design which identifies any external
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ANO Part-03
parts of an aircraft type which may be missing at the commencement of a flight, and
which contains, where necessary, any information on associated operating limitations and
performance correction.
(74)
Congested area - A city town or settlement, or open air assembly of people.
(75)
Continuous descent final approach (CDFA) - A technique, consistent with stabilized

approach procedures, for flying the final approach segment of a non-precision instrument
approach procedures as a continuous descent, without level-off, from an altitude/height at
or above the final approach fix altitude/height to a point approximately 15 m (50 ft) above
the landing runway threshold or the point where the flare manoeuvre should begin for the
type of aircraft flown.
(76)
Contracting States - All States that are signatories to the Convention on International
Civil Aviation (Chicago Convention).
(77)
Control area - A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the
earth.
(78)
Controlled aerodrome - An aerodrome at which air traffic control service is provided to

aerodrome traffic.
(79)
Controlled airspace - An airspace of defined dimensions within which air traffic control
service is provided in accordance with the airspace classification.
Note: Controlled airspace is a generic term that covers ATC or ATS airspace Classes A,
B, C, D, and E as described in ICAO Annex 11: 2.6.
(80)
Controlled flight - Any flight which is subject to an air traffic control clearance.
(81)
Controlled flight into terrain (CFIT) - Occurs when an airworthy aircraft is flown, under
the control of a qualified pilot, into terrain (water or obstacles) with inadequate awareness
on the part of the pilot of the impending impact.
(82)
Control zone - A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to
a specified upper limit.
(83)
Conversion. Conversion is the action taken by Bangladesh in issuing its own licence on
the basis of a licence issued by another Contracting State for use on aircraft registered in
Bangladesh.
(84)
Co-pilot - A licenced pilot serving in any piloting capacity other than as pilot-in-command
but excluding a pilot who is on board the aircraft for the sole purpose of receiving flight
instruction.
Note: Co-pilot as here defined is synonymous with the term "second-in-command" or
"SIC."
Issue: Original
(85)
Corporate aviation operation - The non-commercial operation or use of aircraft by a

company for the carriage of passengers or goods as an aid to the conduct of company
business, flown by (a) professional pilot(s) employed to fly the aircraft.
(86)
Course - A programme of instruction to obtain an airman licence, rating, qualification,

authorisation, or currency.
(87)
Courseware - Instructional material developed for each course or curriculum, including

lesson plans, flight event descriptions, computer software programmes, audio-visual
programmes, workbooks, and handouts.
(88)
Credit - Recognition of alternative means or prior qualifications.
(89)
Crew member - A person assigned by an operator to duty on an aircraft during a flight

duty period.
November, 2016
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Issue: Original
ANO Part-03
(90)
Crew resource management - A programme designed to improve the safety of flight

operations by optimizing the safe, efficient, and effective use of human resources,
hardware, and information through improved crew communication and co-ordination.
(91)
Critical engine - The engine whose failure would most adversely affect the performance
or handling qualities of an aircraft.
(92)
Critical phases of flight - Those portions of operations involving taxiing, takeoff and
landing, and all flight operations below 10,000 feet, except cruise flight.
(93)
Cross country - A flight between a point of departure and a point of arrival following a
pre-planned route using standard navigation procedures.
(94)
Cross-country time - That time a pilot spends in flight in an aircraft which includes a
landing at a point other than the point of departure and, for the purpose of meeting the
cross-country time requirements for a private pilot licence (except with a rotorcraft rating),
commercial pilot licence, or an instrument rating, includes a landing at an aerodrome
which must be a straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the original
point of departure.
(95)
Current flight plan - The flight plan, including changes, if any, brought about by
subsequent clearances.
(96)
Curriculum - A set of courses in an area of specialization offered as part of a training

programme.
(97)
Danger area - An airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the
flight of the aircraft may exist at specified times.
(98)
Design landing mass - The maximum mass of the aircraft at which, for structural design
purposes, it is assumed that it will be planned to land
(99)
Design take-off mass - The maximum mass at which the aircraft, for structural design
purposes, is assumed to be planned to be at the start of the take-off run.
(100)
Design taxing mass - The maximum mass of the aircraft at which structural provision is
made for load liable to occur during use of the aircraft on the ground prior to the start of
take-off.
(101)
Designated Examiner - Any person designated by the CAAB to act as a representative

of the CAAB in examining, inspecting, and testing persons for the purposes of issuing
licences, ratings, or certificates.
(102)
Dual instruction time - Flight time during which a person is receiving flight instruction
from a properly authorised pilot on board the aircraft.
(103)
Duty - Any task that flight or cabin crew members are required by the operator to perform,
including for example, flight duty, administrative work, training, positioning and standby
when it is likely to induce fatigue.
(104)
Duty period - As related to an air operator, a period which starts when flight or cabin
crew personnel are required by an operator to report for or to commence a duty and ends
when that person is free from all duties.
(105)
Duty time - The total time from the moment a person identified in these ANOs begins,
immediately after a rest period, any work on behalf of the certificate holder until that
person is free from all restraint associated with that work.
(106)
Elevated heliport - A heliport located on a raised structure on land.
November, 2016
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(107)
ANO Part-03
Emergency locator transmitter (ELT) - A generic term describing equipment which

broadcast distinctive signals on designated frequencies and, depending on application,
may be automatically activated by impact or be manually activated. An ELT may be any
of the following:
(i)
Automatic fixed ELT - An automatically activated ELT which is permanently

attached to an aircraft.
(ii)
Automatic portable ELT - An automatically activated ELT which is rigidly attached

to an aircraft but readily removable from the aircraft
(iii)
Automatic deployable ELT (ELT (AD) - An ELT which is rigidly attached to an

aircraft and which is automatically deployed and activated by impact, and in
some cases, also be hydrostatic sensors. Manual deployment is also provided.
(iv)
Survival ELT - An ELT which is removable from an aircraft, stowed so as to

facilitate its ready use in an emergency, and manually activated by survivors.
(v)
ELT battery useful life - The length of time after its date of manufacture or
recharge that the battery or battery pack may be stored under normal
environmental conditions without losing its ability to allow the ELT to meet the
applicable performance standards.
(vi)
ELT battery expiration date - The date of battery manufactures or recharge plus
one half of its useful life.
(108)
Enhanced ground proximity warning (EGPWS) - A forward looking warning system

that uses the terrain data base for terrain avoidance.
(109)
Enhanced vision system (EVS). A system to display electronic real-time images of the
external scene achieved through the use of image sensors.
(110)
Error - As relates to the flight crew, an action or inaction by the flight crew that leads to
deviations from organizational or flight crew intentions or expectations.
(111)
Error management - The process of detecting and responding to errors with

countermeasures that reduce or eliminate the consequences of errors, and mitigate the
probability of errors or undesired aircraft state.
(112)
Estimated time of arrival - For IFR flights, the time at which it is estimated that the
aircraft will arrive over that designated point, defined by reference to navigation aids,
from which it is intended that approach procedure will be commenced, or if no
navigation aid is associated with the aerodrome, the time at which the aircraft will arrive
over the aerodrome. For visual flight rule (VFR) flights, the time at which it is estimated
that the aircraft will arrive over the aerodrome.
(113)
Examiner - Any person designated by the CAAB to act as a representative of the CAAB
in examining , inspecting, and testing persons and aircraft for the purpose of issuing
licences, ratings and certificates.
(114)
Expected approach time - The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft,
following a delay, will leave the holding point to complete its approach for a landing.
Note: The actual time of leaving the holding point will depend upon the approach
clearance.
(115)
Issue: Original
Extended diversion time operations (EDTO) - Any operation by an aeroplane with two
or more turbine engines where the diversion time to an en-route alternate aerodrome is
greater than the threshold time established by the State of the Operator.
November, 2016
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Issue: Original
ANO Part-03
(116)
Extended flight over water - A flight operated over water at a distance of more than
93km (50 NM), or 30 minutes at normal cruising speed, whichever is the lesser, away
from land suitable for making an emergency landing.
(117)
Extended overwater operation - With respect to aircraft other than helicopters, an

operation over water at a horizontal distance of more than 50 nm from the nearest
shoreline; and to helicopters, an operation over water at a horizontal distance of more
than 50 nm from the nearest shoreline and more than 50 nm from an offshore heliport
structure.
(118)
Fatal injury - As relates to an aircraft accident, any injury which results in death within 30
days of the accident.
(119)
Fatigue - A physiological state of reduced mental or physical performance capability

resulting from sleep loss or extended wakefulness, Circadian phase, or workload (mental
and/or physical activity) that can impair a crew members alertness and ability to safely
operate an aircraft or perform safety related duties.
(120)
Fatigue risk management system (FRMS) - A data-driven means of continuously

monitoring and managing fatigue-related safety risks, based upon scientific principles and
knowledge as well as operational experience that aims to ensure relevant personnel are
performing at adequate levels of alertness.
(121)
Filed flight plan - The flight plan as filed with an air traffic service unit by the pilot or
designated representative, without any subsequent changes.
(122)
Final approach segment (FAS) - The segment of an instrument approach procedures in

which alignment and descent for landing are accomplished.
(123)
Finding - A conclusion by audit personnel that demonstrates non-conformity with a

specific standard.
(124)
Fire resistant - The capability to withstand the application of heat by a flame for a period
of 5 minutes.
(125)
Fireproof - The capability to withstand the application of heat by a flame for a period of
15 minutes.
(126)
Flight crew member - A licenced crew member charged with duties essential to the
operation of an aircraft during flight time.
(127)
Flight data analysis - A process of analyzing recorded flight data in order to improve the
safety of flight operations.
(128)
Flight duty period - A period which commences when a flight or cabin crew member is
required to report for duty that includes a flight or a series of flights and which finishes
when the aeroplane finally comes to rest and the engines are shut down at the end of the
last flight on which he/she is a crew member.
(129)
Flight level - A surface of constant atmospheric pressure which is related to a specific

pressure datum, 1013.25 Hectopascal (hPa), and is separated from other surfaces by
specific pressure intervals.
(130)
Flight manual - A manual, associated with the certificate of airworthiness, containing

limitations within which the aircraft is to be considered airworthy, and instructions
information necessary to the flight crew members for the safe operation of the aircraft.
(131)
Flight operations officer/flight dispatcher - A person designated by the operator to

engage in the control and supervision of flight operations, whether licenced or not, suitably
qualified in accordance with licensing ANO, who supports, briefs and/or assists the pilotin-command in the safe conduct of the flight.
November, 2016
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ANO Part-03
(132)
Flight plan - Specified information provided to air traffic services units, relative to an
intended flight or portion of a flight of an aircraft.
(133)
Flight recorder - Any type of recorder installed in the aircraft for the purpose of
complementing accident/incident investigation.
Note: This could include the cockpit voice recorder (CVR) or flight data recorder (FDR).
(134)
(135)
Flight simulation training device - Any one of the following three types of apparatus in
which flight conditions are simulated on the ground:
(i)
A flight simulator, which provides an accurate representation of the flight deck of

a particular aircraft type to the extent that the mechanical, electrical, electronic,
etc. aircraft systems control functions, the normal environment of flight crew
members, and the performance and flight characteristics of that type of aircraft
are realistically simulated
(ii)
A flight procedures trainer, which provides a realistic flight deck environment, and
which simulates instrument responses, simple control functions of mechanical,
electrical ,electronic, etc., aircraft systems, and the performance and flight
characteristics of aircraft of a particular class.
(iii)
A basic instrument flight trainer, which is equipped with appropriate instruments

and which simulates the flight deck environment of an aircraft in flight in
instrument flight conditions.
Flight time - The period of time that the aircraft moves under its own power for the
purpose of flight and ends when the aircraft comes to rest after it is parked, with engine(s)
shut down if applicable.
Note: Flight time as here defined is synonymous with the term "block-to-block" time or
"chock-to-chock" time in general usage, which is measured from the time and aircraft
moves from the loading point until it stops at the unloading point.
Issue: Original
(136)
Flight time aeroplane - The total time from the moment an aeroplane first moves for
the purpose of taking off until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight.
(137)
Flight timehelicopter - The total time from the moment a helicopters rotor blades
start turning until the moment the helicopter finally comes to rest at the end of the flight,
and the rotor blades are stopped.
(138)
Flight training - Training, other than ground training, received from an authorised
instructor in flight in an aircraft.
(139)
Flight visibility - The visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight.
(140)
Foreign air operator - Any operator, not being a Bangladesh air operator, which
undertakes, whether directly or indirectly or by lease or any other arrangement, to engage
in commercial air transport operations within borders or airspace of Bangladesh, whether
on a scheduled or charter basis;
(141)
General aviation operation - An aircraft operation other than a commercial air transport
operation or aerial work operation.
(142)
Glider - A non-power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift in flight chiefly from
aerodynamic reactions on surfaces, which remain, fixed under given conditions of flight.
(143)
Ground handling - Services necessary for an aircrafts arrival at, and departure from, an
airport, other than air traffic services
(144)
Ground visibility - The visibility at an aerodrome, as reported by an accredited observer.
November, 2016
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(145)
Gyroplane - A heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight by the reactions of the air on

one or more rotors which rotate freely on substantially vertical axes.
(146)
Hazard - A condition or an object with the potential to cause injuries to personnel, damage
to equipment or structures, loss of material, or reduction of ability to perform a prescribed
function.
(147)
Heading - The direction, in which the longitudinal axis of an aircraft is pointed, usually
expressed in degrees from North (true, magnetic, compass or grid).
(148)
Head-up display (HUD) - A display system that presents flight information into the pilots
forward external field of view.
(149)
Heavier-than-air aircraft - Any aircraft deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic
forces.
(150)
Height - The vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered a point,

measured from a specified datum.
(151)
Helicopters - A heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight chiefly by the reactions of the

air on one or more power-driven rotors on substantially vertical axis.
(i)
Class 1 helicopter - A helicopter with performance such that, in case of critical

engine failure, it is able to land on the rejected takeoff area or safely continues
the flight to an appropriate landing area, depending on when the failure occurs.
(ii)
Class 2 helicopter - A helicopter with performance such that, in case of critical

engine failure, it is able to safely continue the flight, except when the failure
occurs prior to a defined point after takeoff or after a defined point before landing,
in which case a forced landing may be required.
(iii)
Class 3 helicopters - A helicopter with performance such that, in case of engine

failure at any point in the flight profile, a forced landing must be performed.
Helicopters:
(152)
(i)
Category A. With respect to helicopters, means a multi-engine helicopter

designed with engine and system isolation features specified in other ANOs
and capable of operations using take-off and landing data scheduled under a
critical engine failure concept which assures adequate designated surface area
and adequate performance capability for continued safe flight or safe rejected
take-off.
(ii)
Category B. With respect to helicopters, means a single-engine or multi-engine

helicopter which does not meet Category A standards. Category B helicopters
have no guaranteed capability to continue safe flight in the event of an engine
failure, and a forced landing is assumed.
(153)
Heli-deck - A heliport located on a floating or fixed offshore structure.
(154)
Heliport - An aerodrome or defined area on a structure intended to be used wholly or in

part for the arrival, departure, and surface movement of helicopters.
(155)
Housing - As it related to approved maintenance organisations (AMO) - buildings,

hangars, and other structures to accommodate the necessary equipment and materials of
a maintenance organisation that
(i)
Issue: Original
ANO Part-03
Provide working space for the performance of maintenance, preventive

maintenance, or modifications for which the maintenance organisation is
approved and rated; and
November, 2016
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Issue: Original
ANO Part-03
(ii)
Provide structures for the proper protection of aircraft, airframes, aircraft engines,
propellers, appliances, components, parts, and subassemblies thereof during
disassembly, cleaning, inspection, repair, modification, assembly, and testing;
and
(iii)
Provide for the proper storage, segregation, and protection of materials, parts,
and supplies.
(156)
Human factors principles - Principles which apply to aeronautical design, certification,

training, operations and maintenance and which seek safe interface between the human
and other system components by proper consideration to human performance.
(157)
Human performance - Human capabilities and limitations which have an impact on the
safety and efficiency of aeronautical operations.
(158)
ICAO - Where used in this ANO, this is an abbreviation for the International Civil Aviation
Organisation.
(159)
IFR flight - A flight conducted in accordance with the instrument flight rules.
(160)
Incident - An occurrence other than an accident, associated with the operation of an

aircraft, which affects or could affect the safety of operations.
(161)
Inspection - The examination of an aircraft or aeronautical product to establish

conformity with a standard approved by the CAAB.
(162)
Instrument approach procedure - A series of predetermined manoeuvres by reference

to flight instruments with specified protection from obstacles from the initial approach fix,
or where applicable, from the beginning of a defined arrival route to a point from which a
landing can be completed and thereafter, if a landing is not completed, to a position at
which holding or en-route obstacle clearance criteria apply.
(163)
Instrument flight time - Time during which a pilot is piloting an aircraft solely by
reference to instruments and without external reference points.
(164)
Instrument ground time - Time during which a pilot is practicing, on the ground,
simulated instrument flight in a flight simulation training device approved by CAAB.
(165)
Instrument meteorological conditions (IMC) - Meteorological conditions expressed in

terms of visibility, distance from cloud, and ceiling, less than the minima specified for
visual meteorological conditions.
(166)
Instrument time - Time in which cockpit instruments are used as the sole means for
navigation and control, which may be instrument flight time or instrument ground time.
(167)
Instrument training - Training which is received from an authorised instructor under

actual or simulated instrument meteorological conditions.
(168)
Interchange agreement - A leasing agreement which permits an air carrier to dry lease
and take or relinquish operational control of an aircraft at an airport.
(169)
Investigation - As relates to an aircraft accident or incident, a process conducted for the

purpose of accident prevention which includes the gathering and analysis of information,
the drawing of conclusions, including the determination of causes and, when appropriate,
the making of safety recommendations.
(170)
Investigator-in-charge - As relates to an aircraft accident or indent, a person charged,

on the basis of his or her qualifications, with the responsibility for the organisation,
conduct and control of an investigation.
(171)
Isolated aerodrome - A destination aerodrome for which there is no destination alternate

aerodrome suitable for a given aeroplane type.
November, 2016
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ANO Part-03
(172)
Journey log - A form signed by the PIC of each flight that records the aeroplanes
registration, crew member names and duty assignments, the type of flight, and the date,
place, and time of arrival and departure.
(173)
Knowledge test - A test on the aeronautical knowledge areas required for an airman
licence or rating that can be administered in written form or by a computer.
(174)
Landing distance available (LDA) - The length of runway which is declared available
and suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane landing.
(174)
Landing area - That part of a movement area intended for the landing or takeoff of an
aircraft.
(175)
Landing decision point - The point used in determining landing performance from
which, an engine failure occurring at this point, the landing may be safely continued or a
balked landing initiated.
(176)
Landing surface - That part of the surface of an aerodrome which the Authority has
declared available for the normal ground or water run of aircraft landing in a particular
direction.
(177)
Large aeroplane - An aeroplane having a maximum certified takeoff mass of 5,700 kg.
(12,500 lbs.), or more.
(178)
Licensing Authority - The Authority designated by a Contracting State that has

responsibility for the licensing of personnel.
(179)
Life limited part (LLP) - Any part for which a mandatory replacement limit is specified in
the type design, instructions for continued airworthiness, or the maintenance manual.
(180)
Lighter than-air aircraft - Any aircraft supported chiefly by its buoyancy in the air.
(181)
Line check - A check given to a pilot by a check pilot to evaluate the pilots operational
competency during line operating flight time in an aircraft type he/she is qualified to fly,
over a route and area in which the AOC is authorised to operate.
(182)
Long range over water flights - Routes on which an aeroplane may be over water and
at more than a distance corresponding to 120 minutes at cruising speed or 740 km (400
NM), whichever is the lesser, away from land suitable for making an emergency landing.
(183)
Maintenance control manual - A document that describes the operators procedures

necessary to ensure that all scheduled and unscheduled maintenance is performed on
the operators aircraft on time and in a controlled and satisfactory manner.
(184)
Maintenance programme - A document which describes the specific scheduled

maintenance tasks and their frequency of completion and related procedures, such as a
reliability programme, necessary for the safe operation of those aircraft to which it applies.
(185)
Maintenance release - A document which contains a certification confirming that the

maintenance work to which it relates has been completed in a satisfactory manner, either
in accordance with the approved data and the procedures described in the maintenance
organisations procedures manual or under an equivalent system.
(186)
Major alteration - Major alteration means an alteration not listed in the aircraft, aircraft
engine, or propeller specifications (1) that might appreciably affect weight, balance,
structural strength, performance, power plant, operations, flight characteristics, or other
qualities affecting airworthiness; or (2) that cannot be done by elementary operations.
November, 2016
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ANO Part-03
(187)
Major modification - In respect of an aeronautical product for which a Type certificate

has been issued, a change in the Type Design that has an appreciable effect, or other
than a negligible effect, on the mass and balance limits, structural strength, power plant
operation, flight characteristics, reliability, operational characteristics, or other
characteristics or qualities affecting the airworthiness or environmental characteristics of
an aeronautical product.
(188)
Major repair - Major repair means a repair: (1) that if improperly done might appreciably
affect weight, balance, structural strength, performance, power plant, operations, flight
characteristics, or other qualities affecting airworthiness; or (2) that is not done according
to accepted practices or cannot be done by elementary operations.
(189)
Manoeuvring area - That part of an aerodrome to be used for the takeoff, landing and
taxiing of aircraft, excluding aprons.
(190)
Master minimum equipment list (MMEL) - A list established for a particular aircraft type
by the organisation responsible for the type design with the approval of the State of
Design containing items, , one or more of which is permitted to be unserviceable at the
commencement of a flight. The MMEL may be associated with special operating
conditions, limitations or procedures. The MMEL provides the basis for development,
review, and approval by the CAAB of an individual operator's MEL.
(191)
Maximum diversion time - Maximum allowable range, expressed in time, from a point
on a route to an en-route alternate aerodrome
(192)
Medical assessment - The evidence issued by the CAAB that the licence holder meets
specific requirements of medical fitness.
(193)
Medical assessor - A physician, appointed by the Licensing CAAB, qualified and

experienced in the practice of aviation medicine and competent in evaluating and
assessing medical conditions of flight safety significance.
(194)
Medical certificate - The evidence issued by the CAAB that the licence holder meets
specific requirements of medical fitness. It is issued following an evaluation by the
Licensing CAAB.
(195)
Medical examiner - A physician with training in aviation medicine and practical

knowledge and experience of the aviation environment, who is designated by the
Licensing CAAB to conduct medical examinations of fitness of applicants for licences or
ratings for which medical requirements are prescribed.
(196)
Minimum descent altitude (MDA) or minimum descent height (MDH) - A specified

altitude or height in a non-precision approach or circling approach below which descent
must not be made without the required visual reference.
Note 1: Minimum descent altitude (MDA) is referenced to mean sea level and minimum
descent height (MDH) is referenced to the aerodrome elevation or to the threshold
elevation if that is more than 2 m (7 ft.) below the aerodrome elevation. A minimum
descent height for a circling approach is referenced to the aerodrome elevation.
Note 2: The required visual reference means that section of the visual aids or of the
approach area which should have been in view for sufficient time for the pilot to have
made an assessment of the aircraft position and rate of change of position, in relation to
the desired flight path. In the case of a circling approach the required visual reference is
the runway environment.
Note 3: For convenience when both expressions are used they may be written in the
form minimum descent altitude/height and abbreviated MDA/H.
Issue: Original
November, 2016
Page 16 of 295
ANO Part-03
(197)
Minimum equipment list (MEL) - A list approved by the CAAB which provides for the
operation of aircraft, subject to specified conditions, with particular equipment inoperative,
prepared by an operator in conformity with, or more restrictive than, the Master Minimum
Equipment List established for the aircraft type.
(198)
Modification - The alteration of an aircraft/aeronautical product in conformity with an

approved standard.
(199)
Navigation specification - A set of aircraft and flight crew requirements needed to

support performance-based navigation operations within a defined airspace. There are
two kinds of navigation specifications:
(i)
Required navigation performance (RNP) specification. A navigation specification

based on area navigation that includes the requirement for performance
monitoring and alerting, designated by the prefix RNP, e.g. RNP 4, RNP APCH.
(ii)
Area navigational (RNAV) specification. A navigation specification based on

area navigation that does not include the requirement for performance
monitoring and alerting, designated by the prefix RNAV, e.g. RNAV 5, RNAV
(200)
Night - The hours between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning
civil twilight or such other period between sunset and sunrise. Civil twilight ends in the
evening when the centre of the sun's disc is 6 degrees below the horizon and begins in
the morning when the centre of the sun's disc is 6 degrees below the horizon.
(201)
Obstacle clearance altitude (OCA) or obstacle clearance height (OCH) - The lowest
altitude or the lowest height above the elevation of the relevant runway threshold or the
aerodrome elevation as applicable, using in establishing compliance with appropriate
obstacle clearance criteria.
Note 1: Obstacle clearance altitude is referenced to mean sea level and obstacle
clearance height is referenced to the threshold elevation or in the case of non-precision
approaches to the aerodrome elevation or the threshold elevation if that is more than 2 m
(7 ft.) below the aerodrome elevation. An obstacle clearance height for a circling
approach is referenced to the aerodrome elevation.
Note 2: For convenience when both expressions are used they may be written in the
form obstacle clearance altitude/height and abbreviated OCA/H.
(202)
Operating base - The location from which operational control is exercised.

Note: An operating base is normally the location where personnel involved in the
operation of the aeroplane work and the records associated with the operation are
located. An operating base has a degree of permanency beyond that of a regular point of
call.
(203)
Operational control - To exercise control over the initiation, continuation, diversion or

termination of a flight in the interest of the safety of the aircraft and the regularity and
efficiency of the flight.
(204)
Operational flight plan - The operator's plan for the safe conduct of the flight based on
considerations of aircraft performance, other operating limitations, and relevant expected
conditions on the route to be followed and at the aerodromes or heliports concerned.
(205)
Operational personnel - Personnel involved in aviation activities who are in a position to

report safety information.
Note. Such personnel include, but are not limited to: flight crews; air traffic controllers;
aeronautical station operators; maintenance technicians; personnel of aircraft design and
manufacturing organisations; cabin crews; flight dispatchers; apron personnel; and,
ground handling personnel.
Issue: Original
November, 2016
Page 17 of 295
(206)
ANO Part-03
Operations specifications (or Training specifications) - The authorisations, conditions

and limitations associated with the air operator certificate or other certificate and subject
to the conditions in the operations manual (or TPM of an ATO).
Note: The operations specifications are part of an operators certificate (air operator
certificate, approved training organisation certificate, approved maintenance organisation
certificate, etc.) that is used to administer safety standards and define the provisions and
limitations within which the operator may conduct business operations. Operations
specifications are issued by the CAAB and considered a legal, contractual agreement
between the CAAB and the operator.
Issue: Original
(207)
Operator - A person, organisation or enterprise engaged in or offering to engage in an

aircraft operation (ICAO). Any person who causes or authorizes the operation of an
aircraft, such as the owner, lessee, or bailey of an aircraft.
(208)
Overhauled - Describes an airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, or component

part using methods, techniques, and practices acceptable to the CAAB, which has
undergone the following:
(i)
Has been disassembled, cleaned, inspected, repaired when necessary, and

reassembled to the extent possible.
(ii)
Has been tested in accordance with approved standards and technical data, or
current standards and technical data acceptable to the CAAB (i.e.,
manufacturers data), which have been developed and documented by the
holder of one of the following:
(A)
Type certificate (TC),
(B)
Supplemental type certificate (STC), or article accepted by the CAAB or

parts manufacturing authority (PMA).
(209)
Passenger aircraft - An aircraft that carries any person other than a crew member, an
operators employee in an official capacity, an authorised representative of an appropriate
national CAAB or a person accompanying a consignment or other cargo.
(210)
Passenger exit seats - Those seats having direct access to an exit, and those seats in a
row of seats through which passengers would have to pass to gain access to an exit, from
the first seat inboard of the exit to the first aisle inboard of the exit. A passenger seat
having "direct access" means a seat from which a passenger can proceed directly to the
exit without entering an aisle or passing around an obstruction.
(211)
Performance criteria - A simple, evaluative statement on the required outcome of the

competency element and a description of the criteria used to judge if the required level of
performance has been achieved.
(212)
Pilot in command (PIC) - The pilot responsible for the operation and safety of the aircraft
during flight time. The pilot designated by the operator, or in the case of general aviation,
the owner, as being in command and charged with the safe conduct of the flight.
(213)
Pilot in command (PIC) under supervision - Co-pilot performing, under the supervision
of the PIC, the duties and functions of a PIC, provided that the method of supervision
employed is acceptable to the Licensing Authority
(214)
Pilot time - That time a person

(i)
Serves as a required pilot;
(ii)
Receives training from an authorised instructor in an aircraft, or an approved

flight simulation training device; or
November, 2016
Page 18 of 295
(iii)
Issue: Original
ANO Part-03
Gives training as an authorised instructor in an aircraft, or an approved flight

simulation training device.
(215)
Pilot (to) - To manipulate the flight controls of an aircraft during flight time.
(216)
Policy - A document containing a position or stance regarding a specific issue.
(217)
Pre-flight inspection - The inspection carried out before flight to insure that the aircraft is
fit for the intended flight.
(218)
Pressure-altitude - An atmospheric pressure expressed in terms of altitude which

corresponds to that pressure in the Standard Atmosphere.
(219)
Pressurized aircraft - For airman-licensing purposes, means an aircraft that has a

service ceiling or maximum operating altitude, whichever is lower, above 25,000 feet
MSL.
(220)
Primary standard - A standard defined and maintained by a State Authority and used to
calibrate secondary standards.
(221)
Problematic use of substances - The use of one or more psychoactive substances by

aviation personnel in a way that:
(i)
Constitutes a direct hazard to the user or endangers the lives, health or welfare
of others; and/or
(ii)
Causes or worsens an occupational, social, mental or physical problem or

disorder.
(222)
Procedure - A way of documenting a process.
(223)
Process - A set of interrelated or interacted activities which transforms inputs into

outputs.
(224)
Proficiency check - A competency test by a licence holder on the areas of operations

contained in the skill test for a particular licence, certificate, rating, or authorisation that is
conducted by an authorised representative of the Authority.
(225)
Prohibited area - An airspace of defined dimensions, above the land areas or territorial
waters of a State, within which the flight of aircraft is prohibited.
(226)
Psychoactive substances - Alcohol, opiods, cannabinoids, sedatives and hypnotics,

cocaine, other psych stimulants, hallucinogens, and volatile solvents, whereas coffee and
tobacco are excluded.
(227)
Qualification-based training - Training designed to ensure that graduates demonstrate

the necessary minimum skill, knowledge and experience levels to meet the qualification
requirements of the licence, rating or privilege.
(228)
Quality - The totality of features and characteristics of a product or service that bear on
its ability to satisfy stated or implied needs.
(229)
Quality assurance - Quality assurance, as distinguished from quality control, involves

activities in the business, systems, and technical audit areas. A set of predetermined,
systematic actions which are required to provide adequate confidence that a product or
service satisfies quality requirements.
(230)
Quality assurance (as related to ATO) - All the planned and systematic actions
necessary to provide adequate confidence that all training activities satisfy given
standards and requirements, including the ones specified by the approved training
organisation in relevant manuals.
November, 2016
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Issue: Original
ANO Part-03
(231)
Quality audit - A systematic and independent examination to determine whether quality

activities and related results comply with planned arrangements and whether these
arrangements are implemented effectively and are suitable to achieve objectives.
(232)
Quality control - The regulatory inspection process through which actual performance is
compared with standards, such as the maintenance of standards of manufactured
aeronautical products, and any difference is acted upon.
(233)
Quality inspection - That part of quality management involving quality control. In other
words, inspections accomplished to observe events/actions/documents, etc., in order to
verify whether established operational procedures and requirements are fulfilled during
the accomplishment of the event or action, and whether the required standard is
achieved. Student stage checks and skill tests are quality inspections, and they are also
quality control functions.
(234)
Quality management - A management approach focused on the means to achieve

product or service quality objectives through the use of its four key components: quality
planning; quality control; quality assurance; and quality improvement.
(235)
Quality manager - The manager responsible for the monitoring function and for
requesting remedial action. In an ATO, the Quality Manager is responsible directly to the
Head of Training.
(236)
Quality manual - The document containing the relevant information pertaining to the
approved training organisations quality assurance system.
(237)
Quality system - Documented organizational procedures and policies; internal audit of

those policies procedures; management review and recommendation for quality
improvements.
(238)
Radiotelephony - A form of radio communication primarily intended for the exchange of

information in the form of speech.
(239)
Rating - An authorisation entered on or associated with a licence or certificate and

forming part thereof, stating special conditions, privileges or limitations pertaining to such
licence or certificate.
(240)
Re-issue of a licence, rating, authorisation or certificate - The administrative action

taken after a licence, rating, authorisation or certificate has lapsed that re-issues the
privileges of the licence, rating, authorisation or certificate for a further specified period
consequent upon the fulfillment of specified requirements.
(241)
Rendering (a certificate of airworthiness) valid - The action taken by CAAB, as an

alternative to issuing its own Certificate of Airworthiness, in accepting a Certificate of
Airworthiness issued by any other Contracting State as the equivalent of its own
Certificate of Airworthiness.
(242)
Renewal of licence, rating, authorisation or certificate - The administrative action

taken within the period of validity of a licence, rating, authorisation or certificate that
allows the holder to continue to exercise the privileges of a licence, rating, authorisation
or certificate for a further specified period consequent upon the fulfillment of specified
requirements.
(243)
Repetitive flight plan (RPL) - A flight plan related to a series of frequently recurring,
regularly operated individual flights with identical basic features, submitted by an operator
for retention and repetitive use by ATC units.
(244)
Reporting point - A specified geographical location in relation to which the position of the
aircraft can be reported.
November, 2016
Page 20 of 295
(245)
Rest period - A continuous and defined period of time, subsequent to and/or prior to
duty, during which flight or cabin crew members are free of all duties.
(246)
Restricted area - An airspace of defined dimensions, above the land areas or territorial
waters of a State, within which the flight of aircraft is restricted in accordance with certain
specified conditions.
(247)
Rotorcraft - A power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight by the reactions of

the air on one or more rotors.
(248)
Route sector - A flight comprising take off, departure, cruise of not less than 15 minutes,
arrival, approach and landing phases.
(249)
Runway - A defined rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and
takeoff of aircraft.
(250)
Runway-holding position - A designated position intended to protect a runway, an

obstacle limitation surface, or an ILS/MLS critical/sensitive area at which taxiing aircraft
and vehicles shall stop and hold, unless otherwise authorised by the aerodrome control
tower.
(251)
Runway visual range (RVR) - The range over which the pilot of an aircraft on the Centre
line of a runway can see the runway surface markings or the lights delineating the runway
or identifying its Centre line.
(252)
Safety - The State in which risks associated with aviation activities, related to, or in direct
support of the operations of aircraft, are reduced and controlled to an acceptable level.
(253)
Safety management system (SMS) - A systematic approach to managing safety,

including the necessary organizational structures, accountabilities, policies and
procedures.
(254)
Safety performance - A State or service providers safety achievement as defined by its

safety performance targets and safety performance indicators.
(255)
Safety performance indicator - A data-based parameter used for monitoring and

assessing performance.
(256)
Safety performance target - The planned or intended objective for safety performance
indicator(s) over a given period.
(257)
Safety programme - An integrated set of regulations and activities aimed at

improving safety.
(258)
Safety recommendation - A proposal of the accident investigation CAAB of the State

conducting the investigation, based on information derived from the investigation made
with the intention of preventing accidents or incidents.
(259)
Safety risk - The predicted probability and severity of the consequences or outcomes of
a hazard.
(260)
Satellite aviation training organisation - An aviation training organisation at a location

other than the aviation training organisations principal place of business or operations
base.
(261)
Serious incident - An incident involving circumstances indicated that an accident nearly

occurred.
(262)
Serious injury - An injury which is sustained by a person in an accident and which:

(i)
Issue: Original
ANO Part-03
Requires hospitalization for more than 48 hours, commencing within seven days
from the date the injury was received;
November, 2016
Page 21 of 295
Issue: Original
ANO Part-03
(ii)
Results in a fracture of any bone (except simple fractures of fingers, toes or

nose); or
(iii)
Involves lacerations which cause severe hemorrhage, nerve, muscle or tendon

damage; or
(iv)
Involves injury to any internal organ; or
(v)
Involves second or third degree burns, or any burns affecting more than 5% of
the body surface; or
(vi)
Involves verified exposure to infectious substances or injurious radiation.
(263)
Signature - An individuals unique identification used as a means of authenticating a

record entry or record. A signature may be hand-written, electronic, or any other form
acceptable to the CAAB.
(264)
Significant - In the context of the medical provisions in ANO Part 2, significant means to
a degree or of a nature that is likely to jeopardize flight safety.
(265)
Skill test - A competency test on the areas of operations for a licence, certificate, rating,
or authorisation that is conducted by having the applicant respond to questions and
demonstrate manoeuvres in flight, or in an approved flight simulation training device, or in
a combination of these.
(266)
Small aeroplane - An aeroplane having a maximum certified takeoff mass of less than
5,700 kg. (12,500 lbs.).
(267)
Solo flight - Flight time during which a pilot is the sole occupant of the aircraft, or that
flight time during which the student acts as a PIC of a gas balloon or an airship requiring
more than one flight crewmember.
(268)
Special curricula - A closely supervised, systematic and continuous course of training,

conforming to a planned syllabus or curriculum, and conducted in an approved training
organisation.
(269)
Special flight authorization - An authorization issued by the CAAB to operate a foreign

registered aircraft that do not have a current airworthiness certificate, or an equivalent to
a Bangladesh airworthiness certificate, that indicates that the aircraft complies with a
detailed and comprehensive airworthiness code as provided by Annex 8 to the
Convention on International Civil Aviation.
(270)
Special VFR flight - A VFR flight cleared by air traffic control to operate within a control
zone in meteorological conditions below VMC.
(271)
Specific operating provisions - The Specific Operating Provisions describe the ratings
(Class and/or Limited) in detail and will contain or reference material and process
specifications used in performing repair work, along with any limitations applied to the
maintenance organisation. The Accountable manager and the CAAB sign this document.
(272)
Standard - An act, object, artifact, tool, test equipment, system, or experiment that stores,
embodies, or otherwise provides a physical quantity, which serves as the basis for
measurement of the quantity. It also includes a document describing the operations and
process that must be performed in order for a particular end to be achieved.
(273)
State of design - The State having jurisdiction over the organisation responsible for the
type design.
(274)
State of manufacture - The State having jurisdiction over the organisation responsible
for the final assembly of the aircraft.
(275)
State of occurrence - The State in the territory of which an accident or incident occurs.
November, 2016
Page 22 of 295
ANO Part-03
(276)
State of origin - As relating to dangerous goods, the State in which dangerous goods
were first loaded on an aircraft.
(277)
State of registry - The State on whose register an aircraft is entered.

Note: In the case of the registration of aircraft of an international operating agency on
other than a national basis the States constituting the agency are jointly and severally
bound to assume the obligations which, under the Chicago Convention, attached to a
State of Registry. See, in this regard the Council Resolution of 14 December 1967 on
Nationality and Registration of Aircraft Operated by International Operating Agencies
which can be found in Policy and Guidance Material on the Economic Regulation of
International Air Transport (Doc 9587).
(278)
State of the operator - The State in which the operators principal place of business is
located, or, if there is no such place of business, the operators permanent residence.
(279)
State safety programme - An integrated set of regulations and activities aimed at

improving safety.
(280)
Substantial damage - Damage or failure which adversely affects the structural strength,
performance, or flight characteristics of the aircraft, and which would normally require
major repair or replacement of the affected component. Engine failure or damage limited
to an engine if only one engine fails or is damaged, bent fairings or cowling, dented skin,
small punctured holes in the skin or fabric, ground damage to rotor or propeller blades,
and damage to landing gear, wheels, tires, flaps, engine accessories, brakes, or wingtips
are not considered "substantial damage" for the purpose of this substantial damage
relating to an aircraft accident.
(281)
Syllabus (training) - The detailed summary or outline describing the main points of a
course.
(282)
Takeoff decision point - The point used in determining takeoff performance of a Class 1
helicopter from which, an engine failure occurring at this point, either a rejected takeoff
may be made or a takeoff safely continued.
(283)
Takeoff surface - The parts of the surface of an aerodrome which the aerodrome
authority has declared available for the normal ground or water run of aircraft taking off in
a particular direction.
(284)
Target level of safety (TLS) - A generic term representing the level of risk which is
considered acceptable in particular circumstances.
(285)
Taxiing - Movement of an aircraft on the surface of an aerodrome under its own power,
excluding takeoff and landing.
(286)
Taxiway - A defined path on a land aerodrome established for the taxiing of aircraft and
intended to provide a link between one part of the aerodrome and another, including:
(287)
Issue: Original
(i)
Aircraft stand taxi lane. A portion of an apron designated as a taxiway and

intended to provide access to aircraft stands only.
(ii)
Apron taxiway. A portion of a taxiway system located on an apron and intended

to provide a through taxi route across the apron.
(iii)
Rapid exit taxiway. A taxiway connected to a runway at an acute angle and

designed to allow landing aeroplanes to turn off at higher speeds than are
achieved on other exit taxiways thereby minimizing runway occupancy times.
Technical log - A document carried on an aircraft that contains information to meet ICAO
requirements; a technical log contains two independent sections: a journey record section
and an aircraft maintenance record section.
November, 2016
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Issue: Original
ANO Part-03
(288)
Terminal control area - A control area normally established at the confluence of ATC
routes in the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes.
(289)
Terrain awareness warning system (TAWS) - A system that provides the flight crew
with sufficient information and alerting to detect a potentially hazardous terrain situation
and so the flight crew may take effective action to prevent a controlled flight into terrain
(CFIT) event.
(290)
Threat - As relating to flight, events or errors that occur beyond the influence of the flight
crew, increase operational complexity and which must be managed to maintain the
margin of safety.
(291)
Threat management - The process of detecting and responding to the threats with
countermeasures that reduce or eliminate the consequences of threats, and mitigate the
probability of errors or undesired aircraft.
(291)
Total estimated elapsed time - For IFR flights, the estimated time required from takeoff
to arrive over that designated point, defined by reference to navigation aids, from which it
is intended that an instrument approach procedure will be commenced, or, if no
navigation aid is associated with the destination aerodrome, to arrive over the destination
aerodrome. For VFR flights, the estimated time required from takeoff to arrive over the
destination aerodrome.
(292)
Track - The projection on the earths surface of the path of an aircraft, the direction of
which path at any point is usually expressed in degrees from North (true, magnetic or
grid).
(293)
Traffic information - Information issued by an air traffic services unit to alert a pilot to
other known or observed air traffic which may be in proximity to the position or intended
route of flight and to help the pilot avoid a collision.
(294)
Training and procedures manual - A manual containing procedures, instructions and

guidance for use by personnel of an approved training organisation in the execution of
their duties in meeting the requirements of the certificate. It may be a combined manual
or separated into a training manual and a procedures manual.
(i)
Training manual. A manual containing the training goals, objectives, standards,

syllabi, and curriculum for each phase of the approved training course.
(ii)
Procedures manual. A manual containing procedures, instructions and guidance

for use by personnel of the ATO in the execution of their duties in meeting the
requirements of the certificate.
(295)
Training programme - Programme that consists of courses, courseware, facilities, flight

training equipment, and personnel necessary to accomplish a specific training objective.
It shall include a core curriculum or a specialty curriculum.
(296)
Training time - The time spent receiving from an authorised instructor flight training,
ground training, or simulated flight training in an approved flight simulation training device.
(297)
Training to proficiency - The process of the check airmen/flight instructors administering

each prescribed manoeuvre and procedure to a pilot as necessary until it is performed
successfully during the training period.
(298)
Transition altitude - The altitude at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is
expressed by reference to altitudes with altimeter set to QNH.
(299)
Type certificate - A document issued by a Contracting State to define the design of an

aircraft type and to certify that this design meets the appropriate airworthiness
requirements of that State.
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(300)
Unit load device (ULD) - Any type of freight container, aircraft container, aircraft pallet
with a net, or aircraft pallet with a net over an igloo.
(301)
Validation - The action taken by Bangladesh as an alternative to issuing its own licence,
in accepting a licence issued by another contracting State as the equivalent of its own
licence for use on aircraft registered in Bangladesh.
(302)
VFR flight - A flight conducted in accordance with the visual flight rules.
(303)
Visibility - Visibility for aeronautical purposes is the greater of:
(304)
(i)
The greatest distance at which a black object of suitable dimensions, situated

near the ground, can be seen and recognised when observed against a bright
background;
(ii)
The greatest distance at which lights in the vicinity of 1,000 candelas can be
seen and identified against an unlit background.
Visual meteorological conditions - Meteorological conditions expressed in terms of

visibility, distance from cloud, and ceiling, equal to or better than specified minima.
Note: The specified minima are contained in other ANOs.
(305)
3.1.3
Wet lease - The lease of an aircraft with crew and other back-up.
Abbreviations
The following abbreviations are used in this Part:
(1)
Aeroplane
(2)
AIP
Aeronautical Information Publication
(3)
AMA
Aviation Medical Assessor
(4)
AME
Aviation Maintenance Engineer
(5)
AS
Airship
(6)
ATCO
Air Traffic Controller
(7)
ATO
Approved Training Organization
(8)
ATPL
Airline Transport Pilot License
(9)
Balloon
(10)
CAT I
Category I
(11)
CAT II Category II
(12)
CAT III Category III
(13)
CFI
Chief Flight Instructor
(14)
CGI
Chief Ground Instructor
(15)
CPL
Commercial Pilot License
(16)
CRM
Crew Resource Management
(17)
DAME Designated Aviation Medical Examiner
(18)
DCA
(19)
DFOOE Designated Flight Operations Officer Examiner
(20)
DME
Designated Mechanic Examiner
(21)
DPE
Designated Pilot Examiner
Issue: Original
Designated Check Airman
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(22)
FI
Flight Instructor
(23)
FOO
Flight Operations Officer
(24)
Glider
(25)
DI
Ground Instructor
(26)
Helicopter
(27)
HT
Head of Training
(28)
IA
Inspection Authorisation
(29)
ICAO
International Civil Aviation Organization
(30)
IFR
Instrument Flight Rules
(31)
ILS
Instrument Landing System
(32)
MEL
Minimum Equipment List
(33)
MMEL Master Minimum Equipment List
(34)
MPA
Multi-Pilot Aeroplane
(35)
MPH
Multi-Pilot Helicopter
(36)
MPL
Multi-crew Pilot License
(36)
NOTAM Notice to Airmen
(37)
PIC
Pilot-in-Command
(38)
PL
Powered-Lift
(39)
PPL
Private Pilot License
(40)
RT
Radiotelephony
(41)
SFE
Simulator Flight (FSTD) Examiner
(42)
SFI
Simulator Flight (FSTD) Instructor
(43)
SPA
Single-Pilot Aeroplane
(44)
SPH
Single-Pilot Helicopter
(45)
STS
Skills Test Standards
(46)
VFR
Visual Flight Rules
(47)
UTC
Universal Co-ordinated Time
(48)
VFR
Visual Flight Rules
(49)
VHF
Very High Frequency
(50)
VMC
Minimum Control Speed with the Critical Engine Inoperative
(51)
VMO
Maximum Operating Limit Speed (Kt)
(52)
VOR
Very High Frequency Omni range
(53)
VX
Best Angle of Climb (ht vs dist)
(54)
VY
Best Rate of Climb (ht vs time)
(55)
VYSE
Single Engine Best Rate of Climb
(56)
Wx
Weather
Issue: Original
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3.2
CERTIFICATION OF A TRAINING ORGANISATION AND CONTINUED VALIDITY
3.2.1
Applicability
(a)
3.2.2
General
(a)
3.2.3
This subpart prescribes the requirements for the certification of a training organisation and
continued validity of the certificate.
The CAAB may approve an ATO to provide the following:
(1)
Any training activity that leads toward the issuance of a licence, rating, authorisation
or approval.
(2)
Provision of training services necessary for an operator to meet the requirements of

other relevant ANOs.
(3)
Special curricula training designed to meet:

(i)
Qualification-based training requirements, including those deemed

acceptable through the approval of an alternate means of compliance
mechanism, or
(ii)
Competency based training and assessment requirements, or
(iii)
Those training requirements deemed acceptable through the approval of an

alternative means of compliance mechanism.
(b)
No person may operate as a certificated ATO without, or in violation of, an approved training
organisation certificate and training specifications issued under this Part.
(c)
The ATO shall display the ATO certificate in a place accessible to the public in the principal place
of business and the training centre of the ATO.
(d)
The certificate and training specifications issued to an approved training organisation shall be
available on the premises for inspection by the public and the CAAB.
(e)
The approval of a training organisation shall be dependent upon the applicant demonstrating
compliance with the requirements of this Part.
Approved Training Organisation Certificate

(a)
The ATO certificate will consist of two documents

(1)
A one-page certificate signed by the CAAB; and
(2)
A multi-page training specifications signed by the CAAB that contains the terms,
conditions, and authorisations.
(b)
An ATO shall perform training, checking, and testing, or part thereof, only for which it is rated and
within the terms, conditions, and authorisations placed in its training specifications.
(c)
The ATO certificate will contain the following items and be in a format as shown in current
guidance
Issue: Original
(1)
The certificate number specifically assigned to the ATO;
(2)
The name and location (principal place of business) of the ATO;
(3)
The date of issue and period of validity;
(4)
Terms of approval relating to the courses to be taught; and
(5)
CAAB signature.
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Note: Sample of ATO certificate can be found in Attachment 10-01

(d)
The training specifications will contain the following

(1)
The certificate number specifically assigned to the ATO;
(2)
The type of training authorized, including approved courses;
(3)
Authorisations for the ATO; including special approvals and limitations;
(4)
The name and address of any satellite training centers, and the approved training
offered at each location;
(5)
The facilities and equipment required to conduct the training authorized;
(6)
The staff required to perform the applicable duties under this Part;
(7)
Accountable Manager and CAAB signatures;
(8)
The date issued or revised; and
(9)
Other items the CAAB may require or allow.
Note: Sample of training specifications can be found in Attachment 10-02

3.2.4
3.2.5
Advertising
(a)
No training organisation may advertise as a certificated approved training organisation until an

approved training organisation certificate has been issued to that facility.
(b)
No certificated approved training organisation may make any statement, either in writing or orally,
about itself that is false or is designed to mislead any person.
(c)
Whenever the advertising of an approved training organisation indicates that it is certificated, the
advertisement must clearly state the approved training organisations certificate number.
Application for an ATO Certificate

(a)
The initial application for the intention to establish an Approved Training Organisation (ATO) and
the formal application shall be made in a form and in a manner acceptable to the CAAB.
(b)
Each application must be made at least 180 calendar days before the beginning of any proposed
training or 90 days before effecting an amendment to any approved training, unless a short filing
period is approved by the CAAB.
(c)
Each applicant shall provide
Issue: Original
(1)
A statement showing that the minimum qualification requirements for each

management position are met or exceeded;
(2)
A statement acknowledging that the applicant shall notify the CAAB within 10 working
days of any change made in the assignment of persons in the required management
positions;
(3)
The proposed training authorisations and training specifications requested by the

applicant;
(4)
The proposed location of each training facility and any satellite facility location, the
proposed courses to be taught at each location, and the equipment at each location
including FSTDs, training aircraft and any aerodromes or sites to be used;
(5)
Two copies of its proposed Training and Procedures manual;
(6)
Two copies of each proposed training course curriculum, including syllabi, outlines,
courseware, procedures, and documentation to support the curriculum for which approval
is sought;
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(7)
Documentation of the training organisations quality assurance and quality system;
(8)
A statement of the maximum number of students it expects to teach at any one time;
(9)
Documentation of the training organisations Safety Management System;
(10)
A statement of compliance to all applicable ANOs for the proposed training, including
pertinent subparts and each relevant subpart of the regulation, which should be
identified and accompanied by a brief description.
(11)
Any additional information the CAAB requires the applicant to submit.

Note: Process of certification is in Attachment- 9
3.2.6
Issuance of an ATO Certificate

(a)
3.2.7
Meets the applicable regulations and standards for an ATO certificate, and
(2)
Is properly and adequately equipped for the performance of the training for which it
seeks approval.
A certificate issued to an ATO, located either inside or outside Bangladesh shall, be effective from
the date of issue until
(1)
The 12th month after the date on which it was initially issued, subject to satisfactory
compliance with the requirements of this Part; or
(2)
The ATO surrenders the certificate, or
(3)
The CAAB suspends or revokes the certificate.
(b)
The holder of a certificate that expires or is surrendered, suspended, or revoked by the CAAB must
return the certificate and training specifications to the CAAB within 5 working days of expiration,
surrender or receipt from the CAAB of notice of suspension or revocation.
(c)
A certificated ATO that applies for a renewal of its certificate must submit its request for renewal no
later than 60 days before the current certificate expires. If a request for renewal is not made within
this period, the ATO must follow the application procedures for initial issuance as prescribed in this
Part.
Continued Validity of Approval

(a)
3.2.9
(1)
Duration and Renewal of ATO Certificate

(a)
3.2.8
An applicant may be issued an ATO certificate if, after investigation, the CAAB finds that the
applicant
Unless the approval has previously been surrendered, superseded, suspended, revoked or
expired by virtue of exceeding any expiration date that may be specified in the approval certificate,
the continued validity of approval is dependent upon
(1)
The ATO remaining in compliance with this Part;
(2)
CAAB being granted access to the organisations facilities to determine continued

compliance with this regulation; and
(3)
The payment of any charges prescribed by the CAAB.
Inspection
(a)
The CAAB may, at any time, inspect an ATO holder on the ATO holders premises to determine
the ATOs compliance with this Part.
(b)
Inspections will be conducted at least once annually.
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(c)
After an inspection is made, the certificate holder will be notified, in writing, of any deficiencies
found during the inspection.
(d)
Inspection will also be performed on the applicant for, or the holder of, an ATO certificate held
outside Bangladesh. This inspection may be delegated to the CAA where the ATO is located,
provided an arrangement exists.
Note: CAAB inspection/audit checklist is in the Appendix-E
3.2.10 Suspension or Revocation

(a)
The CAAB may suspend or revoke an ATO certificate if it is established that a certificate holder
has not met, or no longer meets the requirements of this Part including non-compliance of the
Training Specification.
3.2.11 Changes to the ATO and Certificate Amendments

(a)
(b)
(c)
To enable the CAAB to determine continued compliance with this Part, the ATO shall provide
written notification to the CAAB for approval at least 60 days prior to any of the following
changes
(1)
The name of the organisation;
(2)
The location of the organisation;
(3)
The facilities, equipment or staff that could affect the ATO certification or ratings;
(4)
Any ratings held by the ATO, whether granted by the CAAB or held through an ATO
certification issued by another contracting State;
(5)
Additional locations of the organisation;
(6)
Items in the Training and Procedures Manual, including the syllabi and curricula;
(7)
The accountable manager; or
(8)
The list of management personnel identified in the Training and Procedures Manual.
The CAAB will amend the ATO certificate if the ATO notifies the CAAB of a change in
(1)
Location or facilities or equipment;
(2)
Additional locations of the organisation;
(3)
Rating, including deletions;
(4)
Items in the Training and Procedures Manual, including the syllabi and curricula;
(5)
Name of the organisation with same ownership; or
(6)
Ownership.
The CAAB may amend the ATO certificate if the ATO notifies the CAAB of a change in
(1)
The Accountable manager;
(2)
The list of management personnel identified as described in the Training and

Procedures Manual; or
(3)
Items in the Training and Procedures Manual, including the syllabi and curricula.
(d)
When the CAAB issues an amendment to an ATO certificate because of new ownership of the
ATO, the CAAB will assign a new certificate number to the amended ATO certificate.
(e)
The CAAB may

(1)
Issue: Original
Prescribe, in writing, the conditions under which the ATO may continue to operate
during any period of implementation of the changes noted in subparagraph (a); and
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(2)
(f)
ANO Part-03
Hold the ATO certificate in abeyance if the CAAB determines that approval of the
ATO certificate should be delayed; the CAAB will notify the ATO certificate holder, in
writing, of the reasons for any such delay.
If changes are made by the ATO to the items listed in subparagraph (a) without notification to the
CAAB and amendment of the ATO certificate by the CAAB, the ATO certificate may be suspended,
or revoked, by the CAAB.
3.2.12 Location of the ATO

(a)
Principal place of business. An applicant for, or holder of, a certificated ATO under this ANO shall
establish and maintain a principal place of business office that is physically located at the address
shown on its certificate.
(b)
Operations Base. The holder of an ATO certificate may conduct training in accordance with a
training programme approved by the CAAB at an operations base of ATO if:
(c)
(1)
The facilities, equipment, personnel and course content of operations base meet the
applicable requirements; and
(2)
The instructors and the operations at the operations base are under the direct supervision
of management personnel of the ATO, and
(3)
The CAAB has issued training specifications to the ATO that reflect the name and
address of the operations base and the approved courses offered at the operations base.
Foreign locations of ATOs. An ATO or a satellite of an ATO approved by the CAAB may be
located in a country outside Bangladesh and is subject to all the applicable requirements of this
Part.
3.2.13 Facilities, Equipment and Material General Requirements

(a)
The facilities and working environment of the ATO shall be appropriate for the task to be performed
and acceptable to the CAAB.
(b)
The ATO shall have the necessary information, technical data, equipment, training devices and
material to conduct the courses for which it is approved.
(c)
Any training devices used by the ATO shall be qualified according to requirements established by
the CAAB and their use shall be approved by the CAAB to ensure they are appropriate to the task.
(d)
A certificate holder shall not make a substantial change in facilities, equipment or material that
have been approved for a particular training programme, unless that change is approved in
advance by the CAAB.
(e)
The facility that is the ATO principal place of business

(1)
Shall not be shared with, or used by, another ATO, and
(2)
Shall be adequate to maintain the files and records required to operate the business of
the ATO.
3.2.14 Personnel General Requirements

(a)
The ATO shall nominate a person responsible for ensuring that it is in compliance with the
requirements for an approved organisation.
(b)
The ATO shall employ the necessary personnel to plan, perform and supervise the training to be
conducted.
(c)
The competence of instructional personnel shall be in accordance with procedures and to a level
acceptable to the CAAB.
Issue: Original
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(d)
ANO Part-03
The ATO shall ensure that all instructional personnel receive initial and recurrent training
appropriate to their assigned tasks and responsibilities. The training programme established by
the ATO shall include training in knowledge and skills related to human performance.
(1)
The training programme for ATO employees shall be contained in the ATO Training
and Procedures Manual.
Note: Requirements, Privileges and Limitations for Instructors of ATOs in Appendix-F
3.2.15 Recordkeeping General Requirements

(a)
(b)
Student records.
(1)
The ATO shall retain detailed student records to show that all requirements of the
training course have been met as approved by the CAAB.
(2)
These records shall be kept for a minimum period of two years after completion of the
training.
ATO staff records.

