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QUESTION PAPER BOOKLET CODE : A :1: 327

Question Paper Booklet No.

Roll No. :

Time Allowed : 3 hours Maximum marks : 100

Total number of questions : 100 Total number of printed pages : 20


Instructions :
1. Candidates should use blue/black ballpoint pen ONLY to fill-in all the required information in
OMR Answer Sheet and this Question Paper Booklet.
2. Answer Sheet cannot be taken out from the Examination Hall by the examinees and the same is
required to be properly handed over to the Invigilator/Supervisory staff on duty and
acknowledgement be obtained for doing so on the Admit Card before leaving the Examination
Hall.
3. Candidates are required to correctly fill-in the Question Paper Booklet Code and the Question
Paper Booklet No. (as mentioned on the top of this booklet) in the OMR Answer Sheet, as the
same will be taken as final for result computation. Institute shall not undertake any responsibility
for making correction(s) at later stage.
4. This Question Paper Booklet contains 100 questions. All questions are compulsory and carry ONE
mark each. There will be no negative marking for wrong answers.
5. Seal of this Question Paper Booklet MUST NOT be opened before the specified time of examination.
6. Immediately on opening of Question Paper Booklet, candidates should ensure that it contains
100 questions in total and none of its page is missing/misprinted. In case of any discrepancy, the
booklet shall be replaced at once.
7. Each question is followed by four alternative answers marked as A, B, C and D. For answering
the questions including those requiring filling-in the blank spaces, candidates shall choose one
most appropriate answer to each question and mark the same in the OMR Answer Sheet by
darkening the appropriate circle only in the manner as prescribed in the OMR Answer Sheet.
8. Darkening of more than one circle corresponding to any question or leaving all the circles blank
or overwriting/cutting any answer(s) shall be taken as wrong answer for computation of result.
Ticking/marking/writing of answer(s) in the Question Paper Booklet shall not be considered in any
circumstance for award of marks. The Institute shall neither entertain any claim nor be liable to
respond to any of the query in the aforesaid matter.
9. Rough work, if any, should be done only on the space provided in this Question Paper Booklet.
10. The Copyright of this Question Paper Booklet and Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) contained
therein solely vests with the Institute.
...
(SIGNATURE OF CANDIDATE)
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Space for Rough Work

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PART A

1. Under the Factories Act, 1948, usually the 4. As per section 16 of the Contract Labour
term 'precincts' is known as (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970 in
every establishment wherein contract labour
(A) A space enclosed by walls
numbering 100 or more is ordinarily
(B) Part of factory employed by a contractor, the contractor is
(C) Subsidiary of factory required to provide and maintain _______
for the use of such contract labour.
(D) Walls of the factory.
(A) One or more rest rooms
(B) One or more canteens
2. The statutory wage ceiling under the (C) Creches
Employees' Deposit-Linked Insurance (D) First-aid facilities.
Scheme, 1976 is
5. As per the Child Labour (Prohibition and
(A) `6,500 per month Regulation) Act, 1986 domestic workers or
(B) `10,000 per month servant are treated as
(C) `15,000 per month (A) Occupations set forth in Part-A of the
Schedule
(D) `25,000 per month. (B) Processes set forth in Part-B of the
Schedule
3. Which of the following person is not (C) Occupations set forth in Part-B of the
Schedule
included in the definition of 'workman' under
(D) Processes set forth in Part-A of the
the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
Schedule.
(A) Who is employed in a supervisory
capacity drawing more than `6,500 but 6. Under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936
less than `7,500 per month as wages any premises including the precincts thereof
(B) Who is employed in a supervisory whereon twenty or more workers are
working, or were working on a day of the
capacity drawing more than `1,600 but
preceding twelve months, and in any part of
less than `6,500 per month as wages which a manufacturing process is being
(C) Who is employed in a supervisory carried on without the aid of power, or is
capacity drawing more than `10,000 ordinarily so carried on is known as
per month as wages (A) Factory
(B) Mobile unit belonging to the armed
(D) Who is employed in a supervisory
forces
capacity drawing less than `1,600 per
(C) Railway running shed
month as wages. (D) Hotel, restaurant or eating place.

