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Test Name : WBCS Prelims Mock Test XI
Difficulty Level : medium
Test Type : Free

Q.1

Total Questions : 200


Total Marks : 200.00
Duration : 300.00 mins

The Second Battle of Tarain (1192) was fought between


A. Prithviraj Chouhan and Jaichandra
B. Prithviraj Chouhan and the Chalukyas
C. The Chalukyas of Gujarat and Muhammad ghor
D. Prithviraj Chouhan and Muhammad Ghor
Answer : D,
Solution : Mohammad of Ghor benefitted of not being executed in previously lost battle,
returned and ensued in war with Prithviraj a year later(1192) but with a different combat
strategy and defeated the opponent. It is recorded that Prithviraj was immediately executed
after the war. After Prithviraj, Mohammad installed Govindraj, Prithviraj's son in the throne of
Ajmer. Later Prithviraj's younger brother Hariraj dethroned Govindraj who was again defeated
in the hands of Qutub-ud-Din Aibak leading to Slave dynasty in India.

Q.2

Which battle was a turning point for the initiation of muslim rule in India ?
A. First Battle of Tarain
B. Second Battle of Tarain
C. Invasion by Mahmud of Ghazni
D. None of these
Answer : B,
Solution : The second battle of Terain(1192) is recorded in history as the foundation of
Muslim rule in India. Muizzuddin being victorious, executed Prithviraj Chauhan and continued
his annexation till Bihar in 1193 eradicating Buddhism from that area and demolishing the
renowned educational centres like Vikramshila, Nalanda etc. Later in 1202, he invaded Bengal
in the disguise of a horse trader. Muizzuddin was heir less, so his slaves took the control of his
dominion. Qutub-ud-Din Aibak became ruler of Delhi in 1206 establishing Delhi Sultanate
while Bakhtiyar Khilji became ruler in parts of Bengal.

Q.3

Harihara and Bukka of Vijayanagara were contemporary of


A. Firoz Shah Tughlaq
B. Muhammad bin Tughlaq
C. Sikander Lodhi
D. Alauddin Khalzi
Answer : B,
Solution : Solution is not available

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Q.4

Barbosa and Nuniz came to the court of


A. Hasan Gangu
B. Krishna Deva Raya
C. Devaraya II
D. Harihara
Answer : B,
Solution : Solution is not available

Q.5

Didda was the queen of


A. Kashmir
B. Peshawar
C. Kabul
D. None of the above
Answer : A,
Solution : Solution is not available

Q.6

Iqta system was introduced by


A. Iltutmish
B. Muhammad bin Tughlaq
C. Qutbuddin Aibak
D. Alauddin Khalji
Answer : A,
Solution : Solution is not available

Q.7

Bande Nawaz Gesu Daraz was


A. Mughal historian in the court of Jahangir
B. Sufi saint in Bahamani Kingdom
C. Chief Minister of Balban
D. Persian traveller
Answer : B,
Solution : Solution is not available

Q.8

Land revenue collected during the reign of Alauddin Khalji was


A. 1/3rd of the produce
B. 1/4th produce
C. 1/2 of the produce
D. 1/6th of the produce

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Answer : C,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.9

Sikh Guru Arjan Dev was tortured to death by


A. Shahjahan
B. Jahangir
C. Aurangzeb
D. Humayun
Answer : B,
Solution : Solution is not available

Q.10 Mughal Diwan of Bengal was


A. Alivardi Khan
B. Murshid Quli Khan
C. Shuja-ud-Daulah
D. Shaista Khan
Answer : B,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.11 Surat was attacked and sacked by Shivaji in
A. 1667
B. 1664
C. 1665
D. 1663
Answer : B,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.12 Razm-Namah was the Persian translation of
A. Ramayana
B. Mahabharata
C. Bhagabad Gita
D. None of the above
Answer : B,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.13 Mausoleum of Sher Shah is at

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A.
B.
C.
D.

Sasaram
Agra
Lahore
Jaunpur
Answer : A,

Solution : The tomb of Sher Shah Suri is considered the 'Second Taj Mahal' of India. It is an
example of Indo-Islamic architecture designed by Aliwal Khan during the reign of Sher Shah's
son, Ismail Khan. The sand stone mausoleum stands in the middle of an artificial lake in the
town of Sasaram in Bihar. While, Sher Shah is credited with construction of Rohtas Fort in
Pakistan, Rohtasgarh Fort in Bihar, Sher Shah Suri masjid in Patna, Quila-i-Kuhna mosque in
Puraana Quila and also the city of Bhera in Pakistan.
Q.14 Which the Deccan states accepted Mughal suzerainty for the first time ?
A. Berar
B. Ahmadnagar
C. Bidar
D. Khandesh
Answer : D,
Solution : The Khandesh kingdom was founded by Faruqi dynasti with capital at Burhanpur
currently in Madhya Pradesh while rest of the region is in Maharastra with Marathi being the
most spoken language in all over the region. Akbar occupied Burhanpur and Asigarh fort by
1601.
Q.15 The seat for power of Maratha Confederacy was
A. Poona
B. Gwalior
C. Indore
D. Baroda
Answer : A,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.16 In which year Bombay was transferred to the English from Portugese as a dowry to Prince
Charles II
A. 1666
B. 1668
C. 1670
D. 1600
Answer : B,

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Solution : Solution is not available
Q.17 A prominent port of Harappan civilization was
A. Harappa
B. Chan-hu-Daro
C. Lothal
D. None of the above
Answer : C,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.18 Male god found in the Indus valley civilization was the prototype of
A. Lord Vishnu
B. Lord Rama
C. Lord Shiva
D. None of the above
Answer : C,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.19 Mattavilasa- Prahasana was written by
A. Narasimhavarman I
B. Mahendravarman I
C. Vikramaditya II
D. Nandivarman
Answer : B,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.20 Ratha temples at Mahabalipuram(Mamallapuram ) were built by
A. Cholas
B. Pandyas
C. Cheras
D. Pallavas
Answer : D,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.21 Hemachandra was an exponent of
A. Bhakti
B. Nayanars

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C. Jainism
D. Buddhism
Answer : C,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.22 Tara was seen as the consort of Lord Buddha in
A. Hinayana
B. Vajrayana
C. Mahayana
D. None of the above
Answer : B,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.23 Dilwara temples in Mount Abu are dedicated to
A. Jains
B. Buddha
C. Shiva
D. Vishnu
Answer : C,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.24 Surya Siddhanta was written by
A. Aryabhatta
B. Amoghavarsha I
C. Varahamihira
D. Kshemachandra (Hemachandra )
Answer : C,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.25 In the epic Silappadikaram, Kannagi, wife of Kovalan destroyed the whole city of
A. Korkar
B. Puhar
C. Madurai
D. Muciris
Answer : C,
Solution : Solution is not available

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Q.26 Black soil is ideal for the production of cotton becauseA. Black soil obtains humudity
B. it is formed by lava
C. It is found in the plateau region
D. Its colour is black
Answer : A,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.27 Terai soils are deficient in
A. Nitrogen
B. Sulphur
C. Zinc
D. Phosphorus
Answer : C,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.28 Lahul and Spiti are located in
A. Punjab Himalaya
B. Kashmir Himalaya
C. Assam Himalaya
D. Naga Himalaya
Answer : A,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.29 How many island of India are located in Bay of Bengal?
A. 190
B. 204
C. 210
D. 300
Answer : B,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.30 The coastal region where the deltas of Godaveri and Krishna met are located in
A. Chilka Lake
B. Kolleru Lake
C. Brahamadi Lake
D. Wuler Lake

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Answer : B,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.31 Nokrek is the highest peak of
A. Garo hills
B. Khasi and Jayantia hills
C. Kumaon hills
D. Rajmahal Hills
Answer : A,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.32 The Himalayan front fault is located between
A. Siwaliks and lesser Himalayas
B. Great and trans Himalayas
C. Lesser and Great Himalayas
D. Siwaliks and Piedmont zone
Answer : D,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.33 Structurally the Great Himalaya is
A. An autochthonous zone
B. A para-autochthonous zone
C. An Allochthonous zone
D. A Suture
Answer : B,
Solution : Autochthonous zone according to Wadia is made up carboniferous eocene rocks.
Q.34 Common or table salt is largely obtained in India from
A. sea brine and subterranean brine
B. salt lakes
C. Rock salts
D. salt pans
Answer : D,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.35 Bauxite is NOT found in

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A.
B.
C.
D.