(1)
The ATO shall maintain a system for recording the qualifications and training of
instructional and examining staff, where appropriate.
(2)
These records shall be kept for a minimum period of two years after the instructor or
examiner ceases to perform a function for the ATO.
3.2.16 ATO Approved for Testing

(a)
The CAAB may approve an ATO to conduct the testing required for the issuance of a licence or
rating.
3.2.17 Quality Assurance and Quality System

(a)
Quality assurance system. The ATO shall establish a quality assurance system, acceptable to the
CAAB, which ensures that training and instructional practices comply with all relevant
requirements.
(b)
The ATO shall establish a quality system, acceptable to the CAAB, to ensure that training and
instructional practices comply with all relevant requirements.
(c)
The ATO quality assurance and quality system shall be established in accordance with the
instruction and information contained in the Appendix-B.
3.2.18 ATO Training and Procedures Manual General Requirements

(a)
Issue: Original
The ATO shall provide a training and procedures manual, approved by the CAAB, for the use and
guidance of personnel concerned. This manual may be issued in separate parts and shall contain
at least the following information:
(1)
A general description of the scope of training authorized under the ATOs terms of
approval;
(2)
The content of the training programmes offered including the courseware and
equipment to be used;
(3)
A description of the organisations quality assurance system;
(4)
A description of the organisations facilities;
(5)
The name, duties and qualification of the person designated as the Accountable
manager;
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(6)
A description of the duties and qualification of the personnel responsible for planning,
performing and supervising the training;
(7)
A description of the procedures used to establish and maintain the competence of

instructional personnel;
(8)
A description of the method used for the completion and retention of the training records;
(9)
A description, when applicable, of additional training needed to comply with an

operators procedures and requirements; and
(10)
A description of the selection, role and duties of authorized persons approved to conduct
testing for a licence or rating, when an ATO has been approved by the CAAB to conduct
such testing.
(b)
The ATO shall ensure that the training and procedures manual is amended as necessary to keep
the information contained therein up to date.
(c)
The ATO shall promptly furnish copies of all amendments to the training and procedures manual to
the CAAB and other personnel and organisations to which the manual has been issued.
3.2.19 Duty Period Limitations

(a)
A person who holds a flight instructor certificate shall not conduct more than 5 hours of flight
training and a student pilot more than 4 hours in any 24 consecutive hour period. (Appendix-F)
(b)
A flight simulation training device instructor (SFI), excluding briefing and debriefing, shall not
conduct more than 8 hours of instruction and the students shall not receive more than 4 hours
training in a simulator (FSTD) in any 24 consecutive-hours period.
(c)
A student in an ATO may not be required to attend classes of instruction more than 6 hours in any
day or more than 5 days in a week or more than 30 hours in any 7 day period.
3.2.20 ATO Safety Management System

(a)
An ATO that is exposed to safety risks during the provision of its services shall implement a safety
management system acceptable to the CAAB.
3.2.21 Outsourcing to Third-Party Providers

(a)
The ATO may outsource courseware, facilities and equipment and instructional personnel to a
third-party, provided that the other ATO has been approved by the CAAB --
(b)
(1)
For the training that it to be conducted, and
(2)
To contract with third-party to be used.
The ATO shall be accountable for the quality of third-party providers, including suitability of
courseware, facilities and equipment and instructional personnel, used to meet the ATO approved
programmes.
3.3
REQUIREMENTS FOR INSTRUCTION FOR FLIGHT CREW LICENCES
3.3.1
General
(a)
3.3.2
This subpart prescribes requirements for ATOs teaching flight crew curricula.
CURRICULUM APPROVAL
3.3.2.1 Flight Crew Training Courses

(a)
Issue: Original
The CAAB may approve, as provided in the training specifications, to conduct the following
courses of instruction to an applicant for, or holder of an ATO certificate, provided the applicant
meets the requirements of this Part:
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3.3.2.2
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(1)
Private pilot licence course;
(2)
Commercial pilot licence course;
(3)
Instrument rating course;
(4)
Commercial pilot licence/Instrument rating/multi-engine/Flight Instructor Rating/Cabin

Crew/CRM integrated course;
(5)
Multi-crew pilot licence course;
(6)
Class rating course;
(7)
Type rating course;
(8)
Crew resource management course;
(9)
Flight instructor course;
(10)
Instructor course for additional type or class ratings;
(11)
Instructor course for flight simulation training; and
(12)
Validation and Conversion courses.
Additional Courses
(a)
(b)
In addition, an ATO may be given approval for the following courses:

(1)
Cabin crew basic course;
(2)
Aviation English language proficiency course;
(3)
Refresher courses;
(4)
Other courses as the CAAB may approve.
ATO shall develop training programme for each of the training courses and shall form part of the
TPM.
3.3.2.3 Training Course Approval Qualification Based and Alternate Means of Compliance
(a)
The applicant for, or holder of, an ATO certificate shall apply to the CAAB for approval for each
course to be offered or amended.
(1)
The applicant or ATO shall submit a copy of the training course or amendment to the
CAAB as part of the application when applying for new or amended training course
approval at least 60 days before the scheduled commencement date of the course.
(2)
The applicant or ATO shall submit the application to the CAAB at least 30 days before
any training under the course is scheduled to begin.
(b)
Except as provided in this subpart, each training course for which approval is requested must meet
the minimum ground and flight training time requirements specified in Appendix-G for the licence,
rating or authorisation sought.
(c)
Each training course for which approval is requested must contain:
Issue: Original
(1)
A description of each room used for ground training, including the room size and the
maximum number of students that may be trained in the room at one time;
(2)
A description of each type of audiovisual aid, projector, tape recorder, mockup, chart,
aircraft component, and other special training aids used for ground training;
(3)
A description of each flight simulation training device used for training;
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(4)
A listing of the aerodromes at which training flights originate and a description of the
facilities, including pilot briefing areas that are available for use by the ATO's students
and personnel at each of those aerodromes;
(5)
A description of the type of aircraft including any special equipment used for each
phase of training;
(6)
The minimum qualifications and ratings for each instructor assigned to ground or flight
training; and
(7)
A training syllabus that includes the following information

(i)
The prerequisites for enrolling in the ground and flight portion of the course
that include the pilot certificate and rating (if required by this Part), training,
pilot experience, and pilot knowledge;
(ii)
A detailed description of each lesson, including the lesson's objectives,

standards for ground and flight training, and planned time for completion;
(iii)
A description of what the course is expected to accomplish with regard to

student learning;
(iv)
The expected accomplishments and the standards for each stage of training;
and
(v)
A description of the checks and tests to be used to measure a student's

accomplishments for each stage of training.
3.3.2.4 Training Course ApprovalAlternative Means of Compliance and Competency Based Training and
Assessment
(a)
An ATO may request and receive initial approval for a period of not more than 24 calendar months
for any training course under this Part that does not meet the minimum ground and/or flight training
time experience requirements, provided that:
(1)
The ATO shows that the training will provide an equivalent level of competency at
least equal to the minimum experience requirements for personnel not receiving such
training, and
(2)
The following provisions are met:
(b)
Issue: Original
(i)
The ATO holds an ATO certificate issued under this Part and has held that
certificate for a period of at least 24 consecutive calendar months preceding
the month of the request;
(ii)
In addition to the information required by 3.3.2.3(c) of this subpart, the

training course specifies planned ground and flight training time
requirements for the course;
(iii)
The school does not request the training course to be approved for
examining authority, nor may that school hold examining authority for that
course; and
(iv)
The knowledge test and/or skill test for the course is to be given by
(A)
A CAAB inspector; or
(B)
An examiner who is not an employee of the school.
An ATO may request and receive final approval for any training course under this Part
that does not meet the minimum ground and flight training time requirements, provided
the following conditions are met:
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(1)
The ATO has held initial approval for that training course for at least 24
calendar months.
(2)
The ATO has

(i)
Trained at least 10 students in that training course within the

preceding 24 calendar months and recommended those students
for a pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate or rating;
and
(ii)
At least 80 percent of those students passed the skill or knowledge

test, as appropriate, on the first attempt, and that test was given
by
(A)
(B)
An examiner who is not an employee of the school.
(3)
In addition to the information required by 3.3.2.3 (c) of this subpart, the

training course specifies planned ground and flight training time
requirements for the course.
(4)
The ATO does not request that the training course be approved for
examining authority nor may that school hold examining authority for that
course.
PERSONNEL
(a)
The applicant for an ATO certificate or a current certificate holder teaching flight crew curricula
shall have on the staff the following personnel who shall be approved by CAAB
(1)
An Accountable Manager;
(2)
A Quality Manager (Quality system);
(3)
A Head of Training;
(4)
A Chief Flight Instructor (CFI), as applicable;
(5)
A Chief Ground Instructor (CGI), as applicable;
(6)
An Engineering Manager;
(7)
A Safety Manager (SMS); and
(8)
An adequate number of ground and flight instructors relevant to the courses provided.
Note 1: Only the key position holders may exercise the authority of signing documents/letters.
Note 2: Serial 2 to 7 shall be interviewed by CAAB to determine their suitability before being
approved.
Note 3: One person may hold two key positions simultaneously as provided in Attachment-7
Note 4: The ATO shall inform CAAB within 15 days after a key position holder leaves the company
with the plan for replacement.
(b)
The Head of Training shall have overall responsibility for ensuring satisfactory integration of flying
training, flight simulation training and theoretical knowledge instruction and for supervising the
progress of individual students. He/She shall have had extensive experience in training as a flight
instructor for professional pilot licences and possess a sound managerial capability.
(c)
The CFI shall be responsible for the supervision of flight and synthetic flight instructors and for the
standardization of all flight instruction and synthetic flight instruction. He/She shall:
Issue: Original
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(d)
3.3.4
ANO Part-03
(1)
Hold the highest professional pilot licence related to the flying training courses
conducted;
(2)
Hold the rating(s) related to the flying training courses conducted;
(3)
Hold a flight instructor rating for at least one of the types of aircraft used on the course;
and
(4)
Have completed 1,000 hours pilot-in-command flight time of which a minimum of 500
hours shall be on flying instructional duties related to the flying courses conducted, of
which 200 hours may be instrument ground time.
Flight instructors shall hold-(1)
A pilot licence and rating(s) in accordance with licensing ANO (Part 2) related to the
flying training courses they are approved to conduct; and
(2)
An instructor rating or authorisation in accordance with this Part, relevant to the part of the
course being conducted e.g. flight instructor, flight instrument rating instructor, instructor
for additional class or type rating(s), instructor for flight simulation training, as appropriate.
(e)
Instructors for flight simulation training shall hold the authorisation in accordance with this Part,
related to the flight simulation training courses they are appointed to conduct as per Appendix-G.
(f)
The Chief Ground Instructor shall -(1)
Be responsible for the supervision of all ground instructors and for the standardization
of all theoretical knowledge instruction; and
(2)
Shall have a practical background in aviation and have the appropriate ground
instructor authorization in accordance with this Part or Licensing ANO.
(g)
Ground instructors shall be responsible for conducting ground training in subject areas required for
a licence or rating. Ground instructors shall hold a authorizations issued by CAAB in accordance
with Appendix-F, depending upon the subject matter to be taught.
(h)
Each instructor to be used for training shall have received the appropriate training and hold the
appropriate licences and/or ratings as required by Appendix-F.
(i)
Safety Pilot should

(1)
At least be holder of PPL;
(2)
Have flown from RHS as per TPM (TPM shall have a Trg Program)
(3)
The Safety Pilot must be briefed on his duties. These duties include the following:
(i)
Physically intervening on the controls before a manoeuvre or procedure

deteriorates to an unsafe level;
(ii)
Ensuring overall safety of the flight to whatever extent necessary; and
(iii)
Ensuring safety in whatever manner would be effective if a particular

manoeuvre cannot be executed safely.
FACILITIES REQUIRED FOR FLIGHT CREW TRAINING
3.3.4.1 Training Facilities

(a)
An applicant for, and holder of an ATO certificate teaching flight crew curricula shall have facilities,
as determined by the CAAB, appropriate for the maximum number of students expected to be
taught at any time, as follows:
(1)
Issue: Original
Flight operations facilities:
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(2)
ANO Part-03
(i)
An operations room
(ii)
A flight planning room
(iii)
Adequate briefing rooms;
(iv)
Offices for the instructors;
(v)
Rest area for students.
Knowledge instruction facilities, including

(i)
Classroom accommodation;
(ii)
Suitable demonstration equipment;
(iii)
An RT training and testing facility;
(iv)
A library;
(v)
Offices for instructors.
(vi)
Rest area for students.
3.3.4.2 Training Aircraft

(a)
An applicant for, or holder of, an ATO certificate shall have minimum of 2 air-worthy aircraft and
must ensure that each aircraft used for flight instruction and solo flights meets the following
requirements:
(1)
Except for flight instruction and solo flights in a curriculum for agricultural aircraft
operations, external load operations, and similar aerial work operations, the aircraft
must have a Bangladesh standard airworthiness certificate or a foreign equivalent of a
Bangladesh standard airworthiness certificate acceptable to the CAAB.
(2)
The aircraft must be maintained and inspected in accordance with AW ANOs and an
1approved maintenance programme.
(3)
The aircraft must be equipped as provided in the training specifications for the
approved course for which it is used.
(4)
Except as provided in (5) below, each aircraft used in flight training must have at least
two pilot stations with engine-power controls that can be easily reached and operated
in a normal manner form both pilot stations;
(5)
Airplanes with controls such as nose-wheel steering, switches, fuel selectors, and
engine air flow controls that are not easily reached and operated in a conventional
manner by both pilots may be used for flight instruction if the certificate holder
determines that the flight instruction can be conducted in a safe manner considering
the location of controls and their non-conventional operation, or both.
(6)
Each aircraft used in a course involving instrument flight rule en route operations and
instrument approaches must be equipped and maintained for instrument flight rule
operations. For maneuvering of an aircraft by reference to instruments, the aircraft
may be equipped as provided in the approved course of training.
(7)
Each aircraft used for flight training shall be insured for each seat occupants with
terms and conditions acceptable to CAAB
3.3.4.3 Flight Simulation Training Devices

(a)
Issue: Original
An applicant for, or holder of an ATO certificate, approved to use flight simulation training devices
FSTD, shall show that each flight simulation training device used for training and checking will be
or is specifically qualified and approved by the CAAB as per ANO Ops A-7( A) for:
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(b)
ANO Part-03
(1)
Each maneuver and procedures for the make, model and series of aircraft, set of
aircraft, or aircraft type simulated, as applicable; and
(2)
Each training programme or training course in which the flight simulation training device
is used.
Each qualified and approved flight simulation training devices used by an ATO must:
(1)
Be maintained to ensure the reliability of the performances, functions, and all other
characteristics that were required for their qualification;
(2)
Be modified to confirm with any modification to the aircraft being simulated if the
modification results in changes to performance, functions, or other characteristics
required for qualification;
(3)
Be given a functional preflight check each day before being used; and
(4)
Have a discrepancy log in which the instructor or evaluator, at the end of each training
session, enters each discrepancy.
3.3.4.4 Aerodromes and Sites

(a)
Each applicant for, and holder of, an ATO certificate shall show that it has continuous use of each
aerodrome and site (for helicopter training) at which training flights originate, and that the
aerodrome has an adequate runway and the necessary equipment.
(b)
The base aerodrome, and any operations base aerodrome, at which flying training is being
conducted shall have at one runway or take-off area that allows training aircraft to make a normal
take-off or landing at the maximum certificated take-off or maximum certificated landing mass,
under the following conditions:
(c)
(1)
Under calm wind (not more than four knots) conditions;
(2)
At temperatures equal to the mean high temperature for the hottest month of the year
in the operating area;
(3)
If applicable, with the power plant operation, and landing gear and flap operation
recommended by the manufacturer; and
(4)
In the case of a takeoff

(i)
Clearing all obstacles in the take-off flight path by at least 50 feet;
(ii)
With a smooth transition from lift-off to the best rate of climb speed without
exceptional piloting skills or techniques.
Each airport must have a wind direction indicator that is visible at ground level from the ends of
each runway;
(1)
Have adequate runway electrical lighting if used for night training; and
(2)
Have a traffic direction indicator when:

(i)
The airport does not have an operating control tower; and
(ii)
Traffic and wind advisories are not available.
(d)
Except as specified in item (e) below, each airport used for night training flights must have
permanent runway lights.
(e)
An airport or seaplane base used for night training flights in seaplanes may be approved by the
CAAB to use adequate, non-permanent lighting or shoreline lighting.
(e)
Sites shall be available for:

(1)
Issue: Original
Confined area operation training;

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3.3.5
ANO Part-03
(2)
Simulated engine off autorotation;
(3)
Sloping ground operation.
ADDITIONAL, SPECIFIC OPERATING RULES FOR FLIGHT CREW TRAINING
3.3.5.1 Training and Procedures Manual

(a)
Each applicant for, or holder of an ATO certificate shall prepare and maintain a Training Manual
and a Procedures Manual containing information and instructions to enable staff to perform their
duties and to give guidance to students on how to comply with course requirements.
(b)
The Training Manual and Procedures Manual may be combined.
(c)
The ATO shall ensure that the Training Manual and the Procedures Manual are amended as
necessary to keep the information contained therein up to date.
(d)
Copies of all amendments to the Training Manual and the Procedures Manual shall be furnished
promptly by the ATO to all organisations or persons to whom the manual has been issued.
(e)
Detailed requirements for the Training Manual and the Procedures Manual and format for each
manual can be found in Appendix-A.
3.3.5.2 Record Keeping for Flight Crew Training

(a)
Students. An ATO that is approved to conduct flight crew training shall maintain a record for each
trainee that contains
(1)
The name of the trainee;
(2)
A copy of the trainees airman certificate, if any, and any medical certificate;
(3)
The name of the course and the make and model of flight training equipment used;
(4)
The trainees prerequisite experience and course time completed;
(5)
The trainees performance on each lesson and the name of the instructor providing
instruction;
(6)
The date and result of each end-of-course skill test and the name of the examiner
conducting the test; and
(7)
The number of hours of additional training that was accomplished after any
unsatisfactory skill test.
(b)
ATO staff. An ATO that is approved to conduct flight crew training shall maintain a record for each
instructor approved to instruct a course approval in accordance with this subpart, that indicates the
instructor has complied with all applicable instructor requirements of these regulations.
(c)
Record retention. An ATO shall keep all records for a minimum period of two years.
(d)
(e)
Issue: Original
(1)
For students, from the date of completion of training, testing or checking;
(2)
For ATO staff, from the date of the last employment.
The ATO shall make the records available to the CAAB upon request and at a reasonable time
and shall keep the records
(1)
For students, at the ATO or ATO operations base, satellite base, where the training,
testing, or checking occurred, and
(2)
For ATO staff, at the ATO or ATO operations base or satellite base, where the
is employed.
person
The ATO shall provide to a trainee, upon request, and at a reasonable time, a copy of his or her
training records.
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3.3.5.3 Graduation Certificate

(a)
An ATO shall issue a graduation certificate to each student who completes its approved course of
training.
(b)
The graduation certificate must be issued to the student upon completion of the course of training
and contain at least the following information;
(1)
The name and certificate number of the ATO;
(2)
The name of the graduate to whom it was issued;
(3)
The course of training for which it was issued;
(4)
The date of graduation;
(5)
A statement that the student has satisfactorily completed each required stage of the
approved course of training including the tests for those stages;
(6)
A certification of the information contained on the graduation certificate by the chief

instructors (CFI & CGI) for that course of training; and a statement showing the crosscountry training that the student received in the course of training.
3.3.5.4 Examining Authority for ATOs Teaching Flight Crew Curriculums

(a)
An ATO shall meet the following prerequisites to receive initial approval for examining authority:
(1)
The ATO must complete the application for examining authority on a form and in a
manner prescribed by the CAAB;
(2)
The ATO must hold an ATO certificate and rating issued under this Part;
(3)
The ATO must have held the rating in which examining authority is sought for at least
24 consecutive calendar months preceding the month of application for examining
authority;
(4)
The training course for which examining authority is requested may not be a course
that is approved without meeting the minimum ground and flight training time
requirements of this Part; and
(5)
Within 24 calendar months before the date of application for examining authority, at
least 90 percent of the students in the ATO must have passed the required skill or
knowledge test, or any combination thereof, for the licence or rating for which
examining authority is sought, on the first attempt, and that test was given by
(i)
(ii)
A designated examiner who is not an employee of the ATO.
(b)
The examining authority of the ATO is valid for 24 months, unless suspended or revoked by the
CAAB, and may be renewed upon request to the CAAB by the ATO.
(c)
An ATO that holds examining authority may recommend a person who graduated from its course
for the appropriate knowledge or skill test.
(d)
The ATO that holds examining authority will administer the tests or checks as required by other
ANOs, as appropriate to the licence or rating sought.
(e)
A pilot school that holds examining authority must maintain

(1)
A record of all temporary airman licences or ratings it issues, which consist of the
following information in chronological order:
(i)
Issue: Original
The date the temporary airman licence was issued;
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ANO Part-03
(ii)
The student to whom the temporary airman certificate was issued, and that
student's permanent mailing address and telephone number;
(iii)
The training course from which the student graduated;
(iv)
The name of person who conducted the knowledge or practical test;
(v)
The type of temporary airman licence or rating issued to the student; and
(vi)
The date the student's airman application file was sent to the CAAB for
processing for a permanent airman licence.
(f)
A copy of the record containing each student's graduation certificate, airman application,
temporary airman licence, superseded airman licence (if applicable), and knowledge test or skill
test results; and
(g)
Retain these records for 2 years and make them available to the CAAB upon request. These
records must be surrendered to the CAAB when the ATO ceases to have examining authority.
3.3.5.5 Student Transfer of Credit between ATOs Teaching a Flight Crew Curriculum
(a)
A person who transfers from one ATO to another ATO may receive credit for that previous flight
crew training provided the following requirements are met:
(1)
The maximum credited training time does not exceed one-half of the receiving ATOs
curriculum requirements;
(2)
The person completes a knowledge and proficiency test conducted by the receiving
ATO for the purpose of determining the amount of experience and knowledge to be
credited;
(3)
The receiving ATO determines, based on the person's performance on the knowledge
and proficiency test required by paragraph (a)(2) of this subpart, the amount of credit
to be awarded, and records that credit in the person's training record;
(4)
The person who requests credit for previous experience and knowledge obtained the
experience and knowledge from another ATO approved training course; and
(5)
The receiving ATO retains a copy of the person's training record from the previous
ATO.
3.3.5.6 Inspections of the ATO to Teaching Flight Crew Curricula

(a)
Each ATO shall allow the CAAB to inspect the ATO facilities, equipment and records at any
reasonable time and in any reasonable place in order to determine compliance with these
regulations and the ATOs certificate and training specifications.
Note: CAAB audit he checklist is given in Appendix-E.
3.3.6
DESIGNATED PILOT EXAMINERS
3.3.6.1 General
(a)
The CAAB may designate private individuals to act as representatives of the Chairman in
examining, inspecting, and testing persons and aircraft for the purpose of issuing airmen and
aircraft licences, ratings, authorizations and certificates.
(b)
The requirements for each type of designated examiner are contained in this Part.
Issue: Original
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(c)
ANO Part-03
The CAAB will issue each designated examiner a certificate of designated authority and a
designee identification card specifying the kinds of designation for which the individual is qualified
and the duration of the designation.
3.3.6.2 General Requirements and Skill Test

(a)
Age. An applicant for a designated pilot examiner shall be at least 21 years of age.
(b)
Medical. An applicant for a designated pilot examiner shall have a Class 1 medical certificate.
(c)
General eligibility. An applicant for a designated pilot examiner shall:

(1)
Hold at least the licence and/or class/type ratings as applicable for which examining
authority is sought;
(2)
Hold at least the flight instructor ratings for which examining authority is sought or be
serving in a comparable position as an air operator check airman or check pilot or
comparable position in an Approved Training Organisation;
(3)
Have a reputation for integrity and dependability in the industry and the community;
(4)
Have a good record as a pilot and flight instructor in regard to accidents, incidents,
and violations; and
(5)
Have pilot and instructor licence/ratings that have never been revoked for falsification
or forgery.
(d)
Knowledge: The applicant for a designated pilot examiner shall pass a pre-designation
knowledge test in the areas appropriate to the category of aircraft for which designation is sought.
(e)
Skill test. The applicant for a designated pilot examiner shall pass a skill test conducted by an
inspector of the CAAB who holds a current and valid licence with appropriate category, and if
applicable, class and type ratings.
(f)
Maintaining currency. After designation, a designated pilot examiner shall maintain currency
by:
(1)
Attending initial and recurrent training provided by the CAAB, and
(2)
Maintain a current and valid:

(iv)
Pilot licence, and if applicable, class/type ratings appropriate to the designation;
(v)
Flight instructor licence and ratings applicable to the designation; and
(vi)
Class I medical certificate.
(g)
Privileges. Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this Part, the privileges of
the examiners designation are to conduct skill tests and proficiency checks for a licence and
rating(s) as listed on the designated pilot examiners certificate of designation and identification
card.
(h)
Validity. Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this Part, the validity period
of an examiners designation is 2 years.
(i)
Renewal.
(j)
Issue: Original
(1)
Renewal will be at the discretion of the CAAB.
(2)
An applicant for renewal shall pass the appropriate skill test on the areas of operation
listed in the STS.
Additional designations. When the CAAB deems it necessary for a designated pilot
examiner to receive additional designations, the designated pilot examiner:
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ANO Part-03
(1)
Shall meet all the requirements in this Part for the designation;
(2)
Need not take an additional knowledge test provided the designation is within the
same aircraft category.
3.3.6.3 Experience Requirements for Private Pilot Examiner (PPE)

(a)
Experience: PPE Aeroplane Category. The applicant shall have at least:

(1)
A CPL (A), appropriate class rating(s) and in IR (A);
(2)
A valid flight instructor licence with an aeroplane category and appropriate class
rating(s).
(3)
2,000 hours as PIC which includes at least:
(4)
(b)
(vii)
1,000 hours in aeroplanes, of which 300 hours were accrued within the past
year;
(viii)
300 hours in the class of aeroplane for which the designation is sought; and
(ix)
100 hours in aeroplanes at night.\
500 hours as a flight instructor in aeroplane which includes at least 100 hours of flight
instruction given in the class of aeroplane appropriate to the designation sought.
Experience: PPEHelicopter Category. The applicant shall have at least:

(1)
A CPL (H), appropriate class rating(s).
(2)
A valid flight instructor licence with a helicopter category and appropriate class
rating(s).
(3)
(4)
(i)
500 hours in helicopters, of which 100 hours were accrued within the past
year; and
(ii)
250 hours in helicopters as appropriate for the designation sought.
200 hours as a flight instructor in helicopters, as appropriate for the designation sought.
3.3.6.4 Experience Requirements for Commercial and Instrument Rating Pilot Examiner (CIRE)
(a)
Experience: CIREAeroplane Category. The examiner applicant shall have at least:

(1)
A commercial pilot licence with an aeroplane category rating, appropriate class

rating(s) and an Instrument Aeroplane rating.
(2)
A valid flight instructor certificate with an aeroplane category rating, the appropriate
class rating(s) and an Instrument-Aeroplane rating.
(3)

(i)
1,000 hours in aeroplanes, of which 300 hours were accrued within the past
year;
(ii)
500 hours in the class of aeroplane for which the designation is sought;
(iii)
100 hours at night in aeroplanes;
(iv)
100 hours of instrument flight time in actual or simulated conditions; and
(v)
For authority to conduct skill tests in large or turbine-powered aeroplanes

(A)
Issue: Original
300 hours in large or turbine-powered aeroplanes, of which 50 hours

are in the type of aeroplane for which designation is sought, and
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(B)
(4)
(b)
25 hours for each additional type of large aeroplane for which

designation is sought;
500 hours as a flight instructor in aeroplanes which include at least:

(i)
100 hours of flight instruction given in the class of aeroplane applicable to

the designation sought; and
(ii)
250 hours of instrument flight instruction, of which 200 hours were given in
aeroplanes.
Experience: CIREHelicopter Category. The examiner applicant shall have at least:

(1)
A commercial pilot licence with a helicopter category rating, appropriate class

and an Instrument Helicopter rating.
(2)
A valid flight instructor certificate with a helicopter category rating, the appropriate
class rating(s) and an Instrument-Helicopter rating.
(3)
(4)
rating(s)
(i)
500 hours in helicopters, of which 100 hours were accrued within the past
year.
(ii)
100 hours of instrument flight time in actual or simulated conditions.
(iii)

(C)
100 hours in large helicopters, of which 50 hours are in the type of

helicopter for which designation is sought; and
(D)
25 hours for each additional type of large helicopter for which

designation is sought.
250 hours as a flight instructor in helicopters, which include at least

(i)
100 hours of flight instruction given in the helicopters; and
(ii)
50 hours of instrument flight instruction in helicopters.
3.3.6.5 Experience Requirements for Commercial Pilot Examiners (CE)

(a)
Issue: Original
Experience: CEAeroplane Category. The examiner applicant shall have at least:

(1)
A commercial pilot licence with an aeroplane category rating, appropriate class

rating(s) and an Instrument Aeroplane rating.
(2)
A valid flight instructor certificate with an aeroplane category rating, the appropriate
class rating(s) and an Instrument-Aeroplane rating.
(3)

(i)
1,000 hours in aeroplanes, of which 300 200 hours were accrued within the past
year;
(ii)
500 hours in the class of aeroplane for which the designation is sought; and
(iii)

(E)
300 hours in large or turbine-powered aeroplanes, of which 50 hours

are in the type of aeroplane for which designation is sought, and
(F)
25 hours for each additional type of large aeroplane for which

designation is sought;
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(a)
Experience: CEHelicopter Category. The examiner applicant shall have at least:

(1)
A commercial pilot licence with a helicopter category rating.
(2)
A valid flight instructor certificate with a helicopter category rating.
(3)
(4)
(i)
500 hours in helicopters, of which 100 hours were accrued within the past year;
(ii)
For authority to conduct skill tests in large helicopters
(iii)
100 hours in large helicopters, of which 50 hours are in the type of helicopter for
which designation is sought; and
(iv)
25 hours for each additional type of large helicopter for which designation is
sought.
250 hours as a flight instructor in helicopters, which include at least:

(1)
3.3.7
50 hours of instrument flight instruction in helicopters.
STATUS OF EX-CAAB INSPECTORS

(a)
3.3.8
ANO Part-03
An ex-CAAB inspector shall retain examiners status appropriate to his/her qualification.
INSPECTORS/EXAMINERS FEES
(a)
An applicant, or the ATO on behalf of the applicant shall pay fees to the inspector/examiner for the
skill tests for licensing and renewal purposes at the rate mentioned hereunder:
(1)
Oral Test Tk 2500.00
(2)
PPL Flight Test Tk 5000.00
(3)
CPL Flight Test Tk 7500.00
(4)
IR Flight Test Tk 5000.00
(5)
FIR Flight Test Tk 7500.00
(6)
Night Flight Test Tk 5000.00
(7)
Renewal Flight Test Tk 5000.00
(b)
The payment shall be made irrespective of the test result and shall be paid before the tests.
(c)
Fees shall apply for repeat tests in the same manner.
---------------------------------------------------
Issue: Original
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ANO Part-03 (Guidance Materials)
ANO PART 3
INSPECTORS GUIDANCE MATERIALS
(Appendices & Attachments)
Issue: Original
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ANO Part-03 (Appendix-A)
THIS PAGE IS INTETIONALLY LEFT BLANK
Issue: Original
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APPENDIX-A
CONTENT OF THE TRAINING AND PROCEDURES MANUAL (Ref Doc 9841)
This IGM (Appendix) supplements the information in Appendix 2 to Annex 1. Part I of this Appendix covers the
content requirements for the training and procedures manual of all ATOs. Part II deals with the additional content
requirements for ATOs that provide flight training utilizing aircraft.
Part I Content requirements for all ATOs
The training and procedures manual should include the elements in paragraphs 1 to 8 of this Appendix as far as they
are appropriate to the type of training to be provided.
1.
GENERAL
1.1
Preamble relating to the use and applicability of the manual.
1.2
Table of contents.
1.3
Amendment, revision and distribution of the manual:

a)
Procedures for amendment;
b)
Record of amendments page;
c)
Distribution list; and
d)
List of effective pages.
1.4
Glossary of definitions and significant terms, including a list of acronyms and/or abbreviations.
1.5
Description of the structure and layout of the manual, including:

a)
The various parts and sections, as well as their contents and use; and
b)
The paragraph numbering system.
1.6
Description of the scope of training authorized under the organizations terms of approval.
1.7
Organization chart and the names of the post holders.
1.8
Qualifications, responsibilities and succession of command of management and key operational

personnel, including but not limited to:
a)
Accountable executive;
b)
Head of training;
c)
Instructional services manager;
d)
Quality manager (of Quality system);
e)
Maintenance manager, if applicable;
f)
Safety manager (for SMS), if applicable;
g)
Instructors; and
h)
Examiners, evaluators and auditors.
1.9
Policies dealing with:

a)
The training organizations objectives, including ethics and values;
b)
The selection of ATO personnel and the maintenance of their qualifications;
c)
The training programme design and development, including the need for programme validation
and review in accordance with 3, 3.2 of this Part, as well as the outsourcing of training programme
development to third-party providers in accordance with 3.2.21;
d)
The evaluation, selection and maintenance of training material and devices;
Issue: Original
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e)
f)
g)
The maintenance of the training facilities and equipment;

The development and maintenance of a quality system governance model (Ref: Doc 9841);
and
The development and maintenance of a culture focused on safety in the workplace, including,
when applicable, implementation of a safety management system governance model (Ref:
Doc 9841).
1.10
Description of the facilities and equipment available, including:

a)
General-use facilities, including offices, stores and archives, and library or reference areas;
b)
The number and size of classrooms, including installed equipment; and
c)
The type and number of training devices, including their location if other than at the main
training site.
2.
2.1
STAFF TRAINING
Identification of persons or positions responsible for the maintenance of performance standards and for
ensuring the competency of personnel.
2.2
Details of the procedures to validate the qualifications and determine the competency of instructional
personnel as required by paragraph 7.3 of Appendix 2 to Annex 1.
2.3
Details of the initial and recurrent training programmes for all personnel as required by paragraph 7.4 of
Appendix 2 to Annex 1, including awareness training with respect to their responsibilities within the ATOs
system governance processes (Ref Appendices B and D of Doc 9841for details on QS and SMS
respectively).
2.4
Procedures for proficiency checks and upgrade training.
3.
CLIENT TRAINING PROGRAMMES

Client training programmes cover each individual training programme conducted by the training
organization for its customers and consist of a training plan, a practical training syllabus and a
theoretical knowledge syllabus, if applicable, as described in 3.3.5.1 of this sub part.
3.1
3.1.1
Training plan
The aim of the course in the form of a statement of what the student is expected to be able to do as a
result of the training, the level of performance and the training constraints to be observed.
3.1.2
Pre-entry requirements, including:

a)
Minimum age;
b)
Education or qualification requirements;
c)
Medical requirements; and
d)
Linguistic requirements.
3.1.3
Credits for previous knowledge, experience or other qualifications, which should be obtained from the
Licensing Authority before the training commences.
3.1.4
Training curricula, including:

a)
Theoretical training (knowledge);
b)
Practical training (skills);
c)
Training in the domain of Human Factors (attitudes);
Note: Guidance material to design training programmes on human performance can be found in Doc
9683.
d)
Assessment and examinations; and
e)
Monitoring of the training process, including assessment and examination activities.
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3.1.5
Training policies in terms of:

a)
Restrictions regarding the duration of training periods for students and instructors; and
b)
If applicable, minimum rest periods.
Note: Ref: Appendix-F
3.1.6
Policy for the conduct of student evaluation, including the:

a)
Procedures for authorization of tests;
b)
Procedures for remediation training before retest and procedures for re-writing knowledge
tests;
c)
Test reports and records;
d)
Procedures for skill progress checks and skill tests;
e)
procedures for knowledge progress tests and knowledge tests, including procedures for
knowledge test preparation, types of questions and assessments, and standards required for a
pass; and
f)
Procedures for question analysis and review and for issuing replacement exams (applicable to
knowledge tests).
3.1.7
Policy regarding training effectiveness, including:

a)
Liaison procedures between training departments;
b)
Requirements for reporting and documentation;
c)
Internal feedback system for detecting training deficiencies;
d)
Completion standards at various stages of training to ensure standardization;
e)
Individual student responsibilities;
f)
Procedures to correct unsatisfactory progress;
g)
Procedures for changing instructors;
h)
Maximum number of instructor changes per student; and
i)
Procedures for suspending a student from training.
3.2
Syllabi for non-competency-based training programmes
3.2.1 Practical training syllabus
3.2.1.1 A statement of how the course will be divided into phases, indicating how the phases will be arranged to
ensure completion in the most suitable learning sequence and that exercises will be repeated at the
proper frequency.
3.2.1.2 The syllabus hours for each phase and for groups of lessons within each phase and when progress
tests are to be conducted.
3.2.1.3 A statement of the standard of proficiency required before progressing from one phase of training to the
next. It includes minimum experience requirements and satisfactory exercise completion before
undertaking the next phase.
3.2.1.4 Requirements for instructional methods, particularly with respect to adherence to syllabi and training
specifications.
3.2.1.5 Instruction for the conduct and documentation of all progress checks.
3.2.1.6 Instruction, where applicable, given to all examining staff regarding the conduct of examinations and
tests.
3.2.2
Theoretical knowledge syllabus

The syllabus for theoretical knowledge instruction should be structured generally as in 3.2 of this
appendix but with a training specification and objective for each subject.
3.3
Syllabus for competency-based training programmes
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3.3.1
Modern training programmes should be competency-based.
3.3.2
Competency-based training programmes are based upon a job and task analysis to define the
knowledge, skills and attitudes required to perform a job or a task. Such programmes use an
integrated approach in which the training in the underlying knowledge to perform a task is followed by
practice of the task so that the trainee acquires the underlying knowledge, skills and attitudes related to
the task in a more effective way.
3.3.3
As a result, the syllabus is structured as a single document that is subdivided into modules containing a
training objective and the same information as in 3.2.1, but applied to both the theoretical knowledge
and practical training delivered by the module.
4.
TESTS AND CHECKS CONDUCTED BY THE ATO FOR THE ISSUANCE OF A LICENCE OR A RATING
When CAAB has authorized an ATO to conduct the testing required for the issuance of a licence or rating
in accordance with the training and procedures manual, the manual should include:
a)
The name(s) of the personnel with testing authority and the scope of the authority;
b)
The role and duties of the authorized personnel;
c)
If the school has been given authority to appoint personnel to conduct the testing required for
the issuance of a licence or rating, the minimum requirements for appointment as well as the
selection and appointment procedure; and
d)
The applicable requirements established by the Licensing Authority, such as:
the procedures to be followed in the conduct of checks and tests; and
the methods for completion and retention of testing records as required by the Licensing
Authority.
5.
RECORDS
Policy and procedures regarding:
a)
Attendance records;
b)
Student training records;
c)
Staff training and qualification records;
d)
Persons responsible for checking records and student personal logs;
e)
Nature and frequency of record checks;
f)
Standardization of record entries;
g)
Personal log entries; and
h)
Security of records and documents.
6.
SAFETY MANAGEMENT SYSTEM (IF APPLICABLE)

The requirement to adopt SMS practices is intended to be restricted to only those training entities whose
activities directly impact on the safe operation of aircraft. Should that requirement apply to the ATO,
the training and procedures manual, as stated in paragraph 1.9 of this appendix, must address the ATOs
SMS by reference to a separate manual or including the SMS practices in the training and procedures
manual.
7.
QUALITY ASSURANCE (QA)

Provide a brief description of the QA practices, as required by paragraph 5 of Appendix 2 to Annex 1, by
reference to a separate quality manual or including the QA practices in the training and procedures
manual (Ref: Appendix B of this Part ,paragraph 9).
8.
APPENDICES
As required:
a)
Sample progress test forms;
b)
Sample logs, test reports and records; and
c)
A copy of the approved training organizations approval document.
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Part II Additional content for flight training organizations (utilizing aircraft)

The training and procedures manual for ATOs that provide flight training utilizing aircraft should include additional
elements to those indicated in Part I, as contained in paragraphs 9 to 12 of this Appendix.
9.
9.1
FLIGHT TRAINING GENERAL

Qualifications, responsibilities and succession of command of management and key operational
personnel (in addition to paragraph 1. 8 of this Appendix), including but not limited to:
a)
Chief flight instructor; and
b)
Chief ground instructor.
9.2
Policies and procedures (in addition to paragraph 1.9 of this Appendix) dealing with:
a)
Approval of flights;
b)
Responsibilities of the pilot-in-command;
c)
Flight planning procedures general;
d)
Carriage of passengers;
e)
Operational control system;
f)
Reporting of safety hazards, incidents and accidents (see Appendix D for more details);
g)
Duty periods and flight time limitations for flying staff members and students; and
h)
Minimum rest periods for flying staff members and students.
9.3
Description of the facilities and equipment available (in addition to paragraph 1.10 of this Appendix),
including:
a)
Flight simulation training devices and training aircraft;
b)
Maintenance facilities and apron parking areas for training aircraft;
c)
Computer-based classrooms; and
d)
Dispatch control and briefing areas.
10.
10.1
10.2
AIRCRAFT OPERATING INFORMATION

Certification and operating limitations.
Aircraft handling, including:
a)
Performance limitations;
b)
Use of checklists;
c)
Standard operating procedures; and
d)
Aircraft maintenance procedures.
10.3
10.4
10.5
Instructions for aircraft loading and securing of load.

Fuelling procedures.
Emergency procedures.
11.
11.1
11.2
ROUTES
Performance criteria, e.g. take-off, en-route and landing.
Flight planning procedures including:
a)
Fuel and oil requirements;
b)
Minimum safe altitudes;
c)
Planning for contingencies (e.g. emergency or diversion scenarios); and
d)
Navigation equipment.
11.3
11.4
11.5
Weather minima for all instructional training flights during day, night, VFR and IFR operations.
Weather minima for all student training flights at various stages of training.
Training routes and practice areas.
12.
FLIGHT TRAINING PLAN
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12.1
Training curricula (in addition to paragraph 3.1.4 of this Appendix), including, as applicable, the:
a)
Flying curriculum (single-engine);
b)
Flying curriculum (multi-engine);
c)
Theoretical knowledge curriculum; and
d)
Flight simulation training curriculum.
12.2
The general arrangements of daily and weekly programmes for flying training, ground training and flight
simulation training.
12.3
Training policies (in addition to paragraph 3.1.5 of this Appendix) in terms of:
a)
Weather constraints;
b)
Maximum student training times for flight, theoretical knowledge and flight simulation training,
per day/week/month;
c)
Restrictions in respect of training periods for students;
d)
Duration of training flights at various stages;
e)
Maximum individual student flying hours in any day or night period;
f)
Maximum number of individual student training flights in any day or night period; and
g)
Minimum rest periods between training periods.
______________________
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ANO Part-03 (Appendix-B)
APPENDIX-B
QUALITY ASSURANCE AND THE QUALITY SYSTEM OF THE ATO (Ref Doc 9841)
1.
1.1
QUALITY POLICY AND STRATEGY

The ATO shall describe how the organization formulates, deploys and reviews its policy and strategy
and turns them into plans and actions applicable to all levels of the organization. A formal, written quality
policy should be prepared, establishing a commitment by the Accountable executive of the training
organization to achieving and maintaining the highest possible standards of quality. The quality policy
should reflect the achievement of, and continued compliance with, relevant parts of Appendix 2 to Annex1,
together with all applicable national regulations and any additional standards specified by the ATO.
1.2
The Accountable executive of the training organization will have the overall responsibility for the
standard of quality including the frequency, format and structure of the internal management review and
analysis activities and may delegate responsibility for the tasks defined under paragraph 2 of this
Appendix to a quality manager. Depending on the size and scope of the organization and the
requirements of the Licensing Authority, the Accountable executive and quality manager may interact in
different ways as per the organizational charts.
2.
2.1
QUALITY MANAGER
The primary role of the quality manager is to verify, by monitoring activities in the field of training, that
the standards as established by the ATO and any additional requirements of the Licensing Authority are
being carried out properly.
2.2
The quality manager should be responsible for ensuring that the quality system is properly documented,
implemented, maintained and continuously reviewed and improved (Ref: paragraph 17 of this Appendix).
2.3
The quality manager should:

a)
Report directly to the head of training (see Note); and
b)
Have unencumbered access to all parts of the ATO.
Note. When the head of training is not the accountable executive, reporting mechanisms should be
instituted to ensure that the Accountable executive is aware of all issues impacting the quality of the
training services being provided by the affected ATO.
2.4
The quality manager should be responsible for ensuring that personnel training related to the quality
system are conducted.
3.
3.1
QUALITY ASSURANCE (QA)

The term QA is frequently misunderstood to mean the testing and checking of products and services.
Organizations that only do checking and testing activities are merely applying quality control
measures, which are designed to catch product and service defects but not necessarily prevent them.
For example, an ATO that administers exams at the end of the training syllabus, only to discover that a
large proportion of the students have failed to meet the required standard, has only identified a
deficiency in expected results. The implication could be that there is a problem with the training
programme or the instructor or even the student selection criteria. In this instance the ATO has no idea
what the real problem is or what to do about it. Quality control, by itself, provides limited value without
the suite of complementary activities that comprise QA.
3.2
QA, on the other hand, attempts to improve and stabilize the training process and to identify and avoid,
or at least minimize, issues that lead to problems in the first place. It continuously verifies that standards
are adhered to throughout the training process by introducing various checkpoints and controls. It further
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introduces a system of audits to ensure that documented policies, processes and procedures are
consistently followed. It is the assurance part of quality management.
3.3
A QA plan for an ATO should encompass well-designed and documented policies, processes and
procedures for at least the following activities:
a)
Monitor training services and process controls;
b)
Monitor assessment and testing methods;
c)
Monitor personnel qualifications and training;
d)
Monitor training devices and equipment qualification, calibration and functionality, as
applicable;
e)
Conduct internal and external audits;
f)
Develop, implement and monitor corrective and preventive actions and associated reporting
systems (Ref: paragraph 8 of this Appendix); and
g)
Utilize appropriate statistical analysis to identify and respond appropriately to trends.
3.4
An effective QA plan will aid significantly in the ATOs compliance with requirements, its conformity with
the standards and the adequacy of its training activities. To take the ATOs performance to a higher
level requires a structure that ensures that the combined QA effort of the employees reaches its full
potential.
Note: Annex 1 requires ATOs only to establish and implement QA policies, processes and procedures
acceptable to the Licensing Authority granting the approval, which ensures that training and instructional
practices comply with all relevant requirements.
3.5
QA plans by themselves are subject to breakdowns in human performance and therefore are in need of
robust organizational structures that underpin the QA efforts of individuals. It is for this reason that ATOs
and States should embrace the quality system governance model described in this appendix.
4.
4.1
QUALITY SYSTEM FOR THE ATO

A quality system is the aggregate of all the organizations activities, plans, policies, processes,
procedures, resources, incentives and infrastructure working in unison towards a total quality
management approach. It requires an organizational construct complete with policies, processes,
procedures and resources that underpin a commitment to achieve excellence in product and service
delivery through the implementation of best practices in quality management.
4.2
An ATO that supports its QA plan with a well-designed, implemented and maintained quality system
structure should be able to easily and repeatedly achieve results that exceed both the requirements of
the applicable national regulations and the expectations of the ATOs clients.
4.3
The basic attributes of an effective quality system should include, but are not necessarily limited to:
a)
A managerial structure that facilitates and encourages clear and unencumbered access to the
decision makers;
b)
An overarching company commitment to achieving excellence in the delivery of training
services, rather than meeting minimum requirements;
c)
Quality policies, processes and procedures that are well-designed, consistently applied and
subject to formalized review and refinement processes;
d)
An employee training plan that instills and promotes best practices in quality management
efforts;
e)
An organizational risk profile and corresponding risk management plan, which together provide
a comprehensive list of hazards that are tied to the ATOs activities and establish mitigating
measures to effectively manage those risks which threaten the achievement of desired
standards of performance; and
f)
A strategic review of policies and procedures which measures the organizations current
assumptions, objectives and plans by applying a relevance test matched to evolving trends in
the industry or changes occurring within the ATO.
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5.
5.1
ORGANIZATIONAL RISK PROFILE

An organizational risk profile is an inventory of identified hazards and threats that present risks which
are likely to prevent conformity with the required standards of performance. This threat to quality list is
normally arrived at by first establishing a directory of those activities that routinely take place in order to
deliver and administer a training programme. Once complete, the activity directory is then expanded to
identify the hazards and threats associated with each individual activity. Some examples of routine activities
that should be examined during this process are:
a)
Selection and training of staff;
b)
Training programme development, validation and review;
c)
Development and maintenance of training courseware;
d)
Administrative staff duties in support of the training programme, the instructors and evaluators,
and the students;
e)
Delivery of training;
f)
Record-keeping;
g)
Assessment and examination processes; and
h)
Client and Licensing Authority feedback.
5.2
The risks identified through this exercise should not be limited to just those which currently exist but
should also include those potential risks that could arise from a change to existing circumstances or
conditions.
6.
6.1
RISK MANAGEMENT PLAN

A risk management plan is designed to mitigate the identified risks, real or potential, which were derived
from the organizational risk profile exercise. The plans objective is not to eliminate risk so much as it is
to effectively manage risk by putting in place risk controlling measures.
6.2
A well-developed and implemented risk management plan will substantially aid in accurately scoping
out the depth and frequency of planned QA-related activities.
6.3
The plan should be subject to the management review process outlined in paragraph 4.3 f of this
appendix.
6.4
The current risk management plan should be readily accessible to all employees so that it can be
accurately followed and open to comment for improvement.
7.
7.1
COHERENCE MATRIX
A coherence matrix, sometimes known as a correspondence matrix, is a very powerful addition to the
ATOs compliance efforts. It is a detailed, tabulated document that lists all the applicable regulatory
requirements imposed on the ATO. Beside each listed provision there should be at least two descriptive
elements that identify:
a)
The existing processes that are designed to ensure continuous compliance with that specific
regulatory rule or standard; and
b)
The individual managerial position responsible for the effective implementation of each
process.
7.2
The coherence matrix should indicate the most recently completed and next intended audits designed to
validate the functionality of each of the identified processes. Any recent audit findings should be listed in
the matrix or referred to as being documented in a separate register of findings.
7.3
The coherence matrix is developed and managed by the quality manager and is subject to the
management review process outlined in the paragraph 4.3 f of this Appendix.
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7.4
The current coherence matrix should be readily accessible to all employees so that it can be accurately
followed and open to comment for improvement.
8.
8.1
CORRECTIVE AND PREVENTIVE ACTION REPORTS

QA plans should include a well-structured reporting system to ensure that suggestions by ATO
personnel for both corrective and preventive actions are recorded and promptly addressed. Paragraph
3.3 f of this appendix identifies this as a necessary component of QA.
8.2
After an analysis of the reports submitted, the reporting system should specify who is required to rectify
a discrepancy and/or non-conformity in each particular case and the procedure to be followed if
corrective action is not completed within an appropriate timescale. Just as important, the reporting system
should identify who is required to investigate and act upon any report identifying measures that could
prevent non-conformity from occurring.
8.3
Corrective and preventive action reports should be able to be submitted anonymously, if individuals so
choose, to maximize the opportunity for open and effective reporting.
Note: Since corrective and preventive action reports, in this instance, represent suggestions for
improvement in conformity levels and deal with quality issues, this reporting system and its processes
should be managed by the quality manager.
9.
9.1
QUALITY-RELATED DOCUMENTATION
Relevant documentation includes parts of the training and procedures manual which may be included in
a separate quality manual.
9.2
In addition, the relevant documentation should include the following:

a)
Quality policy and strategy;
b)
Glossary;
c)
Organizational risk profile;
d)
Risk management plan;
e)
Coherence matrix;
f)
Procedures and reporting system for corrective and preventive actions;
g)
Specified training standards;
h)
Description of the organization;
i)
Assignment of duties and responsibilities; and
j)
Training procedures related to the quality system to ensure regulatory compliance.
9.3
The QA audit programme documentation should reflect:

a)
The schedule of the monitoring process;
b)
Audit procedures;
c)
Reporting procedures;
d)
Procedures for follow-up and corrective actions;
e)
The recording system; and
f)
Document control.
10.
QA AUDIT PROGRAMME
The QA audit programme should include all planned and systematic actions necessary to provide
confidence that every training activity is being conducted in accordance with all applicable requirements,
standards and procedures.
11.
11.1
QUALITY INSPECTION
The primary purpose of a quality inspection is to review a document or observe a particular event, action,
etc., in order to verify whether established training procedures and requirements were followed during the
conduct of the inspection and whether the required standard was achieved.
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11.2
Examples of typical subject areas for quality inspections are:

a)
Actual training sessions;
b)
Maintenance, if applicable;
c)
Technical standards; and
d)
Training standards.
12.
12.1
QUALITY AUDITS
An audit is a systematic and independent comparison between the way in which training is being
conducted and the way in which it should be conducted according to the published training procedures.
12.2
Audits should include at least the following quality procedures and processes:
a)
A description of the scope of the audit, which should be explained to the personnel to be audited;
b)
Planning and preparation;
c)
Gathering and recording evidence; and
d)
Analysis of the evidence.
12.3
The various techniques that make up an effective audit are:

a)
A review of published documents;
b)
Interviews or discussions with personnel;
c)
The examination of an adequate sample of records;
d)
The witnessing of the activities which make up the training; and
e)
The preservation of documents and the recording of observations.
13.
13.1
AUDITORS
The ATO should decide, depending on the complexity of the organization and the training being
conducted, whether to make use of a dedicated audit team or a single auditor. In any event, the auditor
or audit team should have relevant training and/or operational experience.
13.2
The responsibilities of the auditors should be clearly defined in the relevant documentation.
14.
14.1
AUDITORS INDEPENDENCE
Auditors should not have any day-to-day involvement in the area of the operation or maintenance activity
that is to be audited.
14.2
An ATO may, in addition to using the services of full-time dedicated personnel belonging to a separate
quality department, undertake the monitoring of specific areas or activities through the use of part-time
auditors. An ATO whose structure and size does not justify the establishment of full-time auditors may
undertake the audit function using part-time personnel from within its own organization or from an external
source under the terms of an agreement acceptable to the Licensing Authority.
14.3
In all cases the ATO should develop suitable procedures to ensure that persons directly responsible for
the activities to be audited are not selected as part of the auditing team. Where external auditors are
used, it is essential that any external specialist has some familiarity with the type of activity conducted
by the ATO.
14.4
The QA audit programme of the ATO should identify the persons within the organization who have the
experience, responsibility and authority to:
a)
Perform quality inspections and audits as part of ongoing QA;
b)
Identify and record concerns or findings and the evidence necessary to substantiate such
concerns or findings;
c)
Initiate or recommend solutions to concerns or findings through designated reporting channels;
d)
Verify the implementation of solutions within specific and reasonable timescales; and
e)
Report directly to the quality manager.
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15.
15.1
AUDIT SCHEDULING
A QA audit programme should include a defined audit schedule and a periodic review cycle. The
schedule should be flexible and allow unscheduled audits when negative trends are identified. The quality
manager should schedule follow-up audits when necessary to verify that a corrective action resulting
from a finding was carried out and that it is effective.
15.2
An ATO should establish a schedule of audits to be completed during a specific calendar period. This
schedule should be influenced by the organizational risk profile and be reflected in both the risk
management plan and the coherence matrix documents. As a minimum, all aspects of the training should
be reviewed within a period of twelve months in accordance with the audit programme.
15.3
When an ATO defines the audit schedule, it should take into account significant changes to the
management, organization, training or technologies, as well as changes to the standards and
requirements as discussed in paragraph 4.3 f of this Appendix.
16.
16.1
MONITORING AND CORRECTIVE ACTION