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7. As per the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 the 10. Which of the following is empowered under
bonus should be paid within how many section 41D of the Factories Act, 1948 to
months from the close of the accounting appoint an Inquiry Committee in the event
year of the occurrence of an extraordinary
(A) One month situation involving a factory engaged in a
(B) Two months hazardous process, to inquire into the
(C) Twelve months standards of health and safety observed in
(D) Eight months. the factory with a view to finding out the
causes of any failure or neglect in the
8. Which of the following is included in the adoption of any measures or standards
definition of 'wages' under the Industrial
prescribed for the health and safety of the
Disputes Act, 1947
workers employed in the factory
(A) Any bonus
(B) Any travelling concession (A) Central Government
(C) Any gratuity payable on the (B) State Government
termination of the service (C) Occupier of the factory
(D) Any commission payable on the (D) Inspector of the factory.
promotion of sales or business or both.

9. Which establishment is defined as 'small 11. Any industrial dispute or any matter
establishment' under the Labour Laws appearing to be connected with, or relevant
(Exemption from Furnishing Returns to the dispute specified in the Second
and Maintaining Registers by certain Schedule of the Industrial Disputes
Establishments) Act, 1988 Act, 1947 the appropriate Government,
(A) The establishment in which not less by order in writing may make a reference
than 9 and not more than 20 persons for adjudication to
are employed or were employed on (A) Labour Court
any day in preceding 12 months (B) Court of Inquiry
(B) The establishment in which not less
(C) Industrial Tribunal
than 10 and not more than 19 persons
are employed or were employed on (D) National Tribunal.
any day in preceding 12 months
(C) The establishment in which not more 12. As per section 3A and 3B of the Apprentices
than 9 persons are employed or were Act, 1961 in every designated trade, training
employed on any day in preceding places shall not be reserved for
12 months (A) Scheduled castes
(D) The establishment in which not more
(B) Scheduled tribes
than 10 persons are employed or were
employed on any day in preceding (C) Other backward classes
12 months. (D) Minority community.

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13. An insured person under the Employees' (C) An all inclusive rate allowing for the
State Insurance Act, 1948 is entitled to basic rate, the cost of living allowance
receive certain benefits. But the insured and the cash value of the concessions,
person is if any
(A) Not entitled to receive more than one
(D) An all excusive rate not allowing for
benefit for the same period
the basic rate, the cost of living
(B) Entitled to receive more than one
allowance and the cash value of the
benefit for the same period on
concessions, if any.
compassionate grounds
(C) Entitled to receive one benefit partly
in cash and receive the other benefit in 16. Under the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965
kind for the same period 'accounting year' in relation to a corporation
(D) Entitled to receive more than one means
benefit on approval of authorities (A) The year commencing on the 1st day
concerned. of April
(B) The period in respect of which any
14. Under section 2(ii) of the Child Labour
profit and loss account of the company
(Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 a
is laid before the annual general
person who has not completed his fourteenth
meeting, whether that period is a year
year of age is defined as
or not
(A) Infant
(B) Child (C) The year ending on the day on which
(C) Adolescent the books of account of the corporation
(D) Young. are to be closed and balanced
(D) The year commencing on the 1st day
15. According to section 4 of the Minimum of January.
Wages Act, 1948 any minimum rate of
wages duly fixed or revised may not consist 17. Any unpaid wages due to the workers under
of the Chapter VII (annual leave with wages)
(A) A basic rate of wages and a special of the Factories Act, 1948 can be recovered
allowance at a rate to be adjusted
as delayed wages under the provisions of
(hereinafter referred to as the cost of
the
living allowance)
(B) A basic rate of wages or without the (A) Minimum Wages Act, 1948
cost of living allowance and the cash (B) Payment of Wages Act, 1936
value of the concession in respect of (C) Equal Remuneration Act, 1976
supplies of essential commodities at (D) Payment of Bonus Act, 1965.
concessional rates where so authorized