Sambalpur district in Orissa


Kolhapur district in Maharashtra
Udhampur in Kashmir
Kangra district in Himachal Pradesh
Answer : C,

Solution : Solution is not available


Q.36 The industry which is benefitted by the Kamagundi mines near Bhadrawati is
A. Tata Iron and Steel
B. Vishwasarya Iron and Steel
C. Durgapur iron and steel
D. Salem iron and steel
Answer : B,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.37 Maximum iron ore from Bailadila mine is exported to
A. Australia
B. Malayasia
C. japan
D. New zealand
Answer : C,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.38 Which latitude passes over Krishnanagar in West Bengal?
A. Tropic of Cancer
B. Tropic of Capricorn
C. Equator
D. None of the above
Answer : A,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.39 MacMohan Line is taken into account in Shimla Act 1914 to demarcate
A. Boundary between India and Nepal
B. Boundary between India and China
C. Boundary between India and Pakistan
D. Boundary between India and Myanmar

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Answer : B,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.40 How much percentage of textile is exported from India?
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 40%
Answer : A,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.41 Which of the following is not a footloose industry?
A. Shoe industry
B. Sugar industry
C. Hosiery industry
D. Garment industry
Answer : B,
Solution : An industry that is not tied to any particular location or country, and can relocate
across national borders in response to changing economic conditions.
Q.42 Which state of India accounts maximum ravine land?
A. Maharastra
B. Madhya Pradesh
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Rajasthan
Answer : C,
Solution : A ravine is a deep valley which is formed due to linear/dendritic uvial erosion of loose
unconsolidated and bare soils by intricate network of rills and gullies.
Q.43 The land which have high water retaining capacity is known as Regur soil region. Below which
state has the maximum concentration of Regur soil?
A. West Bengal
B. Gujarat
C. Maharashtra
D. Andhra Pradesh
Answer : C,

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Solution : The word "regur" originates from the Latin "regurgitare" which means "to

overow".It is rich soil consisting of a mixture of sand and clay and decaying organic
material. It is mostly found in lava covered areas i. e, Maharashtra, Karnataka. It is
called also called black cotton soil.
Q.44 Who established the intimate link between Southern Oscillation and El-Nino?
A. Gilbert Walker
B. J Bjerknes
C. Blan Ford
D. Hadley
Answer : B,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.45 Gilbert detected that a high pressure in Pacific Ocean is accompanied by a low pressure in
Indian Ocean and vice-versa. He termed this phenomenon as
A. El-Nino effect
B. La-Nino effect
C. Southern Oscillation
D. ENSO phenomenon
Answer : C,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.46 Wartha divided India into how many climatic zone?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
Answer : B,
Solution : Trewartha divided India into 7 major climatic zones . They are: 1) Tropical
Monsoon ( Am)in Western Ghats, Nagaland, Tripura 2) Tropical Savanna (Aw) Deccan
Plateau 3) Tropical semi arid steppe (Bs) interior Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, central
Maharastra and western Andhra Pradesh 4) Sub tropical steppe (Bsh) Punjab to Kachch 5)
Sub tropical desert ( Bwh) Western Rajasthan and Kutchch 6)Sub tropical humid (Caw)
Punjab foothills, Uttar Pradesh, bihar, WestBengal,Assam and Arunachal Pradesh 7) Mountain
type (H) Kashmir and Arunachal P
Q.47 The Negative Phase of the SOI completed with an El-Nino is known as
A. La-Nina effect
B. Walker Cell

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C. ENSO
D. Hadley Cell
Answer : C,
Solution :
El NioSouthern Oscillation (ENSO) is an
irregularly periodical variation in
winds and sea surface temperature over
the tropical eastern Pacific Ocean,
affecting much of the tropics and
subtropics. The warming phase is known
as El Nio and the cooling phase as La
Nia.
Q.48 Dr. Dudley Stamp divided India into __ climatic regions?
A. 15 regions
B. 14 regions
C. 7 regions
D. 11 regions
Answer : D,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.49 According to LD Stamp's climatic classification in India, West Bengal falls in the category of
A. Moderate rainfall
B. Heavy rainfall
C. Very heavy rainfall
D. Transitional rainfall
Answer : B,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.50 Which pair of river is formed from the Rupnarayan river?
A. Silabati and Dwarakeshwar
B. Dwarekeshwar and Brahmani
C. Brahmani and Dwarka
D. Silabati and Brahmani
Answer : A,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.51 Penganga, Wardha and Wainganga are the tributaries of

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A.
B.
C.
D.

Narmada
Tapti
Mahanadi
Godavari
Answer : D,

Solution : Solution is not available


Q.52 Damin-i-koh was a
A. Reserved land for Santhals
B. Reserved land for Parihars
C. Court for Santhals
D. Recreation center of Santhals
Answer : A,
Solution : Damin-i-koh is a Persian word which means skirt of hill. The name was given to the
densely forested region of Rajmahal hills majorly inhabited by Sauria Paharias and Mal
Paharias in complete isolation from the outside world. Later, under British Raj the inhabiting
Paharias were given access to western amenities and were made law abiding people. Santhals
began to move into the hills in the end of 18th century.
Q.53 Cornwallis Code came into being in
A. 1793
B. 1788
C. 1790
D. 1795
Answer : A,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.54 As a result of Wood's Despatch an Engineering college was set up in
A. Meshra
B. Roorkee
C. Madras
D. Kharagpur
Answer : B,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.55 When Vernacular Press Act was brought before the council, the only Indian member who was
present was

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A.
B.
C.
D.

Jotendra Mohan Tagore


Peary Mohan Mukherjee
Durga Charan Laha
Akshay Dutt
Answer : A,

Solution : Solution is not available


Q.56 Brahmo Samaj was splitted in 1866 into Brahmo Samaj of India and
A. Adi Brahmo Samaj
B. Neo Brahmo Samaj
C. Sadharan Brahmo Samaj
D. Brahmo Sabha
Answer : A,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.57 Tuhfat-ul-Muwahidin' (Gift to Monotheists) was written by
A. Syed Ahmad Khan
B. Raja Rammohun Roy
C. Devendranath Tagore
D. Dadabhai Naoroji
Answer : B,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.58 On the death of whom Max Mueller said,'' India has lost her most eminent son.'' ?
A. Raja Rammohun Roy
B. Devendranath Tagore
C. Keshab Chandra Sen
D. M G Ranade
Answer : C,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.59 Indian Arms Act was passed during the time of which Viceroy
A. Lord William Bentinck
B. Lord Dalhousie
C. Lord Lytton
D. Lord Curzon