The aim of monitoring within the quality system is primarily to investigate and judge its effectiveness and
thereby ensure that defined policy and training standards are continuously complied with. Monitoring
and corrective action functions fall under the responsibilities of the quality manager. Monitoring activity
is based upon:
a)
Quality inspections;
b)
Quality audits; and
c)
Corrective and preventive action reports and subsequent follow-up.
16.2
Any non-conformity identified as a result of monitoring should be communicated by the quality manager
to the manager responsible for taking corrective action or, if appropriate, to the head of training or, when
circumstances warrant, to the accountable executive. Such non-conformity should be recorded for the
purpose of further investigation in order to determine the cause and to enable the recommendation of
an appropriate corrective action.
16.3
The QA audit programme should include procedures to ensure that corrective and preventive actions
are developed in response to findings. Personnel implementing these procedures should monitor such
actions to ensure that they have been completed and verify their effectiveness. Organizational
responsibility and accountability for the implementation of corrective action resides with the department
where the finding was identified. The Accountable executive will have the ultimate responsibility for
ensuring, through the quality manager, that the corrective action has reestablished conformity with the
standard required by the ATO and any additional requirements established by the Licensing Authority or
the ATO.
16.4
As part of its quality system, the ATO should identify internal and external customers and monitor their
satisfaction by measurement and analysis of feedback.
17.
17.1
CONTINUOUS IMPROVEMENT PROCESS

As stated in 2.2 of this appendix, the quality manager should be responsible for the review and
continuous improvement of the established quality systems policies, processes and procedures. The
following tools, on which the quality manager relies, are essential to the continuous improvement process:
a)
Organizational risk profile;
b)
Risk management plan;
c)
Coherence matrix;
d)
Corrective and preventive action reports; and
e)
Inspection and audit reports.
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17.2
These tools and processes are interrelated and help define the continuous improvement efforts of the
organization. For example, any corrective or preventive action report could identify a deficiency or an
opportunity for improvement. As outlined in 8.2 of this Appendix, the quality manager would then be
required to ensure the identified issue was addressed and corrective action effectively implemented.
The same would be true if the issue was identified during an inspection or audit.
17.3
The effective implementation of change and the subsequent validation that the change did indeed result
in the desired outcome are critical to the continuous improvement process. Simply introducing a wellmeaning suggestion for improvement into the organization without carefully managing that change could
have undesirable consequences. It is therefore incumbent upon the quality manager to responsibly
introduce, monitor and validate improvement efforts.
17.4
A simplistic but effective process to use in managing continuous improvement is known as the plan-docheck-act, or PDCA described below:
a)
Plan. Map out the implementation of the recommended change, identifying at least:
1)
the people who will be affected by the change;
2)
the required quality control measures necessary to mitigate risk; and
3)
the desired outcome and its intended consequences.
b)
Do. Execute the implementation plan once all affected groups have accepted the proposal and
understand their role in ensuring its success.
c)
Check. Apply sufficient quality control stage checks throughout the implementation phase to
ensure any unintended deviations in the execution are identified and addressed without delay.
d)
Act. Analyze the results and take appropriate action as necessary.
18.
18.1
MANAGEMENT REVIEW AND ANALYSIS

Management should accomplish a comprehensive, systematic and documented review and analysis
of the quality system, training policies and procedures and should consider:
a)
The results of quality inspections, audits and any other indicators;
b)
The overall effectiveness of the management organization in achieving stated objectives; and
c)
The correction of trends and, where applicable, the prevention of future non-conformities.
Note: Paragraph 4.3 of this Appendix identifies the basic attributes which require review and analysis.
18.2
Conclusions and recommendations made as a result of the review and analysis should be submitted to
the responsible manager, in writing, for action. The responsible manager should be an individual who
has the authority to resolve relevant issues and take action. The head of training should decide on the
frequency, format and structure of meetings for internal review and analysis, in coordination with the
Accountable executive, if different, because the Accountable executive has the overall responsibility for
the quality system including the frequency, format and structure of the internal management review and
analysis activities (Ref: 1.2 of this Appendix).
19.
19.1
RECORDS
Accurate, complete and readily accessible records documenting the result of the QA audit programme
should be maintained by the ATO. Records are essential data to enable an ATO to analyze and
determine the root causes of non-conformity so that areas of non-compliance can be identified and
subsequently addressed.
19.2
Records should be retained at least for the period that may be mandated by national requirements. In
the absence of such requirements, a period of three years is recommended. The relevant records include:
a)
Audit schedules;
b)
Quality inspection and audit reports;
Issue: Original
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c)
d)
e)
f)
Responses to findings;
Corrective and preventive action reports;
Follow-up and closure reports; and
Management review and analysis reports.
20.
20.1
QA RESPONSIBILITY FOR SATELLITE ATOs

An ATO may decide to subcontract certain training activities to external organizations subject to the
approval of the Licensing Authority.
20.2
The ultimate responsibility for the training provided by the satellite ATO always remains with the ATO. A
written agreement should exist between the ATO and the satellite ATO clearly defining the training services
to be provided and the level of quality to be assured. The satellite ATOs activities relevant to the agreement
should be included in the ATOs QA audit programme.
20.3
The ATO should ensure that the satellite ATO has the necessary authorization/approval when required
and commands the resources and competence to undertake the task.
21.
21.1
QA TRAINING
As outlined in 4.3(d) of this Appendix, appropriate and thorough training is essential to optimize quality in
every organization. To achieve this, the ATO should ensure that all staff members understand the
objectives as laid out in the quality manual, to a level relevant to their duties, including:
a)
The concept of QA and associated systems;
b)
Quality management;
c)
The quality manual;
d)
Inspections and audit techniques; and
e)
Reporting and recording.
21.2
Time and resources should be allocated to provide appropriate levels of QA training to every employee.
21.3
QA courses are available from the various national or international standards institutions, and an ATO
should consider whether to offer such courses to those likely to be involved in the management or
supervision of QA processes. Organizations with sufficient appropriately qualified staff should consider
the possibility of providing in house training.
______________________
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ANO Part-03 (Appendix-C)
APPENDIX-C
RESERVED
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ANO Part-03 (Appendix-D)
THIS PAGE IS INTENTIONALLY LEFT BLANK
Issue: Original
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ANO Part-03 (Appendix-D)
APPENDIX- D
THE SAFETY MANAGEMENT SYSTEM (SMS) OF THE ATO (Ref Doc 9841)
1.
1.1
SAFETY POLICY
Appendix 2 to Annex 1 requires all ATOs that engage in activity which directly impacts the safe
operation of aircraft to operate within a safety management system. Doc 9859 provides very detailed
guidance on the history of aviation safety, why SMS is so important in industrys collective effort to reduce
safety occurrences, and how to design and maintain an effective SMS.
1.2
Safety is defined as the state in which the possibility of harm to persons or of property damage is reduced
to, and maintained at or below, an acceptable level through a continuing process of hazard
identification and safety risk management. The purpose of an SMS is to provide the ATO with effective
policies, processes and procedures that permit it to achieve and maintain safe operations.
1.3
The way an ATO operates is affected primarily by the decisions and actions of its management. The
style of management and the approach that is taken in dealing with operational issues will profoundly
influence the employees beliefs, behaviours, and even their values. Therefore, it is essential that the
ATOs senior management take an active and genuine interest in the development and maintenance of
the organizations SMS. That enthusiasm and commitment must be repeatedly conveyed to all
employees through the words and action of every single member of the management team.
1.4
The ATOs safety policy needs to be developed, documented and signed off by the Accountable
executive. It should be communicated and made clear to all employees. The policy is required to state
the managements commitment to safety, all employee responsibilities and safety accountabilities with
respect to the SMS, and to identify the key safety personnel. The policy should also reflect
managements resolve to foster a robust safety reporting culture and should identify those conditions
under which employees will not be subjected to punishment or retribution. The development of an SMS
policy is detailed in Chapter 8 of Doc 9859.
2.
2.1
SAFETY MANAGER
Appendix 4 to Annex 1 requires all ATOs that operate within an SMS to appoint an individual to fulfill the
duties of safety manager. The scope of the safety managers duties should include safety planning,
safety programme implementation and the operation of the SMS.
2.2
The safety manager, like the quality manager, should report directly to the head of training. If the
organizational structure is similar, then the safety manager should have a reporting capability to the
Accountable executive.
3.
3.1
SAFETY MANAGEMENT SYSTEM

SMS is a systems-based approach for organizations to effectively manage risk. The scope of an ATOs
SMS should be directly proportional to the organizations size and the complexity of its operations.
3.2
Appendix 4 to Annex 1 outlines the framework of an SMS and describes the necessary components and
elements of such a system.
3.3
Doc 9859 details the design and strategies for a phased-in implementation of SMS.
Issue: Original
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ANO Part-03 (Appendix-E)
Issue: Original
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Page 66 of 295
APPENDIX-E
ATO AUDIT CHECKLIST
1.
APPLICABILITY
This audit check list is applicable for initial issue as well as for renewal for a certificate of approval (COA)
for ATOs. Certain items may not be applicable for a certain types of ATOs and or types of audit. In such
cases, those may be omitted.
2.
INSTRUCTION TO USE
2.1
This check list is divided into different distinct divisions. Each division is having a heading and if
applicable sub-headings. Divisions are divided in columns. Column headings are SL NO, ITEMS,
RESPONSE and REMARKS.
2.2
SL NO column begins with new serial numbers for every division or sub-headings. Sub-headings are
prefixed by small letters in the SL NO column. ITEMS column is the description of the area to be audited.
This column may have sub-headings as mentioned above for easy identification of the topics to be audited.
RESPONSE column is normally filled up by the ATOs. However, this may also be done by the CAAB
inspectors in collaboration with the ATO management. Some response may be given by manual or
document references. REMARKS column may contain some significant information, which may be filled up
by either the CAAB inspectors or the ATO management. Remarks column shall be concluded by assigning
S/U/NA and signed by the relevant CAAB inspector. S being satisfactory and no further action required.
U denotes un-satisfactory and actions required to rectify the short falls. ATOs shall provide a CAP,
subject to which, if acceptable, COA may be issued or renewed. NA denotes not applicable.
Note; if required, separate sheets may be used.
3.
3.1
OPERATIONS AUDIT
Date of Audit Inspection:
(a)
Principle Place of Business:
(b)
Operations Base:
(c)
Satellite Base:
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3.2
GENERAL INFORMATION OF THE ATO
SL.NO
ITEMS
RESPONSE
01
Name and address of the ATO
02
Company Registration number
03
Name of Chairman of the Board/President of

the executive committee.
04
Names of the Board Members
05
Whether there were any changes of Board

Members since previous Audit?
06
If any, has it been approved by CAAB?
07
Number and Validity of the COA
08
Date of previous Audit
09
Dates of previous surveillances and findings, if

any
10
Does the ATO have any other operators

certificate?
11
Whether the ATO has advertised without

having a valid COA?
12
Whether the ATO has advertised beyond the

scope of its approval?
13
Whether the ATO has carried out internal

Quality audit?
14
Whether the ATO has developed a feedback

system from the customers?
15
Whether the ATO successfully mitigates

customers queries and complaints?
16
Whether the ATO has displayed the approval

certificate (COA) in a prominent place in the
principal place of business, operation base
and satellite base?
Issue: Original
November, 2016
REMARKS
Page 68 of 295
3.3 MANAGEMENT AND ORGANIZATION

SL.NO
ITEMS
RESPONSE
Key Post Holders:
01
Name of the Managing Director/Accountable

Manager
02
Name of the Head of Training
03
Name of the Chief Flight Instructor
04
Name of the Chief Ground Instructor
05
Name of Engineering Manager
06
Name of the Quality Manager
07
Name of the Safety Manager
08
Are the Key Position holders adequately

qualified?
09
Are the required Key Post holders approved by

CAAB?
ATO Staff Information:
01
Number of Flight Instructors
02
Number of Ground Instructors
03
Whether part-time Instructors are engaged in

training?
04
If yes, their details
05
Number of Engineering staff
06
Are there adequate number of Operations and

Administrative staffs available?
07
Are there any Foreign Instructors Engineers

engaged by the ATO?
08
If yes, are they properly cleared and certified by

the Government and CAAB?
09
Are the Instructors and Engineering staffs

adequately qualified?
10
Are the Instructors and Engineering staffs

approved by CAAB?
11
Are the students properly licenced / certified /

medically assessed?
12
Are there any Foreign Students being trained by

the ATOs?
13
If yes, are they properly cleared and certified by

the Government and CAAB?
Issue: Original
November, 2016
REMARKS
Page 69 of 295
SL.NO
TEMS
RESPONSE
Aircraft Information:
01
Aircraft Type/Mode / Series / MSN /

Registration//Year of Manufacture / Total Hours
02
Whether the aircraft are owned by the ATO?
03
If not whether there is a contract between the

owner and the ATO approved/accepted by
CAAB?
Establishment:
01
Principal place of Business and address
02
Operational Base and Address
03
Satellite Base and address
04
Is the ATO maintaining principal place of

business and operational base at the same
place and location mentioned in the COA?
05
Does the ATO use any other place, base or

facilities in addition to those mentioned above?
06
If yes, are those approved by CAAB?
07
Are the ATO facilities being used or shared by

others?
08
If yes, has proper approval been obtained from

CAAB?
Class and briefing room facilities:
01
Whether the number of class rooms sufficient for

the courses offered by the ATO?
02
Whether the space of the class rooms is

sufficient?
03
Whether the seating arrangement of the class

rooms is adequate?
Issue: Original
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REMARKS
Page 70 of 295
SL.NO
TEMS
04
Whether the class rooms are well ventilated with

proper temperature controls, sufficiently noise
proof and properly lighted?
05
Whether proper audio-visual training aids are

available in the class rooms?
06
Whether other equipment required for training is

available?
07
08
RESPONSE
REMARKS
RESPONSE
REMARKS
Whether a proper library containing manuals,

documents, aviation related books and journals
available and readily accessible to the students
and instructors?
Whether the facilities mentioned above from
item no. 01 to 07 also available in the operations
and satellite bases (as applicable)?
3.4 DOCUMENTS, EQUIPMENTS AND MANUALS

SL.NO
ITEMS
Documents and Equipment:
01
Whether the latest Act, Rule, relevant ANOs

available with the ATO?
02
Whether the AIP with the latest revision

available with the ATO?
03
Whether all circulars, instructions, notices issued

by CAAB, relevant to ATO, available with the
ATO?
04
Are the circulars, instructions, notices issued by

CAAB relevant to instructors and students,
available to them?
05
Whether the ATO issued any circular/notice to

the students since the last renewal of COA and
disseminated those to the students?
06
Does the ATO have any

disseminating policy in place?
07
How does ATO obtain navigational data (if

applicable), maps and charts?
08
Whether maps and charts available for x-country

flights?
09
Whether navigational equipment available for

the students?
Issue: Original
information
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Page 71 of 295
SL.NO
TEMS
RESPONSE
Manuals:
01
Whether an approved TPM is available with

revisions?
02
Does the TPM contain syllabus for all the

courses approved?
03
Whether POH of all types of aircraft operated by

the ATO with latest revision available?
04
Whether a master folder maintained having a list

of all documents and revision in the ATO?
05
Whether the ATO has approved manuals for all

approved courses it offers?
REMARKS
3.5 TRAINING RECORDS

SL.NO
ITEMS
RESPONSE
Students:
01
Does the ATO has a student en-rollment policy

and maintains the en-rollment record?
02
Is there a policy to check that the students meet

the educational qualification, age and medical
standards set by CAAB?
03
Whether a record is maintained to show that all

trainings are being conducted in accordance
with the approved syllabus prescribed in the
training manual?
04
Whether a record is maintained to show that

each student has gone through an organized
training course, as appropriate?
05
Whether a record is maintained to show the

ground and flight training hours completed for
each student for each phase of training?
06
Whether a record is maintained to show that the

ATO conducted exams/tests for each student?
07
Whether a record is maintained to show that the

ATO recommends a student for CAAB exam/test
only after passing in house exams/tests?
08
Whether a complete and updated dossier is

maintained for each student?
Instructors:
01
Whether the ATO maintains records for

instructors initial and refresher training?
Issue: Original
November, 2016
REMARKS
Page 72 of 295
SL.NO
TEMS
02
Whether the ATO maintains records for

instructors category?
03
Does the ATO maintain a dossier for each

instructor with up-to-date records?
Flight training:
01
Whether a record is maintained to show that

pre-flight briefing and post flight de-briefing is
conducted for each flight?
02
Whether a record is maintained to show that all

training flights have been authorized by CFI or in
his absence as per approved TPM?
03
Whether the ATO maintains a record of

authorization for students solo flights?
Does the ATO maintain a record for solo,
X-country, instrument and night flights?
04
05
RESPONSE
REMARKS
RESPONSE
REMARKS
Whether a record is maintained for all check

flights?
3.6 OPERATIONS
SL.NO
A
01
02
03
04
05
06
07
B
01
ITEMS
Ops procedure:
Whether procedures haves been in place to
ensure adequate fuel and oil is carried on
board?
Whether a procedure is set to obtain Met, Notam
and CG before a training flight?
Whether up-to-date checklist available for
normal, abnormal and emergency procedure?
Whether MEL and CDL procedures have been
established?
Whether a checklist is available to show the
manuals, equipment and documents to be on
board the flight?
Whether procedures have been established to
ensure that the manuals, equipment and
documents required, to be on board are
available?
Whether proper communication system
established including communication with the
ATC?
Flight Procedure:
Whether proper briefing and de-briefing
procedures have been established?
Issue: Original
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Page 73 of 295
SL.NO
02
03
04
05
TEMS
release a student pilot for the first solo and
subsequent solo flights?
release a student pilot for the first x-country
flight?
carry out flight checks for the student pilots?
carry out flight checks for the flight instructors?
06
Whether check flight reports are available?
Airports of Operations:
Does the ATO use any remote airport for
training purposes?
01
02
03
04
RESPONSE
REMARKS
If yes, whether
(a) Security is available?
(b) Safety and fire service is available?
(c) ATC service available?
(d) Wind socks and Met service available?
(e) Runway surface is smooth with RWY
marking available?
(f) Night flying facilities available?
Whether traffic pattern has been established for
circuit and landing practices?
Whether flying zone has been established for
the ATO?
Whether communication procedure has been
established with ATC?
FSTD:
01
Whether FSTD is being used for training?

If yes,
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Make, model and number of FSTD?

CAAB approval number and validity?
Approval category?
Whether training syllabus for different
aircraft and different phase of training is
available and approved?
(e) Whether FSTD instructors are
approved?
(f) Whether FSTD functioning properly?
(g) Whether hours are credited as per
regulations?
e
01
Emergency response plan:

Whether the emergency services available at
suitable locations of the ATO:
(a) At the principal place of business?
(b) At the operation base?
Issue: Original
November, 2016
Page 74 of 295
(c) At the satellite base?

The following emergency services:
(a) Alarm bell or siren?
(b) Fire extinguishers of appropriate
specifications and in sufficient
numbers?
(c) First aid kits with validity?
(d) No-smoking sign displayed?
02
Whether manpower has been developed to

handle emergency situations and equipments?
03
Whether procedures have been developed to

co-ordinate with the local fire stations?
04
Whether an emergency procedures have been

developed to handle:
(a) Aircraft accident and incident?
(b) Removal of disabled aircraft?
(c) Any other emergency?
05
Whether an emergency response plan has been

developed and the procedure is displayed in
suitable locations?
3.7 FINDINGS:
3.9 COMMENTS:
3.10 RECOMMENDATIONS:
NAME OF INSPECTOR
DATE OF AUDIT
SIGNATURE
SEAL
NAME OF INSPECTOR
DATE OF AUDIT
SIGNATURE
SEAL
SAT
UNSAT
SAT
UNSAT
Issue: Original
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Page 75 of 295
4. AIR WORTHINESS AUDIT

4.1 Manpower, Manuals, Documents
SL.NO
ITEMS
RESPONSE
Man power:
01
04
Whether the ATO has adequate number of

qualified Engineers and Technicians?
Whether the Engineers and Technicians are
subjected to refresher courses?
Whether the Quality Control Manager is
approved by CAAB and a regular employee of
the ATO?
Whether the training records are maintained?
Manuals:
01
Whether the ATO has an approved and valid

AMO?
Whether the AMO approval certificate is
displayed?
Whether there is any change of aircraft type,
Manpower since the approval of AMO?
Whether a Maintenance Schedule and
Maintenance Program are followed?
Whether the above are CAAB approved?
02
03
02
03
04
05
06
07
08
c
01
02
REMARKS
Are those amended as per the Maintenance

Manual?
Whether SBs and ADs are received by the ATO
and are complied with?
Whether the log books are complete in respect
of periodic inspections and replacement of
parts?
Documents:
Whether the owners name plates are same as
in the C of R?
Whether the following documents are available
and valid?
(a) C of R
(b) C of A
(c) Radio licence
(d) Insurance
(e) W and B certificate
(f) Journey log book
(g) Flight release certificate
(h) POH/AFM
Issue: Original
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4.2
Aircraft and Maintenance
SL.NO
ITEMS
RESPONSE
Aircraft Inspection:
01
Whether all emergency equipment on board:

(a) First aid kit?
(b) Shoulder harness?
(c) Fire extinguishers?
(d) Torches?
Whether no-smoking sign is placarded in the
cockpit?
Whether the following items are available and
serviceable:
(a) Basic flight and engine instruments and
markings?
(b) Cockpit and instrument lights?
(c) Navigation lights?
(d) Taxi and landing lights?
(e) Compass card?
(f) Placards as per TC?
Whether propeller tips are painted?
02
03
04
05
06
Whether there is any exterior damage, fuel-oil

leak, damaged tire observed?
Whether door operation is normal?
Maintenance:
01
Whether the ATO maintains its own aircraft or

contracted out?
If contracted out, whether there is an agreement
and approved by CAAB?
Whether the operation is spread at more than
one aerodrome?
If yes,
(a) Whether every set-up is equipped with
maintenance facility for the type of
operation certified?
(b) Whether store maintains proper
account of spare transfer?
Whether engine condition trend monitoring
(ECTM) is maintained for turbine engines?
Whether the ATO maintains a record of fuel and
oil?
Whether the ATO stocks fuel in barrel?
If yes,
(a) Whether licence has been obtained for
explosive?
(b) Whether a standard procedure is
followed for keeping fuel in barrel?
(c) Whether proper procedure is followed
for barrel fuelling?
(d) Whether a chapter in QC manual exists
for barrel fuelling?
02
03
O4
05
06
07
08
Issue: Original
November, 2016
REMARKS
Page 77 of 295
SL.NO
ITEMS
RESPONSE
09
Whether a defect register is maintained?
10
Whether defect is rectified promptly?
Hangar and shop Facilities:
01
Whether the ATO has its own hangar space for

housing the aircraft?
If yes, whether hangar space is:
(a) Available on permanent basis?
(b) Properly ventilated and lighted?
(c) Having fire protection facilities?
(d) Sufficient for housing all its aircraft?
(e) Sufficient to carry out scheduled
maintenance work?
If not, whether the ATO has hangar arrangement
with others to comply with all the requirements
mentioned above?
If yes, is there an agreement approved by
CAAB?
Whether quarantine stores are properly tagged?
02
03
04
05
06
07
08
09
11
REMARKS
Whether bonded stores are well arranged, and

neat and clean?
Whether tires are stored properly and a record
of rotation is maintained?
Whether adequate quantity of equipment such
as steps, trestles, work-benches available to
carry out work properly?
Whether the ATO has a battery shop?
Whether precision instruments for maintenance
are serviceable and periodically calibrated?
4.3 FINDINGS:
4.4 COMMENTS:
NAME OF INSPECTOR
DATE OF AUDIT
SIGNATURE
SEAL
SAT
UNSAT
Issue: Original
November, 2016
Page 78 of 295
5. FINANCIAL
SL.NO
ITEMS
01
Whether financial audit have been carried out?

Whether all the aircraft and the seats are insured?
02
03
04
RESPONSE
REMARKS
Whether instructors and students are insured?

Whether the ATO is making payment to all its
employees regularly?
05
Whether payment is made regularly to fuel

suppliers?
06
Whether the ATO is making regular payment to all

other vendors, suppliers and land lords?
07
Whether the ATO is making regular payments in

respect of landing, parking and others charges to
CAAB?
5.1 FINDINGS:
5.2 COMMENTS:
NAME OF INSPECTOR
DATE OF AUDIT
SIGNATURE
SEAL
SAT
UNSAT
Issue: Original
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Page 79 of 295
ANO Part-03 (Appendix-F)
Issue: Original
November, 2016
Page 80 of 295
APPENDIX-F
REQUIREMENTS, PRIVILEGES AND LIMITATIONS FOR INSTRUCTORS OF ATOs
1.
PURPOSE: This Appendix provides the Requirements, Privileges and Limitations applicable for
Instructors of ATOs. This Appendix has been developed in line with the Licensing ANO (Part 2) with the
expectation that this will remove doubts and confusions existing regarding the subject matter. This will
also facilitate both the Authorities and the ATOs to accomplish their respective jobs regarding the subject
matter easily and efficiently.
2.
APPLICABILITY: In addition to whatever prescribed in other CAAB documents, contents of this Appendix
shall be applicable for all ATOs operating under the authority of CAAB and shall be effective upon the
approval of the Chairman and receipt by the ATOs either by hard/soft copy or on the date of uploading
in the CAAB website.
3.
INSTRUCTORS FOR PILOT LICENSING
3.1
General Requirements
(a)
Applicability
(1)
This Appendix prescribes the requirements for the issuance of instructor, ratings or
authorisations, the conditions under which those ratings and authorisations are
necessary, and the privileges and limitations on those ratings and authorisations
applicable for ATOs.
(2)
The following instructor ratings and authorisations are issued under this Appendix:
(i)
Flight Instructor ratings;
(ii)
Ground Instructor authorizations, with basic, advanced and instrument rating;

and
(iii)
Simulator Flight Instructor Authorizations (SFI) of FSTDs.
4.
FLIGHT INSTRUCTORS
4.1
Flight Instructor Rating Requirements, Skill Test and Proficiency
Check
(a)
Age. The applicant for a flight instructor rating shall be of the appropriate age for the underlying
rating to be held.
(b)
Medical fitness. The applicant for a flight instructor rating shall have a Class 1 medical certificate.
(c)
Knowledge.
(1)
Issue: Original
Receive and log training from an authorized instructor and pass a flight instructor
knowledge test on:
(i)
The aeronautical knowledge areas for a private and commercial pilot licences
applicable to the aircraft category for which flight instructor privileges are
sought; and
(ii)
The aeronautical knowledge areas for the instrument rating applicable to the
category for which instrument flight instructor privileges are sought.
November, 2016
Page 81 of 295
(2)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
Meet the requirements for fundamentals of knowledge instruction as listed in the CAAB
approved IT manual.
Experience. The applicant shall hold a licence with the aircraft category, and if applicable
class and/or type rating, that is appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought as follows:
(1)
For an instructor licence in the aeroplane category hold either a CPL or ATPL
aeroplane category with instrument rating and appropriate class and/ or type ratings;
(2)
For an instructor licence in the helicopter category hold either a CPL or ATPL
helicopter category and any applicable class or type rating;
(3)
For an instructor instrument rating hold an IR in the appropriate category of aircraft.
Flight instruction. Receive flight instruction from an authorized instructor in the areas of:
(1)
Flight instructional techniques including demonstration,

recognition and correction of common student errors; and
student
practices,
(2)
Have practiced instructional techniques in those flight manoeuvres and procedures in

which it is intended to provide flight instruction.
(3)
Before receiving flight instruction, an applicant shall demonstrate his/her suitability by

a presentation in a simulated or actual class environment to the satisfaction of CAAB.
(4)
Minimum flight instruction shall be done as per the training program of the ATO.
Skill.
(1)
Receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor to indicate that the

applicant is proficient on the areas of operation listed in the Skills Test, appropriate to
the flight instructor rating sought and certified as such;
(2)
Pass the required skill test conducted by an inspector or a designated examiner that
is appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought, in an
(i)
Aircraft that is representative of the category of aircraft, and if applicable

class and/or type, for the aircraft rating sought; or
(ii)
Approved flight simulation training device (FSTD) that is representative of

the category, and if applicable class and/or type of aircraft for the rating sought,
and used in accordance with an approved course at an ATO certified under this
Part and ANO (OPS) A-7(A).
Skill test-Aeroplane Category. The skill test and proficiency check for the flight instructor rating aeroplane shall include at least the following areas of operation with CRM competencies applied
and evident in all tasks appropriate to the category and class of aircraft:
Note 1: When (SE) is indicated the item or paragraph is only for single-engine, when (ME) is
indicated the item or paragraphs is only for multi-engine. When nothing is indicated, the item or
paragraph is for single-engine and multi-engine.
Note 2: When (S) is indicated, the item is only for seaplanes, when (L) is indicated, the item is
only for landplanes. When nothing is indicated, the item is for land and seaplanes.
(1)
Issue: Original
Fundamentals of instruction including the applicants knowledge and performance of

the following tasks
(i)
The learning process.
(ii)
The teaching process.
(v)
Teaching methods.
(vi)
Evaluation.
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(2)
(3)
(4)
(vii)
Flight instructor characteristics and responsibilities.
(viii)
Human factors.
(ix)
Planning instructional activity.
Technical subject areas including the applicants knowledge and performance of the
following tasks
(i)
Aero-medical factors.
(ii)
Visual Scanning and collision avoidance.
(iii)
Principles of flight.
(iv)
Aeroplane weight and balance.
(vi)
Navigation and flight planning.
(vi)
Night operations.
(vii)
High altitude operations (if applicable).
(viii)
Regulations and publications.
(ix)
Use of minimum equipment list (if applicable).
(x)
National airspace system.
(xi)
Navigation aids and radar services.
(xii)
Logbook entries and licence endorsements.
(xiii)
Water and seaplane characteristics (S)
(xiv)
Seaplane bases, rules and aids to marine navigation (S).
Preflight preparation including the applicants knowledge and performance of the

following tasks
(i)
Licences and documents.
(ii)
Weather information.
(iii)
Operation of systems.
(iv)
Performance and limitations.
(v)
Airworthiness requirements.
Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight; including the applicants

knowledge and performance of the following task
(i)
(5)
Issue: Original
Maneuver lesson(s)
Preflight procedures including the applicants knowledge and performance of the

following tasks
(i)
Preflight inspection.
(ii)
Cockpit management.
(iii)
Engine starting.
(iv)
Taxiing (L).
(v)
Taxiing (S).
(vi)
Sailing (S).
(vii)
Before takeoff check.

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(6)
(7)
(8)
(9)
(10)
Issue: Original
Aerodrome and seaplane base operations including the applicants knowledge and
performance of the following tasks
(i)
Radio communications and ATC light signals.
(ii)
Traffic patterns.
(iii)
Aerodrome and runway markings and lighting.
Takeoff, landing and go-around including the applicants knowledge and

(i)
Normal and crosswind takeoff and climb.
(ii)
Short field (Confined area (S) takeoff and maximum performance climb.
(iii)
Soft field takeoff and climb (SE).
(iv)
Glossy water takeoff and climb (S).
(v)
Rough water takeoff and climb (S).
(vi)
Normal and crosswind approach and landing.
(vii)
Slip to a landing (SE).
(viii)
Go-around/rejected landing.
(ix)
Short field (Confined area (S)) approach and landing.
(x)
Soft field approach and landing (SEL).
(xi)
Power-off 180 degrees accuracy approach and landing (SEL).
(xii)
Glassy water approach and landing (S).
(xiii)
Rough water approach and landing (S).
(xiv)
Touch and Go (L).
Fundamentals of flight including the applicants knowledge and performance of the

following tasks
(i)
Straight-and-level flight.
(ii)
Level turns.
(iii)
Straight climbs and climbing turns.
(iv)
Straight descents and descending turns.
Performance manoeuvres including the applicants knowledge and performance of

the following tasks
(i)
Steep turns.
(ii)
Steep spirals (SE).
(iii)
Chandelles (SE).
(iv)
Lazy eights (SE).
Ground reference manoeuvres including the applicants knowledge and

(i)
Rectangular course.
(ii)
S-turns across a road.
(iii)
Turns around a point.
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(iv)
(11)
(12)
(13)
(14)
(15)
Issue: Original
Eights on pylons (SE).
Slow flight, stalls and spins including the applicants knowledge and performance of
the following tasks
(i)
Maneuvering during slow flight.
(ii)
Power-on stalls (proficiency).
(iii)
Power-off stalls (proficiency).
(iv)
Crossed-control stalls (demonstration) (SE).
(v)
Elevator- trim stalls (demonstration) (SE).
(vi)
Secondary stalls (demonstration) (SE).
(vii)
Spins (SEL) (if applicable).
Basic instrument manoeuvres including the applicants knowledge and performance

of the following tasks
(i)
(ii)
Constant airspeed climbs.
(iii)
Constant airspeed descents.
(iv)
Turns to headings.
(v)
Partial panel flight.
(vi)
Recovery from unusual flight attitudes.
Emergency operations (SE) including the applicants knowledge and performance of

the following tasks
(i)
Emergency approach and landing (simulated).
(ii)
Systems and equipment malfunctions.
(iii)
Emergency equipment and survival gear.
Emergency operations (ME) including the applicants knowledge and performance

(i)
(ii)
Engine failure during takeoff before V1.
(iii)
Engine failure after lift-off.
(iv)
Approach and landing with an inoperative engine.
(v)
Emergency descent.
(vi)
Multi-engine operations (ME) including the applicants knowledge and performance

(i)
Operation of systems.
(ii)
(iii)
Flight principles engine inoperative.
(iv)
Maneuvering with one engine inoperative.
(v)
Vmca demonstration.
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(vi)
(16)
(h)
Demonstrating the effects of various airspeeds and configurations during

engine inoperative performance.
Post-flight procedures including the applicants knowledge and performance of the

following tasks
(i)
Post-flight procedures.
(ii)
Docking and mooring (S).
(iii)
Beaching (S).
(iv)
Ramping (S)
Skill test-Flight Instructor for Instrument Ratings (A & H). The skill test and proficiency
for
the flight instructor for instrument ratings aeroplane and helicopter shall include at least the
1following areas of operation with CRM competencies applied and evident in all tasks appropriate
1to the category, and if applicable class, of aircraft:
Note 1: When (SE) is indicated, the item or paragraph is only for single-engine, when (ME) is
indicated the item or paragraphs is only for multi-engine. When nothing is indicated, the item
and paragraph are for single-engine and multi-engine.
Note 2: When (A) is indicated, the item or paragraph is only for Aeroplane. When (H) is
indicated, the item or paragraph is only for Helicopter. When nothing is indicated, the item and
the paragraph are for all categories.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Fundamentals of instructing including the applicants knowledge and performance of

the following tasks
(i)
The learning process.
(ii)
Human behaviour and effective communication.
(iii)
The teaching process.
(iv)
Teaching methods.
(v)
Critique and evaluation.
(vi)
Flight instructor characteristics and responsibilities.
(vii)
Planning instructional activity.
Technical subject areas including the applicants knowledge and performance of the
following tasks
(i)
Aircraft flight instruments and navigation equipment.
(ii)
(iii)
Regulations and publications related to IFR operations.
(iv)
Logbook entries related to instrument instruction.

following tasks
(i)
(ii)
Cross-country flight planning.
(iii)
Instrument cockpit check.
Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight including the applicants

knowledge and performance of the following task
(i)
Issue: Original
Maneuver lesson(s).
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(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
(9)
(10)
Air traffic control clearances and procedures including the applicants knowledge and
(I)
Air traffic control clearances.
(ii)
Compliance with departure, en-route and arrival procedures and clearances.
Flight by reference to instruments including the applicants knowledge and

(I)
(ii)
Turns.
(iii)
Change of airspeed in straight-and-level and turning flight.
(iv)
Constant airspeed climbs and descents.
(v)
Constant rate climbs and descents.
(vi)
Partial panel flight.
(vii)
Timed turns to magnetic compass headings.
(viii)
Steep turns.
(ix)
Recovery from unusual flight altitudes.
Navigation systems including the applicants knowledge and performance of the

following tasks
(i)
Intercepting and tracking navigational systems and DME Arcs.
(ii)
Holding procedures.
Instrument approach procedures including the applicants knowledge and

(i)
Non-precision instrument approach.
(ii)
Precision instrument approach.
(iii)
Missed approach.
(iv)
Circling approach (A).
(v)
Landing from a straight-in approach.
Emergency operations including the applicants knowledge and performance of the

following tasks
(i)
Loss of communications.
(ii)
Loss of gyro attitude and heading indicators.
(iii)
Engine failure during straight-and-level flight and turns.
(iv)
Instrument approach one engine inoperative.

following task
(i)
Checking instruments and equipment.
4.2
Validity. Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this Appendix, the validity period
of instructor rating is 24 months.
4.3
Renewal. A flight instructor rating that has not expired may be renewed for an additional 24 calendar
months if the holder
Issue: Original
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(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
4.4
4.6
(i)
Renewal of the flight instructor licence; or
(ii)
An additional flight instructor rating; or
(iii)
Recurrent training
Presents to an inspector
(i)
A record of training students that shows during the preceding 24 calendar

months the flight instructor has endorsed at least five students for a skill test
for a licence or rating, and at least 80 percent of those students passed that
test on the first attempt;
(ii)
A graduation certificate showing that the pilot has successfully completed

an
approved flight instructor refresher course consisting of ground training or
flight training, or both, within the 90 days preceding the expiration month of
his or her flight instructor rating.
If a flight instructor accomplishes the renewal requirements within the 90 days preceding
the expiration month of his or her flight instructor licence
(i)
The CAAB shall consider that the flight instructor accomplished the renewal
requirement in the month due; and
(ii)
The CAAB shall renew the current flight instructor rating for an additional 24
calendar months from its expiration date.
A flight instructor may accomplish the skill test required by this Appendix in an approved
course conducted by an ATO certified under this Part.
For the renewal of a single-engine class rating, the pilot shall:
(i)
Within the preceding 24 calendar months, complete a proficiency check on

areas of operation listed in the skill test that is applicable to the level of licence,
category and class rating; and
(ii)
Have completed 12 instructional flight hours flight time within the 12 months
preceding the expiry date.
Reissue. If the instructor rating has expired, the applicant shall:

(1)
Have received refresher training from an authorized instructor with an endorsement

that the person is prepared for the required skill test; and
(2)
Pass the prescribed skill test.
Additional flight instructor rating.

(a)
4.7
Passes a skill test for
Renewal time frame:

(1)
4.5
An applicant for an additional flight instructor rating shall meet the requirements listed in this
Appendix that applies to the flight instructor rating sought.
Flight instructor records. A flight instructor shall

(1)
Sign the logbook of each person to whom that instructor has given flight training or
ground training.
(2)
Maintain a record in a logbook or separate document that contains the following

(i)
Issue: Original
The name of each person whose logbook or student pilot licence that
instructor has endorsed for solo flight privileges, and the date of the
endorsement; and
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(ii)
(3)
4.8
The name of each person that instructor has endorsed for a knowledge test
or skill test, and a record of the kind of test, the date, and the results.
Retain the records required for at least 2 years.
Flight instructor limitations and qualifications. The holder of a flight instructor rating shall observe the
following limitations and qualifications.
(1)
Duty Limitations.
(i)
Maximum number of flights a day 4 flights;
(ii)
Maximum duty time in a day 10:00 hours including pre-flight and post flight
briefing;
(iii)
Maximum flight time Day 5:00 hours, may be extended up to 6:00 hours in
case of 300 nm x-country flights; OR
Night 3:00 hours; OR
Day & Night 4:00 hours (max 2:00 hours at night)
(iv)
Maximum Weekly 25:00 hours;
(v)
Maximum Monthly 75:00 hours;
(vi)
Maximum Yearly 700:00 hours.
(2)
Limitation of operations of more than one category or class of aircraft.

(i)
Flight instructors shall not operate more than one category or make, model and
series of aircraft in a day.
(ii)
Flight instructors having ratings in more than one category or make, model and
series of aircraft shall maintain currency requirements in each category or make,
model and series of aircraft as set forth in this Part.
(3)
Rest Period
(i)
Minimum rest period shall be 3 times the block time of the previous day or 10
hours, whichever is more.
(ii)
24 hours rest in any consecutive 7 days period.

Note: Day means consecutive 24 hours.
(4)
Required licence and ratings. A flight instructor may not conduct flight training in
any aircraft for which the flight instructor does not hold a pilot licence and flight
instructor rating with the applicable category and if applicable class or type rating.
(5)
For instrument flight training or for training for a type rating not limited to VFR, an
appropriate instrument rating on his or her flight instructor rating and pilot licence.
(6)
Limitations on endorsements. A flight instructor may not endorse the following:

(i)
Issue: Original
Student pilots licence or logbook for solo flight privileges, unless that flight
instructor has
(A)
Given that student the flight training required for solo flight privileges
required by this Appendix;
(B)
Determined that the student is prepared to conduct the flight safely

under known circumstances, subject to any limitations listed in the
students logbook that the instructor considers necessary for the safety
of the flight;
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(ii)
(iii)
(C)
Given that student pilot training in the make and model of aircraft or a
similar make and model of aircraft in which the solo flight is to be flown;
and
(D)
Endorsed the student pilots logbook for the specific make and model
aircraft to be flown.
Student pilots licence and logbook for a solo cross country flight, unless that
flight instructor has determined that
(A)
The students flight preparation, planning, equipment, and proposed

procedures are adequate for the proposed flight under the existing
conditions and within any limitations listed in the logbook that the
instructor considers necessary for the safety of the flight; and
(B)
The student has the appropriate solo cross country endorsement for
the make and model of aircraft to be flown.
Student pilots licence and logbook for solo flight in a Class B airspace area
or at an airport within Class B airspace unless that flight instructor has
(A)
Given that student ground and flight training in that Class B airspace
or at that airport; and
(B)
Determined that the student is proficient to operate the aircraft safely.
(7)
Training in a multiengine aeroplane or helicopter A flight instructor may not give

training required for the issuance of a licence or rating in multiengine aeroplane or
helicopter, unless that flight instructor has at least 5 flight hours of PIC time in the specific
make and model of multiengine aeroplane or helicopter, as appropriate.
(8)
Qualifications of the flight instructor for training first-time flight instructor

applicants.
(i)
Issue: Original
No flight instructor may provide instruction to another instructor pilot

applicant who has never held a flight instructor rating unless that flight
instructor
(E)
Holds a current ground or flight instructor licence with the appropriate

rating, has held that licence for at least 24 months, and has given at
least 40 hours of ground training; or
(B)
Holds a current ground instructor authorization or flight instructor

rating and has given at least 100 hours of ground training in a course
which has been approved by the CAAB.
(ii)
Meets the eligibility requirements prescribed in (f) (2) (ii) of this Appendix.
(iii)
For training in preparation for an aeroplane or helicopter rating, has given at

least 200 hours of flight training as a flight instructor.
(9)
Prohibition against self-endorsements. A flight instructor may not make any self
endorsement for a licence, rating, flight review, authorisation, operating privilege, skill
test, or knowledge test that is required by this Appendix.
(10)
Category II and Category III instructions: A flight instructor may not give training
in Category II or Category III operations unless the flight instructor has been trained
and tested in Category II or Category III operations as applicable.
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4.9
FLIGHT INSTRUCTORS CATEGORIES (AEROPLANES & HELICOPTERS)
4.9.1 Categories, Requirements, Privileges & Limitations of Flight Instructors

Experiences
Sl
No.
Catego
ries
01
02
03
Minimum
Hours/Qualifi
cations
500
300
Flight
Instructor
Rating
Minimum
Instructional
Hours
200
100
Nil
Minimum
Instructional
Hours on the
Category &
Class Aircraft
Privileges
Remarks
25
Privileges to Train all Subject to Satisfactory

Types of Flight Training Evaluation Flight by
Inspector/Examiner
of ATOs.
25
Privileges to train GF,

Subject to Satisfactory
VFR NAV, Instrument,
Evaluation Flight by
Ab-initio Students and
Inspector/Examiner
Night Flights (**)
Nil
Privileges to train post

solo students for GF,
VFR NAV and
Instrument Flights (*).
Subject to satisfactory
presentation of NAV
and Instrument Flight
to CAAB.
(*)
(1)
Minimum total 250 hours and minimum instructional 50 hours; and
(2)
Satisfactory Evaluation Flight by Inspector/Examiner.
(**)
(1)
Minimum total 350 hours and minimum instructional 150 hours; and
(2)
Satisfactory Evaluation Flight by Inspector/Examiner.
4.9.2. Check Pilot (of ATOs):

To have the privileges to conduct check flights of the ATO, the applicant shall have:
(1)
Minimum total 1000 hours, minimum instructional 500 hours and minimum instructional hours on
category and class aircraft 50 hours; and
(2)
Subject to Satisfactory Evaluation Flight by Inspector/Examiner.
Note: ATOs shall determine requirements of Flight Instructors and Check Pilots on the basis of the above
minimum requirements
5.
GROUND INSTRUCTORS
5.1
CATEGORY AND PRIVILEGES OF GROUND INSTRUCTORS
5.2
Ground Instructor Authorizations

(a)
Age. The applicant for a ground instructor licence shall be at least 21 years of age.
(b)
Issue: Original
Knowledge.
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(1)
Receive and log training from an authorized instructor and pass a knowledge test on the
knowledge areas appropriate to the aircraft category, for the ratings and authorization below as
applicable
(2)
(c)
(i)
For a basic authorization, the knowledge for private pilot licence as listed
in this Appendix;
(ii)
For an advanced authorization, private, commercial and Airline transport pilot

knowledge areas as listed in this Appendix;
(iii)
For an instrument rating authorization, the knowledge for the instrument

rating as listed in this Appendix.
(iv)
For Type Technical instructor authorization, knowledge areas appropriate to

the aircraft type;
(v)
For FOO instructor authorization, knowledge areas appropriate for FOO;
(vi)
For Cabin crew instructor authorization, knowledge areas appropriate for CC
(vii)
For IT instructor authorization knowledge areas appropriate for IT;
(viii)
For DG instructor authorization, knowledge areas appropriate for DG;
(ix)
For Av Sec instructor authorization, knowledge areas appropriate for AV

SEC; and
(x)
For GH instructor authorization, knowledge areas appropriate for GH.
Meet the requirements of fundamentals of knowledge instructing as listed in CAAB

approved IT Manual.
Privileges. The holder of a ground instructor authorization may exercise the privileges
appropriate to the authorization held.
(1)
(2)
(3)
Issue: Original
A person who holds a ground instructor basic authorization to provide

(i)
Ground training in the aeronautical knowledge areas required for the

issuance of private pilot licence or associated ratings;
(ii)
Ground training required for a private pilot flight review; and
(iii)
A recommendation for a knowledge test required for the issuance of a private

pilot licence.
A person who holds a ground instructor authorization with an advanced authorization

authorized to provide
is
(i)

issuance of any licence or rating;
(ii)
Ground training required for any flight review; and
(iii)
A recommendation for a knowledge test required for the issuance of any

licence.
A person who holds an instrument ground instructor authorization is authorized to

provide
(i)

issuance of an instrument rating;
(ii)
Ground training required for an instrument proficiency check; and
(iii)
A recommendation for a knowledge test required for the issuance of an

instrument rating.
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(4)
(d)
A person who holds a ground instructor authorization is authorized, within the

limitations of the ground instructor authorization, to impart training, endorse the logbook
or other training record as appropriate of a person to whom the holder has provided the
training. Or recommendation specified in (1) through (3) of this subsection as
appropriate.
Currency requirements. The validity period for a ground instructor licence is 5 years.
(1)
The holder of a ground instructor authorization may not perform the duties of a ground
instructor unless the person can show that one of the following occurred during the
preceding 12 calendar months:
(i)
Employment or activity as a ground instructor giving pilot, flight instructor, or

ground instructor training;
(ii)
Employment or activity as a flight instructor giving pilot, flight instructor, or

ground instructor ground or flight training;
(iii)
Completion of an approved flight instructor refresher course and receipt of a

graduation certificate for that course; or
(iv)
An endorsement from an authorized instructor certifying that the person has

demonstrated knowledge in the subject areas prescribed under this Appendix as
appropriate.
6.
REQUIREMENT FOR INITIAL, RECURRENCE, TRANSITION TRAINING OF SIMULATOR FLIGHT

INSTRUCTOR (SFI) RATING (Aeroplane and Helicopter)
6.1
General: No certificate holder may use a person nor may any person serve as a SFI unless:
(a)
(b)
(c)
6.2
That person holds or held a Flight Instructor Rating in a Class or Type of Aeroplane or
Helicopter as appropriate;
That person has satisfactorily completed initial or transition training/check for airmen
(simulator) training;
SFI rating of that person is valid.
Ground Training:
The initial/ transition ground training for training airmen (simulator) shall include applicable items from the
following list:
(a)
Training airman duties, functions and responsibilities;
(b)
The applicable regulations and the certificate holder's policies and procedures;
(c)
Briefing and de-briefing technique;
(d)
The appropriate methods, procedures and techniques for conducting required training/checks;
(e)
Proper evaluation of student performance including the detection of:
(1)
Improper and insufficient training; and
(2)
Personal characteristics of an applicant that could adversely affect safety;
(f)
Appropriate corrective action in case of unsatisfactory training/checks;
(g)
The approved methods, procedures and limitations for performing the required normal, abnormal
and emergency procedures;
(h)
Human performance relevant to flight instruction including principles of threat and error
management;
(i)
Complete ground classes to orient with the FSTD/FTD and certified thereof;
(j)
Initial/recurrent CRM.
Issue: Original
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6.3
Flight Training:
The initial and transition flight training for training airmen (simulator) must include the following:
(a)
Must have completed orientation of Instructor Operating Station (IOS) conducted by a qualified
SFI/SFE;
(b)
Undergo minimum 4 hours of FSTD training for initial and 2 hours for transition simulator flight
training conducted by a qualified SFI/SFE to include at least the following;
(1)
Training and practice in conducting flight training/checks in the required normal,
abnormal and emergency procedures to ensure competence to conduct the flight
training/checks as per the approved syllabus.
(2)
Training and practice must be accomplished in a flight simulator or in a flight training
device;
(c)
Training in the operation of flight simulators or flight training devices to ensure competence to
conduct the flight simulation training.
(d)
Undergo a proficiency check monitored by a FOI for initial issue. Proficiency check shall be in
two parts:
(1)
Undergo a proficiency check; and
(2)
Conduct a flight simulation training flight.
6.4
Privileges:
Holder of a SFI rating is authorized to conduct flight training in a simulator;
6.5
Validity of Rating:
(a)
SFI rating shall be endorsed in the licence of the applicant;
(b)
Validity shall be 12 months from the following month of the proficiency check;
(c)
To maintain validity of the rating, SFI must have conducted at least 04 simulator sessions of at
least 01 hour each satisfactorily within the preceding 06 calendar months;
(c)
Undergone a proficiency check within 30 days before the expiry of the rating;
(d)
Failing to meet (d) shall undergo a proficiency check;
(e)
Revival of rating, if the validity of the rating of a person expired:
(1)
For not more than 12 month, shall undergo a proficiency check;
(2)
For more than 12 months, shall undergo a proficiency check and conduct a training
session under a designated examiner/FOI;
(3)
For more than 05 years, shall meet the full initial requirement.
6.6
Application:
The form in the attachment-10 shall be used for SFI rating for issuance/renewal/revival duly filled in
and signed by the applicant.
----------------------------------------------
Issue: Original
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ANO Part-03 (Appendix-G)
APPENDIX - G
TRAINING AND TESTING REQUIREMENTS FOR SP, PPL, CPL & IR
1.
GENERAL
1.1
Documentation of Training and Aeronautical Experience

(a)
1.2
1.3
Each person shall document and record the following in a manner acceptable to the CAAB:
(1)
Training and/or experience used to meet the requirements for a licence, rating,
endorsement and/or authorisation of this Part; and
(2)
The experience required to show the maintaining of recency of aeronautical

experience according to the requirements of this Part.
Training Conducted in an Approved Training Organisation

(a)
Approved training for aviation personnel licences shall be conducted within an approved training
organisation.
(b)
The CAAB may approve a training programme for a licence, rating, authorisation or
endorsement that allows an alternative means of compliance with the experience
requirements prescribed in this Part when training is conducted within an Approved Training
Organisation under special curricula approved by the CAAB under ANO Part 3.
(c)
Prior to authorizing an alternative means of compliance that permits an Approved Training

Organisation to conduct training, which does not meet the normal prescribed experience
requirements, the CAAB shall ensure that the approved training programme provides a level of
competency at least equal to that provided by the minimum experience requirements for
personnel not receiving such approved special curricula.
(d)
ANO Part 3 prescribes the requirements for certifying and administering Approved Training
Organisations for conducting approved training.
(e)
Competency-based approved training for aircraft maintenance personnel shall be conducted

within an approved training organisation.
Use of Flight Simulation Training Devices

(a)
Except as specified in paragraph (b) of this subsection, no airman may receive credit for use of
any flight simulation training device for satisfying any training, testing, or checking requirement
of this part unless that flight simulator or flight training device is approved by the CAAB for
(1)
The training, testing, and checking for which it is used;
(2)
Each particular maneuver, procedure, or crewmember function performed; and
(3)
The representation of the specific category and class of aircraft, type of aircraft, particular
variation within the type of aircraft, or set of aircraft for certain flight training devices.
(b)
The flight simulation training device shall have the same technology for the basic flight
instruments (attitude indicator, airspeed, altimeter, and heading reference) as those of the
aircraft used by the operator.
(c)
Operators that have electronic/glass displays shall use simulators that have electronic/glass
displays.
(d)
Operators that have standard instruments shall use simulators that have standard instruments.
Issue: Original
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1.4
1.5
(e)
Operators shall not conduct differences training or variant training on aircraft that have
electronic glass displays with aircraft that have standard instruments.
(f)
The CAAB may approve a device other than a flight simulation training device for specific
purposes.
Knowledge and Skill Tests and Checks: Time, Place, Designated Persons and Format
(a)
Knowledge and Skill Tests and Checks prescribed by or under this Part are given at times,
places, and by persons authorized and designated by the CAAB.
(b)
The knowledge test will be performed in written or computer format, except for the knowledge
test for an instructor licence or an additional instructor rating within the same aircraft
category, which may be performed orally.
(c)
In addition to the written knowledge test, candidates may be questioned orally during the skill
test, as appropriate.
Knowledge and Skill Tests and ChecksPrerequisites, Passing Grades and Retesting After Failure
(a)
An applicant for a knowledge test and/or a skill test shall have received any required
endorsement as specified in this Part for the applicable licence, rating or authorisation to show
that the applicant has met the training and/or experience requirements to take the knowledge
and/or skill test.
(b)
An applicant for a knowledge and skill test shall receive written authorisation from the CAAB to
take, or retake, the test.
(c)
An applicant shall show proper identification in the form of a Government issued identification
document at the time of application that contains the applicants:
(1)
Photograph;
(2)
Signature;
(3)
Date of birth, which shows the applicant meets or will meet the age requirements of this
Part for the licence sought before the expiration date of the airman knowledge test report;
and
(4)
Actual residential address, if different from the applicants mailing address.
(d)
The CAAB will specify the minimum passing grades.
(e)
An applicant shall, before attempting the skill test for a licence or rating:
(1)
Have passed the required knowledge test within the 24 calendar-month period
preceding the month the applicant successfully completes the skill test;
Note: Knowledge subject(s) passed earlier than 24 months shall be deemed as lapsed
and the candidate will have to take re-test(s) on the lapsed subjects.
(f)
Issue: Original
When an applicant is required to provide an aircraft for a skill test, it must:

(1)
Be airworthy and certificated.
(2)
Be capable of performing all areas of operation appropriate to the rating sought and
have no operating limitations, which prohibit its use in any of the areas of operation,
required for the skill test.
(3)
Not have operating limitations that prohibit the tasks required for the skill test.
(4)
Be of national, foreign or military registry of the same category, class, and type if
applicable, for the licence and/or rating for which the applicant is applying, with
appropriate letter of authorisation for aircraft use in a skill test if applicant is not the
owner of the foreign registered or military aircraft.
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(5)
Have:
(i)
Fully functioning dual controls;
(ii)
At least two pilot stations with adequate visibility for each person to operator the
aircraft safety;
(iii)
Cockpit and outside visibility adequate to evaluate the performance of the

applicant when an additional jump seat is provided for the examiner.
(g)
If the applicant is required to take a segmented skill test using a flight simulation training device
and an aircraft, the flight simulation training device must be approved by the CAAB.
(h)
Retesting after failure of a test.