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18. Under the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 21. Under the Contract Labour (Regulation and
gratuity shall be payable to an employee on Abolition) Act, 1970 the principal employer
the termination of his employment if he has of an establishment can employ contract
rendered continuous service for labour if
(A) Not less than three years (A) The principal employer has not
obtained the certificate of registration
(B) Not less than five years
(B) The work is of urgent nature
(C) Not less than seven years
(C) The work is not of perennial nature
(D) Not less than ten years. (D) The work provides instant employment
to a considerable number of
19. As per the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 a unemployed persons.
woman is entitled to maternity benefit if she
has actually worked in an establishment of 22. As per the Industrial Employment (Standing
the employer for a period of not less than Orders) Act, 1946 Standing Orders shall
(A) Eighty days in the twelve months come into operation
immediately preceding the date of her (A) On the expiry of 15 days from the date
expected delivery on which the authenticated copies are
sent to employer and workers
(B) Ninety days in the twelve months
representatives
immediately preceding the date of her
(B) On the expiry of 30 days from the date
expected delivery
on which the authenticated copies are
(C) Hundred days in the twelve months sent to employer and workers
immediately preceding the date of her representatives
expected delivery (C) On the expiry of 60 days from the date
(D) Hundred twenty days in the twelve on which the authenticated copies
months immediately preceding the date are sent to employer and workers
of her expected delivery. representatives
(D) On the expiry of 6 weeks from the date
20. The body, by whatever name called, to on which the authenticated copies are
which the management of the affairs of a sent to employer and workers
trade union is entrusted is defined as representatives.
(A) Body corporate under the Trade Union
23. Under section 55 of the Factories Act, 1948,
Act, 1926
an adult worker shall not work continuously
(B) Agent under the Trade Union for more than five hours unless he has had a
Act, 1926 rest interval of at least
(C) Office-bearer under the Trade Union (A) One hour
Act, 1926 (B) 45 minutes
(D) Executive under the Trade Union (C) Half an hour
Act, 1926. (D) Two hours.

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24. If the services of an employee have been 27. Under the Apprentices Act, 1961 any
terminated for riotous or disorderly conduct industry or business in which any trade,
or any other act of violence on his part, the occupation or subject field in engineering or
gratuity payable to him under the Payment technology or any vocational course may be
of Gratuity Act, 1972 may specified as a designated trade is defined
(A) Be forfeited wholly or partially as
(A) Industry
(B) Not to be forfeited wholly or partially
(B) Business
(C) Be given at the discretion of employer
(C) Trade
(D) Be referred to the trade union.
(D) Designated trade.

25. Which Act, regulates employment of women 28. The authority to hear and decide claim arising
in certain establishments for a certain period out of payment of less than the minimum
before and after childbirth and provides for rates of wages under section 20 of the
maternity and other benefits Minimum Wages Act, 1948 is
(A) The Apprentices Act, 1961 (A) Any Commissioner for workmen's
(B) The Industrial Employment (Standing compensation
Orders) Act, 1946 (B) Any officer of the local government
(C) The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 (C) Any officer of the State government
below the rank of Labour
(D) The Equal Remuneration Act, 1976.
Commissioner
(D) Employer.
26. Under the Employment Exchanges
(Compulsory Notification of Vacancies)
29. In terms of section 25N of the Industrial
Act, 1959 an establishment which is not an
Disputes Act, 1947 a workman employed
establishment in public sector and where
in any industrial establishment shall be
ordinarily twenty-five or more persons are
retrenched by the employer by giving
employed to work for remuneration is
__________ notice in writing indicating the
defined as
reasons for retrenchment.
(A) Employment exchange (A) One month
(B) Establishment in public sector (B) Three months
(C) Establishment in private sector (C) Fifteen days
(D) Public company. (D) Twenty-one days.

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30. Every State Council constituted under the 33. According to section 66 of the Factories
Apprentices Act, 1961 should be affiliated Act, 1948 a woman shall not be allowed to
to the work in any factory except between the
(A) State Council hours of
(B) State Apprenticeship Council (A) 6 A.M. and 7 P.M.
(B) 6 A.M. and 9 P.M.
(C) National Council
(C) 8 A.M. and 9 P.M.
(D) Central Apprenticeship Council.
(D) 8 A.M. and 8 P.M.