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Answer : A,
Solution : in 1878, Indian Arms Act was passed to regulate the manufacture, sale, possession,
and carry of firearms
Q.60 Tahdhib-ul-Akhlaq was a magazine published by
A. M A Zinnah
B. Syed Ahmed Khan
C. Mohammad Qasim Nanautavi
D. Abdul Rahim Sahib Rampuri
Answer : B,
Solution : Tahdhib-ul-Akhlaq was a magazine published by Syed Ahmed Khan for propagating
progressive social ideas
Q.61 In 1907, Surat session of Indian National Congress was held under the Presidentship of
A. R C Dutt
B. Rashbihari Bose
C. Rashbihari Ghosh
D. Dadabhai Naoroji
Answer : C,
Solution : Ghosh became a member of the Indian National Congress and leaned towards the
moderate wing. He had deep faith in progress but was opposed to radicalism in any form. He
served as the President of the Congress for two terms (Surat, 1907 and Madras, 1908),
succeeding Dadabhai Naoroji.
Q.62 Who among the following were deeply influenced by the Satyagraha Movements of Gandhiji ?
A. Martin Luther King Jr.
B. George Orwell
C. E M Forster
D. Lenin
Answer : A,
Solution : The satyagraha teachings of Gandhi and the March to Dandi had a significant
influence on American activists James Bevel, Martin Luther King Jr, and others during the
movement for civil rights for blacks and other minority groups in the 1960s.
Q.63 Consider the statements
i) 'Dyarchy' was replaced with Provincial Autonomy in the Government of India Act,1935
ii) Establishment of Reserve Bank of India was proposed in the Government of India Act,1935
A. Only (i) is true

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B. Only (ii) is true
C. Both (i) and (ii) are true
D. Both (i) and (ii) are false
Answer : C,
Solution : The Government of India Act 1935, passed by British Parliament in August of 1935
was considered to be the longest Act enacted. The Act, consisting of 321 sections and 10
schedules was split into two separate Acts. One was Government of India Act 1935 and the
other was Government of Burma Act 1935. The Act was made from the detailed reports of
Simon Commission, Third Round Table Conference, White Paper of 1933 and reports of Joint
Select Committees. The Act ended the system of Diarchy and provided for establishment of
Federation of India to be made up of Princely States and Provinces of the British Raj.
Provincial Autonomy was granted in the provinces. However the Federation never came into
being as the Princely States never joined the Federation. In case of Princely States the
accession to the All India Federation under the Government of India Act was voluntary. Nehru
called the Act 'all breaks, no engine'.
Q.64 Which of the following pairs is WRONGLY matched ?
A. Bardoli Satyagraha-Sardar-Vallabhbhai Patel
B. Individual Satyagraha-Abul Kalam Azad
C. Indian National Army-Binoy,Badal,Dinesh
D. Patriotic Association- Sir Syed Ahmad Khan
Answer : C,
Solution : Indian National Army was first formed in 1942 by India's PoW Captain Mohan
Singh with alliance from Japan's army. The motive was to secure India's independence from
British Raj, but the forces were disbanded later in December of the same year. The forces
were collapsed after the differences in leadership between INA and Japanese military over its
role in Japan's war in Asia. Later in 1943 the leadership was revived under Netaji Subhash
Chandra Bose and the army was again reformed. The army under Bose was declared as 'AzriHUkumat-e-Azad Hind'(Provinsial Government of Free India). The force was strengthened by
PoW of Malaya and Burma. On 23rd October 1943, Subhas's forces declared war against
Britain. The motive of INA was to enter Gangetic plains through North Eastern region of India
after occupying Imphal and Kohima. Whatever be the result of the war, whether Japan was
defeated or not, it was ascertained by Subhash that British government would not be in a
position to re-assert its colonial authority in India. Later the soldiers were captured and tried
in Delhi, famed as the Red Fort Trials of 1945-1946. The trials had a deep impact in Indian
subjects and the trials became rallying point for independence movement. For the defense of
soldiers, Indian National Congress came forward and formed INA Defence Committee. The
defense was led by prominent leaders like J L Nehru, Bhulabhai Desai, Kailashnath Katju, Asaf
Ali. For immense public pressure, the sentences against the accused solders were never
carried out and all the 11000 soldiers were later released but were refrained from joining
army any more. *PoW: Prisoners of War

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Q.65 Deliverence Day' was celebrated by Muslim League on the day of
A. When Second World War broke out
B. The day when British joined the Allied forces in the Second World War
C. Congress Ministries resigned from the Provincial offices
D. The day when Muslim League started the session at Lucknow
Answer : C,
Solution : After the Legislature Elections in India in1936-37, Congress emerged as victorious
with clear majority. On 3rd September 1939, British regime declared war against Germany.
Congress strongly refuted the decision of declaration without prior consultation with Congress
leaders as they were aware of the atrocities to be employed by British in the name of war.
Congress even suggested of a Central Indian National Government after the war as a
commitment in return to the cooperation to be supported. But Lord Linlithgow refused the
proposal. In deliberate response, Congress leaders resigned from the provincial government
providing relief to both Lord Linlithgow and Muslim League. On 2nd December 1939, a cheerful
Jinnah put out an appeal to celebrate 22nd December 1939 as Deliverance Day for
resignations from Congress. N.B: The infamous Bengal Famine of 1943-44 is considered to be
a man-made holocaust for inhumane British policies. Although Bengal had a bountiful harvest
in 1943, but Churchill diverted the vast pile of resources to Britain in the wake of World War
II. As one of the greatest disaster in subcontinent, here the death toll rose to about 4 million.
Bereaved Nehru opined this malicious act as 'the final judgment of British rule in India'.
Q.66 Arrange in chronology:
i) 'Deliverence Day' was celebrated by Muslim League
ii) Declaration of war against Axis powers by Lord Linlithgow
iii) Cripps Mission
A. i-ii-iii
B. ii-i-iii
C. iii-ii-i
D. ii-iii-i
Answer : B,
Solution : 3rd September 1939,Viceroy Linlithgow announces that India is at war with
Germany; 22December,1939 Deliverence Day celebration by Muslim League;1942 Cripps
Mission Plan
Q.67 In July 1942 the Congress Executive Committee passed the Quit India Resolution at
A. Bombay
B. Wardha
C. Nagpur
D. Poona
Answer : B,

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Solution : Solution is not available
Q.68 Regarding the nature of the Quit India Movement who wrote 'by far the most serious rebellion
since 1857'
A. Winston Churchill
B. Lord Linlithgow
C. J B Kripalini
D. S G Sardesai
Answer : B,
Solution : Lord Linlithgow in a letter described in these word to the Prime Minister of
England W. Churchill
Q.69 Twelve Point Programme' was given by All India Congress Committee during
A. Non-cooperation Movement
B. Civil Disobedience Movement
C. Individual Satyagraha
D. Quit India Movement
Answer : D,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.70 Regarding the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946 which of the follwing is WRONG?
A. Congress Accepted the Plan
B. Muslim League accepted the Plan prior to Congress
C. Election were held in July 1946 to form the Constituent Assembly
D. Both Congress and Muslim League were satisfied with the reslults of the election
Answer : D,
Solution : M A Jinnah in particular was disturbed with the outcome of the result of the
election of July,1946
Q.71 Who was not associated with Kheda Satyagraha organized by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel?
A. Bhulabhai Desai
B. Narhari Parekh
C. Ravishankar Vyas
D. Mohanlal Pandya
Answer : A,
Solution : Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel and his colleagues such as Narhari Parikh, Mohanlal
Pandya and Ravi Shankar Vyas organized this major tax revolt, which was able to mobilize all