(1)
(2)
An applicant for a knowledge or skill test who fails that test may reapply to retake the
test only after the applicant has received:
(ii)
The necessary training from an authorized instructor who has determined that
the applicant is proficient to pass the test; and
(iii)
An endorsement from an authorized instructor who gave the applicant the

additional training.
An applicant for a flight instructor rating with an aeroplane category rating, who has failed
the skill test due to deficiencies in instructional proficiency on stall awareness, spin entry,
spins, or spin recovery shall:
(i)
Comply with the requirements of paragraph (h)(1) & (2) of this subsection
before being retested;
(ii)
Bring an aircraft to the retest that is of the appropriate aircraft category for
the rating sought and is certified for spins (as appropriate); and
(iv)
Demonstrate satisfactory instructional proficiency on stall awareness, spin entry,

spins, and spin recovery (as appropriate), to an examiner during the retest.
2.
STUDENT PILOT LICENSE (SPL)
2.1
(a)
Applicability. This sub-part shall be applicable for student pilots of an ATO until replaced by PPL.
(b)
Age. The applicant for a student pilot authorisation shall be not less than 16 years of age.
(c)
Knowledge. The applicant for a student pilot licence shall receive and log ground training from an
authorized instructor on the following subjects:
(d)
(1)
Applicable sections of this Part and other Licencing ANO for the category of aircraft to be
flown and;
(2)
Airspace rules and procedures for the aerodrome where the student will perform solo
flight; and
(3)
Flight characteristics and operation limitations for the make and model of aircraft to be
flown.
Pre-solo flight instruction. Prior to conducting a solo flight, a student pilot shall have:
(1)
Issue: Original
Received and logged flight training for the manoeuvres and procedures applicable to
the aircraft category including flight training in those manoeuvres and procedures at
night, if the solo flight is to be conducted at night.
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(2)
(e)
2.2
Demonstrated satisfactory proficiency and safety, as judged by an authorized

instructor, on the manoeuvres and procedures for the appropriate category, and class
if applicable, of aircraft.
Solo flight requirements: A student pilot shall not fly solo:

(1)
Unless holding at least a Class 2 Medical Certificate;
(2)
Unless attended minimum of 100 hours ground training;
(3)
Unless passed type technical examination;
(4)
Unless passed a pre-solo check conducted by CFI;
(2)
Unless under the supervision of, or with the authority of, a licenced flight instructor;
and
(3)
In international flight unless there is a special or general arrangement between

Bangladesh and the intended State of flight.
Student Pilot Manoeuvres and Procedures for Pre-Solo Flight TrainingAeroplane Category
(a)
2.3
A student pilot who is receiving training for solo flight in an aeroplane shall receive and log
flight training for the following manoeuvres and procedures:
(1)
Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight planning and preparation,

power plant operation and aircraft systems.
(2)
Taxiing, or surface operations, including run-ups.
(3)
Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind.
(4)
Straight and level flight and turns in both directions.
(5)
Climbs and climbing turns.
(6)
Aerodrome traffic patterns including entry and departure procedures.
(7)
Collision avoidance, wind shear avoidance and wake turbulence avoidance.
(8)
Descents, with and without turns, using high and low drag configurations.
(9)
Flight at various airspeeds from cruise to slow flight.
(10)
Stall entries from various flight attitudes and power combinations with recovery
initiated at the first indication of a stall and recovery from a full stall.
(11)
Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions.
(12)
Ground reference manoeuvres.
(13)
Approaches to a landing area with simulated engine malfunctions.
(14)
Slips to a landing (SE only).
(15)
Go-around.
Student Pilot Manoeuvres and Procedures for Pre-Solo Flight TrainingHelicopter Category
(a)
Issue: Original
A student pilot who is receiving training for solo flight in a helicopter shall receive and log flight
training for the following manoeuvres and procedures:
(2)
Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight planning and preparation, power
plant operation and aircraft systems.
(3)
Taxiing, or surface operations, including run-ups.
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(4)
Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind.
(5)
Straight and level flight and turns in both directions.
(6)
Climbs and climbing turns.
(7)
Aerodrome traffic patterns including entry and departure procedures.
(8)
Collision avoidance, wind shear avoidance and wake turbulence avoidance.
(9)
Descents, with and without turns, using high and low drag configurations.
(10)
Flight at various airspeeds.
(11)
Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions.
(12)
Ground reference manoeuvres.
(13)
Approaches to the landing area.
(14)
Hovering and hovering turns.
(15)
Go-around.
(16)
Simulated emergency procedures, including auto rotational descents with a power

recovery and power recovery to hover.
(17)
Rapid decelerations.
(17)
Simulated one-engine-inoperative approaches and landings for multi-engine

helicopters.
3.
PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE (PPL)
3.1
(a)
Age. The applicant for a PPL in all categories other than balloon and glider shall be not less than
17 years of age.
(b)
Medical fitness. The applicant for a PPL shall hold a current Class 2 Medical Certificate as
issued under this Part.
(c)
Knowledge areas. The applicant for a PPL shall receive and log ground training from an
authorized instructor on the following subjects appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder
of a private pilot licence and appropriate to the category of aircraft to be included on the licence:
(1)
Air law:
(i)
(2)
Issue: Original
Rules and regulations relevant to the holder of a PPL; rules of the air;
appropriate air traffic services practices and procedures.
Aircraft general knowledge:

(i)
Principles of operation and functioning of power plants, systems and

instruments.
(ii)
Operating limitations of aeroplanes and the relevant category of aircraft and

power plants; relevant operational information from the flight manual or other
appropriate document.
(iii)
For helicopter and powered lift, transmission (power-trains) where applicable;
(iv)
For airship and balloon, physical properties of gases.
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(3)
(4)
(5)
Flight performance and planning:

(i)
Effects of loading and mass distribution on flight characteristics; mass and

balance calculations.
(ii)
Use and practical application of take-off or launching, landing and other

performance data.
(iii)
Pre-flight and en-route flight planning appropriate to private operations under

VFR; preparation and filing of air traffic services flight plans; appropriate air
traffic services procedures; position reporting procedures; altimeter setting
procedures; operations in areas of high-density traffic.
Human performance and limitations:

(i)
Human performance relevant to the appropriate category of aircraft.
(ii)
Principles of threat and error management.
Meteorology:
(i)
(6)
(8)
(i)
Application of threat and error management to operational procedures.
(ii)
Altimeter setting procedures.
(iii)
Use of aeronautical documentation such as AIP, NOTAM, aeronautical codes

and abbreviations.
(iv)
Appropriate precautionary and emergency procedures, including action to be

taken to avoid hazardous weather, wake turbulence and other operating
hazards.
(v)
In the case of the helicopter, and if applicable, powered lift, settling with power;
ground resonance; retreating blade stall; dynamic roll-over and other operation
hazards; safety procedures, associated with flight under visual meteorological
conditions (VMC).
Principles of flight:
Communications procedures and phraseology as applied to VFR operations;

action to be taken in case of communication failure.
Knowledge testing. The applicant for a PPL shall:

(1)
(2)
Issue: Original
Principles of flight relating to the appropriate category of aircraft.
Radiotelephony:
(i)
(d)
Practical aspects of air navigation and dead-reckoning techniques; use of

aeronautical charts.
Operational procedures:
(i)
(9)
Application of elementary aeronautical meteorology; use of, and procedures

for obtaining, meteorological information; altimetry; hazardous weather
conditions.
Navigation:
(i)
(7)
Have received an endorsement for the knowledge test from an authorized instructor
who:
(i)
Conducted the training on the knowledge subjects; and
(ii)
Certifies that the person is prepared for the required knowledge test.
Pass the required written knowledge test on the knowledge areas listed in item (c).
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3.2
(e)
Experience and flight instruction. An applicant for a PPL shall have completed the
experience and flight instruction requirements appropriate to the aircraft category as specified
in this Part.
(f)
Skill. The applicant for a PPL shall:

(1)
Have received an endorsement from an authorized instructor who certifies that the
person is prepared for the required skill test.
(2)
Have demonstrated by passing a skill test the ability to perform as PIC of an aircraft,
within the appropriate category areas of operation, with a degree of competency
appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of a PPL.
(3)
Have demonstrated the ability to:

(i)
Recognize and manage threats;
(ii)
Operate the aircraft within its limitations;
(iii)
Complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;
(v)
Exercise good judgment and airmanship;
(vi)
Apply aeronautical knowledge; and
(vii)
Maintain control of the aircraft at all times in a manner such that the successful
outcome of a procedure or maneuver is assured.
(g)
the holder of a PPL shall be to act, but not for remuneration, as PIC or co-pilot of an aircraft
within the appropriate aircraft category engaged in non-revenue flights.
(h)
of the licence is 5 years.
Experience, Flight Instruction and Skill Test for the PPL Aeroplane Category
(a)
Experience.
(1)
The applicant for a PPL (A) shall have completed not less than 40 hours of flight time, or
35 hours if completed during a course of approved training, as pilot of aeroplanes,
appropriate to the class rating sought. The CAAB shall determine whether experience as
a pilot under instruction in a flight simulation training device is acceptable as part of the
total flight time of 40 or 35 hours, as the case may be. Credit for such experience shall be
limited to a total of 5 hours if completed under instruction in flight simulation training
device approved by the CAAB.
Note: If the applicant is required to fly in more than one type/model of aeroplane, 50% of
the flight time up to the first solo flight, of that aeroplane shall be counted towards the
experience requirement.
Issue: Original
(2)
The applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than 10 hours of solo flight
time under the supervision of an authorized flight instructor, including 5 hours of solo
cross-country flight time with at least one cross-country flight totaling not less than 270 km
(150 NM) in the course of which full-stop landings at two different aerodromes shall be
made.
(3)
The holder of pilot licences in other categories may be credited with 10 hours of the total
flight time as PIC (Solo) towards a PPL (A).
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(b)
Flight Instruction.
(1)
The applicant for a PPL (A) shall receive and log not less than 20 hours of dual instruction
from an authorized instructor. These 20 hours may include 5 hours completed in a flight
simulation training device. The 20 hours of dual instruction shall include at least 5 hours
of solo cross-country flight time with at least one cross-country flight totaling not less than
270 km (150 NM) in the course of which full-stop landings at two different aerodromes
shall be made.
(2)
The instructor shall ensure that the applicant has operational experience in at least
the following areas to the level of performance required for the private pilot:
(3)
(c)
(i)
Recognize and manage threats and errors;
(ii)
Pre-flight operations, including mass and balance determination, aeroplane

inspection and servicing;
(iii)
Aerodrome and traffic pattern operations, collision avoidance precautions and

procedures;
(iv)
Control of the aeroplane by external visual reference;
(v)
Flight at critically slow airspeeds; recognition of, and recovery from, incipient and
full stalls;
(vi)
Flight at critically high airspeeds; recognition of, and recovery from, spiral dives;
(vii)
Normal and cross-wind take-offs and landings;
(viii)
Maximum performance (short field and obstacle clearance) take-offs and, shortfield landings;
(ix)
Flight by reference solely to instruments, including the completion of a level 180

degrees turn;
(x)
Cross-country flying using visual reference, dead reckoning and, where

available, radio navigation aids;
(xi)
Emergency operations, including simulated aeroplane equipment malfunctions;

and
(xii)
Operations to, from and transmitting controlled aerodromes, compliance with air
traffic services procedures, radiotelephony procedures and phraseology.
(xiii)
Communication procedures and phraseology.
If the privileges of the PPL (A) are to be exercised at night, the applicant shall have
received 4 hours dual instruction in aeroplanes in night flying, including take-offs,
landings and 1 hour of navigation.
Skills test. The skill test for the single-engine and multi-engine private pilot licence
aeroplane shall include at least the following areas of operation with CRM competencies applied
and evident in all tasks:
Note 1: When (SE) is indicated, the item or paragraph is only for single-engine, when (ME) is
indicated the item or paragraph is only for multi-engine. When nothing is indicated, the item or
(1)

following tasks:
(i)
Issue: Original

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(2)
(3)
(4)
Issue: Original
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
Operation of system.
(viii)
Principles of flight.
(ix)
Water and Seaplane Characteristics (S).
(x)
Seaplane bases, maritime rules and aids to marine navigation (S).
(xi)

following tasks:
(i)
(ii)
Cockpit management.
(iii)
Engine starting.
(iv)
Taxiing (L).
(v)
Taxiing and sailing (S).
(vi)
Aerodrome and seaplane operations including the applicants knowledge and

performance of the following tasks:
(i)
(ii)
Traffic patterns.
(iii)
Aerodrome/Seaplane Base, runway and taxiway signs, markings and
lighting.
Takeoffs, landings and go-around including the applicants knowledge and

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
Soft-field takeoff and climb (SE) (L).
(iv)
Soft-field approach and landing (SE) (L).
(v)
Short-field (Confined area (S)) takeoff and maximum performance climb.
(vi)
Short-field approach (Confined area (S)) and landing.
(vii)
Glassy Water takeoff and climb (S).
(viii)
(ix)
(x)
(xi)
Forward slip to a landing (SE).
(xii)
Go-around /rejected landing.
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(5)
Performance maneuver including the applicants knowledge and performance of the

following tasks:
(i)
(6)
(7)
(8)
(9)
(10)
(11)
Issue: Original
Steep turns.
Ground reference manoeuvres including the applicants knowledge and performance

of the following tasks:
(i)
Rectangular course.
(ii)
S-turns.
(iii)
Turns around a point.
Navigation including the applicants knowledge and performance of the following

tasks:
(i)
Pilotage and dead reckoning.
(ii)
Navigation systems and radar services.
(iii)
Diversion.
(iv)
Lost procedures.
Slow flight and stalls including the applicants knowledge and performance of the
following tasks:
(i)
(ii)
Power-off stalls.
(iii)
Power-on stalls
(iv)
Spin awareness
Basic instrument manoeuvres including the applicants knowledge and

(i)
(ii)
Constant airspeed climbs.
(iii)
Constant airspeed descents.
(iv)
Turns to headings.
(v)
Recovery from unusual flight.
Radio Communications, navigation systems/facilities and radar services including

the applicants knowledge and performance of the following tasks:
(i)
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to radio communications,

navigation systems/facilities, and radar services available for use during flight
solely by reference to instruments.
(ii)
Selects the proper frequency and identifies the appropriate facility.
(iii)
Follows verbal instructions and/or navigation systems/facilities for guidance.
(iv)
Determines the minimum safe altitude.

following tasks:
(i)
Emergency approach and landing.
(ii)
Emergency descent (ME).
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(12)
(13)
(iii)
Engine failure during takeoff before minimum controllable airspeed (VMC)

(simulated) (ME).
(iv)
Engine failure after lift-off (simulated) (ME).
(v)
Approach and landing with an inoperative engine (simulated) (ME).
(vi)
(vii)
Multi-engine operations (ME) including the applicants knowledge and performance

of the following tasks:
(i)
(ii)
VMC demonstration.
(iii)
Engine failure during flight (by reference to instruments).
(iv)
Instrument approach one engine inoperative (by reference to instruments).
Night operation including the applicants knowledge and performance of the following
tasks:
(i)
(14)
3.3
Night preparation.

following tasks:
(i)
After landing, parking and securing.
(ii)
Anchoring (S).
(iii)
(iv)
Ramping/Beaching (S).
Experience, Flight Instruction and Skill Test for the PPLHelicopter Category
(a)
Experience.
(1)
The applicant for a PPL (H) shall have completed not less than 40 hours of flight time,
or 35 hours if completed during a course of approved training, as a pilot of helicopters.
The CAAB shall determine whether experience as a pilot under instruction in a flight
simulation training device is acceptable as part of the total flight time of 40 or 35 hours, as
the case may be. Credit for such experience shall be limited to a total of 5 hours if
completed under instruction in a flight simulation training device approved by the CAAB.
Note: If the applicant is required to fly in more than one type/model of helicopter, 50% of
Issue: Original
(2)
The applicant shall have completed in helicopter not less than 10 hours of solo flight
time under the supervision of an authorized flight instructor, including 5 hours of solo
cross-country flight time with at least one cross-country flight totaling not less than
180 km (100 NM) in the course of which landings at two different points shall be made.
(3)
The holder of pilot licences in other powered aircraft categories may be credited with
10 hours of the total flight time as PIC towards a PPL (H).
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(b)
(c)
Flight Instruction.
(1)
The applicant for a PPL (H) shall receive and log not less than 20 hours of dual
instruction from an authorized instructor. These 20 hours may include 5 hours
completed in a flight simulation training device. The 20 hours of dual instruction shall
include at least 5 hours of solo cross-country flight time with at least one cross-country
flight totaling not less than 180 km (100 NM) in the course of which landings at two
different points shall be made.
(2)
the following areas to the level of performance required for the private pilot:
(i)
(ii)
Pre-flight operations, including mass and balance determination, helicopter

(iii)

procedures;
(iv)
Control of the helicopter by external visual reference;
(v)
Recovery at the incipient stage from settling with power; recovery techniques
from low-rotor rpm within the normal range of engine rpm;
(vi)
Ground maneuvering and run-ups; hovering; take-offs and landings normal,

out of wind and sloping ground;
(vii)
Take-offs and landings with minimum necessary power; maximum performance

take-off and landing techniques; restricted site operations; quick stops;
(viii)
Cross-country flying using visual reference, dead reckoning and, where

available, radio navigation aids including a flight of at least one hour;
(ix)
Emergency operations, including simulated helicopter equipment malfunctions;

auto-rotation approach and landing;
(x)
traffic services procedures, radiotelephony procedures and phraseology;
(xi)
(xii)
If the privileges of the PPL (H) are to be exercised at night, the applicant shall
have received 4 hours dual instruction in helicopters in night flying, including
take-offs and landings and 1 hour of navigation.
Skills test. The skill test for the private pilot licence - helicopter shall include at least the
following areas of operation with CRM competencies applied and evident in all tasks:
(1)
Issue: Original
Preflight preparation; including the applicants knowledge and performance of the

following tasks
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
Minimum equipment list.
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(viii)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
Issue: Original

following tasks
(i)
(ii)
Cockpit management.
(iii)
Engine Starting and rotor engagement.
(iv)
Aerodrome and heliport operations including the applicants knowledge and

(i)
(ii)
Traffic patterns.
(iii)
Aerodrome and heliport markings and lighting.
Hovering manoeuvres including the applicants knowledge and performance of the

following tasks
(i)
Vertical takeoff and landing.
(ii)
Slope operations.
(iii)
Surface taxi.
(iv)
Hover taxi.
(v)
Air taxi.

(i)
(ii)
Normal and crosswind approach.
(iii)
Maximum performance takeoff and climb.
(iv)
Steep approach.
(v)
Rolling takeoff.
(vi)
Shallow approach and running/roll-on landing.
(vii)
Go-around.

following tasks
(i)
Rapid deceleration.
(ii)
Straight in autorotation.

tasks
(i)
(ii)
Radio navigation and radar services.
(iii)
Diversion.
(iv)
Lost procedures.
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(8)
(9)
(10)

following tasks
(i)
Power failure at a hover.
(ii)
Power failure at altitude.
(iii)
(iv)
Settling-with-power.
(v)
Low rotor RPM recovery.
(vi)
Dynamic rollover.
(vii)
Ground resonance.
(viii)
Low G conditions.
(ix)
Night operation; including the applicants knowledge and performance of the

following tasks
(i)
Physiological aspects of night flying.
(ii)
Lighting and equipment for night flying.

following tasks
(i)
After landing and securing.
4.
COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENSE
4.1
(a)
Age. The applicant for a CPL shall be not less than 18 years of age.
(b)
Medical fitness. The applicant for a CPL shall hold a current Class 1 Medical Certificate issued
under this Part.
(c)
Knowledge areas. The applicant for a CPL shall receive and log ground training from an
authorized instructor on the following subjects appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder
of a commercial pilot licence and appropriate to the category of aircraft to be included on the
licence:
(1)
Issue: Original
Air law:
(i)
Rules and regulations relevant to the holder of a CPL;
(ii)
Rules of the air; appropriate air traffic services practices and procedures;
(iii)
Aircraft general knowledge;
(iv)
Principles of operation and functioning of power plants, systems and

instruments;
(v)
Operating limitations of the appropriate category of aircraft and power plants;

relevant operational information from the flight manual or other appropriate
document;
(vi)
Use and serviceability checks of equipment and systems of appropriate aircraft;
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(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
Issue: Original
(vii)
Maintenance procedures for airframes, systems and power plants of appropriate

aircraft;
(ix)
For helicopters, transmission (power-trains) where applicable; and
Flight performance, planning and loading:

(i)
Effects of loading and mass distribution on aircraft handling, flight

characteristics and performance; mass and balance calculations;
(ii)
Use and practical application of take-off or launching, landing and other

performance data;
(iii)
Pre-flight and en-route flight planning appropriate to commercial operations

under VFR; preparation and filing of air traffic services flight plans;
appropriate air traffic services procedures; and
(iv)
In the case of helicopter, effects of external loading.
Human performance & limitations:

(i)
Human performance relevant to the appropriate aircraft type; and
(ii)
Meteorology:
(i)
Interpretation and application of aeronautical meteorological reports, charts

and forecasts; use of, and procedures for obtaining, meteorological
information, pre-flight and in-flight; altimetry;
(ii)
Aeronautical meteorology; climatology of relevant areas in respect of the

elements having an effect upon aviation; the moment of pressure systems,
the structure of fronts, and the origin and characteristics of significant weather
phenomena which affect take-off, en-route and landing conditions; and
(iii)
Causes, recognition and effects of icing; frontal zone penetration

procedures; hazardous weather avoidance.
Navigation:
(i)
Air navigation, including the use of aeronautical charts, instruments and

navigation aids;
(ii)
Understanding of the principles and characteristics of appropriate navigation

systems; and
(iii)
Operation of air borne equipment.
Operation procedures:
(i)
Application of threat and error management to operational performance;
(ii)
Use of aeronautical documentation such as AIP, NOTAM, aeronautical codes

and abbreviations;
(iii)
Altimeter setting procedures;
(iv)
Appropriate precautionary and emergency procedures;
(v)
Operational procedures for carriage of freight; potential hazards associated

with dangerous goods;
(vi)
Requirements and practices for safety briefing to passengers, including

precautions to be observed when embarking and disembarking from aircraft;
and
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(vii)
(7)
(d)
Principles of flight relating to the appropriate category of aircraft.
Radiotelephony:
(i)
(9)
In the case of the helicopter, and if applicable powered-lift, settling with power,
ground resonance; retreating blade stall; dynamic roll-over and other
operational hazards; safety procedures, associated with flight under VFR.
Principles of flight:
(i)
(8)
Communication procedures and phraseology as applied to VFR operations;

action to be taken in case of communication failure.
Aircraft General knowledge:

(i)
General characteristics and limitations of electrical, hydraulic, pressurization

and other aircraft systems; flight control systems, including autopilot and
stability augmentation;
(ii)
Principles of operation, handling procedures and operating limitations of

aircraft power plants; effects of atmospheric conditions on engine
performance; relevant operational information from the flight manual or other
appropriate document;
(iii)
Operating procedures and limitations of appropriate aircraft; effects of

atmospheric conditions on aircraft performance in accordance to the relevant
operational information from the flight manual;
(iv)
Use and serviceability checks of equipment and systems of the relevant

category of aircraft;
(v)
Flight instruments; compasses, turning and acceleration errors; gyroscopic

instruments, operational limits and precession effects; practices and
procedures in the event of malfunctions of various flight instruments and
electronic display units;
(vi)
Maintenance procedures for airframes, systems and power plants of

appropriate aircraft;
(vii)
For helicopter, and if applicable, powered-lift transmission (power-trains);
Knowledge testing. The applicant for the CPL shall:

(1)
(2)
who:
(i)
Conducted the training on the knowledge subjects; and
(ii)
Pass the required knowledge test on the knowledge subjects listed in (c) above.
(e)
Experience and flight instruction. An applicant for a CPL shall have completed the
in this Part.
(f)
Skill. The applicant for a CPL shall:
Issue: Original
(1)
(2)
Have demonstrated the ability to perform as PIC of an aeroplane by passing a skill

test, with a degree of competency appropriate to the privileges granted to the
holder
of a CPL, and to:
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(h)
4.2
(i)
(ii)
Operate the aeroplane within its limitations;
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
Apply aeronautical knowledge; and
(v)
Maintain control of the aeroplane at all times in a manner such that the
successful outcome of a procedure or maneuver is never seriously in doubt.
(g)
Privileges. Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this Part, the
privileges of the holder of a CPL shall be:
(1)
To exercise all the privileges of the holder of a PPL in an aircraft within the
appropriate aircraft category;
(2)
To act as PIC in an aircraft within the appropriate aircraft category engaged in

operations other than commercial air transportation;
(3)
To act as PIC in commercial air transportation in an aircraft within the appropriate

aircraft category certificated for single-pilot operation;
(4)
To act as co-pilot in aircraft within the appropriate aircraft category required to be

operated with a co-pilot; and
of the licence is 5 years.
Experience, Flight Instruction and Skill Test for the CPLAeroplane Category
(a)
Experience.
(1)
The applicant for a CPL (A) shall have completed not less than 200 hours of flight
time, or 150 hours if completed during a CAAB approved training course provided for
in an Approved Training Organisation under ANO Part 3, as a pilot of aeroplanes, of
which 10 hours may have been completed in a flight simulation training device.
Note: If the applicant is required to fly in more than one type/model of aeroplane, 50% of
(2)
(3)
Issue: Original
The applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:

(i)
100 hours as PIC or, in the case of a course of approved training, 70 hours
as PIC;
(ii)
20 hours of cross-country flight time as PIC including a cross-country flight

totaling not less than 540 km (300 NM) in the course of which full-stop
landings at two different aerodromes shall be made;
(iii)
10 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may
be instrument ground time;
(iv)
If the privileges of the licence are to be exercised at night, 5 hours of night

flight time including 5 take-offs and 5 landings as PIC.
The holder of a pilot licence in another category may be credited towards the 200
hours of flight time as follows:
(viii)
10 hours as PIC in a category other than helicopters; or
(ix)
30 hours as PIC holding a PPL (H) on helicopters; or
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(x)
(4)
(b)
100 hours as PIC holding a CPL (H) on helicopters.
The applicant for a CPL (A) shall hold a PPL (A) issued under this Part.
Flight instruction.
(1)
The applicant for a CPL (A) shall receive and log not less than 25 hours of dual
instruction from an authorized instructor. These 25 hours may include 5 hours
completed in a flight simulation training device.
(2)
the following areas to the level of performance required for the commercial pilot:
(3)
(c)
(i)
(ii)
Pre-flight operations, including mass and balance determination, aeroplane

(iii)

procedures;
(iv)
Control of the aeroplane by external visual reference;
(v)
Flight at critically slow airspeeds; recognition of, and recovery from, incipient and
full stalls;
(vi)
Flight with asymmetrical power for multi-engine class or type ratings;
(vii)
Flight at critically high airspeeds; recognition of, and recovery from, spiral dives;
(viii)
Normal and cross-wind take-offs and landings;
(ix)
Maximum performance (short field and obstacle clearance take-offs, short-field

landings;
(x)
Basic flight manoeuvres and recovery from unusual attitudes by reference solely
to basic flight instruments;
(xi)
Cross-country flying using visual reference, dead reckoning and radio navigation
aids; diversion procedures;
(xii)
Abnormal and emergency procedures and manoeuvres including simulated

aeroplane equipment malfunctions;
(xiii)
traffic services procedures; and
(xiv)
If the privileges of the CPL (A) are to be exercised at night, the applicant shall have
received 4 hours dual instruction in aeroplanes in night flying, including take-offs,
landings and 1 hour of navigation.
Skill test. The skill test for the single-engine and multi-engine commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall include at least the following areas of operation with CRM competencies applied
and evident in all tasks:
Note 1: When (SE) is indicated, the item or paragraph is only for single-engine; when (ME) is
indicated, the item or paragraph is only for multi-engine. When nothing is indicated, the item or
Issue: Original
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(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Issue: Original

following tasks
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
Principles of flight (ME).
(ix)
Water and Seaplane characteristics (S).
(x)
Seaplane bases, maritime rules and aids to marine navigation (S).
(xi)
Aero medical factors.

following tasks
(i)
(ii)
Cockpit management.
(iii)
Engine Starting.
(iv)
Taxiing (L).
(v)
Taxiing and sailing (S).
(vi)
Aerodrome and seaplane base operations including the applicants knowledge and
(i)
(ii)
Traffic patterns.
(iii)
Aerodrome/Seaplane base, runway and taxiway signs, markings and
lighting.

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
Soft-field takeoff and climb (SE).
(iv)
Soft-field approach and landing (SE).
(v)
Short-field (Confined area (S)) takeoff and maximum performance climb.
(vi)
Short-field (Confined area (S)) approach and landing.
(vii)
Glassy water takeoff and climb (S).
(viii)
(ix)
(x)

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(5)
(6)
(xi)
Power-off 180 degrees accuracy approach and landing (SE).
(xii)
Go-around /rejected landing.
Performance manoeuvres including the applicants knowledge and performance of

the following tasks
(i)
Steep turns.
(ii)
Steep spiral (SE).
(iii)
Chandelles (SE).
(iv)
Lazy eights (SE).
Ground reference manoeuvres including the applicants knowledge and performance

(i)
(7)
(8)
(9)
(10)
(11)
Eights on pylons (SE).

tasks
(i)
(ii)
Navigation systems and radar services.
(iii)
Diversion.
(iv)
Lost procedures.
Slow flight and stalls including the applicants knowledge and performance of the
following tasks
(i)
(ii)
Power-off stalls.
(iii)
Power-on stalls.
(iv)
Spin awareness.
Emergency operations; including the applicants knowledge and performance of the

following tasks
(i)
Emergency approach and landing.
(ii)
Emergency descent (ME).
(iii)
Engine failure during takeoff before VMC (simulated) (ME).
(iv)
Engine failure after lift-off (simulated) (ME).
(v)
Approach and landing with an inoperative engine (simulated) (ME).
(vi)
(vii)
High altitude operations including the applicants knowledge and performance of the
following tasks
(i)
Supplemental oxygen.
(ii)
Pressurization.
Multi-engine operations (ME) including the applicants knowledge and performance of

the following tasks
(i)
Issue: Original

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(12)
4.3
(ii)
VMC demonstration.
(iii)
Engine failure during flight (by reference to instruments.
(iv)
Instrument approach one engine inoperative (by reference to instruments).

following tasks
(i)
(ii)
Anchoring (S).
(iii)
(iv)
Ramping/beaching (S).
Experience, Flight Instruction and Skill Test for the CPLHelicopter Category
(a)
Experience.
(1)
The applicant for a CPL (H) licence shall have completed not less than 150 hours of
flight time, or 100 hours if completed during an integrated course of approved training
provided for in an Approved Training Organisation under ANO Part 3, as a pilot of
helicopters, of which 10 hours may have been completed in a flight simulation training
device.
Note: If the applicant is required to fly in more than one type/model of helicopter, 50% of
the flight time up to the first solo flight, of that helicopter shall be counted towards the
(2)
(3)
(4)
(b)
The applicant shall have completed in helicopters not less than:

(i)
35 hours as PIC;
(ii)
10 hours of cross-country flight time as PIC including a cross-country flight in

the course of which full-stop landings at two different points shall be made;
(iii)
10 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be
instrument ground time;
(iv)
If the privileges of the licence are to be exercised at night, 5 hours of night flight
time including 5 take-offs and 5 landings as PIC
The holder of a pilot licence in another category may be credited towards the 150
hours of flight time as follows:
(i)
20 hours as PIC holding a PPL (A) in aeroplanes; or
(ii)
50 hours as PIC holding a CPL (A) in aeroplanes.
The applicant for a CPL (H) shall hold a PPL (H) under this Part.
Flight instruction.
(1)
The applicant for a CPL (H) shall have received and log not less than 30 hours of dual
instruction in helicopters from an authorized flight instructor on the subjects listed in
the STS.
(2)
the following areas to the level of performance required for the commercial pilot:
(i)
Issue: Original
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(3)
(c)
(ii)
Pre-flight operations, including mass and balance determination, helicopter

(iii)
Aerodrome and traffic pattern operations, collision avoidance precautions

and procedures;
(iv)
Control of the helicopter by external visual reference;
(v)
Recovery at the incipient stage from settling with power; recovery techniques
from low-rotor rpm within the normal range of engine rpm;
(vi)
Ground maneuvering and run-ups; hovering; take-offs and landings normal,

out of wind and sloping ground; steep approaches;
(vii)
Take-offs and landings with minimum necessary power; maximum performance

take-off and landing techniques; restricted site operations; quick stops;
(vii)
Hovering out of ground effect; operations with external load, if applicable; flight
at high altitude;
(viii)
Basic flight manoeuvres and recovery from unusual attitudes by reference solely
to basic flight instruments;
(ix)
Cross-country flying using visual reference, dead reckoning and radio navigation
aids; diversion procedures
(x)
Abnormal and emergency procedures, including simulated helicopter equipment

malfunctions, autorotation approach and landing;
(xi)
traffic services procedures, radiotelephony procedures and phraseology;
(xii)
As further specified in the STS.
If the privileges of the licence are to be exercised at night, the applicant shall have
received dual instruction in helicopters in night flying, including take-offs landings and
navigation.
Skill test. The skill test for the commercial pilot licence helicopter shall include at least the
following areas of operation with CRM competencies applied and evident in all tasks:
(1)
Issue: Original

following tasks
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
Minimum equipment list.
(viii)
(ix)
Physiological aspects of night flying.
(x)
Lighting and equipment for night flying.
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(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
Issue: Original

following tasks
(i)
(ii)
Cockpit management.
(iii)
Engine Starting and rotor engagement.
(iv)
Aerodrome and heliport operations including the applicants knowledge and

(i)
(ii)
Traffic patterns.
(iii)
Aerodrome and heliport markings and lighting.
Hovering manoeuvres including the applicants knowledge and performance of the

following tasks
(i)
Vertical takeoff and landing.
(ii)
Slope operations.
(iii)
Surface taxi.
(iv)
Hover taxi.
(v)
Air taxi.

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
Maximum performance takeoff and climb.
(iv)
Steep approach.
(v)
Rolling takeoff.
(vi)
Shallow approach and running/roll-on landing.
(vii)
Go-around.

following tasks
(i)
Rapid deceleration.
(ii)
180 Degrees autorotation.

tasks
(i)
(ii)
Radio navigation and radar services.
(iii)
Diversion.
(iv)
Lost procedures.
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(8)
(9)
(10)

following tasks
(i)
Power failure at a hover.
(ii)
Power failure at altitude.
(iii)
(iv)
Settling-with-power.
(v)
Low rotor RPM recovery.
(vi)
Dynamic rollover.
(vii)
Ground resonance.
(viii)
Low G conditions.
(ix)
Special operations including the applicants knowledge and performance of the

following tasks
(i)
Confined area operation.
(ii)
Pinnacle/platform operations.

following tasks
(i)
INSTRUMENT RATING
5.1
(a)
Age. The applicant for an IR shall be not less than 17 year of age.
(b)
Medical fitness. The applicant for an IR shall hold either a Class 1 or 2 medical certificates
issued under this Part as appropriate to the level of licence held. The applicant for an IR holding
a PPL shall have established his/her hearing acuity on the basis of compliance with the hearing
requirements for the issue of a Class 1 Medical Certificate.
(c)
Knowledge. The applicant for an IR shall receive and log ground training from an authorized
instructor on the following subjects:
(2)
Air law:
(i)
(3)
(4)
Aircraft general knowledge: for the aircraft category being sought:

(i)
Use, limitation and serviceability of avionics, electronic devices and instruments

necessary for the control and navigation of aeroplanes under IFR and in
instrument meteorological conditions; use and limitations of autopilot.
(ii)
Compasses, turning and acceleration errors; gyroscopic instruments,

operational limits and precession effects; practices and procedures in the event
of malfunctions of various flight instruments.
Flight performance and planning: for the aircraft category being sought:
(i)
Issue: Original
Rules and regulations relevant to flight under IFR; related air traffic services
practices and procedures.
Pre-flight preparations and checks appropriate to flight under IFR.

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(ii)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
(9)
Operational flight planning; preparation and filing of air traffic services flight
plans under IFR; altimeter setting procedures.
Human performance and limitations: for the aircraft category being sought:
(i)
Human performance relevant to instrument flight in aircraft.
(ii)
Meteorology:
(i)
Application of aeronautical meteorology; interpretation and use of reports,

charts and forecasts; codes and abbreviations; use of, and procedures for
obtaining, meteorological information; altimetry.
(ii)
Causes, recognition and effects of icing; frontal zone penetration procedures;

hazardous weather avoidance.
(iii)
In the case of helicopter and powered-lift, effects of rotor icing.
Navigation: for the aircraft category being sought

(i)
Practical air navigation using radio navigation aids.
(ii)
Use, accuracy and reliability of navigation systems used in departure, en-route,

approach and landing phases of flight; identification of radio navigation aids.
Operational procedures: for the aircraft category being sought:

(i)
Application of threat and error management to operational principles.
(ii)
Interpretation and use of aeronautical documentation such as AIP, NOTAM,

aeronautical codes and abbreviations, and instrument procedure charts for
departure, en-route, descent and approach.
(iii)
Precautionary and emergency procedures; safety practices associated with

flight under IFR; obstacle clearance criteria.
Radiotelephony:
(i)
(d)
Communication procedures and phraseology as applied to aircraft

operations under IFR; action to be taken in case of communication failure.
Knowledge testing. An applicant for an IR shall:

(1)
(2)
who:
(i)
Conducted the training on the knowledge subjects.
(ii)
Pass the required knowledge test on the knowledge subjects listed in item (c) above.
(e)
Experience and flight instruction. An applicant for an IR shall have completed the
in this Part.
(f)
the holder of an IR shall be to pilot an aircraft of the appropriate category under IFR. Before
exercising the privileges on multi-engine aircraft, the holder of the rating shall have complied
with the multi-engine requirements.
(g)
of an IR is 12 months, from the following month of the skill test.
Issue: Original
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(h)
(i)
5.2
Renewal:
(1)
For the renewal of a single-engine instrument rating the applicant shall within the
preceding 12 calendar months, complete a proficiency check.
(2)
For the renewal of a multi-engine instrument rating the applicant shall within the
preceding 12 calendar months, complete a proficiency check.
(3)
If a pilot takes the proficiency check required in this section in the calendar month
before or the calendar month after the month in which it is due, the pilot is considered
to have taken it in the month in which it was due for the purpose of computing when
the next proficiency check is due.
Re-issue. If the instrument rating has expired, the applicant shall:

(1)
Have received refresher training from an authorized instructor with an endorsement

that the person is prepared for the required skill test; and
(2)
Pass a required skill test.
Experience, Flight Instruction, Skill Test and Proficiency Check for the IR
(a)
(b)
Issue: Original
Experience.
(1)
The applicant for an IR shall hold a pilot licence with an aircraft category, and class rating
if applicable, for the instrument rating sought.
(2)
The applicant shall have completed not less than:

(i)
50 hours of cross-country flight time as PIC of aircraft in categories acceptable to

the CAAB, of which not less than 10 hours shall be in the aircraft category being
sought; and
(ii)
40 hours of instrument time in aircraft of which not more than 20 hours, or 30

hours where a flight simulator is used, may be instrument ground time. The
ground time shall be under the supervision of an authorized instructor.
Flight instruction.
(1)
The applicant for an IR shall have not less than 10 hours of the instrument flight time
required in (a) (2)(ii) of this sub-part, while receiving and logging dual instruction in aircraft
from an authorized flight instructor.
(2)
the following areas to the level of performance required for the holder of an instrument
rating:
(i)
Pre-flight procedures, including the use of the flight manual or equivalent

document, and appropriate air traffic services documents in the preparation
of an IFR flight plan.
(ii)
Pre-flight inspection, use of checklists, taxiing and pre-take-off checks.
(iii)
Procedures and manoeuvres for IFR operation under normal, abnormal and
emergency conditions covering at least:
(A)
Transition to instrument flight on take-off;
(B)
Standard instrument departures and arrivals;
(C)
En-route IFR procedures and navigation;
(D)
Holding procedures;
(E)
Instrument approaches to specified minima;
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(iv)
(3)
(c)
(F)
Missed approach procedures; and
(G)
Landings from instrument approaches;
In flight manoeuvres and particular flight characteristics.
If the privileges of the instrument rating are to be exercised on multi-engine aircraft, the
applicant shall have received dual instrument flight instruction in such an aircraft from an
authorized flight instructor. The instructor shall ensure that the applicant has operational
experience in the operation of the aircraft solely by reference to instruments with one
engine inoperative or simulated inoperative.
Skill. The applicant for an IR shall:

(1)
(2)
Have demonstrated, by passing a skill test, the ability to perform the areas of
operation with a degree of competency appropriate to the privileges granted to the
holder of an IR, and to:
(3)
(d)
(i)
(ii)
Operate the aircraft within its limitations;
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
Apply aeronautical knowledge;
(vi)
Maintain control of the aircraft at all times in a manner such that the successful
outcome of a procedure or maneuver is assured;
(vii)
Understand and apply crew coordination and incapacitation procedures; and
(viii)
Communicate effectively with the other flight crewmembers.
Have demonstrated by passing a skill test, the ability to operate multi-engine aircraft
solely by reference to instruments with one engine inoperative, or simulated
inoperative, if the privileges of the instrument rating are to be exercised on such aircraft.
Skills test. The skill test and proficiency check for the instrument rating shall include at least
the following areas of operation with CRM competencies applied and evident in all tasks
appropriate to the category of aircraft:
Note: When (SE) is indicated, the item or paragraph is only for single-engine, when (ME) is
indicated the item or paragraphs is only for multi-engine. When nothing is indicated, the item or
(1)
(2)
Issue: Original

following tasks
(i)
(ii)

following tasks
(i)
Aircraft systems related to IFR operations.
(ii)
Aircraft flight instruments and navigation equipment.
(iii)
Instrument cockpit check.
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(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
Air traffic control clearances and procedures including the applicants knowledge and
(i)
Air traffic control clearances.
(ii)
Compliance with departure, en route and arrival procedures and clearances.
(iii)
Holding procedures.
Flight by reference to instruments including the applicants knowledge and

(i)
(ii)
Change of airspeed.
(iii)
Constant airspeed climbs and descents.
(iv)
Rate climbs and descents.
(v)
Timed turns to magnetic compass headings.
(vi)
Partial panel flying;
(vii)
Steep turns.
(viii)
Recovery from unusual flight attitudes.
Navigation systems including the applicants knowledge and performance of the

following tasks
(i)
Intercepting and tracking navigational systems and DME Arcs.
(ii)
Instrument approach procedures; including the applicants knowledge and

(iii)
Non-precision instrument approach;
(iv)
Precision ILS instrument approach;
(v)
GPS approaches, if aircraft is so equipped;
(vi)
Missed approach;
(vii)
Circling approach;
(viii)
Landing from a straight-in or circling approach.

following tasks
(i)
Loss of communications.
(ii)
One engine inoperative during straight-and-level flight and turns (ME).
(iii)
One engine inoperative instrument approach (ME).
(iv)
Loss of gyro attitude and/or heading indicators.

following tasks
(i)
Checking instruments and equipment.
----------------------------------------------
Issue: Original
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ATTACHMENTS
Issue: Original
November, 2016
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ANO Part-03 (Attachments)
Issue: Original
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ANO Part-03 (Attachment-01)
ATTACHMENT 01
PILOT SKILL TEST STANDARDS FOR AIRPLANE AND HELICOPTER
1.1
Introduction
General information contained in this introduction must be carefully read and understood to fully acquaint
with the requirement of skill test standard. This general information is applicable for PPL, CPL, IR and FIR.
However, for IR and FIR, because of their specialty, some added information has been added in their
respective introduction part.
1.2
General Information
(a)
The Department of Flight Safety and Regulations (DFSR) of the Civil Aviation Authority
Bangladesh (CAAB) has developed this skills test standard (STS) as the standard that shall be
used by CAAB examiners when conducting Aircraft Skills Tests. Instructors are expected to use
these skills test standards (STS) when preparing applicants for skills tests. Applicants should be
familiar with this STS and refer to these standards during their training.
Note: The word examiner denotes either the CAAB inspector, CAAB designated pilot examiner,
or other persons authorized to conduct the skills tests.
1.3
(b)
Applicants for a combined pilot licence with instrument rating, in accordance with licensing ANO,
must pass all areas designated in the Pilot STS and the Instrument Rating STS. Examiners need
not duplicate tasks. For example, only one preflight demonstration would be required; however, the
Preflight Task from the Instrument Rating STS may be more extensive than the Preflight Task from
the Pilot STS to ensure readiness for IFR flight.
(c)
A combined check ride should be treated as one skills test, requiring only one application and
resulting in only one licence, denial, or discontinuance, as applicable. Failure of any task will result
in a failure of the entire test and application. Therefore, even if the deficient maneuver was
instrument related and the performance of all VFR tasks was determined to be satisfactory, the
applicant will receive a notice of denial.
(d)
Information considered directive in nature is described in this STS in terms, such as shall and
must indicating the actions are mandatory. Guidance information is described in terms, such as
should and may indicating the actions are desirable or permissive, but not mandatory.
Skills Test Standards Concept

(a)
1.4
Licensing ANO specifies the areas in which knowledge and skill must be demonstrated by the
applicant before the issuance of a pilot licence or rating. The CAAB will revise this STS whenever
it is determined that changes are needed in the interest of safety. Adherence to the provisions of
the regulations and the skills test standards is mandatory for the evaluation of pilot
applicants.
Skill Test Description

(a)
Issue: Original
Areas of Operation are phases of the skills test arranged in a logical sequence within each
standard. They begin with Preflight Preparation and end with Postflight Procedures. The examiner,
however, may conduct the skills test in any sequence that will result in a complete and efficient
test; however, the ground portion of the skills test shall be accomplished before the flight
portion.
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(b)
Tasks are titles of knowledge areas, flight procedures, or maneuvers appropriate to an Area of
Operation. The abbreviation(s) within parentheses immediately following a Task refer to the
category and/or class aircraft appropriate to that Task. The meaning of each abbreviation is
follows.
ASEL: Aeroplane - Single-Engine Land
AMEL: Aeroplane - Multiengine Land
ASES: Aeroplane - Single-Engine Sea
AMES: Aeroplane - Multiengine Sea
Note: When administering a test based on sections 1 and 2 of this STS, the Tasks appropriate to
the class airplane (ASEL, ASES, AMEL, or AMES) used for the test shall be included in the plan
of action. The absence of a class indicates the Task is for all classes.
(c)
These skills test standards are based on the following references:

Airworthiness ANO (Part 5)
Licensing ANO (Part 2)
Operations ANO (Part 8)
(d)
1.5
The Objective lists the elements that must be satisfactorily performed to demonstrate competency
in a Task. The Objective includes:
(1)
Specifically what the applicant should be able to do;
(2)
Conditions under which the task is to be performed; and
(3)
Acceptable performance standards.
Use of the Skill Tests Standard

(a)
The CAAB requires that all pilot skill tests be conducted in accordance with the appropriate skills
test standards and the policies set forth in the Introduction. Applicants shall be evaluated in ALL
Tasks included in each Area of Operation of the appropriate skills test standard, unless otherwise
noted.
(b)
An applicant, who holds pilot licence seeking an additional airplane category rating and/or class
rating at the pilot level, shall be evaluated in the Areas of Operation and Tasks listed in the
Additional Rating Task Table. At the discretion of the examiner, an evaluation of the applicants
competence in the remaining Areas of Operation and Tasks may be conducted.
(c)
If the applicant holds two or more category or class ratings and the ratings table indicates differing
required Tasks, the least restrictive entry applies. For example, if ALL and NONE are
indicated for one Area of Operation, the NONE entry applies. If B and B, C are indicated, the
B entry applies.
(d)
In preparation for each skills test, the examiner shall develop a written plan of action for each
skills test. The plan of action is a tool, for the sole use of the examiner, to be used in evaluating
the applicant. The plan of action need not be grammatically correct or in any formal format. The
plan of action must contain all of the required Areas of Operation and Tasks and any optional
Tasks selected by the examiner. The plan of action will include a scenario that allows the
evaluation of as many required Areas of Operation and Tasks as possible without disruption.
During the mission, the examiner interjects problems and emergencies which the applicant must
manage. It should be structured so that most of the Areas of Operation and Tasks are
accomplished within the mission. The examiner is afforded the flexibility to change the plan to
Issue: Original
November, 2016
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accommodate unexpected situations as they arise. Some tasks (e.g., unusual attitudes) are not
normally done during routine flight operations or may not fit into the scenario.
1.6
(e)
These maneuvers still must be demonstrated. It is preferable that these maneuvers be

demonstrated after the scenario is completed. A skills test scenario can be suspended to do
maneuvers, and then resumed if time and efficiency of the skills test so dictates.
(f)
Any Task selected for evaluation during a skills test shall be evaluated in its entirety.
(g)
The examiner is expected to use good judgment in the performance of simulated emergency
procedures. The use of the safest means for simulation is expected. Consideration must be given
to local conditions, both meteorological and topographical, at the time of the test, as well as the
applicants workload, and the condition of the aircraft used. If the procedure being evaluated
would jeopardize safety, it is expected that the applicant will simulate that portion of the maneuver.
Special Emphasis Areas

(a)
Examiners shall place special emphasis upon areas of aircraft operations considered critical to
flight safety. Among these are:
(1)
Positive Aircraft Control,
(2)
Positive Exchange of the Flight Controls Procedure,
(3)
Stall/Spin Awareness,
(4)
Collision Avoidance,
(5)
Wake Turbulence Avoidance,
(6)
Landing and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO),
(7)
Runway Incursion Avoidance,
(8)
Controlled Flight in to Terrain (CFIT),
(9)
Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) and Risk Management (RM),
(10)
Wire Strike Avoidance,
(11)
Checklist Usage,
(12)
Temporary Flight Restrictions (TFRs),
(13)
Aviation Security,
(14)
Single-Pilot Resource Management (SRM), and
(15)
Other areas deemed appropriate to any phase of the skills test.
Note: A given special emphasis area may not be specifically addressed under a given Task. All
areas are essential to flight and will be evaluated during the practice test.
1.7
Aircraft and Equipment Required for the Skills Test

(a)
Issue: Original
The pilotairplane applicant is required by Licensing ANO (Part 2) to provide an airworthy,

certificated aircraft for use during the skills test. This section further requires that the aircraft must:
(1)
Be of the same category, class, and type, if applicable, for the licence and/or rating, for
which the applicant is applying;
(2)
Have fully functioning dual controls, except as provided for in Licensing ANO (Part 2);
and
November, 2016
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(3)
1.8
1.9
1.10
Be capable of performing all Areas of Operation appropriate to the rating sought and
have no operating limitations, which prohibit its use in any of the Areas of Operation,
required for the skills test.
Flight Instructor Responsibility

(a)
An appropriately rated flight instructor is responsible for training the pilot applicant to acceptable
standards in ALL subject matter areas, procedures, and maneuvers included in the Tasks within
each Area of Operation in the appropriate pilot skills test standard, even if the applicant is adding
a category or class rating.
(b)
Because of the impact of their teaching activities in developing safe, proficient pilots, flight
instructors should exhibit a high level of knowledge, skill, and the ability to impart that knowledge
and skill to students.
(c)
Throughout the applicants training, the flight instructor is responsible for emphasizing the
performance of effective visual scanning, collision avoidance procedures, the manufacturers
recommended procedures for the airplane flown, and other areas deemed appropriate to the skills
test.
Examiner Responsibility
(a)
The examiner conducting the skills test is responsible for determining that the applicant meets the
acceptable standards of knowledge and skill of each Task within the appropriate skills test
standard. Since there is no formal division between the oral and skill portions of the skills test,
this becomes an ongoing process before the skill test and throughout the test. Oral questioning, to
determine the applicants knowledge of Tasks and related safety factors, should be used
judiciously at all times, especially during the flight portion of the skills test. Examiners shall test to
the greatest extent practicable the applicants correlative abilities rather than mere rote
enumeration of facts throughout the skills test.
(b)
If the examiner determines that a Task is incomplete, or the outcome uncertain, the examiner may
require the applicant to repeat that Task, or portions of that Task. This provision has been made in
the interest of fairness and does not mean that instruction, practice, or the repeating of an
unsatisfactory task is permitted during the certification process. When practical, the remaining
Tasks of the skills test phase should be completed before repeating the questionable Task.
(c)
Throughout the flight portion of the skills test, the examiner shall evaluate the applicants use of
visual scanning and collision avoidance procedures.
Satisfactory Performance
(a)
Issue: Original
Satisfactory performance to meet the requirements for certification is based on the applicants
ability to safely:
(1)
Perform the Tasks specified in the Areas of Operation for the licence or rating sought
within the approved standards;
(2)
Demonstrate mastery of the aircraft by performing each Task successfully;
(3)
Demonstrate satisfactory proficiency and competency within the approved standards;
(4)
Demonstrate sound judgment and exercises aeronautical decision-making/risk

management; and
(5)
Demonstrate single-pilot competence if the aircraft is type certificated for single-pilot

operations.
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1.11
Unsatisfactory Performance
(a)
The tolerances represent the performance expected in good flying conditions. If, in the judgment
of the examiner, the applicant does not meet the standards of performance of any Task
performed, the associated Area of Operation is failed and therefore, the skills test is failed.
(b)
The examiner or applicant may discontinue the test at any time when the failure of an Area of
Operation makes the applicant ineligible for the licence or rating sought. The test may be
continued ONLY with the consent of the applicant. If the test is discontinued, the applicant is
entitled credit for only those Areas of Operation and their associated Tasks satisfactorily
performed. However, during the retest, and at the discretion of the examiner, any Task may be reevaluated, including those previously passed, applicable for both oral and skill tests, and
applicable Assessment form shall be used to indicate passed, failed, denied or
discontinued.
(c)
Typical areas of unsatisfactory performance and grounds for disqualification are:
(d)
1.12
(1)
Any action or lack of action by the applicant that requires corrective intervention by the
examiner to maintain safe flight.
(2)
Failure to use proper and effective visual scanning techniques to clear the area before
and while performing maneuvers.
(3)
Consistently exceeding tolerances stated in the Objectives.
(4)
Failure to take prompt corrective action when tolerances are exceeded.
When a notice of denial is issued, the examiner shall record the applicants unsatisfactory
performance in terms of the Area of Operation and specific Task(s) not meeting the standard
appropriate to the skills test conducted. The Area(s) of Operation/Task(s) tested and the number
of skills test failures shall also be recorded. If the applicant fails the skills test because of a special
emphasis area, the Notice of Disapproval shall indicate the associated Task, for example, Area of
Operation VIII, maneuvering during Slow Flight, failure to use proper collision avoidance
procedures.
Notice of Discontinuance or Denial

(a)
1.13
When a skills test is discontinued for reasons other than unsatisfactory performance (i.e.
equipment failure, weather, illness), the applicable CAAB Form (Ref: Attachment-10), applicable
for Pilot Licence, Instructor Rating, Authorisation, Conversion or Validation Certificate Application,
and, if applicable, the Airman Knowledge Test Report, is returned to the applicant. The examiner
must prepare, sign, and issue the applicable CAAB Form (Ref: Attachment-10), applicable for
Notice of Discontinuance/Denial to the applicant. The Notice of Denial must identify the Areas of
Operation and their associated Tasks of the skills test that were successfully completed. The
applicant must be advised that the Notice of Discontinuance must be presented to the examiner,
to receive credit for the items successfully completed, when the skills test is resumed, and made
part of the certification file.
Single-Pilot Resource Management (SRM)

(a)
Issue: Original
The examiner shall evaluate the applicants ability throughout the skills test to use good
aeronautical decision-making procedures in order to evaluate risks. The examiner shall
accomplish this requirement by developing a scenario that incorporates as many Tasks as
possible to evaluate the applicants risk management in making safe aeronautical decisions. For
example, the examiner may develop a scenario that incorporates weather decisions and
performance planning.
November, 2016
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(b)
The applicants ability to utilize all the resources available in making a risk analysis to determine
the safest course of action is essential for satisfactory performance. The scenario should be
realistic and within the capabilities of the aircraft used for the skills test.
(c)
Single-Pilot Resource Management (SRM) is defined as the art and science of managing all the
resources (both onboard the aircraft and from outside sources) available to a single-pilot (prior
and during flight) to ensure that the successful outcome of the flight is never in doubt. SRM
available resources can include human resources, hardware, and information. Human resources,
includes all other groups routinely working with the pilot who are involved in decisions that are
required to operate a flight safely. These groups include, but are not limited to: dispatchers,
weather briefers, maintenance personnel, and air traffic controllers. SRM is a set of skill
competencies that must be evident in all Tasks in this skills test standard as applied to single-pilot
operation.
(d)
The following six items are areas of SRM:

(1)
Aeronautical Decision-Making (ADM)

Objective: To determine that the applicant exhibits sound aeronautical decision- making
during the planning and execution of the planned flight. The applicant should:
(2)
(i)
Use a sound decision-making process, such as the DECIDE model, 3P model,

or similar process when making critical decisions that will have an effect on the
outcome of the flight. The applicant should be able to explain the factors and
alternative courses of action that were considered while making the decision.
(ii)
Recognize and explain any hazardous attitudes that may have influenced any
decision.
(iii)
Decide and execute an appropriate course of action to properly handle any

situation that arises that may cause a change in the original flight plan in such a
way that leads to a safe and successful conclusion of the flight.
(iv)
Explain how the elements of risk management, CFIT awareness, overall

situational awareness, use of automation, and task management influenced the
decisions made and the resulting course of action.
Risk Management (RM)

Objective: To determine that the applicant can utilize risk management tools and models
to assess the potential risk associated with the planned flight during preflight planning
and while in flight. The applicant should:
(3)
Issue: Original
(i)
Explain the four fundamental risk elements associated with the flight being
conducted in the given scenario and how each one was assessed.
(ii)
Use a tool, such as the PAVE checklist, to help assess the four risk elements.
(iii)
Use a personal checklist, such as the IM SAFE checklist, to determine

personal risks.
(iv)
Use weather reports and forecasts to determine weather risks associated with
the flight.
(v)
Explain how to recognize risks and how to mitigate those risks throughout the
flight.
(vi)
Use the 5P model to assess the risks associated with each of the five factors.
Task Management
November, 2016
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Objective: To determine that the applicant can prioritize the various tasks associated
with the planning and execution of the flight. The applicant should:
(4)
(i)
Explain how to prioritize tasks in such a way to minimize distractions from flying
the aircraft.
(ii)
Complete all tasks in a timely manner considering the phase of flight without
causing a distraction from flying.
(iii)
Execute all checklists and procedures in a manner that does not increase
workload at critical times.
Situational Awareness
Objective: To determine that the applicant can maintain situational awareness during all
phases of the flight. The applicant should:
(5)
(i)
Explain the concept of situational awareness and associated factors.
(ii)
Explain the dangers associated with becoming fixated on a particular problem to

the exclusion of other aspects of the flight.
(iii)
State the current situation at any time during the flight in such a way that
displays an accurate assessment of the current and future status of the flight,
including weather, terrain, traffic, ATC situation, fuel status, and aircraft status.
(iv)
Explain taxi operation planning procedures, such as recording taxi instructions,

reading back taxi clearances, and reviewing taxi routes on the airport diagram.
(v)
Explain procedures for steering, maneuvering, maintaining taxi, runway

position, and situational awareness.
(vi)
Explain procedures for holding the pilots workload to a minimum during taxi
operations which should increase the pilots awareness during taxiing.
(vii)
ATC communications and pilot operations before takeoff, before landing, and
after landing at controlled and uncontrolled airports.
(viii)
Uses the navigation displays, traffic displays, terrain displays, weather displays,
and other features of the aircraft to maintain a complete and accurate
awareness of the current situation and any reasonably anticipated changes that
may occur.
Controlled Flight into Terrain Awareness (CFIT)

Objective: To determine that the applicant can accurately assess risks associated with
terrain and obstacles, maintain accurate awareness of terrain and obstacles, and can
use appropriate techniques and procedures to avoid controlled flight into terrain or
obstacles by using all resources available. The applicant should:
Issue: Original
(i)
Use current charts and procedures during the planning of the flight to ensure the
intended flight path avoids terrain and obstacles.
(ii)
Be aware of potential terrain and obstacle hazards along the intended route.
(iii)
Explain the terrain display, TAWS, and/or GPWS as installed in the aircraft.
(iv)
Use the terrain display, TAWS, and/or GPWS of the navigation displays as
appropriate to maintain awareness and to avoid terrain and obstacles.
(v)
Plan departures and arrivals to avoid terrain and obstacles.
(vi)
Alter flight as necessary to avoid terrain.