31. In the case of Workmen of Dimakuchi Tea 34. The employer's contribution rate in every
Estate v. Dimakuchi Tea Estate, which of wage period under the Employees' State
the following objectives of the Industrial Insurance Act, 1948 is
Disputes Act, 1947 are not laid down by (A) 1.25% of the wages paid/payable
the Supreme Court (B) 1.75% of the wages paid/payable
(A) Promotion of measures of securing and (C) 4.25% of the wages paid/payable
preserving amity and good relations (D) 4.75% of the wages paid/payable.
between the employer and workmen
(B) Investigation and settlement of 35. According to the Industrial Employment
industrial disputes between employers (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 modification
and employees of Standing Orders will not be affected
until
(C) Promotion of collective bargaining
(A) The expiry of 1 month from the date
(D) Promotion of lay-off and lock-outs. on which the Standing Orders were
last modified or certified as the case
32. Which of the following Act is not a may be
Scheduled Act as specified in the First (B) The expiry of 2 months from the date
Schedule to the Labour Laws (Exemption on which the Standing Orders were
from Furnishing Returns and Maintaining last modified or certified as the case
may be
Registers by Certain Establishments)
(C) The expiry of 3 months from the date
Act, 1988
on which the Standing Orders were
(A) The Payment of Wages Act, 1936 last modified or certified as the case
(B) The Weekly Holidays Act, 1942 may be
(C) The Minimum Wages Act, 1948 (D) The expiry of 6 months from the date
(D) The Employees State Insurance on which the Standing Orders were
last modified or certified as the case
Act, 1948.
may be.

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36. Who among the following fixes the minimum 39. The Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 does not
rate of wages for piece work, known as apply to which of the following
minimum piece rate under section 3 of the (A) Every factory, mine, oilfield,
Minimum Wages Act, 1948 plantation, port and railway company
(A) Employer (B) Every shop or establishment within the
(B) Contractor meaning of any law for the time being
(C) Labour Commissioner in force in relation to shops and
(D) Appropriate government. establishments in a State, in which ten
or more persons are employed, or
37. Which of the following benefit is not covered were employed, on any day of the
under the Employees' State Insurance preceding twelve months
Act, 1948 (C) Every shop or establishment within the
(A) Sickness benefit meaning of any law for the time being
(B) Maternity benefit in force in relation to shops and
establishments in a State, in which less
(C) Disablement benefit
than 10 persons are employed, or were
(D) Recreational benefit.
employed, on any day of the preceding
twelve months
38. Who is eligible to become an apprentice
(D) Such other establishments or class of
under the Apprentices Act, 1961
establishments in which ten or more
(A) Any person who is of 14 years or
employees are employed, or were
above, fulfills the basic physical and
employed, on any day of the preceding
educational standards as defined in the
twelve months as the Central
Apprentices Act, 1961
Government may, by notification
(B) Any person who is of 16 years or specify in this behalf.
above, fulfills the basic physical or
educational standards as defined in the
40. Which one of the following Acts prevents
Apprentices Act, 1961
discrimination against women employees
(C) Any person who is of 18 years or
while making recruitment for the same work
above, fulfills the basic physical and
or work of similar nature, or in any condition
educational standards as defined in the
of service subsequent to recruitment
Apprentices Act, 1961
(A) The Minimum Wages Act, 1948
(D) Any person who is of 21 years or
above, fulfills the basic physical and (B) The Payment of Wages Act, 1936
educational standards as defined in the (C) The Equal Remuneration Act, 1976
Apprentices Act,1961. (D) The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961.