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the castes and creeds of the region.
Q.72 Under Raja Rammohun Roy 'Bangabhasa Prakashika Sabha' was formed in
A. 1842
B. 1830
C. 1836
D. 1856
Answer : C,
Solution : In 1836, Bangabhasa Prakashika Sabha was formed where policy and
administration of the government was founded under Raja Rammohun Roy
Q.73 Arrange in chronology:
i)Vernacular Press Act
ii)Foundation of Asiatic Society
iii)Ilbert Bill
iv) Widow Remarriage Act
A. iii-i-ii-iv
B. ii-iv-i-iii
C. ii-iii-iv-i
D. ii-i-iii-iv
Answer : B,
Solution : 1784-Asiatic Society;1856-Widow Remarriage Act;1878-Vernacular Press Act;1883Ilbert Bill controversy
Q.74 Who said, ''Freedom is the very breath of our life. We want freedomWe are not begging for
mercy,we want justice.''
A. G K Gokhale
B. Dadabhai Naoroji
C. B G Tilak
D. Sri Aurobindo
Answer : B,
Solution : In 1906, Calcutta session of Indian National Congress President of Dadabhai
Naoroji said this
Q.75 When was Federation of Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industries(FICCI) formed?
A. 1921
B. 1947
C. 1927
D. 1937

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Answer : C,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.76 Which one among the following agencies was successful in reaching to Mars in its first
attempt?
A. European Space Agency(ESA)
B. Soviet Space Program (SSP)
C. NASA
D. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
Answer : D,
Solution : Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM) also called Mangalayan is a space probe orbiting
Mars since 24th September, 2014. It was launched on 5th November, 2013 at Satish Dhawan
Space Centre. Total cost was 450 crore .Main objectives include exploration of Mars surface,
Martian atmosphere, Dynamics of upper atmosphere of Mars.
Q.77 Vishnu Jayant Narlikar is a notable scientist in the field of
A. Quantum Physics
B. String theory
C. Laser Physics
D. Cosmology
Answer : D,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.78 Name of an transparent conductor material used in touch pad or touch mobile phones is
A. Indium tin oxide
B. Iron oxide
C. Silicon oxide
D. Graphene
Answer : A,
Solution : Indium tin oxide (74%In; 18% O2; 8%Sn) is a transparent conducting material with
strong electrical conductivity and optical transparency. The glass and plastic films on the
screen are covered with a grid of Indium tin Oxide(ITO ). When we press down the touch
screen, contact is made between the glass and the grid on the film.
Q.79 Transfer of heat from Induction oven to cooking utensil takes place through
A. Conduction
B. Convention
C. Radiation

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D. Directly heats the utensil
Answer : D,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.80 NASA will soon launch SMAP which stands for
A. Systemic Management and Planning
B. Star and Massive Arm plot
C. Satellite Moon Active Phase
D. Soil Moisture Active Passive
Answer : D,
Solution : SMAP stands for Soil Moisture Active Passive. This is an orbiting abservatory that
will help in measuring amount of water in top 5cm of soil everywhere on Earth's surface.
Q.81 The main candidate for 'God particle' is
A. Higgs boson
B. Yukawa particles
C. Fermions
D. Massive protons
Answer : A,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.82 The proposed LIGO-India project is aimed at
A. Measuring salinity of water
B. Detecting Neutrinos
C. Detecting gravitational waves
D. Detecting pollutants in atmosphere
Answer : C,
Solution : LIGO stands for Laser Interferometer Gravitational-wave Observatory which was
designed to detect gravitational waves. Once detected wil confirm Einstien's General Theory of
Relativity.
Q.83 Radiation belt due to energetic charged particles around a magnetized planet. This zone is
named after
A. Van Allen
B. Vikram Sarabhai
C. C. V Raman
D. S. Chandrasekhar

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Answer : A,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.84 Highly energized electrically charged particles emit bluish light when it travels through dense
medium. This radiation is called
A. Synchrotron radiation
B. Cherenkov radiation
C. Van Allen radiation
D. Cyclotron radiation
Answer : B,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.85 Due to tidal dissipation, the distance between Earth and moon
A. is increasing
B. is decreasing
C. is constant
D. Earth moon distance does not depend upon tides
Answer : A,
Solution : Because of the tidal energy dissipation between Earth and Moon, Moon is moving
away from earth at a rate of 3.8 cm per year
Q.86 A camera with specification of 2014X3042 pixels is a ____ camera
A. 6 megapix
B. 3 megapix
C. 1.5 megapix
D. 2.3 megapix
Answer : A,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.87 When 5 Newton is applied to m1 and m2 accelerate at 10 m/s2 and 20 m/s2 respectively. What
is the accleration when both are tied together
A. 30 m/s2
B. 15 m/s2
C. 6.7 m/s2
D. 10 m/s2
Answer : C,

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Solution : Lets use F= ma, where F is force, m is the mass and a is acceleration. 5 = 10 m1,
so, m1 =0.5 kg 5 = 20 *m2, and m2 = 0.25 kg. Now 5 newton is applied to .75 kg. It will
produce an acceleration of a = F/m = 5./.75 = 6.67 m/s2
Q.88 Black Quarter disease is a cattle disease in India. The causal agent of this disease is
A. Virus
B. Protozoa
C. Fungus
D. Bacteria
Answer : D,
Solution : Buffalos, sheep, goats are affected by this disease
Q.89 Chlamydomonas sp. and Spirogyra sp. are common examples of
A. Bacteria
B. virus
C. Protozoa
D. Algae
Answer : D,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.90 Marshall and Warren received Nobel Prize in 2005 for their pioneer work on a disease that
can be treated by antibiotics. The disease name is
A. Cancer
B. Hepatitis B
C. Peptic Ulcer
D. AIDS
Answer : C,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.91 Which of the following chemical substance is used in gram staining technique?
A. Iodine
B. Methyl green
C. Rhodamine
D. Safranine
Answer : A,
Solution : Stain is a chemical substance that helps to enhance the visibility of a microscopic
object or organism. Bacteria can be classified into Gram positive and Gram negative on the

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basis of their staining nature. The cell wall of a gram positive bacteria is composed of
peptidoglycan and it lacks a secondary liposachharide layer, which is foud in Gram negative
bacteria. The stains normally used in Gram Staining are crystal violet to stain cell walls, iodine
as mordant and a fuchsin or safranin counterstain to mark all bacteria. Gram positive bacteria
appear dark blue or violet after alcohol treatment, while gram negative bacteria appear red or
pink. This is due to the fact that after alcohol treatment, the porosity of the cell wall
increases. In Gram posietive bacteria as there is no secondary layer only crystal violet stains
the cell wall, giving the bacteria a dark blue or violet coloration. In gram negative bacteria, the
primary stain is not retained, and CVI complex( crystal violet iodine) can pass through and
stain the liposaccharide layer and other cell parts, giving it a pink coloration.
Q.92 Which one of the following plant excretory product is used to make Morphine
A. Quinine
B. Opium
C. Resin
D. Tanin
Answer : B,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.93 Which type of neuron transmit an impulse from CNS (brain) to an effector organ .
A. Sensory neuron
B. Motor neuron
C. Relay neuron
D. All of the above
Answer : B,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.94 Protoscordata are called the evolutionary link between vertebrates and invertebrates' because
A. it shows presence of a notochord at some point of its life
B. they are triploblastic in nature
C. its body is bilaterally symmetrical
D. of presence of coelom or true body cavity
Answer : A,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.95 The very common disease Elephantiasis (unproportionate swelling of ars and limbs) is caused
by filarial worms like Wuchereria brancofti. This is a
A. Platyhelminthes
B. Annelida

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C. Nematoda
D. Coelenterata
Answer : C,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.96 Glyphosate is a
A. Fertilizer
B. Herbicide
C. Fungicide
D. Mutagen
Answer : B,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.97 The copper containing alloy is/ are
1.Brass
2.German silver
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 & 2
D. Neither 1 or 2
Answer : C,
Solution : Brass contains copper and zinc ;german silver contains copper, zinc and nickel
Q.98 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. An acid is a compound which when dissolved in water yields hydrogen ions
B. Ammonium hydroxide is a strong base
C. Bases are oxides or hydroxides of metal
D. NaOH is a strong alkali
Answer : B,
Solution : Ammonium hydroxide is a weak base
Q.99 Mineral acids are
1) Hydrochloric acid
2) Citric acid
3.) Nitric acid
A. Only 1
B. 1 & 2