November, 2016
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(6)
(vii)
Plan any course diversion, for whatever reason, in such a way to ensure proper
terrain and obstruction clearance to the new destination.
(viii)
Explain and understand aircraft performance limitations associated with CFIT

accidents.
Automation Management
Objective: To determine that the applicant can effectively use the automation features of
the aircraft, including autopilot and flight management systems, in such a way to manage
workload and can remain aware of the current and anticipated modes and status of the
automation. The applicant should:
1.14
(ii)
Explain how to recognize anticipated and unanticipated mode or status

changes of the autopilot/FMS.
(iii)
State at any time during the flight the current mode or status and what the next
anticipated mode or status will be.
(iv)
Use the autopilot/FMS to reduce workload as appropriate for the phase of flight,
during emergency or abnormal operations.
(v)
Recognize unanticipated mode changes in a timely manner and promptly return

the automation to the correct mode.
Throughout the skills test, the applicant is evaluated on the use of an approved manufacturers
checklist or equivalent. If no manufacturers checklist is published, the appropriate FAA handbook
or equivalent checklist may be used. Proper use is dependent on the specific Task being
evaluated. The situation may be such that the use of the checklist, while accomplishing elements
of an objective, would be either unsafe or impractical, especially in a single-pilot operation. In this
case, a review of the checklist after the elements have been accomplished would be appropriate.
Division of attention and proper visual scanning should be considered when using a checklist.
Use of Distractions during Skills Tests

(a)
1.16
Explain how to recognize the current mode of operation of the autopilot/FMS.
Applicants Use of Checklists

(a)
1.15
(i)
Numerous studies indicate that many accidents have occurred when the pilot has been distracted
during critical phases of flight. To evaluate the applicants ability to utilize proper control
technique while dividing attention both inside and/or outside the cockpit, the examiner shall cause
realistic distractions during the flight portion of the skills test to evaluate the applicants ability to
divide attention while maintaining safe flight.
Positive Exchange of Flight Controls

(a)
During flight training, there must always be a clear understanding between students and flight
instructors of who has control of the aircraft. Prior to flight, a briefing should be conducted that
includes the procedure for the exchange of flight controls. A positive three-step process in the
exchange of flight controls between pilots is a proven procedure and one that is strongly
recommended.
(b)
When the instructor wishes the student to take control of the aircraft, he or she will say, You have
the controls. The student acknowledges immediately by saying, I have the controls. When
control is returned to the instructor, follow the same procedure. A visual check is recommended to
verify that the exchange has occurred. There should never be any doubt as to who is flying the
aircraft.
Issue: Original
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1.17
Stalls and Spin Awareness

(a)
During flight training, there must always be a clear understanding concerning stalls and spin
awareness. All stalls at all Levels will be in accordance with CAAB policy. All stalls will be
recovered no lower than 1500 feet AGL for single engine airplanes; 3000 feet AGL for multiengine
airplanes, unless the manufacturer recommends a higher altitude to initiate the recovery.
---------------------------------------------
Issue: Original
November, 2016
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Issue: Original
November, 2016
Page 134 of 295
ATTACHMENT 2
ADDITION OF LICENCE/RATING TO EXISTING LICENCE/RATING HOLDERS
2.1 ADDITION OF AN AIRPLANE SINGLE-ENGINE LAND RATING TO AN EXISTING PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE
Required Tasks are indicated by either the Task letter(s) that apply(s) or an indication that all or none of the Tasks must
be tested based on the notes in each Area of Operation.
PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE HELD
AREAS
OF
OPERATION
ASES
AMEL
AMES
F,G
F,G
F,G
F,G
II
D,F
D,F
III
NONE
IV
A, B, C, D, E, F
A, B, C, D, E, F
A, B, C, D, E, F
A,C,D, F,G
B,C
A, B, C, D, E, F, K, L
NONE
NONE
NONE
ALL
VI
NONE
NONE
NONE
ALL
VII
NONE
NONE
NONE
NONE
VIII
NONE
NONE
NONE
ALL
IX
NONE
NONE
NONE
ALL
A,B,C
A,B,C
A,B,C
ALL
XI
NONE
NONE
NONE
NONE
XII
NONE
Issue: Original
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2.2
ADDITION OF AN AIRPLANE SINGLE-ENGINE SEA RATING TO AN EXISTING PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE
Required Tasks are indicated by either the Task letter(s) that apply(s) or an indication that all or none of the
Tasks must be tested based on the notes in each Area of Operation.
PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE HELD
AREAS OF
OPERATION
ASEL
AMEL
AMES
F,G,H,
F,G,H,
F,G
F,G,H,
II
I
E,F
I
E,F
E,F
I
ALL
III
NONE
B,C
IV
A,B,E,
F,G,H,
I,J
A,B,E,
F,G,H,
I,J
A,B,E,
F,G,H,
I,J
A,B,E,
F,G,H,
I,J,K,L
NONE
NONE
NONE
ALL
VI
NONE
NONE
NONE
ALL
VII
NONE
NONE
NONE
NONE
VIII
NONE
NONE
NONE
ALL
IX
NONE
NONE
NONE
ALL
A,B,C
A,B,C
A,B,C
ALL
XI
NONE
NONE
NONE
NONE
XII
B,C,D
B,C,D
NONE
B,C,D
Issue: Original
November, 2016
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2.3 ADDITION OF AN AIRPLANE SINGLE-ENGINE LAND RATING TO AN EXISTING COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE
be tested
COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE HELD
AREAS OF
OPERATION
ASES
AMEL
AMES
RH
F,G
F,G
F,G
F,G
II
D,F
D,F
D,F
III
NONE
IV
A,B,C, D,E,F,K
A,B,C, D,E,F,K
A,B,C, D,E,F,K
A,C,D,F,G
B,C
A,B,C,D,E,F,K,L
NONE
B,C,D
B,C,D
ALL
VI
NONE
ALL
ALL
ALL
VII
NONE
NONE
NONE
NONE
VIII
NONE
NONE
NONE
ALL
IX
A,B,C
A,B,C
A,B,C
ALL
NONE
NONE
NONE
ALL
XI
NONE
Issue: Original
November, 2016
Page 137 of 295
2.4
ADDITION OF AN AIRPLANE SINGLE-ENGINE SEA RATING TO AN EXISTING COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE
Required tasks are indicated by either the task letter(s) that apply(s) or an indication that all or none of the tasks must be
tested
COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE HELD
AREAS OF
OPERATION
ASEL
AMEL
AMES
RH
F,G,H,I
F,G,H,I
F,G
F,G,H,I
II
E,F
E,F
E,F
A,B,C, E,F
III
NONE
B,C
IV
A,B,E,F,G,H,I,J
A,B,E,F,G,H,I,J
A,B,E,F,G,H,I,J
A,B,E,F,G,H,I,J,K,L
NONE
B,C,D
B,C,D
ALL
VI
NONE
ALL
ALL
ALL
VII
NONE
NONE
NONE
NONE
VIII
NONE
NONE
NONE
ALL
IX
A,B,C
A,B,C
A,B,C
ALL
NONE
NONE
NONE
ALL
XI
B,C,D
B,C,D
NONE
B,C,D
Issue: Original
November, 2016
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2.5
ADDITION OF INSTRUMENT RATING
be tested.
Rating(s) Held
Area of
Operation
IA
IH
IPC
None
None
None
II
A,C
A,C
None
III
None
None
IV
All
All
None
None
All
VI
All
All
All*
VII
All**
All**
B,C,D**
VIII
All
All
All
Legend:
IA
InstrumentAeroplane
IH
InstrumentHelicopter
IPC
InstrumentProficiency Check
Note: Except as noted, all Tasks are required for initial issuance of an instrument rating.
*Task D: Circling Approach is applicable only to the airplane category. **Tasks B and C are applicable only to
multiengine airplanes.
Issue: Original
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2.6
ADDITION OF FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR RATING
Addition of a single-engine class rating (and an airplane category rating, if appropriate) to a flight instructor licence.
Flight Instructor Certificate and Rating(s) Held
Required Area of
Operation
AME
IA
IH
None
None
None
None
II
B, M
B, D, E, M
III
None
C,D
All
All
IV
None
None
None
None
None
VI
None
VII
VIII
None
IX
XI
XII
None
None
XIII
XIV
None
IA
Instrument Aeroplane
IH
Instrument Helicopter
*Refer to the Note under the respective Area of Operation for Task requirements.
Note: If an applicant holds more than one rating on a flight instructor licence and the table indicates both a None and a
Select One for a particular Area of Operation, the None entry applies. This is logical since the applicant has
satisfactorily accomplished the Area of Operation on a previous flight instructor skills test. At the discretion of the
examiner, the applicants competence in any Area of Operation may be evaluated.
Issue: Original
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2.7
RENEWAL OR REINSTATEMENT OF A FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR RATING

AIRPLANE SINGLE-ENGINE CATEGORY
Required Area of Operation
Number of Tasks
II
Task B, M, and 1 other Task
III
IV
VII
2 Takeoffs and 2 Landings
IX
XI
XIII
XIV
Note: The Renewal or Reinstatement of one rating on a Flight Instructor Certificate renews or reinstates
privileges existing on the licence.
----------------------------------------
Issue: Original
November, 2016
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all
Issue: Original
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ATTACHMENT 03
SKILL TEST STANDARD
PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE & COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENSE
(ASEL & ASES)
3.1
APPLICANTS (OR ATOS) SKILLS TEST CHECKLIST
3.1.1
Appointment with Examiner

(a)
(b)
(c)
3.1.2
Examiners Name:
Location:
Date/Time:
Acceptable Aircraft
Aircraft Documents:
Airworthiness Certificate
Registration Certificate
Operating Limitations
Aircraft Maintenance Records:
Logbook Record of Airworthiness Inspections and AD Compliance
Pilots Operating Handbook, Approved Airplane Flight Manual
3.1.3
Personal Equipment
View-Limiting Device
Current Aeronautical Charts
Computer and Plotter
Flight Plan Form
Flight Logs
Current AIM, Airport Facility Directory, and Appropriate Publications
3.1.4
Personal Records
IdentificationPhoto/Signature ID
Pilot Certificate
Current and Appropriate Medical Certificate
Completed applicable CAAB Application Form (Attachment-10) for Pilot Licence, Instructor Rating,
Authorisation, Conversion or Validation Certificate Application
Computer Test Report
Pilot Logbook with appropriate endorsements by an authorized person
CAAB Notice of Disapproval (if applicable)
Approved School Graduation Certificate (if applicable)
Examiners Fee
Issue: Original
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3.2
3.2.1
EXAMINERS SKILL TESTS CHECKLIST

(a)
Applicants Name:
(b)
Location:
(c)
Date/Time:
3.3
AREAS & TASKS

I
II
III
IV
Issue: Original
Preflight Preparation
A. Certificates and Documents (ASEL and ASES)
B. Airworthiness Requirements (ASEL and ASES)
C. Weather Information (ASEL and ASES)
D. Cross-Country Flight Planning (ASEL and ASES)
E. National Airspace System (ASEL and ASES)
F. Performance and Limitations (ASEL and ASES)
G. Operation of Systems (ASEL and ASES)
H. Water and Seaplane Characteristics (ASES)
I. Seaplane Bases, Maritime Rules, and Aids to Marine Navigation (ASES)
J. Aero-medical Factors (ASEL and ASES)
Preflight Procedures
A. Preflight Inspection (ASEL and ASES)
B. Cockpit Management (ASEL and ASES)
C. Engine Starting (ASEL and ASES)
D. Taxiing (ASEL)
E. Taxiing and Sailing (ASES)
F. Runway Incursion Avoidance (ASEL and AES)
G. Before Takeoff Check (ASEL and ASES)
Airport and Seaplane Base Operations
A. Radio Communications and ATC Light Signals (ASEL and ASES)
B. Traffic Patterns (ASEL and ASES)
C. Airport/Seaplane Base, Runway, and Taxiway Signs, Markings, and Lighting (ASEL and ASES)
Takeoffs, Landings, and Go-Arounds
A. Normal and Crosswind Takeoff and Climb (ASEL and ASES)
B. Normal and Crosswind Approach and Landing (ASEL and ASES)
C. Soft-Field Takeoff and Climb (ASEL)
D. Soft-Field Approach and Landing (ASEL)
E. Short-Field (Confined AreaASES) Takeoff and Maximum Performance Climb (ASEL and ASES)
F. Short-Field Approach (Confined AreaASES) and Landing (ASEL and ASES)
G. Glassy Water Takeoff and Climb (ASES)
H. Glassy Water Approach and Landing (ASES)
I. Rough Water Takeoff and Climb (ASES)
J. Rough Water Approach and Landing (ASES)
K. Forward Slip to a Landing (ASEL and ASES)
L. Go-Around/Rejected Landing (ASEL and ASES)
Performance Maneuver
A. Steep Turns (ASEL and ASES) (PPL & CPL)
B. Steep Spiral (ASEL and ASES) (CPL)
C. Chandelles (ASEL and ASES) (CPL
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D. Lazy Eights (ASEL and ASES) (CPL)
VI
Ground Reference Maneuver

A. Rectangular Course (ASEL and ASES) (PPL)
B. S-turns (ASEL and ASES) (PPL)
C. Turns Around a Point (ASEL and ASES) (PPL)
D. Eights on Pylons (ASEL and ASES) (CPL)
VII
VIII
IX
XI
XII
Issue: Original
Navigation
A. Pilotage and Dead Reckoning (ASEL and ASES)
B. Navigation Systems and Radar Services (ASEL and ASES)
C. Diversion (ASEL and ASES)
D. Lost Procedures (ASEL and ASES)
Slow Flight and Stalls
A. Maneuvering During Slow Flight (ASEL and ASES) (PPL & CPL)
B. Power-Off Stalls (ASEL and ASES) (PPL & CPL)
C. Power-On Stalls (ASEL and ASES) (PPL & CPL)
D. Accelerated Stalls (ASEL and ASES) (CPL)
E. Spin Awareness (ASEL and ASES) (PPL & CPL)
Emergency Operations
A. Emergency Descents (ASEL and ASES)
B. Emergency Approach and Landing (Simulated) (ASEL and ASES)
C. Systems and Equipment Malfunctions (ASEL and ASES)
D. Emergency Equipment and Survival Gear (ASEL and ASES
Basic Instrument Maneuvers
A. Straight-and-level Flight (ASEL and ASES)
B. Constant Airspeed Climbs (ASEL and ASES)
C. Constant Airspeed Descents (ASEL and ASES)
D. Turns to Headings (ASEL and ASES)
E. Recovery From Unusual Flight Attitudes (ASEL and ASES)
F. Radio Communications, Navigation Systems/Facilities and Radar Services (ASEL and ASES)
Night Operations (ASEL and CPL)
A. Night Preparation
B. Night Operations
Postflight Procedures
A. After Landing, Parking, and Securing (ASEL and ASES)
B. Anchoring (ASES)
C. Docking and Mooring (ASES)
D. Ramping/Beaching (ASES)
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3.4
ARAEA OF OPERATIONS &TASKS (PPL & CPL) (ASEL & ASES):
PREFLIGHT PREPARATION
Note: The examiner shall develop a scenario based on real time weather to evaluate tasks C and D.
Task A: Certificates and Documents (ASEL and ASES)
Objective: To determine that the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to
certificates and documents by:
(a)
(b)
Explaining
(1)
Pilot liccence privileges, limitations, and recent flight experience requirements.
(2)
Medical liccence class and duration.
(3)
Pilot logbook or flight records.
Locating and explaining

(1)
Airworthiness and registration certificates.
(2)
Operating limitations, placards, instrument markings, and POH/AFM.
(3)
Weight and balance data and equipment list.
Task B: Airworthiness Requirements (ASEL and ASES)

airworthiness requirements by:
(a)
(b)
Explaining
(1)
Required instruments and equipment for day/night VFR.
(2)
Procedures and limitations for determining airworthiness of the airplane with inoperative
instruments and equipment with and without an MEL.
(3)
Requirements and procedures for obtaining a special flight permit.
Locating and explaining

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Airworthiness directives.
Compliance records.
Maintenance/inspection requirements.
Appropriate record keeping.
Task C: Weather Information (ASEL and ASES)

Objective: To determine that the applicant:
(a)
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to weather information by analyzing weather
reports, charts, and forecasts from various sources with emphasis on
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
(9)
(10)
Issue: Original
METAR, TAF, and FA.

Surface analysis chart.
Radar summary chart.
Winds and temperature aloft chart.
Significant weather prognostic charts.
Convective outlook chart.
AWOS, ASOS, and ATIS reports.
Sigmets and Airmets.
Pireps.
Windshear reports.
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(11)
Icing and freezing level information.
(b) Makes a competent go/no-go decision based on available weather information.

Task D: Cross-Country Flight Planning (ASEL AND ASES)
(1)
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to cross-country flight planning by

presenting and explaining a pre-planned VFR cross-country flight, as previously assigned
by the examiner. On the day of the Skills test, the final flight plan shall be to the first fuel
stop, based on maximum allowable passengers, baggage, and/or cargo loads using realtime weather.
(2)
Uses appropriate and current aeronautical charts.
(3)
Properly identifies airspace, obstructions, and terrain features.
(4)
Selects easily identifiable en route checkpoints.
(5)
Selects most favorable altitudes considering weather conditions and equipment

capabilities.
(6)
Computes headings, flight time, and fuel requirements.
(7)
Selects appropriate navigation system/facilities and communication frequencies.
(8)
Applies pertinent information from AFD, NOTAMs, and NOTAMS relative to airport,
runway and taxiway closures, and other flight publications.
(9)
Completes a navigation log and simulates filing a VFR flight plan.
Task E: National Airspace System (ASEL AND ASES)

the National Airspace System by explaining:
(a)
Basic VFR weather minimumsfor all classes of airspace.
(b)
Airspace classestheir operating rules, pilot certification, and airplane equipment

requirements for the following
(c)
(1)
Class A.
(2)
Class B.
(3)
Class C.
(4)
Class D.
(5)
Class E.
(6)
Class G.
Special use, special flight rules areas, and other airspace areas.
Task F: Performance and Limitations (ASEL AND ASES)

(a)
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to performance and limitations by

explaining the use of charts, tables, and data to determine performance and the adverse effects of
exceeding limitations.
(b)
Computes weight and balance. Determines the computed weight and center of gravity are within the
airplanes operating limitations and if the weight and center of gravity will remain within limits during
all phases of flight.
Demonstrates use of the appropriate manufacturers performance charts, tables, and data.
Describes the effects of atmospheric conditions on the airplanes performance.
(c)
(d)
Issue: Original
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Task G: Operation Of Systems (ASEL AND ASES)

Objective: To determine that the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to the
operation of systems on the airplane provided for the flight test by explaining at least three of the following
systems:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
(9)
(10)
(11)
Primary flight controls and trimming.

Flaps, leading edge devices, and spoilers.
Water rudders (ASES).
Power plant and propeller.
Landing gear.
Fuel, oil, and hydraulic.
Electrical.
Avionics.
Pitot-static, vacuum/pressure and associated flight instruments.
Environmental.
Deicing and anti-icing.
Task H: Water and Seaplane Characteristics (ASES)

Objective: To determine that the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to water
and seaplane characteristics by explaining:
(a)
The characteristics of a water surface as affected by features, such as

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
(b)
(c)
Size and location.

Protected and unprotected areas.
Surface wind.
Direction and strength of water current.
Floating and partially submerged debris.
Sandbars, islands, and shoals.
Vessel traffic and wakes.
Other features peculiar to the area.
Float and hull construction, and their effect on seaplane performance.

Causes of porpoising and skipping, and the pilot action required to prevent or correct these
occurrences.
Task I: Seaplane Bases, Maritime Rules, and Aids to Marine Navigation (ASES)
seaplane bases, maritime rules, and aids to marine navigation by explaining:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
How to locate and identify seaplane bases on charts or in directories.

Operating restrictions at various bases.
Right-of-way, steering, and sailing rules pertinent to seaplane operation.
Marine navigation aids, such as buoys, beacons, lights, and sound signals.
Task J: Aero-medical Factors (ASEL AND ASES)

Objective: To determine that the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to aeromedical factors by explaining:
(a)
The symptoms, causes, effects, and corrective actions of at least three of the following
(1)
(2)
(3)
Issue: Original
Hypoxia.
Hyperventilation.
Middle ear and sinus problems.
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(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
II
Spatial disorientation.
Motion sickness.
Carbon monoxide poisoning.
Stress and fatigue.
Dehydration.
(b)
The effects of alcohol, drugs, and over-the-counter medications.
(c)
The effects of excess nitrogen during scuba dive upon a pilot or passenger in flight.
PREFLIGHT PROCEDURES
Task A: Preflight Inspection (ASEL and ASES)
(1)
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to preflight inspection.

This shall include which items must be inspected, the reasons for checking each
item, and how to detect possible defects.
(2)
Inspects the airplane with reference to an appropriate checklist.
(3)
Verifies the airplane is in condition for safe flight.
Task B: Cockpit Management (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to cockpit management

procedures.
Ensures all loose items in the cockpit and cabin are secured.
Organizes material and equipment in an efficient manner so they are readily available.
Briefs occupants on the use of safety belts, shoulder harnesses, doors, and
emergency procedures.
Task C: Engine Starting (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
(2)
(3)
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to recommended engine

starting procedures. This shall include the use of an external power source, hand
propping safety, and starting under various atmospheric conditions.
Positions the airplane properly considering structures, surface conditions, other
aircraft, and the safety of nearby persons and property.
Utilizes the appropriate checklist for starting procedure.
Task D: Taxiing (ASEL)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
Issue: Original
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to safe taxi procedures at towered
and non-towered airports.
Performs a brake check immediately after the airplane begins moving.
Positions the flight controls properly for the existing wind conditions.
Controls direction and speed without excessive use of brakes.
Exhibits procedures for steering, maneuvering, maintaining taxiway, runway position, an
situational awareness to avoid runway incursions.
Exhibits proper positioning of the aircraft relative to hold lines.
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(7)
(8)
(9)
(10)
(11)
(12)
Exhibits procedures to insure clearances / instructions are received and recorded

read back correctly.
Exhibits situational awareness / taxi procedures in the event the aircraft is on a
taxiway that is between parallel runways.
Uses a taxi chart during taxi.
Complies with airport / taxiway markings, signals, ATC clearances and
instructions.
Utilizes procedures for eliminating pilot distractions.
Taxiing to avoid other aircraft / vehicles and hazards
Task E: Taxiing and Sailing (ASES)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to water taxi and sailing
procedures.
Positions the flight controls properly for the existing wind conditions.
Plans and follows the most favorable course while taxiing or sailing, considers wind, water
current, water conditions, and maritime regulations, as appropriate.
Uses the appropriate idle, plow, or step taxi technique.
Uses flight controls, flaps, doors, water rudder, and power correctly so as to follow the
desired course while sailing.
Prevents and corrects for porpoising and skipping.
Avoids other aircraft, vessels, and hazards.
Complies with seaplane base signs, signals, and clearances.
Task F: Runway Incursion Avoidance (ASEL and ASES)

Objective: To determine that the applicant exhibits knowledge of the elements of runway incursion
avoidance by:
Issue: Original
(1)
Exhibiting distinct challenges and requirements during taxi operations not found in other
phases of flight operations.
(2)
Exhibiting procedures for appropriate cockpit activities during taxiing including taxi route
planning, briefing the location of HOT SPOTS, communicating and coordinating with ATC.
(3)
Exhibiting procedures for steering, maneuvering, maintaining taxiway, runway position,

and situational awareness.
(4)
Knowing the relevance/importance of hold lines.
(5)
Exhibiting procedures to ensure the pilot maintains strict focus to the movement of
the
aircraft and ATC communications, including the elimination of all distractive activities (i.e.
cell phone, texting, conversations with passengers) during aircraft taxi, takeoff and climb
out to cruise altitude.
(6)
Utilizing procedures for holding the pilots workload to a minimum during taxi operations.
(7)
Utilizing taxi operation planning procedures, such as recording taxi instructions,

back taxi clearances, and reviewing taxi routes on the airport diagram.
(8)
Utilizing procedures to insure that clearance or instructions that are actually received are
adhered to rather than the ones expected to be received.
(9)
Utilizing procedures to maintain/enhance situational awareness when conducting taxi

operations in relation to other aircraft operations in the vicinity as well as to other vehicles
moving on the airport.
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(10)
Exhibiting procedures for briefing if a landing rollout to a taxiway exit will place the pilot in
close proximity to another runway which can result in a runway incursion.
(11)
Conducting appropriate after landing/taxi procedures in the event the aircraft is on a

taxiway that is between parallel runways.
(12)
Knowing specific procedures for operations at an airport with an operating air traffic control
tower, with emphasis on ATC communications and runway entry/crossing authorizations.
(13)
Utilizing ATC communications and pilot actions before takeoff, before landing, and after
landing at towered and non-towered airports.
(14)
Knowing procedures unique to night operations.
(15)
Knowing operations at non-towered airports.
(16)
Knowing the use of aircraft exterior lighting.
(17)
Knowing the hazards of Low visibility operations.
Task G: Before Takeoff Check (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
III
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to the before takeoff check. This
shall include the reasons for checking each item and how to detect malfunctions.
Positions the airplane properly considering other aircraft/vessels, wind, and surface
conditions.
Divides attention inside and outside the cockpit.
Ensures that engine temperature(s) and pressure(s) are suitable for run-up and takeoff.
Accomplishes the before takeoff checklist and ensures the airplane is in safe operating
condition as recommended by the manufacturer.
Reviews takeoff performance, such as airspeeds, takeoff distances, departure, and
emergency procedures.
Avoids runway incursions and ensures no conflict with traffic prior to taxiing into takeoff
position.
AIRPORT AND SEAPLANE BASE OPERATIONS

Task A: Radio Communications and ATC Light Signals (ASEL and ASES)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to radio communications and ATC
light signals.
Selects appropriate frequencies.
Transmits using AIM specified phraseology and procedures.
Acknowledges radio communications and complies with instructions.
Task B: Traffic Patterns (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
(2)
(3)
Issue: Original
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to traffic patterns. This shall
include procedures at airports with and without operating control towers, prevention of
runway incursions, collision avoidance, wake turbulence avoidance, and wind shear.
Properly identifies and interprets airport/seaplane base runways, taxiway signs, markings,
and lighting.
Complies with proper traffic pattern procedures.
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(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
Maintains proper spacing from other aircraft.

Corrects for wind drift to maintain the proper ground track.
Maintains orientation with the runway/landing area in use.
Maintains traffic pattern altitude, 100 feet, and the appropriate airspeed, 10 knots.
Task C: Airport/Seaplane Base, Runway, and Taxiway Signs, Markings, and Lighting (ASEL and
ASES)
(1)
(2)
IV
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to airport/seaplane base, runway,

and taxiway operations with emphasis on runway incursion avoidance.
Properly identifies and interprets airport/seaplane base, runway, and taxiway signs,
markings, and lighting, with emphasis on runway incursion avoidance.
TAKEOFFS, LANDINGS, AND GO-AROUNDS

Task A: Normal and Crosswind Takeoff and Climb (ASEL AND ASES)
Note: If a crosswind condition does not exist, the applicants knowledge of crosswind elements shall be
evaluated through oral testing.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
(9)
(10)
(11)
(12)
(13)
(14)
(15)
Utilizes procedures before taxiing onto the runway or takeoff area to ensure runway
incursion avoidance. Verify ATC clearance/no aircraft on final at non-towered airports
before entering the runway, and ensure that the aircraft is on the correct takeoff runway.
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to a normal and crosswind takeoff,
climb operations, and rejected takeoff procedures.
Ascertains wind direction with or without visible wind direction indicators.
Calculates/determines if crosswind component is above his or her ability or that of the
aircrafts capability.
Positions the flight controls for the existing wind conditions.
Clears the area; taxies into the takeoff position and aligns the airplane on the runway
center/takeoff path.
Retracts the water rudders, as appropriate (ASES), and advances the throttle smoothly to
takeoff power.
Establishes and maintains the most efficient planning/lift-off attitude and corrects for
porpoising and skipping (ASES).
Rotates and lifts off at the recommended airspeed and accelerates to VY.
Establishes a pitch attitude that will maintain VY +10/-5 knots (PPL) and 5 (CPL) knots.
Retracts the landing gear, if appropriate, and flaps after a positive rate of climb is
established.
Maintains takeoff power and VY +10/-5 knots (PPL) and 5 knots (CPL) to a safe
maneuvering altitude
Maintains directional control and proper wind-drift correction throughout the takeoff and
climb.
Complies with responsible environmental practices, including noise abatement
procedures.
Completes the appropriate checklist.
Task B: Normal and Crosswind Approach and Landing

Note: If a crosswind condition does not exist, the applicants knowledge of crosswind elements shall be
evaluated through oral testing.
Issue: Original
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(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
(9)
(10)
(11)
(12)
(13)
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to a normal and crosswind

approach and landing with emphasis on proper use and coordination of flight controls.
Adequately surveys the intended landing area (ASES).
Considers the wind conditions, landing surface, obstructions, and selects a suitable
touchdown point.
Establishes the recommended approach and landing configuration and airspeed, and
adjusts pitch attitude and power as required.
Maintains a stabilized approach and recommended airspeed, or in its absence, not more
than 1.3 VSO, +10/-5 knots (PPL) and 5 knots (CPL) , with wind gust factor applied.
Makes smooth, timely, and correct control application during the round out and
touchdown.
Contacts the water at the proper pitch attitude (ASES).
Touches down smoothly at approximate stalling speed (ASEL).
Touches down within the available runway or water landing area, within 400 feet (PPL)
and 200 feet (CPL) beyond a specified point with no drift, and with the airplanes
longitudinal axis aligned with and over the runway center / landing path.
Maintains crosswind correction and directional control throughout the approach and landing
sequence.
Executes a timely go around decision when the approach cannot be made within the
tolerances specified above.
Utilizes after landing runway incursion avoidance procedures.
Task C: Soft-Field Takeoff and Climb (ASEL)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
(9)
(10)
(11)
incursion avoidance. Verify ATC clearance / no aircraft on final at non-towered airports
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to a soft-field takeoff and climb.
Positions the flight controls for existing wind conditions and to maximize lift as quickly as
possible.
Clears the area; taxies onto the takeoff surface at a speed consistent with safety and
aligns the airplane without stopping while advancing the throttle smoothly to takeoff power.
Establishes and maintains a pitch attitude that will transfer the weight of the airplane
from the wheels to the wings as rapidly as possible.
Rotates and lifts off at the lowest possible airspeed and remains in ground effect while
accelerating to VX or VY, as appropriate.
Establishes a pitch attitude for VX or VY, as appropriate, and maintains selected airspeed
+10/-5 knots (PPL) and 5 knots (CPL) during the climb.
Retracts the landing gear, if appropriate, and flaps after clear of any obstacles or as
recommended by the manufacturer.
Maintains takeoff power and VX or VY +10/- 5knots (PPL) and 5 knots (CPL) to safe
maneuvering altitude.
climb.
Task D: Soft-Field Approach and Landing (ASEL)

Issue: Original
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(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
(9)
(10)
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to a soft-field approach and

landing.
Considers the wind conditions, landing surface and obstructions, and selects the most
suitable touchdown area.
Establishes the recommended approach and landing configuration, and airspeed; adjusts
pitch attitude and power as required.
Maintains a stabilized approach and recommended airspeed, or in its absence not more
than 1.3 VSO, +10/-5 knots (PPL) and 5 knots (CPL), with wind gust factor applied.
touchdown.
Touches down softly with no drift, and with the airplanes longitudinal axis aligned with the
runway / landing path.
Maintains crosswind correction and directional control throughout the approach
and
landing sequence.
Maintains proper position of the flight controls and sufficient speed to taxi on the soft
surface.
Completes appropriate checklist.
Task E: Short-Field Takeoff (Confined AreaASES) and Maximum Performance Climb (ASEL and
ASES)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
(9)
(10)
(11)
(12)
(13)
(14)
Issue: Original
incursion avoidance. Verify ATC clearance / no aircraft on final at non-towered airports
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to a short-field (confined area
ASES) takeoff and maximum performance climb.
Positions the flight controls for the existing wind conditions; sets the flaps as
recommended.
Clears the area; taxies into takeoff position utilizing maximum available takeoff area and
aligns the airplane on the runway center/takeoff path.
Selects an appropriate takeoff path for the existing conditions (ASES).
Applies brakes (if appropriate), while advancing the throttle smoothly to takeoff power.
Establishes and maintains the most efficient planning / lift-off attitude and corrects for
porpoising and skipping (ASES).
Rotates and lifts off at the recommended airspeed, and accelerates to the recommended
obstacle clearance airspeed or VX.
Establishes a pitch attitude that will maintain the recommended obstacle clearance
airspeed, or VX, +10/-5 knots (PPL) and +5/-0 knots (CPL), until the obstacle is cleared, or
until the airplane is 50 feet above the surface.
After clearing the obstacle, establishes the pitch attitude for VY, accelerates to VY, and
maintains VY, +10/-5 knots (PPL) or 5 knots (CPL), during the climb
Retracts the landing gear, if appropriate, and flaps after clear of any obstacles or as
recommended by manufacturer.
Maintains takeoff power and VY +10/-5 knots (PPL) or 5 knots (CPL), to a safe
climb.
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Task F: Short-Field Approach (Confined AreaASES) and Landing (ASEL and ASES)
(1)
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to a short-field (confined area

ASES) approach and landing.
(2)
Adequately surveys the intended landing area (ASES).
(3)
Considers the wind conditions, landing surface, obstructions, and selects the most suitable
touchdown point.
(4)
Establishes the recommended approach and landing configuration and airspeed; adjusts
pitch attitude and power as required.
(5)
Maintains a stabilized approach and recommended approach airspeed, or in its absence

factor
not more than 1.3 VSO, +10/-5 knots (PPL) or, 5 knots (CPL, with wind gust
applied.
touchdown.
Selects the proper landing path, contacts the water at the minimum safe airspeed with the
proper pitch attitude for the surface conditions (ASES).
Touches down smoothly at minimum control airspeed (ASEL).
Touches down within the available runway or water landing area, at or within 200 feet (PPL)
or 100 feet (CPL), beyond a specified point, with no side drift, minimum float, and with the
airplanes longitudinal axis aligned with and over the runway center / landing path.
Maintains crosswind correction and directional control throughout the approach and
landing sequence.
Applies brakes (ASEL), or elevator control (ASES), as necessary, to stop in the shortest
distance consistent with safety.
Completes appropriate checklist.
(6)
(7)
(8)
(9)
(10)
(11)
(12)
(13)
Task G: Glassy Water Takeoff and Climb (ASES)

Note: If a glassy water condition does not exist, the applicant shall be evaluated by simulating the Task.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
(9)
(10)
Issue: Original
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to glassy water takeoff and
climb.
Positions the flight controls and flaps for the existing conditions.
Clears the area; selects an appropriate takeoff path considering surface hazards and/or
vessels and surface conditions.
Retracts the water rudders as appropriate; advances the throttle smoothly to takeoff
power.
Establishes and maintains an appropriate planning attitude, directional control, and
corrects for porpoising, skipping, and increases in water drag.
Utilizes appropriate techniques to lift seaplane from the water considering surface
conditions.
Establishes proper attitude/airspeed, and accelerates to Vy, +10/-5 knots (PPL) or
5 knots (CPL), during the climb.
established.
Maintains takeoff power Vy +10/-5 knots (PPL) or 5 knots (CPL), to a safe
Maintains directional control and proper wind-drift correction throughout takeoff and climb.
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(11)
Task H: Glassy Water Approach and Landing (ASES)

Note: If a glassy water condition does not exist, the applicant shall be evaluated by simulating the Task.
(1)
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to glassy water approach and
landing.
(2)
Adequately surveys the intended landing area.
(3)
Considers the wind conditions, water depth, hazards, surrounding terrain, and
watercraft.
(4)
Selects the most suitable approach path and touchdown area.
(5)
(6)
Maintains a stabilized approach and the recommended approach airspeed, +10/-5 knots
(PPL) or, 5 knots (CPL), and maintains a touchdown pitch attitude and descent rate from
the last altitude reference until touchdown.
(7)
Makes smooth, timely, and correct power and control adjustments to maintain proper pitch
attitude and rate of descent to touchdown.
(8)
Contacts the water in the proper pitch attitude, and slows to idle taxi speed.
(9)
sequence.
(10)
other
Task I: Rough Water Takeoff and Climb (ASES)

Note: If a rough water condition does not exist, the applicant shall be evaluated by simulating the Task.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
(9)
(10)
Issue: Original
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to rough water takeoff and
climb.
Positions the flight controls and flaps for the existing conditions.
Clears the area; selects an appropriate takeoff path considering wind, swells, surface
hazards and/or vessels.
Retracts the water rudders as appropriate; advances the throttle smoothly to takeoff
power.
Establishes and maintains an appropriate planning attitude, directional control, and
corrects for porpoising, skipping, or excessive bouncing.
Rotates and lifts off at minimum airspeed and accelerates to VY, +10/-5 knots (PPL)
or 5 knots (CPL) before leaving ground effect.
established.
Maintains takeoff power VY +10/-5 knots (PPL) or 5 knots (CPL), to a safe
Maintains directional control and proper wind-drift correction throughout takeoff and climb.
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Task J: Rough Water Approach and Landing (ASES)

Note: If a rough water condition does not exist, the applicant shall be evaluated by simulating the Task.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
(9)
(10)
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to rough water approach and
landing.
Adequately surveys the intended landing area.
Considers the wind conditions, water, depth, hazards, surrounding terrain, and other
watercraft.
Selects the most suitable approach path and touchdown area.
Maintains a stabilized approach and the recommended approach airspeed, or in its
absence not more than 1.3 VSO +10/-5 knots (PPL) or 5 knots (CPL), with wind gust
factor applied.
Makes smooth, timely, and correct power and control application during the round out
and touch down.
Contacts the water in the proper pitch attitude, and at the proper airspeed, considering the
type of rough water.
Maintains crosswind correction and directional control throughout the approach and
landing sequence.
Task K (PPL): Forward Slip to a Landing (ASEL AND ASES)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to forward slip to a landing.

Considers the wind conditions, landing surface and obstructions, and selects the most
suitable touchdown point.
Establishes the slipping attitude at the point from which a landing can be made using the
recommended approach and landing configuration and airspeed; adjusts pitch attitude and
power as required.
Maintains a ground track aligned with the runway center/landing path and an airspeed,
which results in minimum float during the round out.
Makes smooth, timely, and correct control application during the recovery from the slip,
the round out, and the touchdown.
Touches down within 400 feet beyond a specified point with no drift, and with the
airplanes longitudinal axis aligned with and over the runway center/landing path.
sequence.
Task K (CPL): Power-Off 180 Accuracy Approach and Landing (ASEL and ASES)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Issue: Original
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to a power-off 180 accuracy

approach and landing.
Considers the wind conditions, landing surface, obstructions, and selects an
appropriate touchdown point.
Positions airplane on downwind leg, parallel to landing runway, and not more than
1,000 feet AGL.
Completes final airplane configuration.
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(5)
(6)
Touches down in a normal landing attitude, at or within 200 feet beyond the specified
touchdown point.
Task L: Go-Around/Rejected Landing (ASEL AND ASES)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
(9)
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to a go around/rejected landing

with emphasis on factors that contribute to landing conditions that may require a go
around.
Makes a timely decision to discontinue the approach to landing.
Applies takeoff power immediately and transitions to climb pitch attitude for VX or VY as
appropriate +10/-5 knots and/or appropriate pitch attitude.
Retracts the flaps, as appropriate.
Retracts the landing gear, if appropriate, after a positive rate of climb is established.
Maneuvers to the side of the runway/landing area to clear and avoid conflicting traffic.
Maintains takeoff power and VY +10/-5 knots (PPL) or 5 knots (CPL) to a safe
Maintains directional control and proper wind-drift correction throughout the climb.
(PPL) PERFORMANCE MANEUVER

Task A: Steep Turns (ASEL AND ASES)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to steep turns.

Establishes the manufacturers recommended airspeed or if one is not stated, a safe
airspeed not to exceed VA.
Rolls into a coordinated 360 turn; maintains a 45 bank.
Performs the task in the opposite direction, as specified by the examiner.
Divides attention between airplane control and orientation.
Maintains the entry altitude, 100 feet, airspeed, 10 knots, bank, 5; and rolls out on
the entry heading, 10.
(CPL) PERFORMANCE MANEUVERS

Note: The examiner shall at least select either Task A or B, and either C or D.
Task A (CPL): Steep Turns (ASEL and ASES)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
Issue: Original
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to steep turns.

Establishes the manufacturers recommended airspeed or if one is not stated, a safe
airspeed not to exceed VA.
Rolls into a coordinated 360 steep turn with at least a 50 bank, followed by a 360
steep turn in the opposite direction.
Maintains the entry altitude, 100 feet, airspeed, 10 knots, bank, 5; and rolls out on
the entry heading, 10.
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Task B (CPL): Steep Spiral (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to a steep spiral, not to exceed
60 angle of bank to maintain a constant radius about a point.
Selects an altitude sufficient to continue through a series of at least three 360 turns.
Selects a suitable ground reference point.
Applies wind-drift correction to track a constant radius circle around selected reference
point with bank not to exceed 60 at steepest point in turn.
Divides attention between airplane control and ground track, while maintaining
coordinated flight.
Maintains the specified airspeed, 10 knots, rolls out toward object or specified
heading, 10.
Task C (CPL): Chandelles (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to chandelles.

Selects an altitude that will allow the maneuver to be performed no lower than 1,500 feet
AGL.
Establishes the recommended entry configuration, power, and airspeed.
Establishes the angle of bank at approximately 30.
Simultaneously applies power and pitch to maintain a smooth, coordinated climbing turn to
the 90 point, with a constant bank.
Begins a coordinated constant rate rollout from the 90 point to the 180 point maintaining
power and a constant pitch attitude.
Completes rollout at the 180 point, 10 just above a stall airspeed, and maintaining that
airspeed momentarily avoiding a stall.
Resumes straight-and-level flight with minimum loss of altitude.
Task D (CPL): Lazy Eights (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
VI
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to lazy eights.

Selects an altitude that will allow the task to be performed no lower than 1,500 feet AGL.
Establishes the recommended entry configuration, power, and airspeed.
Maintains coordinated flight throughout the maneuver.
Achieves the following throughout the maneuver
(i)
Approximately 30 bank at the steepest point.
(ii)
Constant change of pitch and roll rate.
(iii)
Altitude tolerance at 180 point, 100 feet from entry altitude.
(iv)
Airspeed tolerance at the 180 point, plus 10 knots from entry airspeed.
(v)
Heading tolerance at the 180 point, 10.
Continues the maneuver through the number of symmetrical loops specified and
resumes straight-and-level flight.
(PPL) GROUND REFERENCE MANEUVERS

Note: The examiner shall select at least one Task.
Task A (PPL): Rectangular Course (ASEL AND ASES)
Issue: Original
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(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to a rectangular course.

Selects a suitable reference area.
Plans the maneuver so as to enter a left or right pattern, 600 to 1,000 feet AGL at an
appropriate distance from the selected reference area, 45 to the downwind leg.
Applies adequate wind-drift correction during straight-and-turning flight to maintain a
constant ground track around the rectangular reference area.
Divides attention between airplane control and the ground track while maintaining
coordinated flight.
Maintains altitude, 100 feet; maintains airspeed, 10 knots.
Task B (PPL): S-Turns (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to S-turns.

Selects a suitable ground reference line.
Plans the maneuver so as to enter at 600 to 1,000 feet AGL, perpendicular to the selected
reference line.
Applies adequate wind-drift correction to track a constant radius turn on each side of
the selected reference line.
Reverses the direction of turn directly over the selected reference line.
coordinated flight.
Task C (PPL): Turns Around a Point (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to turns around a point.

Selects a suitable ground reference point.
Plans the maneuver so as to enter left or right at 600 to 1,000 feet AGL, at an appropriate
distance from the reference point.
Applies adequate wind-drift correction to track a constant radius turn around the selected
reference point.
coordinated flight.
Task D (CPL): Eight on Pylons (ASEL & ASES)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
Issue: Original
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to eights on pylons.

Determines the approximate pivotal altitude.
Selects suitable pylons that will permit straight-and-level flight between the pylons.
Enters the maneuver at the appropriate altitude and airspeed and at a bank angle of
approximately 30 to 40 at the steepest point.
Applies the necessary corrections so that the line-of-sight reference line remains on the
pylon.
Divides attention between accurate coordinated airplane control and outside visual
references.
Holds pylon using appropriate pivotal altitude avoiding slips and skids.
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VII
NAVIGATION
Task A: Pilotage and Dead Reckoning (ASEL and ASES)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
(9)
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to pilotage and dead

reckoning.
Follows the preplanned course by reference to landmarks.
Identifies landmarks by relating surface features to chart symbols.
Navigates by means of pre-computed headings, groundspeeds, and elapsed time.
Demonstrates use of magnetic direction indicator in navigation, to include turns to new
headings.
Corrects for and records the differences between preflight groundspeed, fuel
consumption, and heading calculations and those determined en route.
Verifies the airplanes position within 3 (PPL) or 2(CPL) nautical miles of the flight
planned route.
Arrives at the en route checkpoints within 5 (PPL) or 3 (CPL) minutes of the initial or
revised ETA and provides a destination estimate.
Maintains the appropriate altitude, 200 feet and headings, 15 (PPL) or 100 feet, and
headings, 10 (CPL).
Task B: Navigation Systems and Radar Services (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to navigation systems and radar
services.
Demonstrates the ability to use an airborne electronic navigation system.
Locates the airplanes position using the navigation system.
Intercepts and tracks a given course, radial, or bearing, as appropriate.
Recognizes and describes the indication of station passage, if appropriate.
Recognizes signal loss and takes appropriate action.
Uses proper communication procedures when utilizing radar services.
Maintains the appropriate altitude, 200 feet and headings 15 (PPL) or 100 feet and
heading, 10 (CPL).
Task C: Diversion (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to diversion.

Selects an appropriate alternate airport and route.
Makes an accurate estimate of heading, groundspeed, arrival time, and fuel consumption to
the alternate airport.
Maintains the appropriate altitude, 200 feet and heading, 15 (PPL) or 100 feet and
heading, 10 (CPL).
Task D: Lost Procedures (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Issue: Original
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to lost procedures.

Selects an appropriate course of action.
Maintains an appropriate heading and climbs, if necessary.
Identifies prominent landmarks.
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(5)
VIII
Uses navigation systems/facilities and/or contacts an ATC facility for assistance, as

appropriate.
SLOW FLIGHT AND STALLS

Task A: Maneuvering During Slow Flight (ASEL and ASES)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to maneuvering during slow

flight.
Selects an entry altitude that will allow the task to be completed no lower than 1,500 feet
AGL.
Establishes and maintains an airspeed at which any further increase in angle of attack,
increase in load factor, or reduction in power, would result in an immediate stall.
Accomplishes coordinated straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents with
landing gear and flap configurations specified by the examiner.
Maintains the specified altitude, 100 feet (PPL) or 50 feet (CPL); specified heading,
10; airspeed, +10/0 knots (PPL), +5/-0 knots (CPL); and specified angle of bank,
10 (PPL), 5 (CPL).
Task B: Power-off Stalls (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to power-off stalls.

Selects an entry altitude that allows the task to be completed no lower than 1,500 feet
AGL.
Establishes a stabilized descent in the approach or landing configuration, as specified by
the examiner.
Transitions smoothly from the approach or landing attitude to a pitch attitude that will
induce a stall.
Maintains a specified heading, 10, if in straight flight; maintains a specified angle of
bank not to exceed 20, 10 (PPL), 5 (CPL); if in turning flight, while inducing the stall.
Recognizes and recovers promptly after a fully developed stall occurs.
Note: Evaluation criteria for a recovery from an approach to stall should not mandate
a predetermined value for altitude loss and should not mandate maintaining altitude
during recovery. Proper evaluation criteria should consider the multitude of external
and internal variables which affect the recovery altitude.
(7)
(8)
Retracts the flaps to the recommended setting; retracts the landing gear, if retractable,
after a positive rate of climb is established.
Accelerates to VX or VY speed before the final flap retraction; returns to the altitude,
heading, and airspeed specified by the examiner.
Task C: Power-On Stalls (ASEL and ASES)

Note: In some high performance airplanes, the power setting may have to be reduced below the Skill
test standards guideline power setting to prevent excessively high pitch attitudes (greater than 30
nose up).
(1)
Issue: Original
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to power-on stalls.

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(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
AGL.
Establishes the takeoff or departure configuration as specified by the examiner. Sets
power to no less than 65 percent available power.
Transitions smoothly from the takeoff or departure attitude to the pitch attitude that will
induce a stall.
Maintains a specified heading, 10, if in straight flight; maintains a specified angle of bank
not to exceed 20, 10, if in turning flight, while inducing the stall.
Recognizes and recovers promptly after a fully developed stall occurs.
Note: Evaluation criteria for a recovery from an approach to stall should not mandate a
predetermined value for altitude loss and should not mandate maintaining altitude during
recovery. Proper evaluation criteria should consider the multitude of external and internal
variables which affect the recovery altitude.
Retracts the flaps to the recommended setting; retracts the landing gear if retractable,
after a positive rate of climb is established.
Accelerates to VX or VY speed before the final flap retraction; returns to the altitude,
heading, and airspeed specified by the examiner.
Task D (CPL): Accelerated Stalls (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to accelerated (power on or power

off) stalls.
AGL.
Establishes the airplane in a steady flight condition, airspeed below VA, 20 knots above
unaccelerated stall speed or the manufacturers recommendations.
Transitions smoothly from the cruise attitude to the angle of bank of approximately 45
that will induce a stall.
Maintains coordinated turning flight, increasing elevator back pressure steadily and firmly
to induce the stall.
Recognizes and recovers promptly at the onset (buffeting) stall condition.
Returns to the altitude, heading, and airspeed specified by the examiner.
Task D: Spin Awareness (ASEL and ASES)

spin awareness by explaining:
(1)
(2)
(3)
IX
Aerodynamic factors related to spins.

Flight situations where unintentional spins may occur.
Procedures for recovery from unintentional spins.
EMERGENCY OPERATIONS
Task A: Emergency Descent (ASEL and ASES)
(1)
(2)
(3)
Issue: Original
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to an emergency descent.

Recognizes situations, such as depressurization, cockpit smoke, and/or fire that require
an emergency descent.
Establishes the appropriate airspeed and configuration for the emergency descent.
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(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
Exhibits orientation, division of attention, and proper planning.

Maintains positive load factors during the descent.
Maintains appropriate airspeed, +0/10 knots, and levels off at specified altitude, 100
feet.
Completes appropriate checklists.
Task B: Emergency Approach and Landing (Simulated) (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to emergency approach and

landing procedures.
Analyzes the situation and selects an appropriate course of action.
Establishes and maintains the recommended best-glide airspeed, 10 knots.
Selects a suitable landing area.
Plans and follows a flight pattern to the selected landing area considering altitude, wind,
terrain, and obstructions.
Prepares for landing, or go-around, as specified by the examiner.
Follows the appropriate checklist.
Task C: Systems and Equipment Malfunctions (ASEL and ASES)

Objective: To determine that the
applicant:
(1)
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to system and equipment

malfunctions appropriate to the airplane provided for the Skills test.
(2)
Analyzes the situation and takes appropriate action for simulated emergencies
appropriate to the airplane provided for the Skills test for at least three of the
following
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(ix)
(x)
(xi)
(xii)
(xiii)
(xiv)
(3)
Partial or complete power loss.

Engine roughness or overheat.
Carburetor or induction icing.
Loss of oil pressure.
Fuel starvation.
Electrical malfunction.
Vacuum/pressure, and associated flight instruments malfunction.
Pitot/static system malfunction.
Landing gear or flap malfunction.
Inoperative trim.
Inadvertent door or window opening.
Structural icing.
Smoke/fire/engine compartment fire.
Any other emergency appropriate to the airplane.
Follows the appropriate checklist or procedure.
Task D: Emergency Equipment and Survival Gear (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
(2)
Issue: Original
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to emergency equipment and

survival gear appropriate to the airplane and environment encountered during flight.
Identifies appropriate equipment that should be onboard the airplane.
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(PPL) BASIC INSTRUMENT MANEUVERS

Task A: Straight and Level Flight (ASEL and ASES)
(1)
(2)
(3)
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to attitude instrument flying

during straight-and-level flight.
Maintains straight-and-level flight solely by reference to instruments using proper
instrument cross-check and interpretation, and coordinated control application.
Maintains altitude, 200 feet; heading, 20; and airspeed, 10 knots.
Task B: Constant Airspeed Climbs (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)

during constant airspeed climbs.
Establishes the climb configuration specified by the examiner.
Transitions to the climb pitch attitude and power setting on an assigned heading
using proper instrument cross-check and interpretation, and coordinated control
application.
Demonstrates climbs solely by reference to instruments at a constant airspeed to
specific altitudes in straight flight and turns.
Levels off at the assigned altitude and maintains that altitude, 200 feet; maintains
heading, 20; maintains airspeed, 10 knots.
Task C: Constant Airspeed Descents (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)

during constant airspeed descents.
Establishes the descent configuration specified by the examiner.
Transitions to the descent pitch attitude and power setting on an assigned heading
using proper instrument crosscheck and interpretation, and coordinated control
application.
Demonstrates descents solely by reference to instruments at a constant airspeed to
specific altitudes in straight flight and turns.
Levels off at the assigned altitude and maintains that altitude, 200 feet; maintains
heading, 20; maintains airspeed, 10 knots.
Task D: Turns to Headings (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
(2)
(3)
Issue: Original
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to attitude instrument flying during
turns to headings.
Transitions to the level-turn attitude using proper instrument cross-check and
interpretation, and coordinated control application.
Demonstrates turns to headings solely by reference to instruments; maintains altitude,
200 feet; maintains a standard rate turn and rolls out on the assigned heading, 10;
maintains airspeed, 10 knots.
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Task E: Recovery from Unusual Flight Attitudes (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
(2)

during unusual attitudes.
Recognizes unusual flight attitudes solely by reference to instruments; recovers promptly
to a stabilized level flight attitude using proper instrument cross-check and
interpretation and smooth, coordinated control application in the correct sequence.
Task F: Radio Communications, Navigation Systems/Facilities, and Radar Services (ASEL and
ASES)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
XI
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to radio communications,

navigation systems/facilities, and radar services available for use during flight solely by
reference to instruments.
Selects the proper frequency and identifies the appropriate facility.
Follows verbal instructions and/or navigation systems/facilities for guidance.
Determines the minimum safe altitude.
Maintains altitude, 200 feet; maintains heading, 20; maintains airspeed, 10 knots.
(CPL) NIGHT OPERATION

Task A: Night Preparation (ASEL and ASES)
night operations by explaining:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
XII
Physiological aspects of night flying as it relates to vision.