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41. Section 36A of the Factories Act, 1948 (C) Withdrawal of any customary
provides that in any factory no portable concession or privilege
electric light or any other electric appliance (D) The propriety or legality of an order
of voltage exceeding __________ shall be passed by an employer under standing
permitted for use inside any chamber, tank, orders.
vat, pit, pipe, flue or other confined space
45. A factory which is engaged in any process
unless adequate safety devices are provided.
of blending, packing or repacking of tea or
(A) 42 Volts coffee for a period not exceeding seven
(B) 24 Volts months in a year under section 19(A) of the
(C) 50 Volts Employees' State Insurance Act, 1948 is
(D) 100 Volts. known as
(A) Seasonal factory
(B) Non-seasonal factory
42. As per the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 (C) Manufacturing process
wage-period shall not exceed (D) Scheduled employment.
(A) Half a month
(B) One month 46. The Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 applies to
every factory and every other establishment
(C) Two months
in which _________________ persons are
(D) Three months. employed on any day during an accounting
year.
43. Who is responsible for giving notification of (A) Twenty or more
vacancies to employment exchanges under (B) Twenty five or more
the Employment Exchanges (Compulsory (C) Fifty or more
Notification of Vacancies) Act, 1959 (D) Hundred or more.

(A) Employment exchange


47. Under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
(B) The employer failure, refusal or inability of an employer to
(C) The employee give employment, to a workman whose
(D) Establishment in private sector. name appears on the muster-rolls of his
industrial establishment and who has not
been retrenched due to break-down of
44. Under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
machinery is defined as
which of the following matter does not fall
(A) Lay-off
within the jurisdiction of Labour Courts
(B) Lock out
(A) Hours of work and rest intervals (C) Retrenchment
(B) The application and interpretation of (D) Termination.
standing orders
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48. Excluded employee under Employees' 51. The limitation period of prosecutions
Provident Funds Scheme, 1952 means an under section 27 of the Contract Labour
(Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970 is
employee drawing pay exceeding
(A) Three years
(A) `6,500 per month (B) One year
(B) `15,000 per month (C) Nine months
(C) `10,000 per month (D) Three months.

(D) `20,000 per month.


52. Which of the following body registers a
Trade Union
49. Under the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976 (A) Controller of Trade Union
(B) Registrar of Trade Union
the basic wage or salary and any additional
(C) Registrar of Societies
emoluments whatsoever payable, either in
(D) Controller of Societies.
cash or in kind, to a person employed in
respect of employment or work done in such 53. Which one of the following Acts requires
employment, if the terms of the contract of employers in industrial establishments
employment, express or implied, were formally to define conditions of employment
fulfilled is defined as under them
(A) The Apprentices Act, 1961
(A) Wage
(B) The Industrial Employment (Standing
(B) Remuneration Orders) Act, 1946
(C) Salary (C) The Contract Labour (Regulation and
Abolition) Act, 1970
(D) Contract of employment.
(D) The Equal Remuneration Act, 1976.

50. As per the Employees' Compensation 54. The Contract Labour (Regulation and
Act, 1923 in the case of death resulting from Abolition) Act, 1970 applies to every
establishment/contractor in which _______
injury, the amount of compensation payable
or more workmen are employed or were
to an employee is
employed on any day of the preceding
(A) `90,000 twelve months as contract labour
(B) `1,00,000 (A) 7
(B) 10
(C) `1,20,000
(C) 15
(D) `1,40,000. (D) 20.

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55. According to the Child Labour (Prohibition 58. Under the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961
and Regulation) Act, 1986 prohibition of employment of or work by a woman is
employment of children is not applicable to prohibited during
any workshop wherein any process is carried (A) Three weeks immediately following
on by the occupier the day of her delivery, miscarriage or
(A) With the aid of his family medical termination of pregnancy
(B) With the aid of foreign government (B) Six weeks immediately following the
(C) With the aid of his friends day of her delivery, miscarriage or
(D) With the aid of public. medical termination of pregnancy
(C) Nine weeks immediately following the
56. In terms of section 10A of the Industrial day of her delivery, miscarriage or
Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 medical termination of pregnancy
where any workman is suspended by the (D) Twelve weeks immediately following
employer pending investigation or inquiry the day of her delivery, miscarriage or
into complaints or charges of misconduct medical termination of pregnancy.
against him, the employer shall pay to such
a workman the subsistence allowance, at the
59. The insurance benefit under the Employees'
rate of ___________ per cent of the wages
Deposit-Linked Insurance Scheme, 1976
which the workman was entitled to
has increased by ____________ in addition
immediately preceding the date of such
to the existing admissible benefits w.e.f.
suspension, for the first ninety days of
1st September, 2014.
suspension.
(A) Fifty (A) 20%
(B) Sixty (B) 25%
(C) Seventy five (C) 50%
(D) Ninety. (D) 70 %.