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C. 1 & 3
D. 1,2 & 3
Answer : C,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.100Consider the statements
1) pH 7 is neutral
2) pH greater than 7 is acidic
3) pH value less than 7 is basic
A. Only 1 is correct
B. 1 & 2 are correct
C. 2& 3 are correct
D. 1,2, & 3 are correct
Answer : A,
Solution : pH values 1-6 acidic 7-neutral 8-14 basic
Q.101Consider following statements regarding Reserve Bank of India.
i) Reserve Bank emerged in 1935 as a private shareholder bank.
ii) Reserve Bank of India is a banker to banks.
A. Only i) is correct
B. Only ii) is correct
C. Both i) and ii) are correct
D. Both are incorrect
Answer : C,
Solution : lhf;jhw ;qiowef
Q.102BRBNMPL, a subsidiary to RBI is entrusted to
A. Overview day to day works carried out by banks
B. Printing bank notes according to demand and supply
C. Regulating foreign currency
D. Providing insurance to bank depositors
Answer : B,
Solution : BRBNMPL was established in 1995.
Q.103Consider the following statements: i) Reverse repo rate implies rate at which RBI absorbs
liquidity ii) Repo rate is the rate at which RBI injects liquidity into the market
A. Only i) is correct

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B. Only ii) is correct
C. Both i) and ii) are correct
D. Both are incorrect
Answer : C,
Solution : RBI buys collaterals in the form of securities and in turn provides money to the
bankers. This way the economy becomes more liquid.
Q.104Which of the following is right about Swarnarjayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana ?
A. Provides 100 days of assured employment in rural sector
B. Assist bringing up families below poverty line through self help groups.
C. Assist bringing up families below poverty line through financial help
D. Help poor families through gold bonds
Answer : B,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.105National Rural Employment Guarantee Act was launched in
A. 1995
B. 2000
C. 2005
D. 2010
Answer : C,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.106MPLADS is related to
A. Land development scheme by the center
B. Monitoring and planning of lands
C. Fund that enables the Member of Parliament to organize local developmental work
D. A defence scheme
Answer : C,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.107Consider the statements and pick the correct option from below:
1) Decline in the oil prices can decrease the consumer prices
2) Consumer Price Index(CPI) is a statistical unit which is prepared using the prices of some
representative items of household need
A. Only 1 is true
B. Only 2 is true

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C. Both 1 & 2 are true
D. Both 1 & 2 are false
Answer : C,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.108Under whose initiative National Planning Committee was set up?
A. Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose
B. Jawaharlal Nehru
C. M. N. Roy
D. Megnadh Saha
Answer : A,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.109During which five year plan crisis due to slowdown of South Asian economy took place.
A. 7th
B. 8th
C. 9th
D. 10th
Answer : C,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.110Due to political instability at the center the eighth Five Year Plan got delayed by
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 0.5 year
Answer : B,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.111Which of the following is true for National Sample Survey Organisation(NSSO)
A. For calculating Consumer Price Index, NSSO accrues rural retail price on monthly basis
B. NSSO adheres data for calculating National Income
C. Both of the Above
D. None of the Above
Answer : C,
Solution : Solution is not available

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Q.112Find the incorrect statement with regard to the 12th Five Year Plan
A. It was targeted to increase the Gross Irrigated Area to 103 million hectares from 90 million
hectares
B. Complete Eastern and and Western Freight Corridors by the end of the plan period
C. Increase rural teledensity to 50%
D. Add 30,000 MW of renewable energy capacity in the Twelfth Plan
Answer : C,
Solution : Increase rural teledensity to 70% by the end of the Plan period
Q.113Which of the following countries has adopted GNH (Gross National Happiness) as the indicator
of progress?
A. Nepal
B. Bhutan
C. Srilanka
D. Japan
Answer : B,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.114Which of the following are used for GEP calculation
A. Forest
B. River
C. Soil
D. All of the Above
Answer : D,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.115The Consumer Protection Act of 1986 ensures which of the following rights:
i) Right to Choose
ii) Right to be informed
iii) Right to seek Redressal
iv) Right to represent
v) Right to safety
A. Only i) and ii) are correct
B. Only ii) and iii) are correct
C. Only I) ii) ii) and iv are correct
D. All of the above are correct
Answer : C,

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Solution : Solution is not available
Q.116Rajamannar Committee was set up to
A. resolve the distribution of water between two neighbouring states
B. review constitutional provisions for amending fundamental rights
C. examine State-centre relations
D. review the power of Army
Answer : C,
Solution : Tamil Nadu Government in 1969 appointed a three member committee under
chairmanship of Dr P V Rajmannar. This was done to examine the centre -state relations and
to suggest recommendation for ammendmends to the constituttion of India to secure utmost
autonomy to the state. It submitted it report and recommendations in 1971. However Central
government completely ignored the recommendations.
Q.117In Cooper Case of 1970, the Supreme Court held that
A. Presidents' satisfaction to promulgate an ordinance can be questioned on ground of
malafide intention
B. Satisfaction of President to pass an ordinance is not questionable
C. Proclamation of National emergency has judicial immunity
D. President should communicate to State when withholding certain bill
Answer : A,
Solution : In Cooper case, (1970), the Supreme Court held that the Presidents satisfaction
can be questioned in a court on the ground of malafide. This means that the decision of the
President to issue an ordinance can be questioned in a court on the ground that the President
has prorogued one House or both Houses of Parliament deliberately with a view to promulgate
an ordinance on a controversial subject, so as to bypass the parliamentary decision and
thereby circumventing the authority of the Parliament. The 38th Constitutional Amendment
Act of 1975 made the Presidents satisfaction final and conclusive and beyond judicial review.
But, this provision was deleted by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978. Thus, the
Presidents satisfaction is justiciable on the ground of malafide
Q.118Which Article empowers Parliament to suspend fundamental rights of an Army personnel?
A. Article 226
B. Article 32
C. Article 33
D. Article 34
Answer : C,
Solution : Under Article 33, the Parliament has the authority to restrict or abrogate the
fundamental rights of the members of armed forces, para- military forces, intelligence

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agencies and analogous forces. Accordingly, the Parliament enforced the Army Act (1950), the
Navy Act (1950), the Air Force Act ( 1950), the Police Forces( Restriction of Rights) Act, 1966,
the Border Security Force Act and so on. These impose restriction on freedom of speech, right
to form associations, right to be members of trade unions or political associations, right to
communicate with the press, right to attend public meetings or demonstrations, etc. Person
engaged as non combatants ( barbers, carpenters, mechanics, cooks, chowkidars, bootmakers,
tailors) in the armed forces are also restricted in this regard.
Q.119Which of the following is/are true about sentencing power of a session judge
i) Session judge can impose life imprisonment
ii) Session judge can impose maximum imprisonment of seven years
iii) Session judge can impose death sentence
A. Only ii) is correct
B. Only i) and iii) are correct
C. Only ii) and iii) are correct
D. All are correct
Answer : B,
Solution :
The district judge enjoys the highest judicial authority in the district. He possesses
original as well as appellate jurisdiction in both civil and criminal matters.
While dealing with criminal matters he acts as the session judge, and when he hears a
case on civil matter , he is known as the district judge.
As a session judge has the power to impose any sentence (including life prisonment and
death sentence).
He has the authority to supervise all the subordinate (e.g munssif court and judicial
magistrate court) courts in the district.
Q.120Which Committee recommended that Zilla Parishad and Panchayat Samiti should be indirectly
elected?
A. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
B. G V K Rao Committee
C. L M Singhvi Committee
D. Ashoke Mehta Committee
Answer : A,
Solution : The Government of India in 1957 appointed a committee under the chairman ship
of Balwant Rai G Mehta to examine the working of the Community Development Programme
(1952) and the National Extension Service( 1953). The committee submitted its report in
November,1957 and recommended the establishment of Panchayat Raj and emphasis on
democratic decentralization.Other recommendation made by this committee were:1)Establishment of three tier oanchayat raj system; gram oanchayat ( village level). Panchayat