Lighting systems identifying airports, runways, taxiways and obstructions, and pilot
controlled lighting.
Airplane lighting systems.
Personal equipment essential for night flight.
Night orientation, navigation, and chart reading techniques.
Safety precautions and emergencies unique to night flying.
Somatogravic illusion and black hole approach illusion.
POST FLIGHT PROCEDURES

Note: The examiner shall select Task A and for ASES applicants at least one other Task.
Task A: After Landing, Parking, and Securing (ASEL and ASES)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
Issue: Original
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to after landing, parking, and
securing procedures.
Maintains directional control after touchdown while decelerating to an appropriate speed.
Observes runway hold lines and other surface control markings and lighting.
Parks in an appropriate area, considering the safety of nearby persons and property.
Follows the appropriate procedure for engine shutdown.
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(7)
Conducts an appropriate postflight inspection and secures the aircraft.
Task B: Anchoring (ASES)

(1)
(2)
(3)
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to anchoring.

Selects a suitable area for anchoring, considering seaplane movement, water depth,
tide, wind, and weather changes.
Uses an adequate number of anchors and lines of sufficient strength and length to
ensure the seaplanes security.
Task C: Docking and Mooring (ASES)

(1)
(2)
(3)
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to docking and mooring.

Approaches the dock or mooring buoy in the proper direction considering speed, hazards,
wind, and water current.
Ensures seaplane security.
Task D: Ramping/Beaching (ASES)

(1)
(2)
(3)
Exhibits satisfactory knowledge of the elements related to ramping/beaching.

Approaches the ramp/beach considering persons and property, in the proper attitude and
direction, at a safe speed, considering water depth, tide, current and wind.
Ramps/beaches and secures the seaplane in a manner that will protect it from the
harmful effect of wind, waves, and changes in water level.
_____________________________
Issue: Original
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Issue: Original
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ATTACHEMENT-4
MULTI-ENGINE LAND & SEA PPL & CPL
(RESEREVED)
Issue: Original
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Issue: Original
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ATTACHMENT -05
INSTRUMENT RATING SKILLS TEST STANDARDS
(AIRPLANE AND HELICOPTER)
5.1
INTRODUCTION
This introduction part shall be read in addition to the introduction part of Attachment 1.
5.2
AIRCRAFT AND EQUIPMENT REQUIRED FOR INSTRUMENT SKILLS TEST

(a)
The instrument rating applicant is required by Licensing ANO (Part 2) to provide an airworthy,
certificated aircraft for use during the skills test. Its operating limitations must not prohibit the Tasks
required on the skills test. Flight instruments are those required for controlling the aircraft without
outside references. The required radio equipment is that which is necessary for communications
with air traffic control ATC), and for the performance of two of the following non-precision
approaches: very high frequency Omni-directional range (VOR), non-directional beacon (NDB),
global positioning system (GPS) without vertical guidance, localizer (LOC), localizer-type
directional aid (LDA), simplified directional facility (SDF), or area navigation (RNAV) and one
precision approach: instrument landing system (ILS), GNSS landing system (GLS), localizer
performance with vertical guidance (LPV) or microwave landing system (MLS). GPS equipment
must be instrument flight rules (IFR) certified and contain the current database.
Note 1: A localizer performance with vertical guidance (LPV) approach with a decision altitude
(DA) greater than 300 feet height above terrain (HAT) may be used as a non-precision approach;
however, due to the precision of its glide path and localizer-like lateral navigation characteristics,
an LPV can be used to demonstrate precision approach proficiency (AOA VI Task B) if the DA is
equal to or less than 300 feet HAT.
Note 2: Modern technology has introduced into aviation a new method of displaying flight
instruments, such as Electronic Flight Instrument Systems, Integrated Flight Deck displays, and
others. For the purpose of the skills test standards, any flight instrument display that utilizes liquid
crystal display (LCD) or picture-tube-like displays will be referred to as Electronic Flight Instrument
Display. Aircraft equipped with this technology may or may not have separate backup flight
instruments installed. The abnormal or emergency procedure for loss of the electronic flight
instrument display appropriate to the aircraft will be evaluated in the Loss of Primary Instruments
Task. The loss of the primary electronic flight instrument display must be tailored to failures that
would normally be encountered in the aircraft. If the aircraft is capable, total failure of the electronic
flight instrument display, or a supporting component, with access only to the standby flight
instruments or backup display shall be evaluated.
(b)
The applicant is required to provide an appropriate view limiting device that is acceptable to the
examiner. This device shall be used during all testing that requires testing solely by reference to
instruments. This device must prevent the applicant from having visual reference outside the
aircraft, but not prevent the examiner from having visual reference outside the aircraft. A procedure
should be established between the applicant and the examiner as to when and how this device
should be donned and removed and this procedure briefed before the flight.
(c)
The applicant is expected to utilize an autopilot and/or flight management system (FMS), if properly
installed, during the instrument skills test to assist in the management of the aircraft. The examiner
is expected to test the applicants knowledge of the systems that are installed and operative during
the oral and flight portions of the skills test. The applicant will be required to demonstrate the use of
Issue: Original
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the autopilot and/or FMS during one of the non-precision approaches. The applicant is expected to
demonstrate satisfactory automation management skills.
(d)
If an applicant holds both single-engine and multiengine class ratings on a pilot certificate and takes
the instrument rating skills test in a single-engine airplane, the certificate issued must bear the
limitation Multiengine Limited to VFR only. If the applicant takes the test in a multiengine airplane,
the instrument privileges will be automatically conferred for the airplane single-engine rating.
(e)
If the skills test is conducted in the aircraft, and the aircraft has an operable and properly installed
GPS, the examiner will require and the applicant must demonstrate GPS approach proficiency. If
the applicant has contracted for training in an approved course that includes GPS training in the
system that is installed in the airplane/simulator/FTD and the airplane/ simulator/FTD used for the
checking/testing has the same system properly installed and operable, the applicant must
demonstrate GPS approach proficiency.
Note: If any avionics/navigation unit, including GPS, in the aircraft used for the skills test is
placarded inoperative, the examiner will review the maintenance log to verify that the discrepancy
has been properly documented.
5.3
USE OF CAAB-APPROVED FLIGHT SIMULATION TRAINING DEVICE (FSTD)

(a)
An airman applicant for instrument rating certification is authorized to use a full flight simulator
(FFS) qualified by the CAAB as levels AD and/or a flight training device (FTD) qualified by the
CAAB as levels 47 to complete certain flight Task requirements listed in this skills test standard.
(b)
In order to do so, such devices must be used pursuant to and in accordance with a curriculum
approved for use at a ANO Part 3 training center. Skills tests or portions thereof, when
accomplished in an FSTD, may only be conducted by CAAB aviation safety inspectors, designees
authorized to conduct such tests in FSTDs for ANO Part 3 or Training Center Evaluators (TCE).
(c)
When flight Tasks are accomplished in an aircraft, certain Task elements may be accomplished
through simulated actions in the interest of safety and practicality, but when accomplished in a
flight simulator or flight training device, these same actions would not be simulated. For example,
when in an aircraft, a simulated engine fire may be addressed by retarding the throttle to idle,
simulating the shutdown of the engine, simulating the discharge of the fire suppression agent, if
applicable, simulating the disconnection of associated electrical, hydraulic, and pneumatics
systems. However, when the same emergency condition is addressed in a FSTD, all Task
elements must be accomplished as would be expected under actual circumstances.
(d)
Similarly, safety of flight precautions taken in the aircraft for the accomplishment of a specific
maneuver or procedure (such as limiting altitude in an approach to stall or setting maximum
airspeed for an engine failure expected to result in a rejected takeoff) need not be taken when a
FSTD is used.
(e)
It is important to understand that, whether accomplished in an aircraft or FSTD, all Tasks and
elements for each maneuver or procedure shall have the same performance standards applied
equally for determination of overall satisfactory performance.
(f)
The applicant must demonstrate all of the instrument approach procedures required by Licensing
ANO (Part 2) or by this Part. At least one instrument approach procedure must be demonstrated in
an airplane or helicopter. One precision and one non-precision approach not selected for actual
flight demonstration may be performed in FSTDs that meet the requirements of Appendix 1 of this
skills test standard.
Issue: Original
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5.4
INSTRUMENT SKILL TEST

5.4.1.1 Appointment with Examiner
(a)
Examiners Name:
(b)
Location:
(c)
Date:
(d)
Time:
5.4.1.2 Acceptable Aircraft
View Limiting Device

Aircraft Documents:
Rating Limitations
Aircraft Maintenance Records: Airworthiness Inspections
5.4.1.3 Personal Equipment
Flight Plan Form
Flight Logs
Current AIP
5.4.1.4 Personal Records
Identification Photo/Signature ID
Pilot Licence
Medical Certificate
Completed CAAB Form (Attachent-10) for Pilot, Instructor Licence, Rating, Authorisation,
Conversion or Validation Certificate Application
Airman Knowledge Test Report
Logbook with Instructors Endorsement
Notice of Denial (if applicable)
Examiner's Fee (if applicable)
Letter of Discontinuance (if applicable)

5.4.2 EXAMINERS SKILL TEST CHECKLIST:
5.4.2.1 Applicants Particulars
(a)
Applicants Name:
(b)
Location:
(c)
Date:
(d)
Time:
5.4.3
Issue: Original
ARAEA &TASKS (IR)

A. Pilot Qualifications
B. Weather Information
C. Cross-Country Flight Planning
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II
III
IV
VI
VII
VIII
A. Aircraft Systems Related to IFR Operations
B. Aircraft Flight Instruments and Navigation Equipment
C. Instrument Cockpit Check
Air Traffic Control Clearances and Procedures
A. Air Traffic Control Clearances
B. Compliance with Departure, En Route, and Arrival Procedures and Clearances
C. Holding Procedures
Flight by Reference to Instruments
A. Basic Instrument Flight Maneuvers
B. Recovery from Unusual Flight Attitudes
Navigation Systems
A. Intercepting and Tracking Navigational Systems and DME Arcs
Instrument Approach Procedures
A. Non-precision Approach (NPA)
B. Precision Approach (PA)
C. Missed Approach
D. Circling Approach
E. Landing from a Straight-in or Circling Approach
A. Loss of Communications
B. One Engine Inoperative During Straight-and-Level Flight and Turns (Multiengine Airplane)
C. One Engine InoperativeInstrument Approach (Multiengine Airplane)
D. Loss of Primary Flight Instrument Indicators
A. Checking Instruments and Equipment
5.4.4
ARAEA OF OPERATIONS &TASKS:
Task A: Pilot Qualifications
Objective: To determine that the applicant exhibits adequate knowledge of the requirements to
act as pilot in command under IFR by describing:
(1)
(2)
(3)
Instrument rating recent flight experience requirements.

Requirements when recent instrument rating flight experience has not been met.
Pilot logbook/flight recordkeeping.
Task B: Weather Information

Note: Where current weather reports, forecasts, or other pertinent information is not available, this
information will be simulated by the examiner in a manner that will adequately measure the applicants
competence.
Objective: To determine that the applicant exhibits adequate knowledge of the:
(a)
Issue: Original
Elements related to aviation weather information by obtaining, reading, and analyzing the
applicable items, such as
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(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
(9)
(10)
(11)
(b)
Weather reports and forecasts.

Pilot and radar reports.
Surface analysis charts.
Radar summary charts.
Significant weather prognostics.
Winds and temperatures aloft.
Freezing level charts.
Stability charts.
Severe weather outlook charts.
Sigmets and Airmets.
ATIS reports.
Correctly analyzes the assembled weather information pertaining to the proposed route of
flight and destination airport, and determines whether an alternate airport is required, and,
if required, whether the selected alternate airport meets the regulatory requirement.
Task C: Cross-Country Flight Planning

(a)
Exhibits adequate knowledge of the elements by presenting and explaining a preplanned crosscountry flight, as previously assigned by the examiner (preplanning is at examiners discretion).It
should be planned using actual weather reports/forecasts and conform to the regulatory
requirements for instrument flight rules within the airspace in which the flight will be conducted.
(b)
Exhibits adequate knowledge of the aircrafts performance capabilities by calculating the estimated
time en route and total fuel requirement based upon factors, such as
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)
(i)
(j)
II
Power settings.
Operating altitude or flight level.
Wind.
Fuel reserve requirements.
Weight and balance limitations.
Selects and correctly interprets the current and applicable en route charts, instrument
departure procedures (DPs), RNAV, STAR, and Standard Instrument Approach Procedure
Charts (IAP).
Obtains and correctly interprets applicable NOTAM information.
Determines the calculated performance is within the aircrafts capability and operating limitations.
Completes and files a flight plan in a manner that accurately reflects the conditions of the proposed
flight.
Demonstrates adequate knowledge of GPS and RAIM capability, when aircraft is so equipped.
Demonstrates the ability to recognize wing contamination due to airframe icing.
Demonstrates adequate knowledge of the adverse effects of airframe icing during pre-takeoff,
takeoff, cruise, and landing phases of flight and corrective actions.
Demonstrates familiarity with any icing procedures and/or information published by the
manufacturer that is specific to the aircraft used on the Skills test.
Task A: Aircraft Systems Related to IFR Operations
Objective: To determine that the applicant exhibits adequate knowledge of the elements related to
applicable aircraft anti-icing/deicing system(s) and their operating methods to include:
(1)
Issue: Original
Airframe.
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(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
Propeller.
Intake.
Fuel.
Pitot-static.
Task B: Aircraft Flight Instruments and Navigation Equipment

(a)
Exhibits adequate knowledge of the elements related to applicable aircraft flight instrument
system(s) and their operating characteristics to include
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
(9)
(10)
(11)
(12)
(b)
Pitot-static.
Altimeter.
Airspeed indicator.
Vertical speed indicator.
Attitude indicator.
Horizontal situation indicator.
Magnetic compass.
Turn-and-slip indicator/turn coordinator.
Heading indicator.
Electrical systems.
Vacuum systems.
Electronic flight instrument displays (PFD, MFD).
Exhibits adequate knowledge of the applicable aircraft navigation system(s) and their operating
characteristics to include
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
(9)
VOR.
DME.
ILS.
Marker beacon receiver/indicators.
Transponder/altitude encoding.
ADF.
GPS.
FMS.
Autopilot.
TASK C: Instrument Cockpit Check

OBJECTIVE: To Determine that the Applicant:
(a)
Exhibits adequate knowledge of the elements related to pre-flight in instruments, avionics, and
navigation equipment cockpit check by explaining the reasons for the check and how to detect
possible defects.
(b)
Performs the preflight on instruments, avionics, and navigation equipment cockpit check by
following the checklist appropriate to the aircraft flown.
(c)
Determines that the aircraft is in condition for safe instrument flight including
(1)
Communications equipment.
(2)
Navigation equipment, as appropriate to the aircraft flown.
(3)
Magnetic compass.
(4)
Heading indicator.
(5)
Attitude indicator.
(6)
Altimeter.
(7)
Turn-and-slip indicator/turn coordinator.
(8)
Vertical speed indicator.
Issue: Original
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(d)
(9)
Airspeed indicator.
(10)
Clock.
(11)
Power source for gyro instruments.
(12)
Pitot heat.
(13)
Electronic flight instrument display
(14)
Traffic awareness/warning/avoidance system.
(15)
Terrain awareness/warning/alert system.
(16)
FMS.
(17)
Autopilot.
Notes any discrepancies and determines whether the aircraft is safe for instrument flight or
requires maintenance.
Note: The ATC clearance may be an actual or simulated ATC clearance based upon the flight
plan.
III
AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL CLEARANCES AND PROCEDURES

Task A: Air Traffic Control Clearances
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
Exhibits adequate knowledge of the elements related to ATC clearances and pilot
controller responsibilities to include tower en route control and clearance void times.
Copies correctly, in a timely manner, the ATC clearance as issued.
Determines that it is possible to comply with ATC clearance.
Interprets correctly the ATC clearance received and, when necessary, requests clarification,
verification, or change.
Reads back correctly, in a timely manner, the ATC clearance in the sequence received.
Uses standard phraseology as contained in the Aeronautical Information Manual when
reading back clearances and communicating with ATC.
Sets the appropriate communication and navigation systems and transponder codes in
compliance with the ATC clearance.
Demonstrates an appropriate level of single-pilot resource management skills.
Task B: Compliance with Departure, En-route, and Arrival Procedures and Clearances
(1)
Exhibits adequate knowledge of the elements related to ATS routes, and related
pilot/controller responsibilities.
(2)
Uses the current and appropriate navigation publications for the proposed flight.
(3)
Selects and uses the appropriate communication facilities; selects and identifies the
navigation aids associated with the proposed flight.
(4)
Performs the appropriate aircraft checklist items relative to the phase of flight.
(5)
Establishes two-way communications with the proper controlling agency, using proper
phraseology.
(6)
Complies, in a timely manner, with all ATC instructions and airspace restrictions.
(7)
Exhibits adequate knowledge of communication failure procedures.
(8)
Intercepts, in a timely manner, all courses, radials, and bearings appropriate to the
procedure, route, or clearance.
(9)
Maintains the applicable airspeed within 10 knots; headings within 10; altitude
within
CDI.
100 feet; and tracks a course, radial, or bearing within 3/4-scale deflection of the
(10) Demonstrates an appropriate level of single-pilot resource management skills.
Issue: Original
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Task C: Holding Procedures

Note: Any reference to DME will be disregarded if the aircraft is not so equipped.
(1)
Exhibits adequate knowledge of the elements related to holding procedures.
(2)
Changes to the holding airspeed appropriate for the altitude or aircraft when 3 minutes or
less from, but prior to arriving at, the holding fix.
(3)
Explains and uses an entry procedure that ensures the aircraft remains within the holding
pattern airspace for a standard, nonstandard, published, or non published holding pattern.
(4)
Recognizes arrival at the holding fix and initiates prompt entry into the holding pattern.
(5)
Complies with ATC reporting requirements.
(6)
Uses the proper timing criteria, where applicable, as required by altitude or ATC
instructions.
(7)
Complies with pattern leg lengths when a DME distance is specified.
(8)
Uses proper wind correction procedures to maintain the desired pattern and to arrive over
the fix as close as possible to a specified time.
(9)
Maintains the airspeed within 10 knots; altitude within 100 feet; headings within 10;
and tracks a selected course, radial or bearing within 3/4 scale deflection of the CDI.
(10)
Uses MFD and other graphical navigation displays, if installed to monitor position in relation
to the desired flight path during holding.
(11)
IV
FLIGHT BY REFERENCE TO INSTRUMENTS

Task A: Basic Instrument Flight Maneuvers (IA, IH)
Objective: To determine the applicant can perform basic flight maneuvers.
(1)
Exhibits adequate knowledge of the elements related to attitude instrument flying during
straight-and-level flight, climbs, turns, and descents while conducting various instrument
flight procedures.
(2)
Maintains altitude within 100 feet during level flight, headings within 10, airspeed within
10 knots, and bank angles within 5 during turns.
(3)
Uses proper instrument crosscheck and interpretation, and apply the appropriate pitch,
bank, power, and trim corrections when applicable.
Task B: Recovery from Unusual Flight Attitudes
Note: Any intervention by the examiner to prevent the aircraft from exceeding any operating limitations, or
entering an unsafe flight condition, shall be disqualifying
(1)
Exhibits adequate knowledge of the elements relating to attitude instrument flying during
recovery from unusual flight attitudes (both nose-high and nose-low).
(2)
Uses proper instrument cross-check and interpretation, and applies the appropriate pitch,
bank, and power corrections in the correct sequence to return the aircraft to a stabilized
level flight attitude.
NAVIGATION SYSTEMS
Task A: Intercepting and Tracking Navigational Systems and DME Arcs
Note: Any reference to DME arcs, ADF, or GPS shall be disregarded if the aircraft is not equipped with
these specified navigational systems.
Issue: Original
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(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
(9)
(10)
VI
Exhibits adequate knowledge of the elements related to intercepting and tracking

navigational systems and DME arcs.
Tunes and correctly identifies the navigation facility.
Sets and correctly orients the course to be intercepted into the course selector or correctly
identifies the course on the RMI.
Intercepts the specified course at a predetermined angle, inbound or outbound from a
navigational facility.
Maintains the airspeed within 10 knots, altitude within 100 feet, and selected headings
within 5.
Applies proper correction to maintain a course, allowing no more than 3/4 scale deflection of
the CDI or within 10 in case of an RMI.
Determines the aircraft position relative to the navigational facility or from a waypoint in the
case of GPS.
Intercepts a DME arc and maintain that arc within 1 nautical mile.
Recognizes navigational receiver or facility failure, and when required, reports the failure to
ATC.
Uses MFD and other graphical navigation displays, if installed, to monitor position, track
wind drift, and other parameters to intercept and maintain the desired flight path.
INSTRUMENT APPROACH PROCEDURES

Note 1: Task D, Circling Approach, is applicable only to the airplane category.
Note 2: The requirements for conducting a GPS approach for the purpose of this test are explained on the
Introduction.
TASK A: Non-precision Approach (NPA)
Note: The applicant must accomplish at least two non-precision approaches (one of which must include a
procedure turn or, in the case of an RNAV approach, a Terminal Arrival Area (TAA) procedure) in simulated or
actual instrument conditions. At least one non-precision approach must be flown without the use of autopilot
and without the assistance of radar vectors. (The yaw damper and flight director are not considered parts of the
autopilot for purpose of this part). If the equipment allows, at least one non-precision approach shall be
conducted without vertical guidance. The examiner will select non-precision approaches that are representative
of the type that the applicant is likely to use. The choices must utilize two different types of navigational aids.
Some examples of navigational aids for the purpose of this part are: NDB, VOR, LOC, LDA, SDF, GPS, or
RNAV (including LNAV/VNAV and RNP-AR).
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
Issue: Original
Exhibits adequate knowledge of the elements related to an instrument approach

procedure.
Selects and complies with the appropriate instrument approach procedure to be
performed.
Establishes two-way communications with ATC, as appropriate, to the phase of flight or
approach segment, and uses proper communication phraseology and technique.
Selects, tunes, identifies, and confirms the operational status of navigation
equipment to be used for the approach procedure.
Complies with all clearances issued by ATC or the examiner.
Recognizes if any flight instrumentation is inaccurate or inoperative, and take
appropriate action.
Advises ATC or examiner anytime that the aircraft is unable to comply with clearance.
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(8)
Establishes the appropriate aircraft configuration and airspeed considering turbulence and
wind shear, and completes the aircraft checklist items appropriate to the phase of the
flight.
(9)
Maintains, prior to beginning the final approach segment, altitude within 100 feet, heading
within 10 and allows less than 3/4 scale deflection of the CDI or within 10 in the case
of an RMI, and maintains airspeed within 10 knots.
(10)
Applies the necessary adjustments to the published MDA and visibility criteria for the
aircraft approach category when required, such as
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
NOTAMs.
Inoperative aircraft and ground navigation equipment.
Inoperative visual aids associated with the landing environment.
NWS (National Weather Service) reporting factors and criteria.
(11)
Establishes a stabilized approach profile with a rate of descent and track that will ensure
arrival at the MDA prior to reaching the MAP.
(12)
Allows, while on the final approach segment, no more than a 3/4-scale deflection of the
CDI or within 10 in case of an RMI, and maintains airspeed within 10 knots of that
desired.
(13)
Maintains the MDA, when reached, within +100 feet, 0 feet to the MAP.
(14)
Executes the missed approach procedure when the required visual references
intended runway are not distinctly visible and identifiable at the MAP.
(15)
Executes a normal landing from a straight-in or circling approach when instructed by the
examiner.
(16)
wind drift and other parameters to maintain desired flight path.
(17)
for the
Task B: Precision Approach (PA)

Note: A precision approach, utilizing aircraft NAVAID equipment for centerline and vertical guidance, must
be accomplished in simulated or actual instrument conditions to DA/DH.
Issue: Original
(1)
Exhibits adequate knowledge of the precision instrument approach procedures.
(2)
Accomplishes the appropriate precision instrument approaches as selected by the

examiner.
(3)
Establishes two-way communications with ATC using the proper communications

phraseology and techniques, as required for the phase of flight or approach segment.
(4)
Complies, in a timely manner, with all clearances, instructions, and procedures.
(5)
Advises ATC anytime that the applicant is unable to comply with a clearance.
(6)
Establishes the appropriate airplane configuration and airspeed/V-speed considering

turbulence, wind shear, microburst conditions, or other meteorological and operating
conditions.
(7)
Completes the aircraft checklist items appropriate to the phase of flight or approach
segment, including engine out approach and landing checklists, if appropriate.
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(8)
Prior to beginning the final approach segment, maintains the desired altitude 100 feet,
the desired airspeed within 10 knots, the desired heading within 10; and accurately
tracks radials, courses, and bearings.
(9)
Selects, tunes, identifies, and monitors the operational status of ground and airplane
navigation equipment used for the approach.
(10)
Applies the necessary adjustments to the published DA/DH and visibility criteria for the
airplane approach category as required, such as
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
NOTAMs
Inoperative airplane and ground navigation equipment.
Inoperative visual aids associated with the landing environment.
NWS (National Weather Service) reporting factors and criteria.
(11)
Establishes a predetermined rate of descent at the point where the electronic glideslope
begins, which approximates that required for the aircraft to follow the glideslope.
(12)
Maintains a stabilized final approach, from the Final Approach Fix to DA/DH allowing no
more than 3/4-scale deflection of either the glideslope or localizer indications and maintains
the desired airspeed within 10 knots.
(13)
A missed approach or transition to a landing shall be initiated at Decision Height.
(14)
Initiates immediately the missed approach when at the DA/DH, and the required visual
references for the runway are not unmistakably visible and identifiable.
(15)
Transitions to a normal landing approach (missed approach for seaplanes) only when the
aircraft is in a position from which a descent to a landing on the runway can be made at a
normal rate of descent using normal maneuvering.
(16)
Maintains localizer and glideslope within 3/4-scale deflection of the indicators during the
visual descent from DA/DH to a point over the runway where glideslope must be abandoned
to accomplish a normal landing.
wind drift and other parameters to maintain desired flight path.
(17)
(18)
Task C: Missed Approach

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
(9)
(10)
Issue: Original
Exhibits adequate knowledge of the elements related to missed-approach procedures

associated with standard instrument approaches.
Initiates the missed approach promptly by applying power, establishing a climb attitude,
and reducing drag in accordance with the aircraft manufacturers recommendations.
Reports to ATC beginning the missed approach procedure.
Complies with the published or alternate missed approach procedure.
Advises ATC or examiner anytime that the aircraft is unable to comply with a clearance,
restriction, or climb gradient.
Follows the recommended checklist items appropriate to the go-around procedure.
Requests, if appropriate, ATC clearance to the alternate airport, clearance limit, or as
directed by the examiner.
Maintains the recommended airspeed within 10 knots; heading, course, or bearing within
10; and altitude(s) within 100 feet during the missed approach procedure.
Uses MFD and other graphical navigation displays, if installed, to monitor position and
track to help navigate the missed approach.
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Task D: Circling Approach

(1)
Exhibits adequate knowledge of the elements related to a circling approach procedure.
(2)
Selects and complies with the appropriate circling approach procedure considering
turbulence and wind shear and considering the maneuvering capabilities of the
aircraft.
Confirms the direction of traffic and adheres to all restrictions and instructions issued by
ATC and the examiner.
Does not exceed the visibility criteria or descend below the appropriate circling altitude
until in a position from which a descent to a normal landing can be made.
Maneuvers the aircraft, after reaching the authorized MDA and maintains that altitude
within +100 feet, 0 feet and a flight path that permits a normal landing on a runway. The
runway selected must be such that it requires at least a 90 change of direction, from the
final approach course, to align the aircraft for landing.
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
Task E: Landing from a Straight-In or Circling Approach

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
VII
Exhibits adequate knowledge of the elements related to the pilots responsibilities, and the
environmental, operational, and meteorological factors, which affect a landing from a straightin or a circling, approach.
Transitions at the DA/DH, MDA, or VDP to a visual flight condition, allowing for safe visual
maneuvering and a normal landing.
Adheres to all ATC (or examiner) advisories, such as NOTAMs, wind shear, wake
turbulence, runway surface, braking conditions, and other operational considerations.
Completes appropriate checklist items for the pre-landing and landing phase.
Maintains positive aircraft control throughout the complete landing maneuver.
Task A: Loss of Communications:
Objective: To determine that the applicant exhibits adequate knowledge of the elements related to
applicable loss of communication procedures to include:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Recognizing loss of communication.

Continuing to destination according to the flight plan.
When to deviate from the flight plan.
Timing for beginning an approach at destination.
Task B: Approach with Loss of Primary Flight Instrument Indicators

Note: This approach shall count as one of the required non-precision approaches.
(1)
(2)
(3)
Issue: Original
Exhibits adequate knowledge of the elements relating to recognizing if primary flight

instruments are inaccurate or inoperative, and advise ATC or the examiner.
Advises ATC or examiner anytime that the aircraft is unable to comply with a clearance.
Demonstrates a non-precision instrument approach without the use of the primary flight
instrument using the objectives of the non-precision approach Task (Area of Operation VI,
Task A).
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(4)
VIII
POSTFLIGHT PROCEDURES
Task A: Checking Instruments and Equipment
(1)
(2)
(3)
Exhibits adequate knowledge of the elements relating to all instrument and navigation
equipment for proper operation.
Notes all flight equipment for proper operation.
Notes all equipment and/or aircraft malfunctions and makes appropriate documentation of
improper operation or failure of such equipment.
----------------------------------
Issue: Original
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Issue: Original
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ATTACHMENT 06
FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR SKILLS TEST STANDARDS
(AEROPLANE - SINGLE ENGINE)
6.1
INTRODUCTION
This introduction part shall be read in addition to the introduction part of Attachment 1.
6.2
KNOWLEDGE AND SKILL

The examiner determines that the applicant meets the Task Objective through the demonstration of
competency in all elements of knowledge and/or skill unless otherwise noted. The Objectives of Tasks in
certain Areas of Operation, such as Fundamentals of Instructing and Technical Subjects, include only
knowledge elements. Objectives of Tasks in Areas of Operation that include elements of skill, as well as
knowledge, also include common errors, which the applicant must be able to describe, recognize, analyze,
and correct.
6.3
TASK OBJECTIVE
The Objective of a Task that involves pilot skill consists of four parts. The four parts include determination
that the applicant exhibits:
6.4
(1)
Instructional knowledge of the elements of a Task (accomplished through descriptions,

explanations, and simulated instruction).
(2)
Instructional knowledge of common errors related to a Task, including their recognition,

analysis, and correction.
(3)
(4)
The ability to demonstrate and simultaneously explain the key elements of a Task
The ability to analyze and correct common errors related to a Task.
CAAB IT MANUAL
The teaching techniques and procedures should conform to those set forth in the CAAB IT manual.
6.5
UNLISTED TASKS
With the exception of the required Tasks, the examiner must not tell the applicant in advance which Tasks
will be included in the plan of action. The applicant should be well prepared in all knowledge and skill areas
included in the standards. Throughout the flight portion of the skills test, the examiner will evaluate the
applicants ability to simultaneously demonstrate and explain procedures and maneuvers, and to give flight
instruction to students at various stages of flight training and levels of experience.
6.6
SIMULATED EMERGENCY PROCEDURE

The examiner is expected to use good judgment in the performance of simulated emergency procedures.
The use of the safest means for simulation is expected. Consideration must be given to local conditions,
Issue: Original
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both meteorological and topographical, at the time of the test, as well as the applicants workload, and the
condition of the aircraft used. If the procedure being evaluated would jeopardize safety, it is expected that
the applicant will simulate that portion of the maneuver.
Note: Area of Operation XI: Slow Flight, Stalls, and Spins, contains Tasks referred to as proficiency and
demonstration. The intent of Tasks B and C for single-engine (proficiency) is to ensure that the flight
instructor applicant is tested on proficiency for the purpose of teaching students these Tasks that are
required for pilot certification. The intent of Tasks D, E, F, and H (demonstration) for single-engine is to
ensure that the flight instructor applicant is knowledgeable and proficient in these maneuvers and can teach
them to students for both familiarization and stall/spin awareness purposes.
6.7
EXAMINER ACTS AS APPLICANT

During the flight portion of the skills test, the examiner acts as an applicant during selected maneuvers. This
gives the examiner an opportunity to evaluate the applicants ability to analyze and correct simulated
common errors related to these maneuvers. The examiner must place special emphasis on the applicants
use of visual scanning and collision avoidance procedures, and the applicants ability to teach those
procedures.
6.8
SPECIAL TEACHING ABILITY

Examiners should go to the greatest extent possible to test the applicants application and correlation skills.
When possible, scenario-based questions should be used during the skills test. The examiner will evaluate
the applicants ability to teach visual scanning, runway incursion avoidance, collision avoidance procedures,
and Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO).
6.9
SATISFACTORY PERFORMANCE
The skills test is passed if, in the judgment of the examiner, the applicant demonstrates satisfactory
performance with regard to:
(1)
Knowledge of the fundamentals of instructing;
(2)
Knowledge of the technical subject areas;
(3)
Knowledge of the flight instructors responsibilities concerning the pilot certification
process;
(4)
Knowledge of the flight instructors responsibilities concerning logbook entries and pilot
certificate endorsements;
(5)
Knowledge of the flight instructors responsibilities conveying to the applicant runway
incursion mitigation techniques and procedures.
(6)
Ability to demonstrate the procedures and maneuvers selected by the examiner to at least
the Commercial Pilot skill level while giving effective instruction;
(7)
Competence in teaching the procedures and maneuvers selected by the examiner;
(8)
Competence in describing, recognizing, analyzing, and correcting common errors
simulated by the examiner; and
(9)
Knowledge of the development and effective use of a course of training, a syllabus, and a
lesson plan.
6.10
UNSATISFACTORY PERFORMANCE
(a)
Issue: Original
If, in the judgment of the examiner, the applicant does not meet the standards of performance on
any of the Tasks performed, the applicable Area of Operation is considered unsatisfactory and
therefore, the skills test is failed. The examiner or applicant may discontinue the test at any time
when the failure of an Area of Operation makes the applicant ineligible for the certificate or rating
sought. The test is continued only with the consent of the applicant. If the test is discontinued,
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the applicant is entitled credit for only those Areas of Operation and their associated Tasks
satisfactorily performed; however, during the retest and at the discretion of the examiner, any Task
may be re-evaluated, including those previously considered satisfactory. Specific reasons for
disqualification are:
6.11
Failure to perform a procedure or maneuver to the Commercial Pilot skill level while giving
effective flight instruction;
(2)
Failure to provide an effective instructional explanation while demonstrating a procedure

or maneuver (explanation during the demonstration must be clear, concise, technically
accurate, and complete with no prompting from the examiner);
(3)
Any action or lack of action by the applicant which requires corrective intervention by the
examiner to maintain safe flight;
(4)
Failure to use proper and effective visual scanning techniques to clear the area before and
while performing maneuvers.
INITIAL FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR CERTIFICATION

(a)
6.12
(1)
An applicant who seeks initial flight instructor certification will be evaluated in all Areas of Operation
of the standards appropriate to the rating(s) sought. The examiner must refer to the Note in the front
of the Area of Operation to determine which Tasks to test.
FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR AEROPLANE SINGLE ENGINE
6.12.1 APPLICANTS (OR ATOS) SKILL TEST CHECKLIST

6.12.1.1 Appointment with Examiner or Examiner
(a)
Examiners Name:
(b)
Location:
(c)
Date:
(d)
Time:
6.12.1.2 Acceptable Aircraft
View-Limiting Device (if applicable)

Aircraft Documents:
Operating Limitations
Aircraft Maintenance Records:
Airworthiness Inspections
Pilot's Operating Handbook and Approved Airplane Flight Manual
6.12.1.3 Personal Equipment

Flight Plan Form
Flight Logs
Current AIM
Current Airport/Facility Directory
6.12.1.4 Personal Records

Issue: Original
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Pilot Certificate
Medical Certificate
Completed CAAB Form in Attachment-10, Pilot, Instructor Licence, Rating, Authorisation,
Conversion or Validation Certificate Application
Airman Knowledge Test Report
Logbook with Instructor's Endorsement
Letter of Discontinuance (if applicable)
Notice of Denial (if applicable)
Examiner's Fee (if applicable)
6.12.2 EXAMINERS TEST CHECKLIST

6.12.2.1 Applicants Particulars
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
6.12.3
Applicants Name:
Location:
Date:
Time:
AREA AND TASKS
Fundamentals of Instructing
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
G.
II
Technical Subject Areas
A. Aero-medical Factors
B. Runway Incursion Avoidance
C. Visual Scanning and Collision Avoidance
D. Principles of Flight
E. Airplane Flight Controls
F. Airplane Weight and Balance
G. Navigation and Flight Planning
H. Night Operations
I. High Altitude Operations
J. ANO Part 2 and Publications
K. National Airspace System
L. Navigation Systems and Radar Services
M. Logbook Entries and Certificate Endorsements
N. Water and Seaplane Characteristics
O. Seaplane Bases, Rules, and Aids to Marine Navigation
III
A. Certificates and Documents
Issue: Original
Human Behavior and Effective Communication

The Learning Process
The Teaching Process
Assessment and Critique
Instructor Responsibilities and Professionalism
Techniques of Flight Instruction
Risk Management
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B.
C.
D.
E.
IV
Preflight Lesson on a Maneuver to be Performed in Flight
A. Maneuver Lesson
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
G.
VI
Airport and Seaplane Base Operations
A. Radio Communications and ATC Light Signals

B. Traffic Patterns
C. Airport/Seaplane Base, Runway and Taxiway Signs, Markings, and Lighting
VII
Takeoffs, Landings, and Go-Arounds
A. Normal and Crosswind Takeoff and Climb

B. Short-Field (Confined Area ASES) Takeoff and Maximum Performance Climb
C. Soft-Field Takeoff and Climb
D. Glassy-Water Takeoff and Climb
E. Rough-Water Takeoff and Climb
F. Normal and Crosswind Approach and Landing
G. Slip to a Landing
H. Go-Around/Rejected Landing
I. Short-Field (Confined Area ASES) Approach and Landing
J. Soft-Field Approach and Landing
K. Power-Off 180 Accuracy Approach and Landing
L. Glassy-Water Approach and Landing
M. Rough-Water Approach and Landing
VIII
Fundamentals of Flight
A.
B.
C.
D.
IX
Performance Maneuvers
A. Steep Turns
B. Steep Spirals
C. Chandelles
Issue: Original
Weather Information
Operation of Systems
Performance and Limitations
Airworthiness Requirements
Preflight Inspection
Cockpit Management
Engine Starting
TaxiingLandplane
TaxiingSeaplane
Sailing
Before Takeoff Check
Straight-and-Level Flight
Level Turns
Straight Climbs and Climbing Turns
Straight Descents and Descending Turns
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D. Lazy Eights
Ground Reference Maneuvers
A.
B.
C.
D.
XI
Slow Flight, Stalls, and Spins
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
G.
H.
XII
Basic Instrument Maneuvers
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
XIII
A.
B.
C.
D.
XIV
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Rectangular Course
S-Turns Across a Road
Turns Around a Point
Eights on Pylons
Maneuvering During Slow Flight

Power-On Stalls (Proficiency)
Power-Off Stalls (Proficiency)
Cross-controlled Stalls (Demonstration)
Elevator Trim Stalls (Demonstration)
Secondary Stalls (Demonstration)
Spins
Accelerated Maneuver Stalls (Demonstration)
Straight-and-Level Flight
Constant Airspeed Climbs
Constant Airspeed Descents
Turns to Headings
Recovery from Unusual Flight Attitudes
Emergency Approach and Landing (Simulated)

Systems and Equipment Malfunctions
Emergency Equipment and Survival Gear
Emergency Descent
Anchoring
Docking and Mooring
Beaching
Ramping
6.12.4 AREAS OF OPERATION AND TASKS

I
FUNDAMENTALS OF INSTRUCTING
Note: The examiner shall select Task E and one other Task.
Issue: Original
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Task A: Human Behavior and Effective Communication

Objective: To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of human behavior and
effective communication and how these impact effective learning by describing:
(1)
Definitions of human behavior.
(2)
Human needs and motivation.
(3)
Defense mechanisms.
(4)
Student emotional reactions.
(5)
Basic elements of communication.
(6)
Barriers to effective communication.
(7)
Developing communication Skills.
Task B: The Learning Process
Objective: To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the learning process by
describing:
(1)
Learning theory.
(2)
Perceptions and insight.
(3)
Acquiring knowledge.
(4)
The laws of learning.
(5)
Domains of learning.
(6)
Characteristics of learning.
(7)
Acquiring skill knowledge.
(8)
Types of practice.
(9)
Scenario-based training.
(10)
Errors.
(11)
Memory and forgetting.
(12)
Retention of learning.
(13)
Transfer of learning.
Task C: The Teaching Process
Objective: To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the teaching process by
describing:
(1)
Preparation of a lesson.
(2)
Organization of material.
(3)
Training delivery methods:
(i)
Lecture method.
(ii)
Guided discussion method.
(iii)
Computer-assisted learning method.
(iv)
Demonstration-performance method.
(v)
Drill and practice method.
(4)
Problem based learning.
(5)
Instruction aids and training technologies.
Task D: Assessment and Critique
Objective: To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of assessments and critiques
by describing:
(1)
Assessment:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
Issue: Original
Purpose of assessment.
General characteristics of effective assessment.
Traditional assessment.
Authentic assessment.
Oral assessment.
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(vi)
(vii)
(2)
Characteristics of effective questions.

Types of questions to avoid.
Critique:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
Instructors/student critique.
Student-lead critique.
Small group critique.
Individual student critique by another student.
Self-critique.
Written critique.
Task E: Instructor Responsibilities and Professionalism

Objective: To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of instructor responsibilities
and professionalism by describing:
(1)
Aviation instructor responsibilities:
(i)
Helping students learn.
(ii)
Providing adequate instruction.
(iii)
Standards of performance.
(iv)
Minimizing student frustrations.
(2)
Flight instructor responsibilities:
(i)
Physiological obstacles for flight students.
(ii)
Ensuring student ability.
(3)
Professionalism.
(4)
Evaluation of student ability.
(5)
Aviation instructors and exams.
(6)
Professional development.
Task F: Techniques of Flight Instruction
Objective: To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of instructor
and professionalism by describing:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
responsibilities
Obstacles in learning during flight instruction.

Demonstration-performance training delivery.
Positive exchange of controls.
Sterile cockpit.
Use of distractions.
Integrated flight instruction.
Assessment of piloting ability.
Aeronautical decision making.
Task G: Risk Management

Objective: To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of risk management by
describing:
(1)
Principles of risk management.
(2)
Risk management process.
(3)
Level of risk.
(4)
Assessing risk.
(5)
Mitigating risk.
(6)
IMSAFE checklist.
(7)
PAVE checklist.
(8)
5P checklist.
Issue: Original
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II
TECHNICAL SUBJECT AREAS

Note: The examiner must select Tasks B, M, and at least one other Task.
Task A: Aero-medical Factors
Objective: To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements related to aero
medical factors by describing:
(1)
How to obtain an appropriate medical certificate.
(2)
How to obtain a medical certificate in the event of a possible medical deficiency.
(3)
The causes, symptoms, effects, and corrective action of the following medical factors:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
Hypoxia
Hyperventilation
Middle ear and sinus problems
Spatial disorientation
Motion sickness
Carbon monoxide poisoning
Fatigue and stress
Dehydration
(4)
The effects of alcohol and drugs, and their relationship to flight safety.
(5)
The effect of nitrogen excesses incurred during scuba dive and how this affects pilots
and passengers during flight.
Task B: Runway Incursion Avoidance

Note: If this task has been previously performed in the aircraft during an earlier instructor rating, the
determination of the required knowledge can be demonstrated during the brief, at the discretion of the
examiner.
Objective: To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of runway
incursion avoidance by describing:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
(9)
Issue: Original
Distinct challenges and requirements during taxi operations not found in other phases of
flight operations.
Procedures for appropriate cockpit activities during taxiing including taxi route planning,
briefing the location of hot spots, communicating and coordinating with ATC.
Procedures for steering, maneuvering, maintaining taxiway, runway position, and
situational awareness.
The relevance/importance of hold lines.
Procedures for ensuring the pilot maintains strict focus on the movement of the aircraft and
ATC communications, including the elimination of all distractive activities (i.e. cell phone,
texting, conversations with passengers) during aircraft taxi, takeoff and climb out to cruise
altitude.
Procedures for holding the pilots workload to a minimum during taxi operations which
should increase the pilots awareness while taxiing.
Taxi operation planning procedures, such as recording taxi instructions, reading back taxi
clearances, and reviewing taxi routes on the airport diagram,
Procedures for ensuring that clearance or instructions that are actually received are
adhered to rather than the ones expected to be received.
Procedures for maintaining/enhancing situational awareness when conducting taxi
operations in relation to other aircraft operations in the vicinity as well as to other vehicles
moving on the airport.
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(10)
(11)
(12)
(13)
(14)
(15)
(16)
(17)
Procedures for briefing if a landing rollout to a taxiway exit will place the pilot in close
proximity to another runway which can result in a runway incursion.
Appropriate after landing/taxi procedures in the event the aircraft is on a taxiway that is
between parallel runways.
Specific procedures for operations at an airport with an operating air traffic control tower,
with emphasis on ATC communications and runway entry/crossing authorizations.
ATC communications and pilot actions before takeoff, before landing, and after landing at
towered and non-towered airports.
Procedures unique to night operations.
Operations at non-towered airports.
Use of aircraft exterior lighting.
Low visibility operations.
Task C: Visual Scanning and Collision Avoidance

Objective: To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of visual
scanning and collision avoidance by describing:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
(9)
(10)
Relationship between a pilots physical condition and vision.

Environmental conditions that degrade vision.
Vestibular and visual illusions.
See and avoid concept.
Proper visual scanning procedure.
Relationship between poor visual scanning habits and increased collision risk.
Proper clearing procedures.
Importance of knowing aircraft blind spots.
Relationship between aircraft speed differential and collision risk.
Situations that involve the greatest collision risk.
Task D: Principles of Flight

Objective: To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of principles
of flight by describing:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
Airfoil design characteristics.

Airplane stability and controllability.
Turning tendency (torque effect).
Load factors in airplane design.
Wingtip vortices and precautions to be taken.
Task E: Aeroplane Flight Controls

Objective: To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements related to the
airplane flight controls by describing the purpose, location, direction of movement, effect, andproper
procedure for use of the:
(1)
(2)
(3)
Primary flight controls.

Secondary flight controls.
Trim Controls.
Task F: Airplane Weight and Balance

Objective: To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of
weight and balance by describing:
(1)
(2)
Issue: Original
airplane
Weight and balance terms.

Effect of weight and balance on performance.
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(3)
(4)
Methods of weight and balance control.

Determination of total weight and center of gravity and the changes that occur when
adding, removing, or shifting weight.
Task G: Navigation and Flight Planning

Objective: To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of navigation
and flight planning by describing:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
(9)
(10)
(11)
(12)
Task H:
Terms used in navigation.

Features of aeronautical charts.
Importance of using the proper and current aeronautical charts.
Method of plotting a course, selection of fuel stops and alternates, and appropriate actions
in the event of unforeseen situations.
Fundamentals of pilotage and dead reckoning.
Fundamentals of radio navigation.
Diversion to an alternate.
Lost procedures.
Computation of fuel consumption.
Importance of preparing and properly using a flight log.
Importance of a weather check and the use of good judgment in making a go/no-go
decision.
Purpose of and procedure used in filing a flight plan.
Night Operations
Objective: To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of
operations by describing:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
(9)
(10)
(11)
(12)
(13)
(14)
Task I:
night
Factors related to night vision.

Disorientation and night optical illusions.
Proper adjustment of interior lights.
Importance of having a flashlight with a red lens.
Night preflight inspection.
Engine starting procedures, including use of position and anti-collision lights prior
to start.
Taxiing and orientation on an airport.
Takeoff and climb-out.
In-flight orientation.
Importance of verifying the airplanes attitude by reference to flight instruments.
Night emergencies procedures.
Traffic patterns.
Approaches and landings with and without landing lights.
Go-around.
High Altitude Operations
Objective: To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of high
altitude operations by describing:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
Issue: Original
Regulatory requirements for use of oxygen.

Physiological hazards associated with high altitude operations.
Characteristics of a pressurized airplane and various types of supplemental oxygen
systems.
Importance of aviators breathing oxygen.
Care and storage of high-pressure oxygen bottles.
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(6)
(7)
(8)
Task J:
Problems associated with rapid decompression and corresponding solutions.

Fundamental concept of cabin pressurization.
Operation of a cabin pressurization system.
ANO Part 2 and Publications
Objective: To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements related to
the ANOs and related publications by describing:
(1)
Availability and method of revision of ANO Part 2 by describing:

(i)
(ii)
(2)
Availability of flight information publications, advisory circulars, skill test standards, pilot
operating handbooks, and approved airplane flight manuals by describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
Task K:
Purpose
General content
Availability.
Purpose.
General content.
National Airspace System
Objective: To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of the
national airspace system by describing:
(1)
Basic VFR Weather Minimums for all classes of airspace.
(2)
Airspace classesthe operating rules, pilot certification, and airplane equipment

requirements for the following:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(3)
Task L:
Class A.
Class B.
Class C.
Class D.
Class E.
Class G.
Temporary flight restrictions (TFR).

Navigation Systems and Radar Services
navigation systems and radar service by describing:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Task M:
Ground-based navigational system (VOR/VORTAC, NDB, and DME).

Satellite-based navigation system.
Radar service and procedures.
Global positioning system (GPS).
Logbook Entries and Certificate Endorsements
logbook entries and licence endorsements by describing:
Issue: Original
(1)
Required logbook entries for instruction given.
(2)
Required student pilot licence endorsements, including appropriate logbook entries.
(3)
Preparation of a recommendation for a pilot skills test, including appropriate logbook

entry for:
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(i)
(ii)
(iii)
Initial pilot certification.

Additional pilot certification.
Additional aircraft qualification.
(4)
Required endorsement of a pilot logbook for the satisfactory completion of the required
CAAB flight review.
(5)
Required flight instructor records.
Task N:
Water and Seaplane Characteristics (ASES)
water and seaplane characteristics by describing:
(1)
The characteristics of water surface as affected by features, such as:

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
Size and location of water operating area.

Protected and unprotected operating areas.
Surface wind.
Direction and height of waves.
Direction and strength of water current.
Floating and partially submerged debris.
Sandbars, islands, and shoals.
(2)
Seaplanes float or hull construction and its relationship to performance.
(3)
Causes of porpoising and skipping and pilot action necessary to prevent or correct those
occurrences.
Task O:
Seaplane Bases, Rules, and Aids to Marine Navigation (ASES)
seaplane bases, rules, and aids to marine navigation by describing:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
III
How to locate and identify seaplane bases on charts or in directories.

Operating restrictions at various seaplane bases.
Right-of-way, steering, and sailing rules pertinent to seaplane operation.
Purpose and identification of marine navigation aids such as buoys, beacons, lights, and
sound signals.
Note: The examiner must select at least one Task.
Task A: Certificates and Documents
Objective. To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements related
to certificates and documents by describing: The training requirements for the issuance of a recreational,
private, and commercial pilot licence.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Issue: Original
The privileges and limitations of pilot certificates and ratings at, private, and commercial
levels.
Class and duration of medical certificates.
Recent pilot flight experience requirements.
Required entries in pilot logbook or flight record.
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Task B: Weather Information

weather
(1)
Importance of a thorough preflight weather briefing.
(2)
(3)
Various means and sources of obtaining weather information.

Use of real-time weather reports, forecasts, and charts for developing scenario-based
training.
In-flight weather advisories.
Recognition of aviation weather hazards to include wind shear.
Factors to be considered in making a go/no-go decision.
(4)
(5)
(6)
Task C:
Operation of Systems
Objective: To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements related to the
operation of systems, as applicable to the airplane used for the skills test, by describing the following
systems:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
(9)
(10)
(11)
Task D:
Primary and secondary flight controls

Trim
Water rudders (ASES)
Power-plant and propeller
Landing gear
Fuel, oil, and hydraulic
Electrical
Avionics including autopilot
Pitot static, vacuum/pressure and associated instruments
Environmental
Deicing and anti-icing
Performance and Limitations
performance and limitations by describing:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
Task E:
Determination of weight and balance condition.

Use of performance charts, tables, and other data in determining performance in
various phases of flight.
Effects of exceeding airplane limitations.
Effects of atmospheric conditions on performance.
Factors to be considered in determining that the required performance is within the
airplanes capabilities.
Airworthiness Requirements
required airworthiness by explaining:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
Issue: Original
Required instruments and equipment for day/night VFR.

Procedures and limitations for determining airworthiness of the airplane with inoperative
instruments and equipment with and without a Minimum Equipment List (MEL).
Requirements and procedures for obtaining a special flight permit.
Airworthiness directives, compliance records, maintenance/ inspection requirements, and
appropriate records.
Procedures for deferring maintenance on aircraft without an approved MEL.
November, 2016
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IV
PREFLIGHT LESSON ON A MANEUVER TO BE PERFORMED IN FLIGHT

Note: Examiner must select at least one maneuver Task from Areas of Operation VII through XIII, and ask
the applicant to present a preflight lesson on the selected maneuver as the lesson would be taught a
student.
Task A: Maneuver Lesson
Objective: To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the selected maneuver
by:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Stating the purpose.

Giving an accurate, comprehensive oral description, including the elements and common
errors.
Using instructional aids, as appropriate.
Describing the recognition, analysis, and correction of common errors.
Task A: Preflight Inspection (ASEL and ASES)
(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a preflight inspection, as applicable to

the airplane used for the skills test, by describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(ix)
(x)
(xi)
(2)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a preflight inspection by

describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(3)
Issue: Original
Reasons for the preflight inspection, items that should be inspected, and how
defects are detected.
Importance of using the appropriate checklist.
How to determine fuel and oil quantity and contamination.
Detection of fuel, oil, and hydraulic leaks.
Inspection of the oxygen system, including supply and proper operation (if
applicable).
Inspection of the flight controls and water rudder (if applicable).
Detection of visible structural damage.
Removal of tie-downs, control locks, and wheel chocks.
Removal of ice and frost.
Importance of the proper loading and securing of baggage, cargo, and equipment.
Use of sound judgment in determining whether the airplane is airworthy and in
condition for safe flight.
Failure to use or the improper use of checklist.

Hazards which may result from allowing distractions to interrupt a visual
inspection.
Inability to recognize discrepancies to determine airworthiness.
Failure to ensure servicing with the proper fuel and oil.
Failure to ensure proper loading and securing of baggage, cargo, and equipment.
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a preflight inspection from an instructional

standpoint.
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Task B: Cockpit Management (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of cockpit management by describing:

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(2)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to cockpit management by

describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(3)
Proper arranging and securing of essential materials and equipment in the

cockpit.
Proper use and/or adjustment of cockpit items such as safety belts, shoulder
harnesses, rudder pedals, and seats.
Occupant briefing on emergency procedures and use of safety belts.
Proper utilization of all resources required to operate a flight safely: dispatchers,
weather briefers, maintenance personnel, and air traffic control.
Failure to place and secure essential materials and equipment for easy access
during flight.
Failure to properly adjust cockpit items, such as safety belts, shoulder harnesses,
rudder pedals, and seats.
Failure to provide proper adjustment of equipment and controls.
Failure to provide occupant briefing on emergency procedures and use of safety
belts.
Failure to utilize all resources required to operate a flight safely.
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains cockpit management from an instructional

standpoint.
Task C: Engine Starting (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of engine starting, as appropriate to the

airplane used for the skills test, by describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(2)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to engine starting by describing:

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(3)
Task D:
Safety precautions related to starting.

Use of external power.
Effect of atmospheric conditions on starting.
Importance of following the appropriate checklist.
Adjustment of engine controls during start.
Prevention of airplane movement during and after start.
Safety procedures for hand-propping an airplane.
Failure to properly use the appropriate checklist.
Failure to use safety precautions related to starting.
Improper adjustment of engine controls during start.
Failure to assure proper clearance of the propeller.
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains engine starting from an instructional standpoint.
TaxiingLandplane (ASEL)

(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of landplane taxiing by describing:

(i)
Issue: Original
Proper brake check and correct use of brakes.