57. Under the Employees' Compensation 60. As per Section 2(ll) of the Employees'
Act, 1923 such disablement, whether of a Provident Funds and Miscellaneous
temporary or permanent nature, as Provisions Act, 1952 superannuation in
incapacitates an employee for all work relation to an employee, who is the member
which he was capable of performing at the of the Pension Scheme, means the
time of the accident resulting in such attainment, by the said employee, of the age
of
disablement is defined as
(A) Total disablement (A) Fifty-eight years
(B) Partial disablement (B) Fifty-five years
(D) Serious bodily injury (C) Sixty years
(D) Fatal accident. (D) Sixty-two years.

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61. The minimum number of persons required 64. According to the Payment of Wages
for registration of a trade union are Act, 1936 where the employment of any
person is terminated by or on behalf of the
(A) 2
employer, the wages earned by him shall be
(B) 5
paid
(C) 7 (A) Before the expiry of the second
(D) 10. working day from the day on which
his employment is terminated
(B) Before the expiry of the fifth working
62. In the event of any dispute relating to the
day from the day on which his
amount of gratuity payable, the employer
employment is terminated
shall deposit such amount as he admits to be (C) Before the expiry of the seventh
payable by him working day from the day on which
(A) With the Civil Court his employment is terminated
(B) With the Revenue Court (D) Before the expiry of the tenth working
day from the day on which his
(C) With the Labour Inspector
employment is terminated.
(D) With the Controlling Authority.
65. In which of the following cases, the
63. According to section 10B of the Employees' employer shall not be liable to pay
Compensation Act, 1923 reports of fatal compensation under the Employees'
accidents and serious bodily injuries are Compensation Act, 1923
(A) When the injury does not result in
required to be forwarded to the
disablement for a period exceeding
Commissioner within
3 days.
(A) Fifteen days of the death or serious (B) When the injury does not result in
bodily injury disablement for a period not exceeding
(B) Ten days of the death or serious bodily 2 days.
injury (C) When the injury does not result in
(C) Seven days of the death or serious disablement for a period equal to
bodily injury 3 days.
(D) When the injury does not result in
(D) Three days of the death or serious
disablement for a period exceeding one
bodily injury.
day.

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66. Section 28 of the Factories Act, 1948 responsibility required of a man and those
provides that in a factory, every hoist and required of a woman are not of practical
lift shall be properly maintained and importance in relation to the terms and
thoroughly examined by a competent person conditions of employment is defined as
at least once in every period of (A) Equal work or work of a same nature
(A) Three months (B) Equal work or work of a similar nature
(B) Six months (C) Same employment or employment of
(C) Nine months a similar nature
(D) Twelve months. (D) Same work or work of a similar nature.

67. As per section 13A of the Payment of 69. As per section 8 of the Payment of Wages
Wages Act, 1936 every register and record Act, 1936 no fine shall be imposed on
required to be maintained shall be preserved any employed person who is under the age
for a period of of
(A) Three years after the date of the last (A) Twenty one years
entry made therein (B) Fifteen years
(B) Five years after the date of the last entry (C) Sixteen years
made therein
(D) Eighteen years.
(C) Eight years after the date of the last
entry made therein
70. An employee who is employed in a seasonal
(D) Nine years after the date of the last
establishment and who is not so employed
entry made therein.
throughout the year, the employer shall pay
the gratuity under the Payment of Gratuity
68. Under the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976 Act, 1972 at the rate of
work in respect of which the skill, effort and (A) Three days' wages for each season
responsibility required are the same, when
(B) Five days' wages for each season
performed under similar working conditions,
by a man or a woman and the differences, (C) Seven days' wages for each season

if any, between the skill, effort and (D) Ten days' wages for each season.