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samity ( Block level), Zila Parishad ( District level). 2) Village panchay should have directly
elected representatives where as panchayat samity and zila parishad should have indirectly
elected representatives. 3) Panchayat samiti should be the executive body where as zila
Parishad should act as an advisory , coordinating and supervisory body.4) The chair man of
zila parishad is district collector. 4) These bodies should be given adequate resources to
discharge their functions and fulfil their responsibilities.
Q.121Under whose chairmanship the committee on Panchayati Raj election was led?
A. K. Santhanam
B. G. R. Rajgopal
C. R. R. Diwakar
D. V. V. Rao
Answer : A,
Solution : In 1965, a committee on Panchayati raj election was set up under the
chairmanship of k Santhanam.
Q.122Which the then incumbent government passed the Municipalities Bill?
A. V P Singh
B. Narasimha Rao
C. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
D. Rajiv Gandhi
Answer : B,
Solution : Rajiv Gandhi's government in 1989 introduced the Nagarpalika bill through 65th
Constitutional Amendment Bill. It aimed at constitutionalisation of municipal bodies. The Bill
after was defeated at Rajya Sabha and lapsed. V P Singh government showed interest and
introduced the bill but did not succeed due to dissolution of Lok Sabha. Finally Narashima
Govt. introduced modified municipalities bill and was passed 74th Constitutional Amendment
Act, 1992.
Q.123The limit of the value of taxes on profession, trades, and employment per annum that can be
imposed by State legislature is
A. Rs 5000
B. Rs 2500
C. Rs. 1500
D. Rs. 3000
Answer : B,
Solution : There are 20 taxes enumerated in state list which exclusively belong to the states
i.e, they are levied, collected and retained by the States .. The major of them are :- (i) land
revenue; (ii) taxes on agricultural income, succession and estate duties in respect of

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agricultural land; (iii) taxes on lands and buildings, on mineral rights, on animals and boats, on
road vehicles, on luxuries, on entertainments, and on gambling; (iv) excise duties on alcoholic
liquors for human consumption and narcotics; (v) taxes on the entry of goods into a local area,
on advertisements (except newspapers), on consumption or sale of electricity, and on goods
and passengers carried by road or on inland waterways; (vi) taxes on professions, trades,
callings and employments not exceeding Rs. 2,500 per annum; (vii) capitation taxes; (viii) tolls;
(ix) stamp duty on documents (except those specified in the Union List); (x) sales tax (other
than newspaper); and (xi) fees on the matters enumerated in the State List (except court
fees).
Q.124Which recent Amendment Act has extended the practice of nominating one member in the
Legislative Assembly by Governor up to 2020?
A. 95th Amendment Act of 2009
B. 92th Amendment Act of 2004
C. 84th Amendment Act of 2001
D. 94th Amendment Act 2006
Answer : A,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.125In the State legislature who decides if the Bill is a Money bill?
A. Governor
B. Chief Minister
C. Finance Minister
D. Speaker of State Legislature
Answer : D,
Solution : The speaker of a state legislature has the following responsibilities and duties:Maintenance of order and decorum in the assembly for conducting its business and
regulating its proceedings. The speaker is considered to be the final power.
He is the final interpreter of the provisions of (a) the Constitution of India, (b) the rules
of procedure and conduct of business of assembly, and (c) the legislative precedents,
within the assembly.
He has the power to adjourns the assembly or suspends the meeting in the absence of a
quorum.
He does not vote in the first instance. But, he can exercise a casting vote in the case of a
tie.
He can allow a secret sitting of the House at the request of the leader of the House.
He decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or not and his decision on this question is final.
The speaker has the authoritative power to disqualify a member of the assembly, arising
on the ground of defection under the provisions of the Tenth Schedule.
He is in charge of appointing the chairmen of all the committees of the assembly and

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supervises their functioning.
He himself acts as the chairman of the Business Advisory Committee, the Rules
Committee and the General Purpose Committee.
Q.126Quorum in the context of Parliament means
A. A minimum number of members should be present in order to carry out Parliamentary
business
B. Absense of decorum in the Parliament
C. A session reserved for minority section
D. Unuseful transaction in the Parliament
Answer : A,
Solution : The minimum number of members required to run the business in the Parliament
constitute the Quorum. One tenth of the total number of members needs to be present to
function the normal procedure of Parliament. The number denotes 55 Lok Sabha members
and 25 Rajya Sabha members including the presiding officer must be present to conduct the
business of the Parliament. If there is no Quorum , the presiding officer has the authority to
suspend or adjourn the House until there is a Quorum.
Q.127Choose the appropriate word to fill in the blank:
The principal of the school _________ high praise on the first boy.
A. Deprive
B. Uttered
C. Said
D. Bestowed
Answer : D,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.128Choose the appropriate word to fill in the blank.
The painting was a dull and ______ one.
A. Shinny
B. Insipid
C. Ostentatious
D. Cryptic
Answer : B,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.129Choose the appropriate word to fill in the blank.
The literary content was hugely criticized for being too long and __________.

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A.
B.
C.
D.

Prolix
Tedious
Ample
Adequate
Answer : A,

Solution : Solution is not available


Q.130Fill in the blank with the appropriate word .
Mr. Basu always praises the ideas of liberty through his speaking and writing. He is a/an
______ of liberty
A. Panegyrist
B. Paganist
C. Critic
D. Optimist
Answer : A,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.131 Choose the nearest meaning of the underlined word from the following options.
The waiter has an itching palm.
A. Unready to help
B. In need of tip
C. Ready to help
D. Slight pain
Answer : B,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.132 Choose the nearest meaning of the underlined word from the following options.
"It is the little rift within the lute, That by-and-by will make the music mute" by Tennyson
A. Embarrassing
B. Bad habbit
C. A big defect
D. A small defect
Answer : D,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.133Everyone in the meeting knew about the involvement of minister's son in the scam but no one
discussed about the elephant in the room.
A. too obvious to ignore

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B. Big object
C. Corrupted person
D. Monstrous
Answer : A,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.134Riki has joined Prof Shah's class and soon he will realise that he has caught a tartar.
A. In hands of a right person
B. Encounter a dangerous person.
C. Life is to live carefully and cautiously
D. An unexpectedly good man
Answer : B,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.135As everything is final and settled, better you mind your P's and Q's.
A. To be careful what you say and do
B. To think of the profits and quotients
C. To be careful with old mistakes
D. To be careful with further Proposals and Queries.
Answer : A,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.136Choose the correct meaning from the alternatives given below :
Laconique
A. Indirect
B. Stubborn
C. Brief
D. Ancient
Answer : C,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.137Synonym of sycophant
A. Excessively praiseful
B. psychopath
C. Insulting
D. Adamant

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Answer : A,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.138Synonym of Equivocal
A. Very talkative
B. Ambiguous
C. Vocal
D. ambivalent
Answer : B,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.139What is Hypochondriac ?
A. Anxiety about health
B. Sadness
C. Mental state
D. Disorder
Answer : A,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.140Which one of the following words does not have any resemblance with Capsize
A. Over turn
B. Topple
C. Boat
D. Hat
Answer : D,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.141The person who monitors the amount and quality of water and forecasts water levels in rivers
and lakes
A. Meteorologist
B. Hydrologist
C. Urologist
D. Abiogenist
Answer : B,
Solution : Solution is not available