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(ii)
Compliance with airport/taxiway surface marking, signals, and ATC clearances
or instructions.
(iii)
How to control direction and speed.
(iv)
Flight control positioning for various wind conditions.
(v)
Procedures used to avoid other aircraft and hazards.
(vi)
Runway incursion avoidance procedures.
(vii)
Procedures for eliminating pilot distractions.
(viii)
Use of taxi chart during taxi.
(ix)
Airport, taxiway, and runway position situational awareness.
(x)
Additional taxiing operations concerns at a non-towered airport.
(2)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to landplane taxiing by

describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(3)
(4)
Task E:
Improper use of brakes.

Improper positioning of the flight controls for various wind conditions.
Hazards of taxiing too fast.
Hazards associated with the failure to comply with airport/taxiway surface
marking, signals, and ATC clearances or instructions.
(v)
Hazards of becoming distracted while taxiing.
(vi)
Hazards associated with failing to adhere to sterile cockpit procedures.
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains landplane taxiing from an instructional
standpoint.
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to landplane taxiing.
TaxiingSeaplane (ASES)

(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of seaplane taxiing by describing:

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(ix)
(x)
(xi)
(xii)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Issue: Original
Wind effect.
Prevention of porpoising and skipping.
Selection of the most suitable course for taxiing, following available marking aids.
Conditions in which idle, plowing, and step taxiing are used.
Procedures for idle, plowing, and step taxiing.
Control positioning for various wind conditions.
Use of water rudders.
Procedures used to avoid other aircraft and hazards.
Procedures used to avoid excessive water spray into the propeller.
180 and 360 turns in idle, plowing, and step positions.
Application of right-of-way rules.
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to seaplane taxiing by

describing:
(i)
Improper positioning of flight controls for various wind conditions.
(ii)
Improper control of speed and direction.
(iii)
Failure to prevent porpoising and skipping.
(iv)
Failure to use the most suitable course and available marking aids.
(v)
Failure to use proper clearing procedures to avoid hazards.
(vi)
Failure to apply right-of-way rules.
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains seaplane taxiing from an instructional
standpoint.
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to seaplane taxiing.
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Task F: Sailing (ASES)

(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of sailing by describing:

(i)
(ii)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(2)
Procedures used in sailing (engine idling or shut down, as appropriate).

Conditions and situations where sailing would be used.
Selection of the most favorable course to follow.
Use of flight controls, flaps, doors, and water rudders to follow the
selected course.
Procedures used to change direction from downwind to crosswind.
Control of speed.
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to sailing by describing:

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Failure to select the most favorable course to destination.

Improper use of controls, flaps, and water rudders.
Improper procedure when changing direction.
Improper procedure for speed control.
(3)
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains sailing from an instructional standpoint.
(4)
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to sailing.
Task G: Before Takeoff Check (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
(2)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of the before takeoff check by describing:
(i)
Positioning the airplane with consideration for other aircraft, surface conditions,
and wind.
(ii)
Division of attention inside and outside the cockpit.
(iii)
Importance of following the checklist and responding to each checklist item.
(iv)
Reasons for assuring suitable engine temperatures and pressures for run-up and
takeoff.
(v)
Method used to determine that airplane is in a safe operating condition.
(vi)
Importance of reviewing takeoff performance airspeeds, expected takeoff
distances, and emergency procedures.
(vii)
Method used for assuring that the takeoff area or path is free of hazards.
(viii)
Method of avoiding runway incursions and ensuring no conflict with traffic prior to
taxiing into takeoff position.
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to the before takeoff check by
describing:
(i)
Failure to properly use the appropriate checklist.
(ii)
Improper positioning of the aeroplane.
(iii)
Improper acceptance of marginal engine performance.
(iv)
An improper check of flight controls.
(v)
Hazards of failure to review takeoff and emergency procedures.
(vi)
Failure to avoid runway incursions and to ensure no conflict with traffic prior
to taxiing into takeoff position.
(3)
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a before takeoff check from an

instructional standpoint.
(4)
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to a before takeoff

check.
Issue: Original
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VI
AIRPORT AND SEAPLANE BASE OPERATIONS

Task A: Radio Communications and ATC Light Signals (ASEL and ASES)
(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of radio communications and ATC

light signals by describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(2)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to radio communications and

ATC light signals by describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Task B:
Selection and use of appropriate radio frequencies.

Recommended procedure and phraseology for radio communications.
Receipt of, acknowledgement of, and compliance with ATC clearances and
instructions.
Interpretation of and compliance with ATC light signals.
Use of improper frequencies.

improper procedure and phraseology when using radio communications, such as
neglecting to state the aircraft call sign/number at non-towered airports, failure to
state position, runway of takeoff, and the airport of operation.
Failure to acknowledge, or properly comply with, ATC clearances and instructions.
Failure to understand, or to properly comply with, ATC light signals.
(3)
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains radio communication procedures from an

(4)
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to radio communications

and ATC light signals.
Traffic Patterns (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of traffic patterns by describing:

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(2)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to traffic patterns by describing:

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Issue: Original
Operations at airports and seaplane bases with and without operating control
towers.
Adherence to traffic pattern procedures, instructions, and rules.
How to maintain proper spacing from other traffic.
How to maintain the desired ground track.
Wind shear and wake turbulence avoidance procedures.
Orientation with the runway or landing area in use.
How to establish a final approach at an appropriate distance from the runway or
landing area.
Use of checklist.
Failure to comply with traffic pattern instructions, procedures, and rules.
Improper correction for wind drift.
Inadequate spacing from other traffic.
Poor altitude or airspeed control.
(3)
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains traffic patterns from an instructional, standpoint.
(4)
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to traffic patterns.

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Task C:
Airport/Seaplane Base, Runway and Taxiway Signs, Markings, and Lighting (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of airport/seaplane base runway and

taxiway signs, markings, and lighting by describing:
(i)
(ii)
(2)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to airport/seaplane base,

runway and taxiway signs, markings, and lighting by describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
VII
Identification and proper interpretation of airport/seaplane base, runway and

taxiway signs and markings with emphasis on runway incursion avoidance.
Identification and proper interpretation of airport/seaplane base, runway and
taxiway lighting with emphasis on runway incursion avoidance.
Failure to comply with airport/seaplane base, runway and taxiway signs and
markings.
Failure to comply with airport/seaplane base, runway and taxiway lighting.
Failure to use proper runway incursion avoidance procedures.
(3)
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains airport/seaplane base, runway and taxiway

signs, markings, and lighting from an instructional standpoint.
(4)
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to airport/seaplane base, runway
and taxiway signs, markings, and lighting.
TAKEOFFS, LANDINGS, AND GO-AROUNDS

Note: The examiner must select at least two take-offs and two landing Tasks.
Task A:
Normal and Crosswind Takeoff and Climb (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a normal and crosswind takeoff and
climb by describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(2)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a normal and crosswind

takeoff and climb by describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(3)
Issue: Original
Procedures before taxiing onto the runway or takeoff area to ensure runway
incursion avoidance. Verify ATC clearance/no aircraft on final at non-towered
airports before entering the runway, and ensure correct takeoff runway positioning
of the airplane with consideration for other aircraft, surface conditions, and wind.
Normal and crosswind takeoff and lift-off procedures.
Difference between a normal and a glassy-water takeoff (ASES).
Proper climb attitude, power setting, and airspeed (VY).
Proper use of checklist.
Improper runway incursion avoidance procedures.

Improper use of controls during a normal or crosswind takeoff.
Inappropriate lift-off procedures.
Improper climb attitude, power setting, and airspeed (VY).
Improper use of checklist.
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a normal or a crosswind takeoff and climb from
an instructional standpoint.
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(4)
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to a normal or a crosswind takeoff
and climb.
Task B: Short-Field (Confined Area ASES) Takeoff and Maximum Performance Climb (ASEL and
ASES)
(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a short-field takeoff and climb by

describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(2)
incursion the runway, and ensure correct takeoff runway positioning of the airplane
with consideration for other aircraft, surface conditions, and wind.
Short-field takeoff and lift-off procedures.
Initial climb attitude and airspeed (VX) until obstacle is cleared (50 feet AGL).
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a short-field takeoff and climb
by describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)

Improper use of controls during a short-field takeoff.
Improper lift-off procedures.
Improper initial climb attitude, power setting, and airspeed (VX) to clear obstacle.
(3)
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a short-field takeoff and climb from an

(4)
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to a short-field takeoff and climb.
Task C:
Soft-Field Takeoff and Climb (ASEL)

(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a soft-field takeoff and climb by

describing:
(i)
incursion avoidance. Verify ATC clearance/no aircraft on final at non-towered
airports before entering the runway, and ensure that correct takeoff runway
positioning of the airplane with consideration for other aircraft, surface conditions,
and wind.
(ii)
(iii)
Soft-field takeoff and lift-off procedures.

Initial climb attitude and airspeed, (VX, if an obstacle is present (50 feet AGL),
or VY).
(iv)
(2)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a soft-field takeoff and climb
by describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
Issue: Original

Improper use of controls during a soft-field takeoff.
Improper lift-off procedures.
Improper climb attitude, power setting, and airspeed (VY or VX).
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(3)
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a soft-field takeoff and climb from an

(4)
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to a soft-field takeoff and climb.
Task D: Glassy-Water Takeoff and Climb (ASES)

(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a glassy-water takeoff and climb

by describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Task E:
Procedures before taxiing onto the takeoff area to ensure waterway is clear of
objects or obstructions.
Flight control, flap, and water rudder use during glassy-water takeoff procedures.
Appropriate planning attitude and lift-off procedures on glassy water.
Initial climb attitude and airspeed (VX, if an obstacle is present (50 feet AGL), or
VY).
Proper use of after takeoff checklist.
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a glassy-water takeoff and

(i)
Improper takeoff water way clearance procedures.
(ii)
Poor judgment in the selection of a suitable takeoff area.
(iii)
Improper use of controls during a glassy-water takeoff.
(iv)
(v)
Hazards of inadvertent contact with the water after becoming airborne.
(vi)
(vii)
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a glassy-water takeoff and climb from an
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to a glassy-water takeoff and
climb.
Rough-Water Takeoff and Climb (ASES)

(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a rough-water takeoff and climb by

describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(2)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a rough-water takeoff and

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
Issue: Original
Procedures before taxiing onto the takeoff area to ensure waterway is clear
of objects or obstructions.
Flight control, flap and water rudder use during rough-water takeoff procedures.
Appropriate planning attitude and lift-off procedures on rough water.
Initial climb attitude and airspeed (VX, if an obstacle is present (50 feet AGL), or
VY).
Proper use of after takeoff checklist.
Improper takeoff water way clearance procedures.

Poor judgment in the selection of a suitable takeoff area.
Improper use of controls during a rough-water takeoff.
Hazards of inadvertent contact with the water after becoming airborne.
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(3)
(4)
(vi)
(vii)
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a rough-water takeoff and climb from an
Analyses and corrects simulated common errors related to a rough-water takeoff and climb.
Task F: Normal and Crosswind Approach and Landing (ASEL and ASES)
(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a normal and a crosswind approach and
landing by describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(ix)
(x)
(xi)
(xii)
(xiii)
(xiv)
(2)
How to determine landing performance and limitations.

Configuration, power, and trim.
Obstructions and other hazards which should be considered.
A stabilized approach at the recommended airspeed to the selected touchdown
area.
Course of action if selected touchdown area is going to be missed.
Coordination of flight controls.
A precise ground track.
Most suitable crosswind procedure.
Timing, judgment, and control procedure during round-out and touchdown.
Directional control after touchdown.
Use of brakes (landplane).
Use of checklist.
After landing runway incursion avoidance procedures.
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a normal and a crosswind

approach and landing by describing:
(i)
(ii)
(3)
(4)
Improper use of landing performance data and limitations.

Failure to establish approach and landing configuration at appropriate time or in
proper sequence.
(iii)
Failure to establish and maintain a stabilized approach.
(iv)
Inappropriate removal of hand from throttle.
(v)
Improper procedure during round-out and touchdown.
(vi)
Poor directional control after touchdown.
(vii)
Improper use of brakes (ASEL).
(viii)
Failure to ensure receipt and acknowledgement of landing clearance.
(ix)
Failure to review airport diagram for runway exit situational awareness to avoid a
runway incursion after landing.
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a normal or a crosswind approach and
landing from an instructional standpoint.
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to a normal or crosswind
Task G: Slip to a Landing (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a slip (forward and side) to a landing
by describing:
(i)
(ii)
Issue: Original
Configuration, power, and trim.

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(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(ix)
(x)
(xi)
(xii)
(2)
A stabilized slip at the appropriate airspeed to the selected touchdown area.

Possible airspeed indication errors.
Proper application of flight controls.
Timing, judgment, and control procedure during transition from slip to touchdown.
Use of brakes (ASEL).
Use of checklist.
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a slip (forward and side) to a
(i)
(ii)
(3)
(4)

proper sequence.
(iii)
Failure to maintain a stabilized slip.
(iv)
(v)
Improper procedure during transition from the slip to the touchdown.
(vi)
(vii)
Improper use of brakes (landplane).
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a forward or sideslip to a landing from an
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to a forward or sideslip to a
landing.
Task H: Go-Around/Rejected Landing (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a go-around/rejected landing by

describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(ix)
(x)
(2)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a go-around/rejected

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
Issue: Original
Situations where a go-around/rejected landing is necessary.

Importance of making a prompt decision.
Importance of applying takeoff power immediately after the go-around /rejected
landing decision is made.
Importance of establishing proper pitch attitude.
Wing flaps retraction.
Use of trim.
Landing gear retraction.
Proper climb speed.
Proper track and obstruction clearance.
Use of checklist.
Failure to recognize a situation where a go-around/rejected landing is necessary.

Hazards of delaying a decision to go-around/rejected landing.
Improper power application.
Failure to control pitch attitude.
Failure to compensate for torque effect.
Improper trim procedure.
Failure to maintain recommended airspeeds.
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(viii)
(ix)
(x)
Improper wing flaps or landing gear retraction procedure.

Failure to maintain proper track during climb-out.
Failure to remain well clear of obstructions and other traffic.
(3)
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a go-around/rejected landing from an

(4)
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to a go-around/rejected landing.
Task I: Short-Field (Confined Area) (ASES)) Approach and Landing (ASEL and ASES)
(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a short-field approach and landing

by describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(ix)
(x)
(xi)
(xii)
(xiii)
(xiv)
(2)

Configuration and trim.
Proper use of pitch and power to maintain desired approach angle.
Effect of wind.
Selection of touchdown and go-around points.
point.
Use of brakes (ASEL).
Use of checklist.
After-landing runway incursion avoidance procedures.
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a short-field approach and

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)

Failure to establish approach and landing configuration at appropriate time
or in proper sequence.
Improper procedure in use of power, wing flaps, and trim.
(3)
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a short-field approach and landing from an

(4)
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to a short-field approach

and landing.
Task J: Soft-Field Approach and Landing (ASEL)

(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a soft-field approach and landing by

describing:
(i)
Issue: Original

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(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(ix)
(x)
(xi)
(xii)
(xiii)
(xiv)
(2)

Effect of wind and landing surface.
Selection of a touchdown area.
point.
Touchdown in a nose-high pitch attitude at minimum safe airspeed.
Proper use of power.
Use of checklist.
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a soft-field approach and

(i)
(ii)
(3)
(4)

proper sequence.
(iii)
(iv)
Failure to consider the effect of wind and landing surface.
(v)
Improper procedure in use of power, wing flaps, and trim.
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
Failure to hold back elevator pressure after touchdown.
(ix)
Closing the throttle too soon after touchdown.
(x)
(xi)
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a soft-field approach and landing from an
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to a soft-field approach and
landing.
Task K: Power-Off 180 Accuracy Approach and Landing (ASEL)

(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a 180 power-off accuracy approach

and landing by describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(ix)
(2)
Issue: Original

Effects of wind and selection of a touchdown area.
The key points in the pattern.
area.
Use of checklist.
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a 180 power-off accuracy

approach and landing by describing:
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(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(ix)
Failure to establish approach and landing configuration at proper time or in proper

sequence.
Failure to identify the key points in the pattern.
Failure to consider the effect of wind and landing surface.
Improper use of power, wing flaps, or trim.
Failure to hold back elevator pressure after touchdown.
(3)
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a 180 power-off accuracy approach and

landing from an instructional standpoint.
(4)
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to a 180 power-off accuracy
Task L: Glassy-Water Approach and Landing (ASES)

(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a glassy-water approach and landing

by describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(ix)
(x)
(xi)
(2)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a glassy-water approach and

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
Issue: Original

Deceptive characteristics of glassy water.
Selection of a suitable landing area and go-around point.
Terrain and obstructions which should be considered.
Detection of hazards in the landing area such as shallow water, obstructions, or
floating debris.
A power setting and pitch attitude that will result in the recommended airspeed
and rate of descent throughout the final approach to touchdown.
How to maintain positive control after landing.
Use of checklist.

Failure to establish approach and landing configuration at the appropriate time and
in proper sequence.
Failure to establish and maintain a stabilized approach at the recommended
airspeed and rate of descent.
Improper procedure in use of power, wing flaps, or trim.
Failure to touch down with power in the proper stabilized attitude.
Failure to maintain positive control after landing.
(3)
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a glassy-water approach and landing from an

(4)
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to a glassy-water approach and
landing.
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Task M: Rough-Water Approach and Landing (ASES)

(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a rough-water approach and landing

by describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(ix)
(x)
(xi)
(xii)
(xiii)
(2)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a rough-water approach and

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
VIII

Review of wind conditions.
How landing area characteristics can be evaluated.
Selection of a suitable landing area and go-around point.
Terrain and obstructions which should be considered.
Detection of hazards in the landing area such as shallow water, obstructions, or
floating debris.
area.
Maintenance of positive control after landing.
Use of checklist.

proper sequence.
Improper procedure in use of power, wing flaps, or trim.
Failure to maintain positive control after landing.
(3)
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a rough-water approach and landing from an

(4)
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related a rough-water approach and
landing.
FUNDAMENTALS OF FLIGHT
Task A: Straight-and-Level Flight (ASEL and ASES)
(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of straight-and-level flight by describing:

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Issue: Original
Effect and use of flight controls.

The integrated flight instruction method.
Outside and instrument references used for pitch, bank, yaw, and power control;
the cross-check and interpretation of those references; and the control procedure
used.
Trim procedure.
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(v)
(2)
Methods that can be used to overcome tenseness and over-controlling.
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to straight-and-level flight by

describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Failure to cross-check and correctly interpret outside and instrument references.

Application of control movements rather than pressures.
Uncoordinated use of flight controls.
Faulty trim procedure.
(3)
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains straight-and-level flight from an instructional

standpoint.
(4)
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to straight-and-level flight.
Task B: Level Turns (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of level turns by describing:

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(2)

The Integrated Flight Instruction method.
used.
Trim procedure.
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to level turns by describing:

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Faulty altitude and bank control.
(3)
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains level turns from an instructional standpoint.
(4)
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to level turns.
Task C: Straight Climbs and Climbing Turns (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of straight climbs and climbing turns
by describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(2)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to straight climbs and climbing
turns by describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
Issue: Original

used.
Trim procedure.

Improper correction for torque effect.
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(3)
(4)
(iv)
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains straight climbs and climbing turns from an
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to straight climbs and climbing
turns.
Task D: Straight Descents and Descending Turns (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of straight descents and descending

turns by describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(2)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to straight descents and

descending turns by describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
IX

used.
Trim procedure.

Failure to clear engine and to use carburetor heat, as appropriate.
(3)
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains straight descents and descending turns from
an instructional standpoint.
(4)
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to straight descents and descending
turns.
PERFORMANCE MANEUVERS
Note: The examiner must select at least Tasks A or B and C or D.
Task A: Steep Turns (ASEL and ASES)
(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of steep turns by describing:

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(2)
Issue: Original
Relationship of bank angle, load factor, and stalling speed.

Overbanking tendency.
Torque effect in right and left turns.
Selection of a suitable altitude.
Orientation, division of attention, and planning.
Entry and rollout procedure.
Coordination of flight and power controls.
Altitude, bank, and power control during the turn.
Proper recovery to straight-and-level flight.
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to steep turns by describing:

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(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Improper pitch, bank, and power coordination during entry and rollout.
Improper procedure in correcting altitude deviations.
Loss of orientation.
(3)
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains steep turns from an instructional standpoint.
(4)
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to steep turns.
Task B: Steep Spirals (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of steep spirals by describing:

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(2)
The purpose of steep spirals and their relationship to emergency landing

procedures.
Selection of entry altitude.
Entry airspeed and power setting.
Selection of a proper ground reference point.
Division of attention and planning.
Maintenance of constant radius around selected point.
Maintenance of constant airspeed throughout maneuver.
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to steep spiral by describing:

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Improper pitch, bank, yaw, and power coordination during entry or completion.
Improper planning and lack of maintenance of constant airspeed and radius.
Failure to stay orientated to the number of turns and the rollout heading.
(3)
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a steep spiral from an instructional standpoint.
(4)
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to steep spirals.
Task C: Chandelles (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of chandelles by describing:

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(ix)
(2)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to chandelles by describing:

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
Issue: Original
The purpose of chandelles and their relationship to basic/advanced airmanship

Skills.
Division of attention and planning.
Pitch and bank attitudes at various points during the maneuver.
Proper correction for torque effect in right and left turns.
Achievement of maximum performance.
Completion procedure.
Improper pitch, bank, and power coordination during entry or completion.
Improper planning and timing of pitch and bank attitude changes.
Factors related to failure in achieving maximum performance.
A stall during the maneuver.
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(vi)
(3)
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains chandelles from an instructional

standpoint.
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to chandelles.
Task D: Lazy Eights (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of lazy eights by describing:

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(ix)
(x)
(xi)
(2)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to lazy eights by describing:

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(3)
(4)
X
The purpose of lazy eights and their relationship to basic/advanced airmanship

Skills.
Selection of suitable reference points.
Entry procedure.
Pitch and bank attitudes at key points during the maneuver.
Importance of consistent airspeed and altitude control at key points during the
maneuver.
Proper correction for torque effect in right and left turns.
Loop symmetry.
Poor selection of reference points.
Unsymmetrical loops resulting from poorly planned pitch and bank attitude
changes.
Inconsistent airspeed and altitude at key points.
Loss of orientation.
Excessive deviation from reference points.
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains lazy eights from an instructional standpoint.

Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to lazy eights.
GROUND REFERENCE MANEUVERS

Note: The examiner must select Task D and one other Task.
Task A: Rectangular Course (ASEL and ASES)
(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a rectangular course by

describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
Issue: Original
How to select a suitable altitude.

How to select a suitable ground reference with consideration given to emergency
landing areas.
Configuration and airspeed prior to entry.
Relationship of a rectangular course to an airport traffic pattern.
Wind drifts correction.
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(vii)
(viii)
(ix)
(2)
How to maintain desired altitude, airspeed, and distance from ground reference
boundaries.
Timing of turn entries and rollouts.
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a rectangular course by

describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
Poor planning, orientation, or division of attention.

Failure to maintain selected altitude or airspeed.
Selection of a ground reference where there is no suitable emergency landing
area within gliding distance.
(3)
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a rectangular course from an instructional

standpoint.
(4)
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to a rectangular course.
Task B: S-Turns across a Road (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of S-turns across a road by

describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(ix)
(x)
(xi)
(2)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to S-turns across a road by

describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
Issue: Original
The purpose of S-turns across a road and their relationship to basic/advanced

airmanship Skills.
How to select a suitable ground reference line with consideration given to
emergency landing areas.
Entry procedure.
Wind drifts correction.
Tracking of semicircles of equal radii on either side of the selected ground
reference line.
How to maintain desired altitude and airspeed.
Turn reversal over the ground reference line.
Faulty entry procedure.

An unsymmetrical ground track.
Selection of a ground reference line where there is no suitable emergency landing
area within gliding distance.
(3)
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains S-turns across a road from an instructional

standpoint.
(4)
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to S-turns across a road.
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Task C: Turns around a Point (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of turns around a point by describing:

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(2)
The purpose of turns around a point and their relationship to basic/advanced

airmanship Skills.
How to select a suitable ground reference point with consideration given to
emergency landing areas.
Entry procedure, Wind drifts correction.
How to maintain desired altitude, airspeed, and distance from reference point.
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to turns around a point by

describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)

Selection of a ground reference point where there is no suitable emergency
landing area within gliding distance.
(3)
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains turns around a point from an instructional

standpoint.
(4)
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to turns around a point.
Task D: Eights on Pylons (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of eights on pylons by describing:

(i)
The purpose of eights on pylons and their relationship to basic/advanced
airmanship Skills.
(ii)
How to determine the approximate pivotal altitude.
(iii)
How to select suitable pylons with consideration given to emergency landing
areas.
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
Relationship of groundspeed change to the performance of the maneuver.
(vii)
Pilots line-of-sight reference to the pylon.
(viii)
Entry procedure.
(ix)
Procedure for maintaining line-of-sight on the pylon.
(x)
Proper planning for turn entries and rollouts.
(xi)
How to correct for wind drift between pylons.
(xii)
(2)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to eights on pylons by

describing:
(i)
(ii)
Issue: Original

Poor planning, orientation, and division of attention.
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(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(3)
(4)
XI

Use of an improper line-of-sight reference.
Application of rudder alone to maintain line-of-sight on the pylon.
Improper planning for turn entries and rollouts.
Improper correction for wind drift between pylons.
Selection of pylons where there is no suitable emergency landing area within
gliding distance.
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains eights on pylons from an instructional
standpoint.
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to eights on pylons.
SLOW FLIGHT, STALLS, AND SPINS

Note: The examiner must select at least one proficiency stall (Task B or C), at least one demonstration stall
(Task D, E, F, or H), and Task G.
Task A: Maneuvering during Slow Flight (ASEL and ASES)
(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of maneuvering during slow flight by

describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(2)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to maneuvering during slow

flight by describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(ix)
Issue: Original
Relationship of configuration, weight, center of gravity, maneuvering loads,

angle of bank, and power to flight characteristics and controllability.
Relationship of the maneuver to critical flight situations, such as go-around.
Performance of the maneuver with selected landing gear and flap configurations in
straight-and-level flight and level turns.
Specified airspeed for the maneuver.
Trim technique.
Reestablishment of cruise flight.
Failure to establish specified gear and flap configuration.

Improper entry technique.
Failure to establish and maintain the specified airspeed.
Excessive variations of altitude and heading when a constant altitude and
heading are specified.
Improper correction for torque effect.
Improper trim technique.
Unintentional stalls.
Inappropriate removal of hand from throttles.
(3)
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains maneuvering during slow flight from an

(4)
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to maneuvering during slow flight.
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Task B: Power-On Stalls (Proficiency) (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of power-on stalls, in climbing flight

(straight or turning), with selected landing gear and flap configurations by describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(2)
Aerodynamics of power-on stalls.

Relationship of various factors such as landing gear and flap configuration, weight,
center of gravity, load factor, and bank angle to stall speed.
Flight situations where unintentional power-on stalls may occur.
Entry technique and minimum entry altitude.
Performance of power-on stalls in climbing flight (straight or turning).
Recognition of the first indications of power-on stalls.
Recovery technique and minimum recovery altitude.
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to power-on stalls, in climbing

flight (straight or turning), with selected landing gear and flap configurations by describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(ix)
(x)
Failure to establish the specified landing gear and flap configuration prior to entry.
Improper pitch, heading, yaw, and bank control during straight-ahead stalls.
Improper pitch, yaw, and bank control during turning stalls.
Rough and/or uncoordinated use of flight controls.
Failure to recognize the first indications of a stall.
Failure to achieve a stall.
Improper torque correction.
Poor stall recognition and delayed recovery.
Excessive altitude loss or excessive airspeed during recovery.
Secondary stall during recovery.
(3)
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains power-on stalls, in climbing flight (straight or

turning), with selected landing gear and flap configurations, from an instructional
standpoint.
(4)
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to power-on stalls, in climbing
flight (straight or turning), with selected landing gear and flap configurations.
Task C: Power-Off Stalls (Proficiency) (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of power-off stalls, in descending flight

(straight or turning), with selected landing gear and flap configurations by describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
Issue: Original
Aerodynamics of power-off stalls.

Relationship of various factors, such as landing gear and flap configuration,
weight, center of gravity, load factor, and bank angle to stall speed.
Flight situations where unintentional power-off stalls may occur.
Entry technique and minimum entry altitude.
Performance of power-off stalls in descending flight (straight or turning).
Recognition of the first indications of power-off stalls.
Recovery technique and minimum recovery altitude.
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(2)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to power-off stalls, in descending

flight (straight or turning), with selected landing gear and flap configurations by describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(ix)
(x)
Failure to establish the specified landing gear and flap configuration prior to entry.
Improper pitch, heading, yaw, and bank control during straight-ahead stalls.
Improper pitch, yaw, and bank control during turning stalls.
Rough and/or uncoordinated use of flight controls.
Failure to recognize the first indications of a stall.
Failure to achieve a stall.
Improper torque correction.
Poor stall recognition and delayed recovery.
Excessive altitude loss or excessive airspeed during recovery.
Secondary stall during recovery.
(3)
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains power-off stalls, in descending flight (straight

or turning), with selected landing gear and flap configurations, from an instructional
standpoint.
(4)
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to power-off stalls, in descending
flight (straight or turning), with selected landing gear and flap configurations.
Task D: Cross-Controlled Stalls (Demonstration) (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of cross-controlled stalls, with the landing
gear extended by describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(2)
Aerodynamics of cross-controlled stalls.

Effects of crossed controls in gliding or reduced airspeed descending turns.
Flight situations where unintentional cross-controlled stalls may occur.
Entry procedure and minimum entry altitude.
Recognition of cross-controlled stalls.
Recovery procedure and minimum recovery altitude.
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to cross-controlled stalls, with

the landing gear extended by describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Failure to establish selected configuration prior to entry.

Failure to establish a cross-controlled turn and stall condition that will adequately
demonstrate the hazards of a cross-controlled stall.
Improper or inadequate demonstration of the recognition and recovery from a
cross-controlled stall.
Failure to present simulated student instruction that emphasizes the hazards of a
cross-controlled condition in a gliding or reduced airspeed condition.
(3)
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a cross-controlled stall, with the landing gear
extended, from an instructional standpoint.
(4)
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to a cross-controlled stall with the
landing gear extended.
Task E: Elevator Trim Stalls (Demonstration) (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
Issue: Original
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of elevator trim stalls, in selected landing
gear and flap configurations by describing:
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(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(2)
Aerodynamics of elevator trims stalls.

Hazards of inadequate control pressures to compensate for thrust, torque, and
up-elevator trim during go-around and other related maneuvers.
Recognition of elevator trims stalls.
Importance of recovering from an elevator trim stall immediately upon recognition.
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to elevator trim stalls, in

selected landing gear and flap configurations by describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
Failure to present simulated student instruction that adequately emphasizes

the hazards of poor correction for torque and up-elevator trim during go-around
and other maneuvers.
Improper or inadequate demonstration of the recognition of and the recovery from
an elevator trim stall.
(3)
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains elevator trim stalls, in selected landing

gear and flap configurations, from an instructional standpoint.
(4)
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to elevator trim stalls in
selected landing gear and flap configurations.
Task F: Secondary Stalls (Demonstration) (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of secondary stalls, in selected landing

gear and flap configurations by describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(2)
(3)
Aerodynamics of secondary stalls.

Flight situations where secondary stalls may occur.
Hazards of secondary stalls during normal stall or spin recovery.
Recognition of a secondary stall.
Improper or inadequate demonstration of the recognition of and recovery from a
secondary stall.
(ix)
Failure to present simulated student instruction that adequately emphasizes the
hazards of poor procedure in recovering from a primary stall.
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains secondary stalls, in selected landing gear and
flap configurations, from an instructional standpoint.
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to secondary stalls in selected
landing gear and flap configurations.
Task G: Spins (ASEL)

Note: At the discretion of the examiner, a logbook record attesting applicant instructional competency in
spin entries, spins, and spin recoveries may be accepted in lieu of this Task. The flight instructor who
conducted the spin instruction must certify the logbook record.
(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of spins by describing:

(i)
(ii)
Issue: Original
Anxiety factors associated with spin instruction.

Aerodynamics of spins.
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(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(ix)
(x)
Airplanes approved for the spin maneuver based on airworthiness category and
type certificate.
Relationship of various factors such as configuration, weight, center of gravity,
and control coordination to spins.
Flight situations where unintentional spins may occur.
How to recognize and recover from imminent, unintentional spins.
Entry procedure and minimum entry altitude for intentional spins.
Control procedure to maintain a stabilized spin.
Orientation during a spin.
Recovery procedure and minimum recovery altitude for intentional spins.
(2)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to spins by describing:

(i)
Failure to establish proper configuration prior to spin entry.
(ii)
Failure to achieve and maintain a full stall during spin entry.
(iii)
Failure to close throttle when a spin entry is achieved.
(iv)
Failure to recognize the indications of an imminent, unintentional spin.
(v)
Improper use of flight controls during spin entry, rotation, or recovery.
(vi)
Disorientation during a spin.
(vii)
Failure to distinguish between a high-speed spiral and a spin.
(viii)
Excessive speed or accelerated stall during recovery.
(ix)
Failure to recover with minimum loss of altitude.
(x)
Hazards of attempting to spin an airplane not approved for spins.
(3)
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a spin (one turn) from an instructional

standpoint.
(4)
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to spins.
Task H: Accelerated Maneuver Stalls (Demonstration) (ASEL and ASES)

Note: This Task must be completed by oral examination or demonstration at the discretion of the examiner.
(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of accelerated maneuver stalls by

describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Issue: Original
Aerodynamics of accelerated maneuver stalls.

Flight situations where accelerated maneuver stalls may occur.
Hazards of accelerated stalls during stall or spin recovery.
Recognition of the accelerated stall.
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains accelerated maneuver stall from an

Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to accelerated maneuver
stalls by describing:
(i)
Failure to establish proper configuration prior to entry.
(ii)
Improper or inadequate demonstration of the recognition of and recovery from an
accelerated maneuver stall.
(iii)
Failure to present simulated student instruction that adequately emphasizes the
hazards of poor procedures in recovering from an accelerated stall.
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to accelerated stalls.
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XII
BASIC INSTRUMENT MANEUVERS

Task A: Straight-and-Level Flight (ASEL and ASES)
(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of straight-and-level flight solely by

reference to instruments by describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(2)
Instrument cross-check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control.

Instruments used for pitch, bank, and power control, and how those instruments
are used to maintain altitude, heading, and airspeed.
Trim procedure.
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to straight-and-level flight

solely by reference to instruments by describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(iv)
Fixation, omission, and emphasis errors during instrument cross-check.

Improper instrument interpretation.
Improper control applications.
Failure to establish proper pitch, bank, or power adjustments during altitude,
heading, or airspeed corrections.
(3)
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains straight-and-level flight, solely by reference to

instruments, from an instructional standpoint.
(4)
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to straight-and-level flight, solely by
Task B: Constant Airspeed Climbs (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of straight and turning, constant airspeed
climbs, solely by reference to instruments by describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(2)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to straight and turning, constant
airspeed climbs, solely by reference to instruments by describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
Issue: Original

Instruments used for pitch, bank, and power control during entry, during the climb,
and during level off, and how those instruments are used to maintain climb
heading and airspeed.
Trim procedure.

Failure to establish proper pitch, bank, or power adjustments during heading
and airspeed corrections.
Improper entry or level-off procedure.
(3)
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a straight and turning, constant airspeed climb,
solely by reference to instruments, from an instructional standpoint.
(4)
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to straight and turning, constant
airspeed climbs, solely by reference to instruments.
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Task C: Constant Airspeed Descents (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
(2)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of straight and turning, constant airspeed
descents, solely by reference to instruments by describing:
(i)
(ii)

Instruments used for pitch, bank, and power control during entry, during the
descent, and during level off, and how those instruments are used to maintain
descent heading and airspeed.
(iii)
Trim procedure.
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to straight and turning,

constant airspeed descents, solely by reference to instruments by describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)

Failure to establish proper pitch, bank, or power adjustments during heading
and airspeed corrections.
Improper entry or level-off procedure.
(3)
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a straight and turning, constant airspeed

descent, solely by reference to instruments, from an instructional standpoint.
(4)
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to straight and turning, constant
airspeed descents, solely by reference to instruments.
Task D: Turns to Headings (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of turns to headings, solely by reference

to instruments by describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(2)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to turns to headings, solely by

reference to instruments by describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(3)
(4)
Issue: Original

Instruments used for pitch, bank, and power control during turn entry, during the
turn, and during the turn rollout, and how those instruments are used.
Trim procedure.

Failure to establish proper pitch, bank, and power adjustments during altitude,
bank, and airspeed corrections.
Improper entry or rollout procedure.
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a turn to a heading, solely by reference to

instruments, from an instructional standpoint.
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to turns to headings, solely by
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Task E: Recovery from Unusual Flight Attitudes (ASEL and ASES)

(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of recovery from unusual flight attitudes
by describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(2)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to recovery from unusual

flight attitudes by describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
XIII
Conditions and situations that may result in unusual flight attitudes.

The two basic unusual flight attitudesnose-high (climbing turn) and nose-low
(diving spiral).
How unusual flight attitudes are recognized.
Control sequence for recovery from a nose-high attitude and the reasons for
that sequence.
Control sequence for recovery from a nose-low attitude and the reasons for
that sequence.
Reasons why the controls should be coordinated during unusual flight attitude
recoveries.
Failure to recognize an unusual flight attitude.

Consequences of attempting to recover from an unusual flight attitude by feel
rather than by instrument indications.
Inappropriate control applications during recovery.
Failure to recognize from instrument indications when the airplane is passing
through a level flight attitude.
(3)
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a recovery from nose-high and a nose-low flight
attitude from an instructional standpoint.
(4)
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to recovery from unusual flight
attitudes.
Note: Examiner must select at least Tasks A and B.
Task A: Emergency Approach and Landing (Simulated) (ASEL and ASES)
Note: The examiner must NOT simulate a power failure by placing the fuel selector in the off position or
by placing the mixture control in the idle-cutoff position. No simulated emergency approach is to be
continued below 500 feet AGL, unless over an area where a safe landing can be accomplished.
(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements related to an emergency approach and

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
Issue: Original
Prompt establishment of the best glide airspeed and the recommended

configuration.
How to select a suitable emergency landing area.
Planning and execution of approach to the selected landing area.
Use of emergency checklist.
Importance of attempting to determine reason for the malfunction.
Importance of dividing attention between flying the approach and accomplishing
emergency checklist.
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(vii)
(2)
(4)
Procedures that can be used to compensate for undershooting or overshooting

selected emergency landing area.
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to an emergency approach

and landing by describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(3)
Improper airspeed control.

Poor judgment in the selection of an emergency landing area.
Failure to estimate the approximate wind speed and direction.
Failure to fly the most suitable pattern for existing situation.
Failure to accomplish the emergency checklist.
Undershooting or overshooting selected emergency landing area.
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains an emergency approach with a simulated

engine failure from an instructional standpoint.
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to an emergency approach with a
simulated engine failure.
Task B: Systems and Equipment Malfunctions (ASEL and ASES)

Note: The examiner must not simulate a system or equipment malfunction in a manner that may jeopardize
safe flight or result in possible damage to the airplane.
Objective: To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of at least five (5) of the
equipment malfunctions, appropriate to the airplane used for the skills test by describing recommended pilot
action for:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
(9)
(10)
(11)
(12)
Smoke, fire, or both, during ground or flight operations.

Rough running engine or partial power loss.
Loss of engine oil pressure.
Fuel starvation.
Engine overheat.
Hydraulic malfunction.
Electrical malfunction.
Carburetor or induction icing.
Door or window opening in flight.
Inoperative or runaway trim.
Landing gear or flap malfunctions.
Pressurization malfunctions.
Task C: Emergency Equipment and Survival Gear (ASEL and ASES)

emergency equipment and survival gear appropriate to the airplane used for the skills test by describing:
(1)
(2)
Equipment and gear appropriate for operation in various climates, over various types of
terrain, and over water.
Purpose, method of operation or use, servicing and storage of appropriate equipment.
Task D: Emergency Descent (ASEL and ASES)

emergency descents appropriate to the airplane flown by:
(1)
Exhibiting instructional knowledge of the elements related to an emergency descent

by describing:
(i)
Issue: Original
Situations that require an emergency descent.

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(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(2)
Proper use of the prescribed emergency checklist to verify accomplishment

of procedures before initiating and during the emergency descent.
Proper use of clearing procedures before initiating and during the emergency
descent.
Procedures for recovering from an emergency descent.
Manufacturers procedures.
Exhibiting instructional knowledge of common errors related to an emergency descent by

describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
XIV
The consequences of failing to identify reason for executing an emergency

descent.
Improper use of the prescribed emergency checklist to verify accomplishment of
procedures for initiating the emergency descent.
Improper use of clearing procedures for initiating the emergency descent.
Improper procedures for recovering from an emergency descent.
(3)
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains emergency descents from an instructional

standpoint.
(4)
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to emergency descents.
POSTFLIGHT PROCEDURES
Note: The examiner must select Task A and, for ASES applicants, at least one other Task.
Task A: Postflight Procedures (ASEL and ASES)
(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of Postflight procedures by describing:

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(2)
Parking procedure (ASEL).

Engine shutdown and securing cockpit.
Deplaning passengers.
Securing airplane.
Postflight inspection.
Refueling.
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to postflight procedures by

describing:
(i)
(ii)
Hazards resulting from failure to follow recommended procedures.

Poor planning, improper procedure, or faulty judgment in performance of
postflight procedures.
Task B: Anchoring (ASES)

(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of anchoring by describing:

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
Issue: Original
How to select a suitable area for anchoring.

Recommended procedure for anchoring in a lake, river, or tidal area.
Number of anchors and lines to be used to ensure seaplane security in various
conditions.
Hazards to be avoided during anchoring.
Requirements for anchoring lights.
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(2)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to anchoring by describing:

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
Hazards resulting from failure to follow recommended anchoring procedures.

Consequences of poor planning, improper procedure, or poor judgment when
anchoring.
Consequences of failure to use anchor lines of adequate length and strength
to ensure seaplane security.
(3)
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains anchoring from an instructional

standpoint.
(4)
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to anchoring.
Task C: Docking and Mooring (ASES)

(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of docking and mooring by describing:

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(2)
How to select a suitable area for docking and mooring.

Recommended procedure for mooring in a lake, river, or tidal area.
Number of tie-downs and lines to be used to ensure seaplane security in various
conditions.
Hazards to be avoided during docking and mooring.
Requirements for docking and mooring lights.
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to docking and mooring by

describing:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)

Consequences of poor planning, improper procedure, or poor judgment when
docking and mooring.
Consequences of failure to use docking or mooring lines of adequate length and
strength to ensure seaplane security.
(3)
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains docking and mooring from an instructional

standpoint.
(4)
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to docking and mooring.
Task D: Beaching (ASES)

(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of beaching by describing:

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(2)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to beaching by describing:

(i)
(ii)
Consequences of poor beach selection, poor planning, improper procedure, or

faulty judgment when beaching.
A consequence of failure to take appropriate precautions to avoid hazards or to
ensure that seaplane is secure.
(iii)
(3)
Issue: Original
Recommended procedures for beaching.

Factors to be considered, such as beach selection, water depth, current, tide, and
wind.
Procedures to be followed to ensure seaplane security.
Hazards to be avoided.
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains beaching from an instructional standpoint.

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(4)
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to beaching.
Task E: Ramping (ASES)

(1)
Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of ramping by describing:

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(2)
Factors such as type of ramp surface, wind, current, and direction and control of
approach speed.
Recommended procedures for ramping.
Hazards to be avoided.
Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to ramping by describing:

(i)
(ii)
(iii)

Consequences of poor planning, improper procedure, or faulty judgment when
ramping.
Consequences of failure to take appropriate precautions to avoid hazards or
to ensure that the seaplane is secure.
(3)
Demonstrates and simultaneously explains ramping from an instructional standpoint.
(4)
Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to ramping.
-------------------------------------------------
Issue: Original
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ATTACHMENT- 07
CATEGORIZATION OF ATOs, MAN-POWER REQUIREMENT AND AIRCRAFT-INSTRUCTORSTUDENT RATIO
7.1
Introduction
7.1.1
ATOs are categorized, with the intention of facilitating operations of ATOs by defining personnel
requirements, complying with the regulations, subjected to its size and complexity.
71.2
Simple and small category ATOs will have less restrictive requirements than other categories. Similarly,
complex and large category ATOs will have the most stringent personnel requirements.
7.1.3
ATOs shall be categorized on basis of size and complexity.
7.2
Complexity
7.2.1
Simple ATOs having only SE (L) piston aircraft.
7.2.2
Complex ATOs having:

(a)
SE (S) Aircraft; or
(b)
ME Aircraft; or
(c)
Turbo-Prop Aircraft; or
(d)
Aircraft with Retractable Landing Gear; variable pitch; or SE (L) piston aircraft and FSTD.
7.3
Size
7.3.1
Small:
(a)
(b)
7.3.2
Medium:
(a)
ATOs having 6 -10 aircraft; or
(b)
ATOs having 26 50 employees.
7.3.3
Large:
(a)
ATOs having more than 10 aircraft; or
(b)
ATOs having more than 50 employees.
Note: Employees for this purpose includes management personnel, full time and part time employees.
7.4
ATO Personnel Requirements: Reference 3.2.14, 3.3.3; App-A 1.8 and App-E 3.3 (b) and Att-9.4 (j) of this
Part. Adequate man-powers must be employed by ATOs according to their complexity and size.
7.4.1
Simple & Small/Medium, Complex & Small ATO:
Issue: Original
ATOs having up to 5 aircraft; or

ATOs having up to 25 employees.
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(a)
Key Position Holders may hold two key positions if qualified for both positions, as follows:
(1)
Accountable Manager (AM) may hold any other key position;
(2)
Head of Training (HT) May hold any other key position except AM. He may act as AM to
carry out routine jobs if properly designated for the period the AM is temporarily absent;
(3)
Chief Flight Instructor (CFI) May hold any other key position except AM, HT and QM. He
may act as HT to carry out routine jobs if properly designated for the period the HT is
temporarily absent;
(4)
Chief Ground Instructor (CGI) May hold any other key position except AM, HT and QM.
He may act as HT to carry out routine jobs if properly designated for the period the HT is
temporarily absent;
(5)
Engineering Manager (EM) May hold any other key position except AM, HT and QM. He
may act as HT to carry out routine jobs if properly designated for the period the HT is
temporarily absent;
(6)
Quality Manager (QM) May hold any other position except CFI, CGI and EM.
(b)
Flight Instructors (FI) ATOs shall employ minimum two full time basis FIs in addition to HT and
CFI for each AW and serviceable training aircraft.
(c)
Ground Instructor (GI) ATOs shall employ minimum 50% GIs on full time basis if the ATO is
certified to provide knowledge training.
(d)
Licenced Engineer One licenced Engineer for every 5 or part of 5 aircraft.
(e)
Operations Staff Minimum 1 operations staff for each operations base.
(e)
Maintenance Staff Minimum 2 maintenance staff for 1 aircraft, thereafter for each additional
aircraft extra 1 maintenance person.
(f)
Admin Staff Minimum 2 Admin staff for principle place of business and 1 for each operations
base.
7.5
Student and Aircraft Ratio: ATOs shall not enroll in excess of 10 students for flight training for each
serviceable aircraft.
7.6
Instructor and Student Ratio: Instructor- student ratio should be 1:5 at the best. HT and CFI shall not be
considered in this matter.
________________________
Issue: Original
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ATACHMENT 8
DESIGNATED PILOT EXAMINER (DPE)
(INITIAL AND RECURRENT COURSE)
8.1
Introduction
8.1.1 In view of the fact that the CAAB, due to its limitation of qualified inspectors to conduct skill tests for the
licencing purposes, shall designate qualified private pilots, to act on behalf of the Authority, as examiners.
8.1.2 CAAB, upon receiving applications, shall conduct the initial course, let down hereunder, to designate
suitable candidates as examiners, authorized by 3.3.6 of this part.
8.1.2 DPE course shall be done in three parts knowledge, OJT and skill. Knowledge part shall be done as per
below procedure of this sub-part followed by OJT and the skill test, conducted by an inspector..
8.2
Eligibility for Application
8.2.1 An applicant shall meet all the requirements of a DPE as given in 3.3.6.2 of this part, as applicable.
8.2.2 Designated inspector shall scrutinize the applications, select appropriate candidates, obtain authorization,
arrange and conduct initial course.
8.3
Role of Inspector
8.1
A qualified inspector, designated by the Authority, shall conduct DPE courses.
8.2
Inspector so designated, shall develop a syllabus, prepare a structured lesson plan and conduct the
knowledge course based on the subject areas given in 7.4.2 hereunder.
8.4
Course Curriculum
8.4.1 DPE initial course shall contain 3 parts:

(a)
Knowledge test;
(b)
OJT; and
(c)
Skill test.
8.4.2 The knowledge test subject areas shall contain the followings as minimum:
(a)
ICAO Annex 1 Chapter 1, 2 and 6 (as appropriate);
(b)
ICAO Annex 6 Part I and Part II (as appropriate);
(c)
3.3.6 Designated Pilot Examiners of this Part;
(d)
Appendix F, Requirements, Privileges and Limitations for Instructors of ATOs of this Part;
(e)
Appendix G, Training and Testing Requirements for SP, PPL, CPL & IR of this Part;
(f)
Attachment 1, Pilot Skills Test Standards for Airplane and Helicopter of this Part;
(g)
Attachment 2, Addition of /Rating to Existing License/Rating Holders of this Part;
(h)
Attachment 3, STS-PPL & CPL (ASEL & ASES) of this Part;
Issue: Original
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(i)
Attachment 4, Instrument Rating Skills Test Standards for Airplane and Helicopter of this Part;
(j)
Attachment 5, Flight Instructor Skills Test Standards for Aeroplane of this Part.
8.4.3 Sequence of initial DPE Course

(a)
Initial knowledge course duration shall be for 30 hours in 5 days. Course shall contain structured
modules. At the completion of each module, Mastery tests will be conducted to assess the
suitability of the candidates;
(b)
Candidates who qualify the initial knowledge course shall attend an oral test as an observer,
conducted by an inspector;
(c)
Candidate will conduct an oral test in presence of an inspector, and the inspector will evaluate the
candidate;
(d)
Candidate will observe the inspector carrying out a skill test (if applicable);
(e)
Candidate will conduct a skill test while inspector will observe and assess (if applicable);
(f)
Inspector will carry out a skill test if (d) and (e) are not applicable.
8.4.4 Refresher Course
8.5
(a)
Ground refresher course shall be done once in two years. Course duration shall be for 12 hours in
2 days;
(b)
Renewal skill test shall be done once in two years.
Skill test
8.5.1 Skill test standard of Attachment 6 and the assessment form in Attachment 10 of this Part shall be used for
examiners skill test.
7.5.2 Inspector should select Areas and Tasks of Attachment 6 as appropriate, applicable for an examiner for
initial and renewal skill tests.
-------------------------------------------
Issue: Original
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ATTACHMENT-09
ATO CERTIFICATION PROCESS
9.1
9.2.
PURPOSE
(a)
This Attachment describes the process of applying for and obtaining an Approved Training
Organization (ATO) Certificate to conduct Ground and Flight Training according to this Part (ANO
Part 3). This Attachment provides basic information applicable to the certification process.
(b)
Prospective ATOs will be briefed in as much detail as necessary regarding the preparation of
facilities, personnel, manuals and other required documents during meetings with CAAB. The
information in this Attachment and this Part will assist the prospective ATOs in completing the
process with minimal delays and complications.
BACKGROUND.
(a)
To conduct an ATO, the prospective ATO holders must be a citizen of Bangladesh. The CAAB
recognises the responsibility of an ATO to provide ground and flight training with the highest
degree of safety and standard. The certification process is designed to ensure that prospective
ATO holders understand and are capable of fulfilling these duties. When satisfactorily completed,
the certification process should ensure that the ATO is able to comply with the Bangladesh Aviation
Law, CAAB regulations (ANOs), and the international standards pertaining to the operation of an
ATO as published in relevant Annexes to the convention on international civil aviation.
(b)
There are five phases in the ATO certification process. Each phase is described in sufficient detail
to provide a general understanding of the entire certification process. The five phases are:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
PHASE 1
PREAPPLICATION
PHASE
(b)
Issue: Original
Pre-application
Formal Application
Document Evaluation
Demonstration and Inspection
Certification
PHASE 2
FORMAL
APPLICATION
PHASE
PHASE 3
DOCUMENT
EVALUATION
PHASE
PHASE 4
DEMONSTRATION
AND INSPECTION
PHASE
PHASE 5
CERTIFICATION
PHASE
In some cases, the guidance and suggested sequence of events in this Attachment may not be
entirely appropriate. In such situations, the CAAB and the prospective ATOs should proceed in a
manner that considers existing conditions and circumstances. The prospective ATOs, however,
should not expect to be certificated until the CAAB is assured that the Bangladesh aviation law and
its Civil Aviation Regulations (ANOs) will be complied within an appropriate and continuing
manner.
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9.4
PRE-APPLICATION PHASE.
(a)
As far in advance as possible of an anticipated start of operations, a prospective ATO should make
an initial application to inform CAAB of its intent to apply for an ATO certificate. The prospective
operator will be invited to meet briefly with CAAB. During this initial meeting, only basic information
and general certification requirements will be discussed. If the prospective ATO intends to proceed
with certification, CAAB Form No ATO-01 Prospective Operators Pre-assessment Statement
(POPS) will be furnished. The POPS should be completed, signed by the prospective operator, and
returned to the CAAB Office.
(b)
CAAB personnel will review the POPS. If the information is incomplete or erroneous, the POPS will
be returned to the prospective operator with the reasons for its return. If the information is complete
and acceptable, a pre-application meeting with the prospective operator and the selected CAAB
certification team members will be held.
(c)
The CAAB will form a two member certification team consisting Air and Ops inspectors, one of
them shall be appointed and act as the leader (PM). The team leader (PM) will be the official CAAB
spokesperson throughout the certification process.
(d)
The purpose of the pre-application meeting is to confirm the information on the POPS and to
provide critical certification information to the applicant. It is required that the prospective ATOs
key management attend these pre-application meetings and be prepared to discuss in general
terms the plans and specific aspects of the proposed operation. Many problems can be avoided by
discussing all aspects of the proposed operation and the specific requirements, which must be met
to be certificated as an ATO.
(e)
It is important to establish good working relationships and clear understandings between the CAAB
and the prospective ATOs representatives. The CAAB recognises that a wide range of capabilities
and expertise exists among prospective ATOs. This background experience will be considered by
the CAAB and adjusted to during these initial meetings.
(f)
To help promote understanding throughout the certification process, an application information

package will be provided during the pre-application meeting. The application information package
includes the following:
(1)
(2)
(2)
(4)
(g)
Issue: Original
The certification job aid that will be used by CAA inspector(s) during the certification
process.
A schedule of events that must be completed and submitted with the formal application.
An example set of Training Specifications (Trg Specs).
Other publications or documents the PM believes will be useful to the operator.
POPS. 3.2.1.5 (a) of this Part specifies that an application for an ATO shall be made in a form and
manner acceptable to the Authority; and, containing any information the Authority requires the
applicant to submit. It is important to understand the minimum documentation necessary to be
considered acceptable for a formal application. Formal application must be made by a letter
requesting certification as an ATO. The Accountable manager must sign the letter and should
include a statement that the letter serves as formal application for an ATO Certificate. It should also
contain a copy of the POPS (amended if required).
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(h)
ATO Certification Job Aid and Schedule of Events. The schedule of events is a key document
that lists items, activities, programs, and aircraft and/or facility acquisitions that must be
accomplished or made ready for the CAABs inspection before certification. It should include dates
when the crewmembers will start ATOs indoctrination procedures. In addition, the schedule of
events should include dates when maintenance personnel and maintenance facilities will be ready
for the CAABs inspection; when each of the required manuals will be available for evaluation; when
aircraft will be ready for inspection; when terminal facilities will be ready for inspection; when flight
trainings are planned to be performed, and the date of the proposed assessment of the key position
holders approval should take place. These estimated dates must be logical in terms of sequence.
Reasonable times for the CAAB to review, inspect, and approve each item or event should also be
provided when approval is required before beginning a subsequent event or item. Failure to
accomplish an item or event in a satisfactory manner or in accordance with the schedule of events
could delay the certification. If at any time during the certification process the operator finds it
necessary to revise the schedule of events, the PM should be notified as soon as practical.
(i)
ATO Manuals. These manuals, which may be issued in separate parts for specific users, contain
information about the ATOs general policies, duties and responsibilities of personnel, operational
control policy, training curricula and procedures. These are commonly referred to as the Training
and Procedure Manual, the Maintenance Control Manual and the SMS Manual. ANOs require
these manuals to include instructions and information necessary to permit flight, ground, and
personnel to perform their duties and responsibilities with a high degree of safety and standard.
ANO of this Part including the Guidance Materials prescribes the content of these manuals. The
entire manual system, as required by this Part shall be completely developed at the time of
formal application.
(j)
Management Structure and Qualification:

(1)
(k)
Issue: Original
ANO of this Part establishes basic management positions and the GM establishes
minimum qualifications for ATOs proposing to conduct ground and flight training
operations. It may be possible to obtain a deviation from these required basic
management positions and qualifications, depending on the complexity and size of the
ATO as provided in the relevant Attachment of this Part. Individuals assigned to the
required management positions are expected to have a thorough knowledge of the ATOs
manuals, operating provisions, the ANOs and the planned operations relevant to the
position. The resumes shall contain the qualifications, licenses (including license
numbers), ratings, and aviation experience for each of the following positions, or their
equivalent:
(i)
Accountable Manager;
(ii)
Head of Training;
(ii)
Chief Flying Instructor;
(iv)
Chief Ground Instructor;
(v)
Maintenance Manager.
(vi)
Quality Manager;
(vii)
Safety Manager.
Documents of Purchase, Leases, Contracts, and/or Letters of Intent. These attachments

should provide evidence that the operator is in the process of actively procuring aircraft, facilities,
and services appropriate to the type of trainings proposed. If formal contracts are not completed,
letters or other documents showing preliminary agreements or intent will suffice until such date as
determined by the Authority. Examples of the types of equipment, facilities, and services that
should be addressed in these documents are as follows:
(1)
Aircraft;
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(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
(9)
(l)
9.5
9.6
Station facilities and services;

Weather gathering facilities and services;
Communications facilities and services;
Maintenance facilities and services;
Maintenance contractual arrangements;
Aeronautical charts and related publications;
Aerodrome analysis and obstruction data;
Contract training and training facilities.
Initial Statement of Compliance Attachment. This attachment should be a complete listing all
ANOs applicable to the proposed operation. Pertinent subparts and each relevant section of the
regulation should be identified and accompanied by a brief description, or preferably a specific
reference, to manuals or other documents. The brief descriptions or reference must describe the
method of compliance for each regulation listed. If the precise method of compliance has not
been developed at the time of formal application, an indication of the date that this information
will be provided will suffice, if the date provided is reasonable, and acceptable to the Authority.
FORMAL APPLICATION PHASE.