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PART B
71. Protection of natural environment is an 74. Emergency shall be proclaimed by
objective expressly stated in (A) Governor on the basis of the
(A) Fundamental rights recommendation of Chief Justice of
High Court
(B) Fundamental duties (B) The President of India on the basis
(C) Directive principles of State policy of the recommendation of Chief Justice
of India
(D) Social measures.
(C) The President of India on the basis of
the recommendation of the Union
72. Under the Constitution of India which Cabinet
of the following is not a fundamental (D) Governor on the recommendation of
right Chief Minister of the State.

(A) Right to equality


75. Which of the following writ is applicable for
(B) Right to freedom dispute regarding refund of money illegally
(C) Right to property collected as higher secondary education cess
by income-tax authorities
(D) Right to freedom of religion.
(A) Habeas corpus
(B) Certiorari
73. Judicial review under the Constitution (C) Quo warranto
of India : (D) Mandamus.
(i) is a part of the basic structure of the
Constitution 76. According to which rule of interpretation,
the words, phrases and sentences of a statute
(ii) can only be excluded by a consti-
are ordinarily to be understood in their
tutional amendment. natural, ordinary or popular and grammatical
Which of the statements given above meaning unless such a construction leads to
is /are correct an absurdity or the content or object of the
statute suggests a different meaning
(A) (i) only
(A) Rule of literal construction
(B) (ii) only (B) Rule of reasonable construction
(C) Both (i) and (ii) (C) Rule of harmonious construction
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii). (D) Rule of ejusdem generis.

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77. Which of the following may not be taken 80. Section 27 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963
into account as internal aids in interpretation lays down that any person interested in a
while interpreting a statute contract may sue to have it rescinded, and
(A) Preamble such rescission may be adjudged by the
(B) Heading and title of a chapter Court where the contract is voidable by the
(C) Dictionaries plaintiff. Here 'contract' means

(D) Marginal notes. (A) A contract in writing

(B) A contract in will


78. According to section 5 of the Specific Relief
(C) A contract in oral
Act, 1963 a person, entitled to the possession
of specific immovable property may recover (D) A contract in spirit.
the same in the manner provided by
(A) The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
81. "An infringement of a right in rem of a
(B) The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 private individual gives a right of
(C) The Indian Penal Code, 1860 compensation at the suit of the injured
(D) The Transfer of Property Act, 1882. party." This statement is given by

(A) Salmond
79. Rakesh conveys land to Amit, who
(B) Fraser
bequeaths it to Sonu and dies. Thereupon
Sonakshi gets possession of the land and (C) Winfield
produces a forged instrument stating that the (D) Fleming.
conveyance was made to Bimal in trust for
him. Who may obtain the cancellation of
the forged instrument under the Specific 82. Liability in tort depends upon
Relief Act, 1963
(A) Number of damages
(A) Rakesh
(B) Quantity of injury
(B) Amit
(C) Sonu (C) Infringement of legal right

(D) Sonakshi. (D) Encroachment of interest.

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83. Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963 allows 86. Which principle/doctrine says that a man
the extension of prescribed period in certain cannot approbate and reprobate, or that a
cases on sufficient cause being shown for man shall not say one thing at one time and
the delay. This is known as doctrine of later on say a different thing
sufficient cause for condonation of delay. (A) Doctrine of indoor management
The test of 'sufficient cause' is purely (B) Doctrine of constructive notice
(A) An open test
(C) Principle of estoppel
(B) An intention test
(D) Principle of equity.
(C) An objective test
(D) An individualistic test.
87. Right of appeal is a