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Q.142A paganist is one who
A. believes in one God
B. is a polytheist
C. Is ardent supporter of Judaism
D. Is pragmatist
Answer : B,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.143A Psephologist deals with
A. Scientific analysis of election outcome
B. Study of sheep rearing
C. Branch of sociology
D. Study of statistics
Answer : A,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.144Find the odd pair out
A. Furrier Fur
B. Glazier Roads
C. Hardener Metals
D. Hatter Hat
Answer : B,
Solution : Glazier Person who fits glass into windows and doors
Q.145Find the antonym of the underlined word in the following sentence:
It will be hard for Sarah to move with a man with parochial mentality.
A. Conventional
B. Liberal
C. Biased
D. Conservative
Answer : B,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.146The study of food is called
A. Gourmet
B. Philanthropy
C. Bromatology

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D. Cariology
Answer : C,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.147If 'Apiology' is study of bees then Study of spider is called
A. Algology
B. Angiology
C. Arachnology
D. Astacology
Answer : C,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.148What is the nearest meaning of the phrasal verb ''get by ''
A. To manage
B. To escape
C. To enter
D. To survive
Answer : A,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.149Insert appropriate phrasal verb to complete the sentence.
She is capable of ___________________ everyone in the house.
A. Cheering up
B. Cheering in
C. Cheering out
D. Cheering for
Answer : A,
Solution : Solution is not available
Q.150Insert appropriate phrasal verb to complete the sentence.
I ______________ this book while cleaning the room.
A. Came down
B. Came over
C. Came across
D. Came with
Answer : C,

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Solution : Solution is not available
Q.151World Migratory Bird Day is observed on
A. 10th May
B. 11th May
C. 12th May
D. 13th May
Answer : A,
Solution : 2016 Theme: Stop the Illegal Killing, Taking and Trade of Migratory Birds.
Q.152UP Government approved bicycle highway between Lion Safari (Etawah) and
A. Taj Mahal
B. Vrindavan
C. Lucknow
D. Mathura
Answer : A,
Solution : The 197km highway for eco-tourism will cover other historical areas such as
Bateshwarnath Temple, Raja Bhoj ki Haveli, Mela Kothi Jarar, and Naugava ka Quila
Q.153NASA launched near space monitoring super pressure balloon from
A. New Zealand
B. USA
C. Antarctica
D. Tasmania
Answer : A,
Solution : The balloon will be operational at an altitude of 33.5km and will be air-borne for at
least 100 days.
Q.154President appointed Kiran Bedi as Lt Governor of
A. Goa
B. Puducherry
C. Lakshwadeep
D. Andaman & Nicobar islands
Answer : B,
Solution : She have been conferred with Presidents Police medal (1979), Ramon Magsaysay
Award (1994), UN Medal for outstanding service (2004).

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Q.155India became ___ largest producer of e-waste as per Assocham-KPMG study 2016
A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. 4th
D. 5th
Answer : D,
Solution : India is world's second largest mobile market
Q.156India's first Scorpene class submarine INS KALVARI set its first trial run from ?
A. Mumbai
B. Kochi
C. Chadipur
D. Vishakhapatnam
Answer : A,
Solution : INS KALVARI is also known as Tiger Shark and is expected to be launched in
September 2016
Q.157Union Railway Ministry launched PMIS app for monitoring
A. Catering facility ins Rajdhani and Shatabdi
B. Arrival time of running trains
C. All projects in Railways
D. Booking facility
Answer : C,
Solution : Currently Indian Railways have more than 600 projects for network connectivity
and modernization
Q.158In 63rd National Film Fair, Special Jury Award was won by 'Margarita with a straw' directed
by
A. Anurag Kashyap
B. Tanuja Chandra
C. Hema Malini
D. Kalki Koechilin
Answer : D,
Solution : Amitabh Bachhan won the best actor award for the film Piku in the fair 2016. The
fair was established in the year 1954
Q.159Which of the following city will be benefited by Efficient and Sustainable City Bus Service

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Project as per the agreement signed by India and World Bank ?
A. Bangalore
B. Jaipur
C. Kolkata
D. Asansol
Answer : B,
Solution : Bhopal and Chandigarh are also other cities which will be benefited by the
initiative
Q.160Which version of National Disaster Management Plan was released by PMO in Jun 2016 ?
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth
Answer : A,
Solution : It is based on the four priority themes of the Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk
Reduction 2015-30. Viz (i) Understanding disaster risk (ii) Improving disaster risk governance
(iii) Investing in disaster risk reduction (through structural and non-structural measures) and
(iv) Disaster preparedness, early warning and building back better in the aftermath of a
disaster.
Q.161For how many years have Maria Sharapova been banned by International Tennis Federation ?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer : B,
Solution : During Australian Open in January 2016, she was tested positive for a banned drug
meldonium
Q.162Which Asian country have been the first to successfully eliminate mother to child HIV
transmission ?
A. Japan
B. India
C. Pakistan
D. Thailand
Answer : D,

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Solution : Cuba is the only other country in the world to have done the same in the year 2015
Q.163Which of the following is the basic trainer aircraft indigenously developed by HAL ?
A. Tejas
B. HTT-10
C. HTT-40
D. Tejas-40
Answer : C,
Solution : HTT-40 stands for Hindustan Turbo Trainer - 40
Q.164Which of the following rank have been secured by India as per UNCTAD report on FDI inflows
?
A. 5
B. 8
C. 10
D. 17
Answer : C,
Solution : USA have topped the list followed by Hong Kong
Q.165For launching how many satellites have ISRO set a record in single mission ?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 25
D. 30
Answer : B,
Solution : The primary satellite was of India's latest earth observation satellite Cartosat-2
Q.1662016-17 SAARC cultural capital has been selected as Mahashangarh located in
A. India
B. Pakistan
C. Bangladesh
D. Nepal
Answer : C,
Solution : It is a 3rd century BC archaeological site
Q.167Who among the following has been conferred with Japan's Fukuoka Prize 2016 ?
A. Gulzar

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B. Javed Akhtar
C. AR Rahman
D. Nadeem Shravan
Answer : C,
Solution : The award was established by Japanese city Fukuoka in the year 1990. The award
is presented in three categories of Grand Prize, Academic Prize and Art & Culture Prize. AR
Rahman was awarded with Grand Prize in 2016
Q.168Which of the following countries successfully test fired ballistic missiles in march 2016?
A. Iraq
B. Iran
C. Israel
D. India
Answer : B,
Solution : It was mandated under UNSC resolution to refrain Iran from working on ballistic
missiles
Q.169Union Ministry named LED based domestic efficient lighting programme as
A. UJJWAL
B. ROSHAN
C. ROSHNI
D. UJALA
Answer : D,
Solution : UJALA is the abbreviated version of Unnat Jyoti by Affordable LEDs for ALL
Q.170Secretariat building of which state, get country's first Earthquake Warning System ?
A. Punjab
B. West Bengal
C. Haryana
D. Odisha
Answer : C,
Solution : The system is already functional in 26 countries around the globe. It detects
intensity of the primary waves(fastest kind of seismic waves moving beneath the earth not
causing any damage) and gives out warning alarm when the intensity of the secondary
waves(the waves moving over the surface of the earth causing damage) are observed.
Q.171For promotion of Khadi within India and globally, who has been appointed as the advisor to