(a)
It is recommended that the formal application be submitted at least 180 days before training
operations are expected to begin, although the application should be submitted to the CAA
Authority as far in advance of the proposed start-up date as possible.
(b)
The CAA will review the application to determine that it contains the required information and
required attachments. If there are omissions or errors, the formal application and all attachments
will be returned with a letter outlining the reasons for its return. If the operator has a good
understanding of the requirements, the formal application should be of sufficient quality to allow
any omission, deficiency, or open question to be resolved during the formal application meeting.
(c)
The prospective ATOs key management personnel should attend the formal application meeting.
The purpose of the meeting is to discuss the formal application and resolve omissions,
deficiencies, or answer questions from either party. For example, this meeting may be used to
resolve questions concerning the applicants package or scheduling date conflicts, or to ensure
the applicant understands the certification process. This meeting should also be used to reinforce
open communication and working relationships.
(d)
If the formal application meeting is successful, the operator is provided with a letter
acknowledging receipt and acceptance of the package. The CAAs acceptance of a formal
application does not constitute approval or acceptance of individual attachments. These
documents will be evaluated thoroughly during subsequent phases of the certification process. If,
the formal application is not accepted, it will be returned with a written explanation of the reasons
for its return.
DOCUMENT EVALUATION PHASE.

(a)
Issue: Original
After the formal application has been accepted, inspector(s) will begin a thorough evaluation of all
the manuals and documents that are required by regulation to be submitted to the CAAB. The
CAAB will endeavour to complete these evaluations in accordance with the operators schedule
of events. If a manual or document is incomplete or deficient, or if non-compliance with the
regulations or safe operating practices is detected, the manual or document will be returned for
November, 2016
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corrective action. If the manuals and documents are satisfactory, they will be approved or
accepted, as required by ANOs. Approvals may be indicated by letter as appropriate, or by
approval of Training Specifications (Trg Specs). Acceptance of information that does not require
formal approval will be indicated by letter of the lack of CAABs objection to the information.
(b)
(c)
9.7
The complexity of the information which must be addressed in the operators manuals and other
documents depends on the complexity of the planned training. The following list provides examples
of information that must be provided by the operator and evaluated by the CAA during this phase:
(1)
Management personnel resume, outlining proposed management qualifications and civil
aviation compliance histories.
(2)
Training and Procedure Manual (may be in one or more parts).
(3)
Maintenance Control Manual (may be in one or more parts), including the Approved
Maintenance Organisations (AMO) and Maintenance Procedures Manual (MPM).
(4)
Mass and balance procedures/program.
(5)
Approved Aircraft Flight Manual or Pilot Operating Handbook.
(6)
Minimum Equipment List (MEL) (if applicable)
(7)
Configuration Deviation List (CDL) (if applicable)
(8)
Cockpit checklist.
(9)
Noise and emission plan (if applicable).
(10)
Dispatch/flight following/flight locating procedures.
(11)
Fully completed Statement of Compliance.
The fully completed Statement of Compliance is the final evolution of the Initial Statement of
Compliance that was submitted with the formal application. The fully completed Statement of
Compliance ensures each applicable regulatory requirement has been adequately addressed in the
appropriate manuals, programs, and/or procedures.
DEMONSTRATION AND INSPECTION PHASE.

(a)
ANOs require an ATO to demonstrate its ability to comply with regulations and safe operating
practices before beginning actual training operations. These demonstrations include actual
performance of activities and/or operations while being observed by CAA inspector(s). This includes
on-site evaluations of aircraft maintenance equipment and support facilities. During these
demonstrations and inspections, the CAA evaluates the effectiveness of the policies, procedures,
methods and instructions as described in the ATOs manuals and other documents. Emphasis is
placed on the ATOs management effectiveness during this phase. Deficiencies will be brought to
the attention of the operator and corrective action must be taken before a certificate is issued.
(b)
The following list provides examples of the types of items, equipment, facilities, and activities
evaluated during the demonstration and inspection phase.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
Issue: Original
Conduct of training programs (classroom, simulators, aircraft, and flight and ground
personnel training).
Crewmember and Flight Operations Officer testing and certification.
Station facilities (equipment, procedures, personnel, fuelling/De-fuelling, de-icing, technical
data).
Recordkeeping procedures (documentation of training, flight and duty times, flight papers).
Flight control (Flight Supervision and Monitoring system or Flight Following system)
Maintenance and inspection programs (procedures, record keeping).
Aircraft (conformity inspection, aircraft maintenance records, etc.).
November, 2016
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(8)
(9)
(10)
MELs and CDLs (compliance with operating and maintenance procedures, etc., if
applicable).
Mass and balance program (procedures, accuracy, and document control).
Demonstration Flights. Includes full-scale simulation of training operations to demonstrate
the ability to operate independently, safely, and in compliance with all applicable ANOs.
Note: An applicant for an approved training organization (ATO) certificate may concurrently seek
CAA approval of its maintenance organisation (AMO). The applicant needs to co-ordinate the
progress of both certification projects. Both certification projects must be in the Demonstration
and Inspection Phase at the same time. The applicant therefore will also be expected to
demonstrate use of its Approved Maintenance Organisation to ensure that procedures in the
Maintenance Control Manual (MCM) and Maintenance Procedures Manual (MPM) are in
agreement.
9.8
CERTIFICATION PHASE.
(a)
After the document compliance and the demonstration and inspection phases have been
completed satisfactorily, the CAA will prepare an Air Operator Certificate and approve the
Training Specifications. The Trg Specs contain authorisations, limitations, and provisions specific
to an ATOs operation. The ATO must acknowledge receipt of these documents.
(b)
The certificate holder is responsible for continued compliance with ANOs and the authorisations,
limitations, and provisions of its certificate and Trg Specs. As a certificate holders operation
changes, the Trg Specs will be amended accordingly. The process for amending Trg Specs is
similar to the certification process. In some cases it may be a less complex procedure depending
on the subject of the amendment. The CAA is responsible for conducting periodic inspections of
the certificate holders operation to ensure continued compliance with the ANOs and safe
operating practices.
Issue: Original
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9.9 ATO CERTIFICATION JOB AIDS AND SCHEDULE OF EVENTS

GENERAL
01. Official Name of Proposed ATO:
02. Pre-Certification No.
PC No.
03. Certification Team:

(a) __________________
Ops
(b) __________________
Air
04. Addresses:
(a) Principle Place of Business
(b) Operations Base
(c) Satellite Base
(c) __________________Team Leader

1. PRE-APPLICATION PHASE
Submission
Date
Completion
Date
Assess
ment
Re
Assess
ment
Initials
Ops
Air
Remarks
(1) Initial Application from the

Prospective ATO
(2) Initial Meeting with the Prospective
Applicant
(3) Prospective Operator obtains ANOs
and relevant Documents
(4) Applicant is provided with the POPS
form
(5) Applicant submits POPS. CAAB
reviews POPS for its
completeness and acceptance
(6) Pre-Application meeting with the
Applicant
2. FORMAL APPLICATION PHASE
(1) Applicant submits Formal
Application with required
Attachments
(2) CAAB Team Performs Cursory
Review of Formal Submissions:
(a) Full and Official name (Legal);
(b) Mailing Address;
Issue: Original
November, 2016
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(c) Principle Place of Business;

(d) Maintenance Base;
(3) Key Management Personnel and
Qualifications:
(a) Accountable Manager;
(b) Head of Training;
(c) Chief Flight Instructor;
(d) Chief Ground Instructor;
(e) Maintenance Manager;
(f) Quality Manager
(4) Formal Application Attachments:
(a) Schedule of events;
(b) Initial compliance statement.
(5) Company Manuals:
(a) Training Manual;
(b) Procedure Manual;
(c) Safety Management Manual;
(d) Maintenance Control Manual;
(e) Aircraft Maintenance Program;
(6) Documents of purchase/
contract(s)/lease(s)/letters of intent
(7) Formal Application Meeting:
(a) Discuss each Submission;
(b) Resolve Discrepancies;
(c) Review Impact if Schedule of
Events are not met;
(d) Review Certification Process
(8) Issue Letter Accepting/Rejecting
Application
3. DOCUMENT EVALUATION
PHASE
(1) ATO Manuals:
Issue: Original
November, 2016
Page 242 of 295
(a) Training Part of TPM:

(b) Procedure Part of TPM:
(c) Safety Management Manual;
(d) Maintenance Control Manual;
(e) Aircraft Maintenance Program;
(f) Quality Control Manual.
(2) Evaluate Training Programs:
(a) PPL:
(i) Gnd Trg Curriculum;
(ii) Flt Trg Curriculum;
(iii) Validation Trg Curriculum;
(iv) Conversion Trg Curriculum;
(v) Renewal Trg Curriculum;
(vi) Re-issue Trg Curriculum;
(b) CPL:
(vi) Re-issue Trg Curriculum.
(c) IR:
(d) F IR:
(e) Flt Ops Officer Training
Issue: Original
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(3) Evaluate Key Position Holders

Qualifications:
(a) Accountable Manager;
(b) Quality Manager (QA & QS);
(c) Head of Training;
(d) Chief Flight Instructor (CFI);
(e) Chief Ground Instructor (CGI);
(f) Engineering Manager;
(g) Safety Manager (SMS).
(4) Aircraft Operating Information
Manual:
(a) POH;
(b) Normal Checklist:
(c) Abnormal/Emergency Checklist:
(d) SOP
(5) Other Manuals/Documents:
(a) Refuelling Procedure Manual
(b) Load & Balance Manual
(c) Emergency Response Plan
4. DEMONSTRATION & INSPECTION
PHASE
(1) Gnd Trg Facilities:
(a) Location
(b) Class Rooms
(c) Library
(d) Instructors Preparation Room
(e) Students Resting Area
(f) Trg Aids
(g) Office Aids
(h) Admin Accommodations
(i) Toilets (Gents & Ladies)
(2) Flt Trg Facilities (Ops Base):
(a) Location
(b) Class Rooms
(c) Library
(d) Briefing Room(s)
Issue: Original
November, 2016
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(e) Ops Room

(f) Students Resting Area
(g) Trg Aids
(h) Office Aids
(i) Toilets (Gents & Ladies)
3) Maintenance Facility:
(a) Aircraft Housing Facility
(b) Spare Storing Facility
(c) Battery Shop
(d) Tyre Shop
(e) Instrument Shop
(f) Library
(g) Office Accommodation
(h) Office Aids
(i) Toilet(s)
5. CERTIFICATION PHASE
(1) Finalize Approval of ATO
(2) Present ATO Certificate
(3) Present Training Specifications
Remarks:
Team Leader
Signature and Seal
Issue: Original
November, 2016
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Issue: Original
November, 2016
Page 246 of 295
ATTACHMENT 10
SPECIMEN FORMS
Issue: Original
November, 2016
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Issue: Original
November, 2016
Page 248 of 295

CAAB FORM NO. 10-1
Approved Training Organisation (ATO)

Certificate of Approval (COA)
No. 01
This certificate is issued to: BANGLADESH FLYING ACADEMY & GENERAL AVIATION LTD.
Whose principle place of business is located at: Hazrat ShahJalal International Airport, Kurmitola, Dkaka-1229,
Bangladesh.
Upon finding that the organisation complies in all respects with the regulations of Bangladesh Civil Aviation
Authority relating to the establishment and continuation of an approved training organisation is empowered to
operate as an approved training organisation in accordance with the training specifications issued herewith, and
may conduct the following courses:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Private Pilot License Course;

Commercial Pilot License Course;
Instrument Rating Course;
Flight Instructor Rating Course.
This certificate, unless cancelled, suspended or revoked, shall continue in effect until 31 October 2017.
Date of Issue: 25 November 2016
Date of Initial Issue: 01 January 2010
Issue: Original
Air Vice Marshal Ehsanul Gani Choudhury GUP, ndu, psc

Chairman
November, 2016
Page 249 of 295
Issue: Original
November, 2016
Page 250 of 295

CAAB FORM NO. 10-2
A.
TRAINING SPECIFICATIONS
GENERAL
These Training Specifications issued to Bangladesh Aviation Academy Ltd., whose detail information are given
below:
B.
(01)
Name of Approved Training Organization:
Bangladesh Aviation Academy Ltd;
(02)
Approval No:
CERTIFICATE OF APPROVAL (COA) # 0X;
(03)
Principal Place of Business located at:
Hazrat Shahjalal International Airport, Kurmitola,

Dhaka-1229, Bangladesh
(04)
Operational Base:
(05)
Satellite Base:
(i)
(ii)
Nil
(06)
Operational point of contact:
Accountable Manager
Tel +88 02 8901199
Email- academy 2009@gmail.com
(07)
Aircraft Details
(Make, Model, MSN, Yr of Manufacture,
Registration and Hours):
(i)
(ii)
Same as above; and

Shah Mokhdum Airport, Rajshahi
Cessna-152, 566, 1982, S2-ABC, 5000

Cessna-152, 596, 1983, S2-ACB, 4000
COMLIANCE WITH RULES AND REGULATIONS

The ATO shall observe with all the Rules and Regulations applicable for ATOs. In addition, it shall comply with
the following terms and conditions:
(01)
The Approved training Organization shall use the name which appears on the certificate to conduct
the operation of the ATO;
(02)
The ATO shall conduct operations in accordance with the specific authorizations, limitations,
procedures and appropriate rules and regulations;
(03)
Grant of the COA or any modification of its Training Specification shall not be construed in any way
absolving any person from the obligation of complying with the Civil Aviation Rule or with the rules
and regulations made there under or with any other statutory provisions governing operations of an
ATO;
(04)
The officials of the Civil Aviation Authority, authorized by the Chairman, shall have the right of
access, in normal course of discharge of their duties, to the ATOs aircraft, classes, maintenance
facilities, workshops, stores and offices, aircraft records and other relevant documents as applicable;
(05)
The Flight Training School shall not, as a right, be entitled to the extension/renewal of the period of
this Certificate granted if, for any reason, the ATO wholly or partially ceases to operate their services
during the period of validity of its certificate or Chairman thinks that the continuation of operation of
training flights is not possible remaining within the framework of the policy made by the CAAB for the
class of operation or non-compliance of Civil Aviation Rules and related Air Navigation Orders issued
Issue: Original
November, 2016
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there under; and any of the conditions of this COA;
C.
D.
(06)
Nothing in these Training Specifications shall be construed as conferring upon the holder of this
COA, on its expiry any right to the issue of a new COA for the operation of services or to the
continuance of any other benefits arising from the provisions of this COA or any privileges
granted there under;
(07)
Subject to the provisions of Rule 297 of Civil Aviation Rules, 1984, Chairman may revoke or
suspend for such period as he thinks fit, this COA, if he is satisfied that any of the conditions of
the COA has not been complied with or that the failure to comply is due to any willful act or
omission on the part of the holder of this COA, or has been so frequent, or is due to such
negligence on his part that the COA should in the public interest be revoked, or as the case may
be, suspended.
(08)
These training specifications are effective for the period shown in the certificate and shall remain
in effect as long as the ATO continues to meet the requirements specified certification unless
sooner suspended, revoked, amended or surrendered;
MAN-POWER
(01)
ATO shall ensure that it has at all times appropriate man-power required for safe and efficient
operations of its flight training;
(02)
ATO shall ensure that key position holders are appropriately qualified and approved by CAAB;
(03)
ATO shall ensure that all its aircraft, instructors, students and examiners/inspectors are properly
and adequately insured;
OPERATIONS AND TRAINING-GENERAL

The ATO shall conduct the operations of the Training Organization according to the training specifications
given below:
E.
(01)
The ATO is authorized to conduct training, testing and checking in the aircraft owned or leased
(Provided accepted by the Authority);
(02)
The ATO is authorized to conduct pilot training , testing and checking as per the procedure let
down in the approved Training and Procedure Manual for the issue of pilot licences by CAAB;
(03)
The Approved training Organization is authorized to conduct flight training activities from the
approved operations and satellite bases only, or from any other base duly approved by the authority;
GROUND TRAINING
(01)
Ground Training shall be conducted as per the guidance provided by ANO- PART 3 and other CAAB
regulations and shall follow approved syllabus given in the TPM;
(02)
ATO shall ensure that the minimum hours prescribed for each course is completed and the
candidates qualify in the in-house examination before forwarding names for CAAB examination;
Issue: Original
November, 2016
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(03)
F.
H.
Ground Training shall be conducted only by CAAB approved instructors;
FLIGHT TRAINING
(01)
Flight Training shall be conducted by appropriately qualified, experienced and approved instructors;
(02)
All flight trainings shall be approved appropriately and conducted according to the approved
syllabus let down in the TPM;
(03)
ATO must ensure that all solo flights are duly authorized by the CFI and conducted under
approved meteorological condition;
(04)
Solo flights and solo x-country flights including PIC flights are conducted as per the let-down
procedures of TPM;
(05)
G.
ATO must ensure that flight instructors are subjected to regular refresher courses and periodical
evaluation flights.
QUALITY ASSURANCE
(01)
ATO shall adopt and adhere to the requirement of appropriate Quality Assurance and Safety
Management System;
(02)
ATO shall ensure that all aircraft are maintained in air-worthy status according to the Aircraft
Maintenance Schedule (AMO) / Aircraft Maintenance Program (AMP) approved by CAAB;
(03)
The ATO shall submit the following monthly report in the prescribed form to the CAAB within 10th
day of the following month:
(i)
Statistics of students training activities;
(ii)
Engineering & maintenance report; and
(iii)
Details of Instructors (Ground & Flight) activities.
FINANCE
(01)
The financial accounts of the Company (Operator) shall be properly maintained and duly audited
each year by Chartered Accountant and a copy in duplicate of the Annual Accounts and Auditors
Report shall be submitted to the CAAB by 31 December.
(02)
The ATO shall be liable for payment of all charges/expenses to the affected organization(s) /
person(s) for all attributable damages due to accident / incident.
(03)
The ATO shall pay all aeronautical and non-aeronautical charges (where applicable) according to
the rates prescribed by the Chairman within specified time.
(04)
All expenses incurred by CAAB inspectors / officials for the purpose of inspections /examinations
shall be borne by the ATO;
(05)
The ATO shall be liable for any expenses incurred by the Authority or Government in connection
with Air / Sea Search & Rescue operations resulting from improper or negligent operation of the
Issue: Original
November, 2016
Page 253 of 295
aircraft;
I.
ENFORCEMENT
(1)
The Certificate that expires shall forthwith be deposited by the holder to the Chairman
(2)
ATO shall be liable to be cancelled or operation suspended or subjected to financial enforcement

for any of the following reasons:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
Failure to comply with operational & airworthiness requirements;

Absence of required number of airworthy aircraft registered in Bangladesh in the name of
the Approved Training Organization;
Disregard of safety and operating procedures by the ATO;
Non-compliance of Civil Aviation Rules and related Air Navigation Orders;
Failure to make payments of the charges raised by CAAB within the period specified;
Running into heavy debt or being unable to meet the day-to-day liabilities by the ATO.
Wg Cdr Chowdhury Md ZIA Ul Kabir

Director, Flight Safety & Regulations
CAAB, HQ, Kurmitola,
Dhaka-1229,Bangladesh
Tel: 880 2 890 14 06
Fax: 880 2 890 14 18
Email: dfsrcaab@bracnet.net
-------------------------------------------
Issue: Original
November, 2016
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(Sample of Initial Application for obtaining ATO Certificate):
CAAB FORM NO. 10- 3

PROSPECTIVE OPERATORS PRE-ASSESSMENT STATEMENT (POPS)
(INITIAL APPLICATION FOR OBTAINING ATO CERTIFICATE)
(Extra sheets may be used)
1.
Name of the Applicant
2.
Address of the Applicant
3.
Principle Place of Business
4.
Operations Base
5.
Satellite Base
6.
Company Detail:
7.
8.
6.1
Name & Address

(Attach Certified Copy of
Article of Association)
6.2
Share Holders
(Names, Addresses & % of
Shares of the Directors)
Financial Data:
7.1
Paid-up Capital
7.2
Authorized Capital
(Supported by Certificate from
Bank Or Chartered Accountant)
Organizational Structure (Name,

Qualification, Experience):
8.1
Accountable Manager
8.2
Head of Training
8.3
Chief Flying Instructor
8.4
Chief Ground Instructor
Issue: Original
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9.
10.
8.5
Engineering Manager
8.6
Quality Manager
Particulars of Aircraft:
9.1
Total Number of Proposed Aircraft :
9.2
Type of Aircraft
9.3
Model of Aircraft
9.5
MSN
9.6
All Up Weight
9.7
Year of Manufacture
9.8
Engine Hours/Hours Left
9.9
Aircraft Hours
9.10
Present Registration
Maintenance Arrangement:
10.1
Aircraft
10.2
Aircraft Equipment
11.
Aircraft Housing Arrangement
12.
Ground Class Facilities
13.
List of Flight & Ground Instructors
14.
Particulars of Non-Refundable Deposit
(Tk 50,000.00)
15.
Proposed Date of Operations
DECLARATION
I, hereby declare that the proposed operation, if permitted, will be conducted in accordance with ICAO
standards, Civil Aviation Rules, 1984, Air Navigation Orders and any other directive issued by the Civil Aviation
Authority, Bangladesh from time to time.
SIGNATURE, NAME & DESIGNATION OF APPLICANT
Note:
(1) CAAB reserves the right to reject or cancel any application without assigning any reason.
Issue: Original
November, 2016
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CAAB FORM NO. 10-4
(SAMPLE OF FORMAL APPLICATION LETTER)

(Name and Address of Applicant)
[Date]
Civil Aviation Authority
Attn: (Name), Manager
(Appropriate Address)
Dear (Name):
This letter serves as formal application for a Civil Aviation Authority (CAA) air operator certificate. (Name of Applicant),
initially intends to certificate and operate as a [scheduled or non-scheduled passenger, freight, or mixed passenger and
freight] commercial air transport operation under Parts 8 and 9 of the Model Civil Aviation Regulations (MCARs). We
intend to use (Number and Type) aeroplane(s) between (location) and (location). We have enclosed a copy of [(our
report of) or (our filing with) (identify the STATE agency)] for a Financial Economic and Legal Matters assessment.
Our company will have its principal base of operations and corporate offices located at (appropriate address). Our
maintenance base (if company intends to conduct maintenance under its AOC) will be located at (appropriate address)
(if the company intends to apply under separate cover for an approved maintenance organisation, so state here). A
copy of our contract with (name of maintenance organisation) is enclosed. Our management personnel are as follows:
(i)
Accountable Manager Mr. Ibrahim Pasha;
(ii)
Head of Training Capt Javed Omar;
(iii)
Chief Flying Instructor Capt Ashfaq Manzoor;
(iv)
Chief Ground Instructor Capt Munira Chowdhury;
(v)
Maintenance Manager Engr Fazle Elahi;
(vi)
Quality Manager - Engr Asghar Ali.
(vii)
Safety Manager Capt Aninda
Also enclosed is the revised Schedule-of-Events and Initial Statement of Compliance which was agreed to at our-last
meeting with your representatives.
Sincerely,
Ibrahim Pasha
Accountable Manager
Enclosures:
Issue: Original
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Issue: Original
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CAAB FORM NO. 10-5
APPLICATION FORM FOR ISSUANCE OF STUDENT PILOT LICENCE (SPL)

(ALL)
PART-A (Applicants Part)
01. Name of Applicant
______________________________________02. Date of Application_________________
03. Fathers Name
_______________________________04. Mothers Name___________________________
05. Date of Birth
__________________06. National ID No/Passport No.______________________________
07. Present Address
__________________________________________________________________________
08. Permanent Address
__________________________________________________________________________
09. Contact No
________________________10. E-mail _________________________________________
11. Academic Qualifications ________________________12. Major Subjects/Grades _____________________________

___________________________________________________________________________
13. Medical Class/Validity ________________________14.MedicalLimitations__________________________________
15. Name of Operator
________________________________16. Certificate No of Operator.___________________
Note: Student Pilot must pass type technical Exam before first solo flight.
APPLICANTS SIGNATURE
PART-B (For use by Operator)
The statement given in Part-A has been verified and found correct. Photocopies of necessary documents are enclosed.
PREPARED BY
CHECKED BY
AUTHORISED SIGNATURE & SEAL
PART-C (Official use by CAAB)

INITIATED BY
Issue: Original
CHECKED BY
November, 2016
APPROVED BY
Page 259 of 295
Issue: Original
November, 2016
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CAAB FORM NO. 10-6
APPLICATION FORM FOR RENEWAL OF SPL

(ALL)
PART-A (Applicants part)
01. Name of Aircrew ____________________________________________02. Date of Application__________________
03. Licence No
_____________04. Licence Validity ________________05. Category of Aircraft_________________
06. Class, Make, Model & Series of Aircraft_______________________________________________________________

07. Medical Class/Validity_____________________08. Medical Limitations_____________________________________
09. Flying Experience: (i) Total _____________Hours; (ii) Solo ____________Hours; (iii) Simulator _____________Hours
10. Status of Knowledge Subjects______________________________________________________________________
PART-B (For use by Operator)
The statement given in Part-A have been verified and found correct. Photocopies of flying logbook and other necessary
documents are enclosed.
PREPARED BY
CHECKED BY
CHECKED BY
APPROVED BY
INITIATED BY
Issue: Original
November, 2016
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Issue: Original
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CAAB FORM NO. 10-7
APPLICATION FORM FOR ISSUANCE OF PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE (PPL)

(AEROPLANE & HELICOPTER)

_________________________________________02. Date of Application_________________
03. Fathers Name
___________________________________04. Mothers Name__________________________
05. Date of Birth
_______________________06. National ID No/Passport No.___________________________
07. Present Address
____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
09. Contact No
__________________________10. E-mail __________________________________________
11. Academic Qualifications________________________12.MajorSubjects/Grades _______________________________

_____________________________________________________________________________
13. Medical Class/Validity __________________________14. Medical Limitations_________________________________
_________________________________ 16. Certificate No of Operator____________________
17. Knowledge Result of PPL Subjects:

Subjects
Exam Date
% of
Marks
Subjects
01. Air law
06. Navigation
02. Aircraft General Knowledge
07. Operational Procedures
03. Flight Performance & Planning
08. Principle of Flight
04.Human Performance &

Limitations
09. Radio Telephony
05. Meteorology
10. Aircraft Type Technical
Exam Date
% of
Marks
Note: Validity of knowledge subjects expire after 24 months from the Exam date of the each subject.
Issue: Original
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18. Flying Experience:

Area of Operations
Day
Dual
Night
Solo
Dual
Instrument
Solo
Flt Time
Gnd Time
Remarks
General
Cross Country
Total hours
Grand Total
PART-B (Certificate of Knowledge, Flight Instruction and Skill by Operator)

The statement given in Part-A have been verified and found correct. The applicant has undergone the Exercise / Medical
stated in rule 23(1) & 23(1)(d) of CAR84 and attained the required skills. Photocopies of the flying logbook & result(s) of
the flight test(s) and other necessary documents are enclosed.
PREPARED BY
CHECKED BY
CHECKED BY
APPROVED BY
INITIATED BY
Issue: Original
November, 2016
Page 264 of 295
CAAB FORM NO. 10-8
APPLICATION FORM FOR RENEWAL/REVIVAL OF PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE (PPL)

______________________________________02. Date of Application___________________
03. Date of Birth
___________________04. National ID No/Passport No._______________________________
05. Contact No
_______________________ 06. E-mail ___________________________________________
07. Medical Class/Validity _______________________08. Medical Limitations___________________________________

09. License No
____________________________10. License Validity_________________________________

Flying
Preceding 12 months
Preceding 6 months
Preceding 90 Days
Total
Day
Night
Total
12. Name of Operator______________________________________13. Certificate No of Operator____________________
PART-B (Certificate from the Operator)
The statement given in Part-A have been verified and found correct. Photocopies of the flying logbook and other necessary
PREPARED BY
CHECKED BY
INITIATED BY
Issue: Original
CHECKED BY
November, 2016
APPROVED BY
Page 265 of 295
Issue: Original
November, 2016
Page 266 of 295

CAAB FORM NO. 10-9
APPLICATION FORM FOR ISSUANCE OF COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE (CPL)

_____________________________________02. Date of Application___________________
03. Fathers Name
_______________________________04. Mothers Name____________________________
05. Date of Birth
_______________________06. National ID No/Passport No.__________________________
07. Present Address
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
09. Contact No
________________________10. E-mail __________________________________________
11. Academic Qualifications ________________________12.MajorSubjects/Grades ______________________________

___________________________________________________________________________
13. Medical Class/Validity ______________________14. Medical Limitations___________________________________
15. Name of Operator_________________________________16. Certificate No of Operator._______________________
17. Knowledge Result of CPL Subjects:
Subjects
Exam
Date
% of
Marks
Subjects
Exam
Date
01. Air law
06. Navigation
07. Operational Procedures
08. Principle of Flight
04.Human Performance &

Limitations
09. Radio Telephony
05. Meteorology
10. Aircraft Type Technical
% of
Marks
Note: Validity of knowledge subjects expires after 24 months from the Exam date of each subject.
18. Evidence of: (a) Type Technical Refresher: Yes
/ No
; (b) PPC/Flight Test: Yes
/ No
; (c) CRM: Yes
/ No ;
Note: on applicable boxes.
Issue: Original
November, 2016
Page 267 of 295

Day
Area of Operations
Dual
Solo/PIC
Night
Dual
Solo/PIC
Instrument
Flt Time
Gnd Time
Remarks
General
Cross Country
Total hours
Grand Total
The statement given in Part-A have been verified and found correct. The applicant has undergone the Exercise /
Medical stated in rule 23(1) & 23(1)(d) of CAR84 and attained the required skills. Photocopies of the flying logbook &
result(s) of the flight test(s) and other necessary documents are enclosed.
PREPARED BY
CHECKED BY
CHECKED BY
APPROVED BY
INITIATED BY
Issue: Original
November, 2016
Page 268 of 295

CAAB FORM NO. 10-10
APPLICATION FORM FOR RENEWAL/REVIVAL OF COMMERCIAL PILOT (CPL)

______________________________________02. Date of Application____________________
03. Date of Birth
05. Contact No
_______________________ 06. E-mail ____________________________________________
07. Medical Status/Validity ______________________________08. Medical Limitations____________________________

09. Licence No
____________________________10. Licence Validity_________________________________
_____________________________________12. Certificate No. of Operator_______________

Flying Type
Preceding 12 months
Preceding 6 months
Preceding 90 Days
Total
Day
Night
Total
14. Evidence of Recent Flying Experience: Yes
/No
15. Evidence of: (a) Type Technical Refresher: Yes

(d) SEEP: Yes
/No
; (b) PPC/Flight Test: Yes
/No
; (c) CRM: Yes
/No ;
/ No ;
Note: on applicable boxes.

PREPARED BY
CHECKED BY
INITIATED BY
Issue: Original
CHECKED BY
November, 2016
APPROVED BY
Page 269 of 295
Issue: Original
November, 2016
Page 270 of 295

CAAB FORM NO.10-11
APPLICATION FORM FOR ISSUANCE OF INSTRUMENT RATING (IR)

03. Fathers Name
_______________________________04. Mothers Name____________________________
05. Date of Birth
07. Present Address
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
09. Contact No
________________________10. E-mail __________________________________________
11. License No
___________________________12. License Validity________________________________
13. Medical Class/Validity _________________________14. Medical Limitations________________________________

_____________________________________16.Certificate No. of Operator_______________
17. Knowledge Result of IR Subjects:

Subjects
Exam
Date
01. Air law
% of
Marks
Subjects
Exam
Date
05. Meteorology
06. Navigation
07. Operational Procedure
04.Human Performance & Limitations
08. Radio Telephony
% of
Marks
Note: Validity of knowledge subjects expire after 24 months from the Exam date of each subject.
Day
Area of Operations
Dual
Solo/PIC
Night
Dual
Instrument
Solo/PIC Flt Time
Gnd Time
Remarks
General
Cross Country
Total hours
Grand Total
Issue: Original
November, 2016
Page 271 of 295

The statement given in Part-A have been verified and found correct. The applicant has undergone the Exercise /
Medical stated in rule 23(1) & 23(1)(d) of CAR84 and attained the required skills. Photocopies of the flying logbook &
result(s) of the flight test(s) and other necessary documents are enclosed.
PREPARED BY
CHECKED BY
CHECKED BY
APPROVED BY
INITIATED BY
Issue: Original
November, 2016
Page 272 of 295

CAAB FORM NO. 10-12
APPLICATION FORM FOR RENEWAL/RE-ISSUE OF INSTRUMENT RATING (IR)

03. Date of Birth
05. Contact No
_______________________ 06. E-mail ____________________________________________

09. Licence No
_______________________________________12. Certificate No of Operator______________
13. Flying Experience

Flying Period
Day
Preceding 90 Days
Night
Instrument
Flight Time
Gnd Time
No of Instrument
Approaches
Preceding 06 Months
Preceding 12 Months
14. Evidence of: (a) PPC
/ Flight Test ; (b) Instrument Refresher: Yes
/ No
Note: mark boxes as applicable.

PREPARED BY
CHECKED BY
INITIATED BY
Issue: Original
CHECKED BY
November, 2016
APPROVED BY
Page 273 of 295
Issue: Original
November, 2016
Page 274 of 295

CAAB FORM NO. 10-13
APPLICATION FORM FOR ISSUANCE OF FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR RATING (FIR)

03. Fathers Name
_______________________________04. Mothers Name____________________________
05. Date of Birth
07. Present Address
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
09. Contact No
________________________10. E-mail __________________________________________
11. Licence No
___________________________12. Licence Validity________________________________
13. Medical Class/Validity _________________________14. Medical Limitations________________________________

15. Name of Operator__________________________________________16.Certificate No_________________________
17. Evidence of Instructional Technique Knowledge Result: Yes
/No
Note: Validity of knowledge subjects expire after 24 months from the Exam date of each subject.
18. Evidence of Successful Presentation(s) of Instructional Technique: Yes
/No

Day
Area of Operations
Dua
Night
Solo/PIC
Dual
Instrument
Solo/PIC
Flt Time
Remarks
Gnd Time
General
Cross Country
Total hours
Grand Total
20. Flight Instructor Training Record:
General
Cross Country
Instrument
Night
Total
Remarks
Issue: Original
November, 2016
Page 275 of 295

The statement given in Part-A has been verified and found correct. The applicant has undergone the Exercise/Medical
stated in rule 34(1) & 34(2) of CAR84. Photocopies of the flying logbook & result(s) of the knowledge and flight test(s) and
other necessary documents are enclosed.
PREPARED BY
CHECKED BY
CHECKED BY
APPROVED BY
PART-C (Official used by CAAB)
INITIATED BY
Issue: Original
November, 2016
Page 276 of 295

CAAB FORM NO. 10-14
APPLICATION FORM FOR RENEWAL/REVIVAL OF FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR RATING (FIR)

03. Date of Birth
05. Contact No
_______________________ 06. E-mail ____________________________________________

09. No
____________________________10. Validity_____________________________________
________________________________12.Certificate No of Operator_____________________
12. Instructional Flying Record:

Flying Period
Day
Night
Instrument
Flight Time
Gnd Time
No of Instrument
Approaches
Preceding 90 Days
Preceding 12 Months
13. Evidence of: (a) PPC/Flight Test: Yes
/ No ; (b) Instructional Technique Refresher: Yes
/ No

PREPARED BY
CHECKED BY
INITIATED BY
Issue: Original
CHECKED BY
November, 2016
APPROVED BY
Page 277 of 295
Issue: Original
November, 2016
Page 278 of 295

CAAB FORM NO. 10-15
PPL AND CPL (AEROPLANE) SKILL TEST ASSESSMENT FORM FOR LICENSING
01. Applicant:
04. ATO:
02. Applicants License No:

05. Place of Test:
08. Examiner:
11. Block Off:
06. Type of A/C:
09. Examiners License No:

12. Block On:
13. Flight Time:
03. Test. Date:

07. Registration:
10. Skill Test: PPL ; CPL
14. Instrument Time:
Instructions:
(a) Applicability: All tasks are applicable for PPL or CPL and Land or Sea Aeroplane checks, except otherwise specifically
suffixed by (PPL) or (CPL) and (ASEL) or (ASES).
(b) Grading: S Satisfactory (Passing Grade); U Unsatisfactory (Failing Grade); SB Satisfactory with Briefing (More
than 2 SBs is a Failing Grade); N/A Not Applicable; N- Not done.
(c) Comment: Examiners must comment on each U Assessment.
(d) Recommendations: Examiners must put his recommendations at the end of the report and put his signature and affix
seal there upon.
(e) Re-testing: (i) Retesting shall be conducted after improvement training has been received from an approved instructor
and certified thereof; (ii) Only failing Areas of the Task(s) will be re-tested, if failed in no more than two Tasks; (ii) Full test
shall be applicable if failed in more than two Tasks.
AREAS & TASKS
01. Pre-Flight Preparation
(a) Certificate & Documents
(b) Weather Information
(c) NOTAM
(d) Performance & Limitations
(e) Cross-Country Flight Planning
(f) Fuel Calculation
(g)Seaplane Characteristics
(h) Aero-Medical Factors
02. Preflight Procedure
(a) Preflight Inspection
(b) Cockpit Management
(c) Engine Starting
(d) Taxiing (ASEL)/Taxiing & Sailing (ASES)
(e) Runway Incursion Avoidance
03. Takeoffs, Landings, and Go-Arounds
(a) Vital Actions before Takeoff
(b) Normal & Crosswind Takeoff & Climb
(c) Normal & Crosswind Approach & Landing
(d) Soft/Short Field Takeoff & Climb (ASEL)
(e) Soft/Short Field Approach & Landing (ASEL)
(f) Glassy Water Takeoff & Climb (ASES)
(g) Glassy Water Approach & Landing (ASES)
(h) Rough Water Takeoff & Climb (ASES)
Issue: Original
GR
AREAS & TASKS

(i) Rough Water Approch and Landing(ASES)
(j) Forward Slip to a Landing
(k) Go-Around/Rejected Ldg
04. Performance Maneuver
(a) Steep Turns
(b) Steep Spiral (CPL)
(c) Chandelles (CPL)
(d) Lazy Eights) (CPL)
05. Ground Reference Maneuver
(a) Rectangular Course (PPL)
(b) S-turns (PPL)
(c) Turns Around a Point (PPL)
(d) Eights on Pylons (CPL)
06. Navigation
(a) Dead Reckoning
(b) Use of Map
(c) Radio Navigation
(d) Gaining/Losing Time
(e) Drift Correction
(f) Course, Height & Airspeed
(g) Position Reporting
(h) Lost Procedure
(i) Landing at different Aerodrome
(j) Log Keeping
November, 2016
Page 279 of 295
GR
AREAS & TASKS

(k) Airmanship
07. Slow Flight and Stalls
(a) Maneuvering During Slow Flight
(b) Power-Off Stalls
(c) Power-On Stalls
(d) Accelerated Stalls (CPL)
08. Emergency Operations
(a) Inadvertent Spin Recovery (Knowledge)
(b) Emergency Approach & Landing (Simulated)
(c) Systems and Equipment Malfunctions
(d) Pilot Incapacitation (Simulated)
(e) Upset Recovery Procedure
09. Basic Instrument Maneuvers
(a) Straight-and-level Flight
(b) Constant Airspeed/Rate Climbs/Descents
(c) Turns to Headings
(d) Recovery from Unusual Flight Attitudes
Comments:
GR
AREAS & TASKS

10. Night Operations
(a) Night Preparation
(b) Use of Internal & External Lights
(c) Normal Takeoff/Landing/Go-around
(d) Medium Turns
11. Communications
(a) Alertness
(b) R/T Phraseology
(c) R/T procedure
12. General
(a) Use of Checklist & SRM/SOP
(b) Situational Awareness
13. Post Flight Procedure
(a) After Landing, Parking, and Securing
(b) Anchoring & Docking (ASES)
(c) Mooring & Beaching (ASES)
14. Additional Tasks
(a)
(b)
GR
Recommendations:
Applicant obtains S all in Tasks
Passed
Applicant obtains U or more than 2 SB
Failed
Denied
When flight is terminated due to unsatisfactory performances of the applicant
When flight is terminated due to reasons other than unsatisfactory performances of applicant
Discontinued
Signature with Date & Seal of Examiner
Issue: Original
November, 2016
Page 280 of 295

CAAB FORM NO. 10-16
INSTRUMENT RATING (AEROPLANE) SKILL TEST ASSESSMENT FORM

01. Applicant:
04. ATO:

05. Place of Test:
08. Examiner:
11. Block Off:
06. Type of A/C:

12. Block On:
13. Flight Time:
03. Test. Date:

07. Registration:
10. Skill Test for: IR
Instructions:
(a) Applicability: All tasks are applicable for PPL and CPL and for Land and Sea Aeroplane IR checks, except otherwise
specifically suffixed by (PPL) or (CPL) and (ASEL) or (ASES).
seal there upon.
AREAS & TASKS
01. Pre-Flight Preparation
(a) Weather Information
(b) NOTAM
(c) Cross-Country Flight Planning
(d) Fuel Calculation
(e) Seaplane Characteristics (ASES)
(f) Aero-Medical Factors
(a) Aircraft Flight & Navigation Instruments
(b) Instrument Cockpit Check
03. ATC Clearance and Procedures
(a) Compliance with ATC Clearances
(b) Compliance with Departure Clearance
(c) Compliance with En Route Clearance
(d) Arrival Procedures
(e) Holding Procedures
04. Flight by Reference of Instruments
(a) Straight & Level Flight
(b) Constant Airspeed/Rate Climb/Descent
(c) Partial Panel Flying
Comments:
Issue: Original
GR
AREAS & TASKS

(c) Medium/Steep Turn
(d) Recovery from Unusual Flight Attitude
04. Navigation Systems
(a) Radial/Track interception
(b) DME Arcs
05. Instrument Approach Procedures
(a) Non-Precision Approach NDB/VOR
(b) Precision Approach
(c) Straight-in-Approach
(d) Continuous Descent Final Approach
(e) Missed Approach
(a) Loss of Communication Procedure
(b) Primary Flight Instrument Failure
(c) Upset Recovery Procedure
07. Postflight Procedures
(a)
(b)
November, 2016
Page 281 of 295
GR
Recommendations:
Passed
Failed
Denied
When flight is terminated due to reasons other than unsatisfactory performances of the applicant
Discontinued
Issue: Original
November, 2016
Page 282 of 295

CAAB FORM NO. 10-17
FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR RATING/EXAMINER (AEROPLANE) SKILL TEST ASSESSMENT FORM

01. Applicant:
04. ATO:

05. Place of Test:
08. Examiner:
11. Block Off:
06. Type of A/C:
03. Test. Date:

07. Registration:
10. Skill Test for: FIR
13. Flight Time:
12. Block On:
Instructions:
(a) Applicability: All tasks are applicable for PPL and CPL and for Land and Sea Aeroplanes FIR check, except otherwise
specifically suffixed by (PPL) or (CPL) and (ASEL) or (ASES).
seal there upon.
AREAS & TASKS
01. knowledge of Fundamentals of Instruction
(a) The Learning Process
(b) Elements of Effective Teaching
(c) Evaluation & Testing
(d) Lesson Planning;
(e) Analysis & Correction of Student Errors
(f) Techniques of Flight Instruction
(g)Threat & Error Management
(h) Hazards of Simulating Failures
02. knowledge of Technical Subject Areas
(a) Aero-medical Factors
(b) Runway Incursion Avoidance (Ground)
(c) Visual Scanning and Collision Avoidance(Air)
(d) Principles of Flight
(e) Airplane Flight Controls
(f) Airplane Weight and Balance
(g) Navigation and Flight Planning
(h) Licensing Rules & Regulations
03. Preflight Preparation
(a) Certificates and Documents
(b) Airworthiness Requirements
(c) Weather Information
(d) NOTAM
(e) Operation & Performance Limitations
(f) Preflight Briefing on a Maneuver
Issue: Original
GR
AREAS & TASKS

(a) Preflight Inspection
(b) Cockpit Management
(c) Engine Starting
(d) Taxiing (ASEL) Taxiing & Sailing(ASES)
05. Takeoff, Landing & Go-Around
(a) Vital Actions before Takeoff
(b) Normal & Crosswind Takeoff & Climb
(c) Normal & Crosswind Approach & Ldg
(d) Soft/Short Field T/O & Climb (ASEL)
(e) Soft/Short Field Appr & Ldg (ASEL)
(f) Glassy Water Takeoff & Climb (ASES)
(g) Glassy Water Appr & Ldg (ASES)
(h) Rough Water T/O & Climb (ASES)
(i) Rough Water Appr & Ldg (ASES)
(j) Forward Slip to a Landing
(k) Power-off 180 Accuracy App & Landing
(l) Go-Around/Rejected Ldg
06. Teaching Fundamentals of Flight
(a) Effect of Control
(b) Effect of Spd, Trim & Flaps
(c) Straight-&-Level Flight
(d) Level Turns
(e) Straight Climbs & Climbing Turns
(f) Straight Descents & Descending Turns
November, 2016
Page 283 of 295
GR
AREAS & TASKS

07. Performance Maneuver
(a) Steep Turns
(b) Steep Spiral
(c) Chandelles
(d) Lazy Eights
08. Ground Reference Maneuver
(a) Rectangular Course
(b) S-turns
(c) Turns Around a Point
(d) Eights on Pylons
09. Slow Flight and Stalls
(a) Maneuvering During Slow Flight
(b) Power-Off Stalls
(c) Power-On Stalls
(d) Accelerated Stalls
(e) Secondary Stalls
(a) Inadvertent Spin Recovery (Knowledge)
(b) Emergency Approach & Landing (Simulated)
(c) Systems and Equipment Malfunctions (Sim)
(d) Pilot Incapacitation (Simulated)
(e) Upset Recovery Procedure
11. Basic Instrument Maneuvers
(a) Straight-and-level Flight
(b) Constant Airspeed/Rate Climbs/Descents
Comments:
GR
AREAS & TASKS

(c) Turns to Headings
(d Time Turns
(e) Partial Panel Flying
(f) Recovery from Unusual Flt Attitudes
12. Night Operations
(a) Night Preparation
(b) Use of Internal & External Lights
(c) Normal Takeoff/Landing/Go-around
(d) Medium Turns
(e) Landing without Landing Lights
13. Communications
(a) Alertness
(b) R/T Phraseology
(c) R/T procedure
14. General
(a) Use of Checklist & SRM/SOP
(b) Situational Awareness
15. Post Flight Procedure
(a) After Landing, Parking, and Securing
(b) Anchoring & Docking (ASES)
(c) Mooring & Beaching (ASES)
GR

(a)
(b)
Recommendations:
Passed
Failed
Denied
When flight is terminated due to other than unsatisfactory performances of the applicant
Discontinued
Issue: Original
November, 2016
Page 284 of 295

CAAB FORM NO. 10-18
APPLICATION FORM FOR ISSUANCE/RENEWAL/RE-ISSUE OF SIMULATOR FLIGHT

INSTRUCTOR/EXAMINER RATING (SFI/SFE)
03. Date of Birth
05. Contact No
_______________________ 06. E-mail ____________________________________________
07. Licence No
_______________________________________10. Certificate No of Operator______________
11. Simulator Instructional Experience

Preceding 90 Days
Type of Instrument
Approaches
No of Instrument
Approaches
Preceding 06 Months
Preceding 12 Months
12. Evidence of: (a) PPC
; (b) Instrument Refresher: Yes
/ No

PREPARED BY
CHECKED BY
INITIATED BY
Issue: Original
CHECKED BY
November, 2016
APPROVED BY
Page 285 of 295
Issue: Original
November, 2016
Page 286 of 295

CAAB FORM NO. 10-19

Instructor Ground Class / Presentation Assessment Form
Name of the Applicant
_______________________________Licence/Authorization No_________________
Purpose of Evaluation
_______________________________ Subject/Topic__________________________
Date of Evaluation
_______________________________ Attempt No ___________________________
Requirements
(a) Each instructor applicant shall demonstrate his ability to conduct class in an actual training environment before being
authorized to act as an instructor;
(b) Maximum three attempts are allowed. Between attempts minimum 30 days must elapse.
(c) Passing Grade: (i) aggregate not less than 70%; (ii) must not be graded 4 or more than single 5 in any item.
(d) Validity: 24 months.
(e) Grading Scale: 10 and 9 Excellent grade; 8 and 7 Above Standard grade; 6 Passing grade; 5 Two 5s are failing
grade; and 4 Single 4 is a failing grade.
Sl
No
Exercises
Scale of 10 to 04
10
01
Introduction to the Subject/Topic
02
Aim and Objective
03
Environment Management
04
Lesson Planning
05
Preparation and Presentation
06
Instructional Technique
07
Delivery Technique
08
Class Management
09
Use of Training Aids
10
Knowledge
09
08
07
06
Remarks of Evaluator
05
04
Marks Obtained _________/________% Out of which Grade 5/________& Grade 4/_________ Passed/Failed ()
Comments:_________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________
Signature, Name, Designation & Seal of the Evaluating Inspector
Issue: Original
November, 2016
Page 287 of 295
Issue: Original
November, 2016
Page 288 of 295

CAAB FORM NO. 10-20
GROUND INSTRUCTOR AUTHORIZATION CERTIFICATE

Authorization No.__________
Ref: ____________________________
Date: __________________
Mr./Ms./Capt.________________________________________ of ___________________________________________
Who Holds________________________________________ is hereby authorized to act as a______________________
___________________________________________Instructor and authorized to conduct the Subject(s)/Course(s)
mentioned herein in accordance with the CAAB ANO Part 3.
Sl.
No.
Subject(s) / Course(s)
Validity
Remarks/Restrictions
01
02
03
04
05
This certificate is issued in accordance with the CAAB ANO Part 3 and will remain valid till____________________
The holder may conduct the above mentioned courses during the validity of approval unless lapsed, revoked,
suspended, cancelled or found unsatisfactory during inspection or surveillance.
Director
Flight Safety & Regulations
CAAB, HQs, Dhaka.
Issue: Original
November, 2016
Page 289 of 295
Issue: Original
November, 2016
Page 290 of 295

CAAB FORM NO. 10-21
QUALIFICATION OF CERTIFICATE
FSTD
Certificate of Qualification
This is to certify that Civil Aviation Authority Bangladesh
Completed an Evaluation of the
Arirang Aviation Ltd
Cirrus 20 Flight Simulation Training Device
FAA Identification Number:
CAAB Identification Number: CAAB FSTD SE 001
And pursuant to CAR 84 and ANO (OPS) A-7(A) found it to have met its original qualification basis,
(DD/MM/YYYY)
The Master Qualification Test Guide and the attached
Configuration List and Restrictions List
Provide the Qualification Basis for this device to operate as
ICAO FSTD TYPE I, II & III
Until 30 NOV2017
Unless sooner rescinded or extended by the CAAB
Chairman (Name)
01 Nov 2016
Issue: Original
November, 2016
Page 291 of 295
Issue: Original
November, 2016
Page 292 of 295

CAAB FORM NO.10-22
Flight Instructor Categorization Certificate

Dated: dd/mm/yyyy
Capt_______________________________________________________ Holder of CPL/ATPL No.________________
Valid Until___________________________ of _________________________________________________________
Is hereby awarded with Flight Instructor Category: CHECK PILOT
And is authorized to act as flight instructor for the following categories of flight instructions subject to the validity, rating.:
(1) GF and VFR Cross-Country with Post Solo Students
(2) Instrument Flight Instruction
(3) Ab-initio Students
(4) Night Flight Instruction

(5) Flight Instructor Instruction
;
;
NB: the appropriate boxes.
(Name)
Director Flight Safety & Regulations
Issue: Original
November, 2016
Page 293 of 295
Issue: Original
November, 2016
Page 294 of 295

CAAB FORM NO.10-23
Designated Pilot Examiner (DPE) Certificate

Certificate No._______
Dated: dd/mm/yyyy
Capt_______________________________________________________ Holder of CPL/ATPL No.________________

Valid Until___________________________ of _________________________________________________________
Is hereby awarded/renewed Designated Pilot Examiner (DPE) Certificate with the condition that the Examiner shall not
conduct Skill Test of applicants of the ATO/Operator he/she is engaged in.
This certificate is valid for 12 months starting from the next month of the skill test, i.e. dd/mm/yyyy, unless rescinded,
cancelled, or surrendered.
(Name)
Director Flight Safety & Regulations
Issue: Original
November, 2016
Page 295 of 295

Ano Part-3 2016

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CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY BANGLADESH

AIR NAVIGATION ORDER

THIS PAGE INTETIONALLY LEFT BLANK

Civil Aviation Authority Bangladesh

Air Vice Marshall Ehsanul Gani Chaudhury, GUP, ndu, psc,

Civil Aviation Authority Bangladesh

THIS PAGE INTENTIONALLY LEFT BLANK

Civil Aviation Authority Bangladesh

CERTIFICATION OF A TRAINING ORGANISATION AND CONTINUED VALIDITY

Approved Training Organisation Certificate

Application for an ATO Certificate

Issuance of an ATO Certificate

Duration and Renewal of ATO Certificate

Continued Validity of Approval

Changes to the ATO and Certificate Amendments

Location of the ATO

Facilities, Equipment and Material General Requirements

Personnel General Requirements

Record Keeping General Requirements

ATO Approved for Testing

Quality Assurance and Quality System

ATO Training and Procedures Manual General Requirements

Civil Aviation Authority Bangladesh

Duty Period Limitations

ATO Safety Management System

Outsourcing to Third-Party Providers

REQUIREMENTS FOR INSTRUCTION FOR FLIGHT CREW LICENCES

Flight Crew Training Courses

Training Course Approval Qualification Based and Alternate Means Of Compliance

Training Course ApprovalAlternative Means of Compliance and Competency Based

Facilities Required for Flight Crew Training

Flight Simulation Training Devices

Aerodromes and Sites

Additional, Specific Operating Rules for Flight Crew Training

Training and Procedures Manual

Record Keeping for Flight Crew Training

Examining Authority for ATOs Teaching Flight Crew Curriculums

Student Transfer of Credit Between ATOs Teaching a Flight Crew Curriculum

Inspections of The ATOs Teaching Flight Crew Curricula

Designated Pilot Examiners

Civil Aviation Authority Bangladesh

General Requirements and Skill Test

Experience Requirements for Private Pilot Examiner (PPE)

Experience Requirements for Commercial Pilot Examiners (CE)

Status of Ex-Caab Inspectors

CONTENT OF THE TRAINING AND PROCEDURES MANUAL (Ref Doc 9841)

3. Client Training Programmes

6. Safety Management System (If Applicable)

7. Quality Assurance (QA)

9. Flight Training General

10. Aircraft Operating Information

12. Flight Training Plan

1. Quality Policy and Strategy

3. Quality Assurance (QA)

4. Quality System For The ATO

5. Organizational Risk Profile

Civil Aviation Authority Bangladesh

6. Risk Management Plan

8. Corrective and Preventive Action Reports

10. QA Audit Programme

11. Quality Inspection

12. Quality Audits

14. Auditors Independence