84. Section 24 of the Limitation Act, 1963 deals (A) Natural right attached to litigation
with computation of time mentioned in the (B) Inherent right attached to litigation
instruments. It states that all instruments shall (C) Right given by the statute
for the purposes of the Act, be deemed to be (D) Normal right attached to litigation.
made with reference to
(A) The Gregorian calendar
88. Which of the following remedies is available
(B) The Arabian calendar to a defendant if an ex-parte decree is passed
(C) The Greek calendar against him :
(D) The Hindu calendar. (i) He may file an appeal against the
ex-parte decree under section 96 of the
85. Under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 any Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
matter expressed or described upon any (ii) He may file an application for review
substance by means of letters, figures or of the judgement.
marks, or by more than one of those means,
(iii) He may apply for setting aside the
intended to be used, or which may be used,
ex-parte decree.
for the purpose of recording that matter is
interpreted as Select the correct answer from the options
given below
(A) Facts
(B) Circumstances (A) (i) only

(C) Document (B) (i) and (ii) only


(D) Evidence. (C) (ii) and (iii) only
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii).

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89. Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 92. Every inquiry other than a trial conducted
the defendant has to file a written statement under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
of his defence within a period of __________ by a Magistrate or Court, carries the
from the date of service of summons. following features :
(A) 30 Days (i) The inquiry is different from a trial in
criminal matters
(B) 45 Days
(ii) Inquiry is wider than trial
(C) 60 Days
(iii) Inquiry stops when trial begins.
(D) 90 Days.
Select the correct answer from the options
given below
90. In the case of a conflict between the (A) (i), (ii) and (iii) .
doctrine of res judicata and the doctrine of (B) (i) and (ii) only
lis pendens (C) (ii) and (iii) only
(A) The doctrine of lis pendens prevails (D) (i) only.
over the doctrine of res judicata
(B) The doctrine of res judicata prevails 93. Any sentence of death passed by an
over the doctrine of lis pendens Additional Sessions Judge shall be subject
(C) The doctrine of res sub-judicata to confirmation by the
prevails over the doctrine of lis pendens (A) Sessions Judge
(D) Only the doctrine of lis pendens (B) Chief Judicial Magistrate
prevails. (C) Chief Metropolitan Magistrate
(D) High Court.
91. According to the Code of Criminal
Procedure, 1973 a case relating to an 94. An order under section 144 of the Code of
offence punishable with death, imprisonment Criminal Procedure, 1973 can remain in force
for life or imprisonment for a term exceeding for two months, and may be extended further
two years is defined as by the State Government if it considers
necessary for a period not exceeding
(A) Summons case
(A) Twelve months
(B) Sentence case
(B) Eight months
(C) Warrant case
(C) Six months
(D) Accused. (D) Five months.

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95. Under section 61 of the Code of Criminal Select the correct answer from the options
Procedure, 1973 which of the following is given below
issued by the Court, either for appearance (A) (i), (ii) and (v) only
or for producing a document or thing which (B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
may be issued to an accused person or (C) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v) only
witness (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) only.
(A) Warrant
(B) Summons 98. Which of the following is not a mode of
(C) Notice payment of fee for seeking information under
the Right to Information Act, 2005
(D) Arrest order.
(A) Demand draft
(B) Banker's cheque
96. As per section 29 of the Code of Criminal (C) Promissory note
Procedure, 1973 a Magistrate of the First (D) Indian postal order.
Class is authorised to pass a sentence of
(A) Imprisonment upto 3 years 99. Under the Right to Information Act, 2005
(B) Imprisonment upto 5 years the First Appellate Authority in exceptional
cases shall dispose off the appeal within
(C) Imprisonment upto 7 years
how many days of the receipt of the
(D) Imprisonment upto 10 years.
appeal
(A) 30
97. The requisites of a 'complaint' to a Magistrate (B) 45
under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (C) 60
are : (D) 90
(i) An oral or a written allegation
(ii) Some person known or unknown has 100. The number of Central Information

committed an offence Commissioners prescribed under section 12


of the Right to Information Act, 2005 are
(iii) It must be made to a Magistrate
(A) Not exceeding five
(iv) It must be made with the object that he (B) Not exceeding seven
should take action (C) Not exceeding ten
(v) A police report. (D) Not exceeding eleven.

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Space for Rough Work

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