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Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC)
A. Ritu Beri
B. Sanjana Sharma
C. Rani Mukherjee
D. Shobha De
Answer : A,
Solution : Ritu Beri is a noted fashion designer in India
Q.172Indian Navy deploys P81 surveillance aircraft to
A. Sri Lanka
B. Seychelles
C. Mauritius
D. Israel
Answer : B,
Solution : This is for the first time India provided its latest technology to any country
Q.173In march 2016, BHEL commissions 40MW hydro power plant in
A. West Bengal
B. Uttarakhand
C. Karnataka
D. Jammu & Kashmir
Answer : A,
Solution : The project is under Teesta Low Dam HEP. Till now Bhel have commissioned nearly
400 hydrogenerating sets.
Q.174India's biggest Defence Expo 'Defexpo' was organised in which state ?
A. West Bengal
B. Goa
C. Maharashtra
D. New Delhi
Answer : B,
Solution : The theme of Defexpo 2016 was 'Rise of Futurism'
Q.175Chapchur Kut festival is celebrated in the state of
A. Manipur
B. Mizoram
C. West Bengal

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D. Assam
Answer : B,
Solution : It is a traditional spring festival celebrated post Jhum cultivation
Q.176Who among the following played a pivotal role in Operation Flood being the Chairman of
National Dairy Development Board(NDDB)?
A. Prof. Amartya Sen
B. Dr. Venkatraman
C. Dr. Amrita Patel
D. CV Raman
Answer : C,
Solution : Under Operation Flood programme, India was transformed from a milk deficient
country to milk surplus country, even more India was able to surpass world's leading milk
producer in 1998. Dr. Amrita Patel was conferred with 2016 Mahindra Samriddhi India Agri
Lifetime Achievement Award also called Krishi Shiromani Samman for her noted contribution
in agricultural productivity and rural prosperity.
Q.177If Farmer belongs to Field, a warrior belongs to
A. Hospital
B. Asylum
C. Battlefield
D. Office
Answer : C,
Solution : Work & Worker Place
Q.178Hermit : Solitude :: Intruder : ?
A. Thief
B. Privacy
C. Burglar
D. Alm
Answer : C,
Solution : Word Synonym
Q.179Scissor is related to Cloth in the same way as Scythe is related to
A. Word
B. Steel
C. Grass

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D. Papers
Answer : C,
Solution : Worker & Product
Q.180If BELIEF is written as afkkdi, how is SELDOM written
A. tfkenp
B. rfkfnp
C. rfkenn
D. rdkcnl
Answer : B,
Solution : Odd letters moved one step backward while the even letters moved one, two and
three steps forward chronologically
Q.181In a certain language 492311 is written as EBWDSS, 12448 as SWEET, the n what will be
coded as BED
A. 15789
B. 17589
C. 16789
D. 18789
Answer : A,
Solution : Map the numerals of given word ith the required one
Q.182If PLATE=54, what is SPOON=?
A. 63
B. 72
C. 79
D. 81
Answer : C,
Solution : Code is the sum of place values
Q.183In a certain code, TOGETHER is written as RQEGRJCT. In the same code, PAROLE will be
written as
A. NCPJQG
B. NCPQJG
C. NCPOGJ
D. NCPOJG

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Answer : B,
Solution : Letters in odd position moves two step backward while letters in even position
moves two steps forward
Q.1842,6,12,20,30,___,56,72
A. 47
B. 42
C. 51
D. 49
Answer : B,
Solution : Consecutive differences are 2,4,6,8...
Q.18513,20,34,55,___,118,160
A. 81
B. 83
C. 71
D. 73
Answer : B,
Solution : 20 =13+7, 34 =20 + 7x2 , 55 = 34 + 7x3 83= 55 + 7x4
Q.18617,31,47,65,___,107
A. 78
B. 80
C. 84
D. 85
Answer : D,
Solution : Difference between consecutive numbers progresses as 14, 16, 18,20,22
Q.1875,6,13,32,___,130,221
A. 67
B. 89
C. 101
D. 69
Answer : D,
Solution : 5=0^3+5, 6=1^3+5, 13 =2^3+5, 32 =3^3+5, 69=4^3+5 .

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Q.188B,C,D,F,G,H,J,K,L,M,N,__
A. O
B. P
C. Q
D. R
Answer : B,
Solution : Its a series of consonants
Q.189BY, CX, EV, GT, __, MN
A. HJ
B. IK
C. OP
D. KP
Answer : D,
Solution : There are two series one in forwarding order while the other in reducing order.
The letters are taking Prime value positoins
Q.190ACEGI, BDFHJ, ____, LNPRT, UWYAC, VXZBD
A. KMOOS
B. KMQQT
C. KMOQS
D. KMPQS
Answer : C,
Solution : There are two series where the letters with odd position values are taken in
alternate groups. i.e, ACEGI, KMOQS, UWYAC similarly the letters with even position values
are taken in the other positions. i.e. DBFHJ, LNPRT, VXZBD.
Q.191___, 23, 47, 79, 119, 167
A. 18
B. 7
C. 19
D. 15
Answer : B,
Solution : Multiple of 8 added: 23+24=47, 47+32=79, 79+40=119, Therefore 23-16=7
Q.1925,4,6,15,56,___,1644,11501
A. 125

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B. 275
C. 485
D. 565
Answer : B,
Solution : Successive number is obtained by multiplying the previous number by its position
and subtracting the position value 4=5x1-1, 6 =4x2-2, 15 =6x3-3, .275 = 56x5-5
Q.193CEQ, DIR, FOS, GUT, ___, JEV
A. HIA
B. GAT
C. HAT
D. HAU
Answer : D,
Solution : There are three series, the first and third letter of the series are consecutive
consonants and the second ltter of the series are consecutive vowels
Q.194 The value of [10150 / 10146] is
A. 1000
B. 10000
C. 100000
D. 106
Answer : B,
Solution : [(10)^150 / (10)^146] = (10) ^ (150-146) = 10^4 = 10000
Q.195 183.5 / 273.5 * 63.5 = 2x
What is the value of x?
A. 3.5
B. 4.5
C. 6
D. 7
Answer : D,
Solution : 183.5 / 273.5 * 63.5 = [(32) * 2]3.5 / [33*3.5]* (2 * 3)3.5 => Component of 3 cancels out =>
27 lefts out; Hence x=7
Q.196 Given that 100.48 = x, 100.70 = y and xz = y2, then the value of z is close to
A. 1.45
B. 1.88

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C. 2.9
D. 3.7
Answer : C,
Solution : xz = y2 => 100.48z = 100.7*2=> 0.48z = 1.4; z=2.9(approx)
Q.197The ratio of the radius of two circles is 2 : 3, and then the ratio of their areas will be?
A. 3:4
B. 3:2
C. 4:9
D. 2:3
Answer : C,
Solution : r1:r2 = 1:3; r1^2 : r2^2 = 4:9
Q.198Two security guards, Raghu and Nandu are paid a total of Rs.5500 per week by the chairman
of the housing complex. If Raghu is paid 120% of the amount paid to Nandu, how much is
Nandu paid per week?
A. 3500
B. 3300
C. 3000
D. 2500
Answer : D,
Solution : Let Nandu receives an amount of x; Then x + 120% of x = 5500; (220/100)x =
5500; x=2500
Q.199In what ratio must water be mixed with milk to gain 16 2/3 % on selling the mixture at cost
price?
A. 1:6
B. 2:7
C. 3:11
D. 5:7
Answer : A,
Solution : Let water added be the f fraction of milk. Let cost per unit of milk be x. He has total
milk (1+f). He sells at the cost price and makes profit of 50/3% . So (f+1)x =( 50/3%+1)x. f
=1/6.
Q.200What will be the ratio of two friends Amar and Sanket after 4years if the present age ratio of
Amar & Sanket be 3:4 while 6 years back, the ratio was 3:5.

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A.
B.
C.
D.

3:04
4:05
5:06
3:05
Answer : B,

Solution : Let the constant of proportion be x; (3x-6)/(4x-6)=3/5; 15x-30=12x-18; 3x=12; x=4;


Present age of Amar and Sanket respectively = 12, 16 => after 4 years: 16:20 => 4:5

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