1. The most abundant gas in the atmosphere by volume is _________.

This gas comprises 78% of the Earth atmosphere by

volume.
a. Oxygen     c. Carbon Dioxide
b. Argon     d. Nitrogen

2. The definition of a variable gas is a gas that varies significantly from time to time and place to place. The most significant
variable gas by volume in the planetary boundary layer in the atmosphere is:
a. Ozone     c. Oxygen
b. Water vapor     d. Carbon dioxide

3. An isobar is a line of constant ________________.

a. Pressure     c. Temperature
b. Density     d. Dewpoint

4. Which of the following best explains how pressure decreases with height in the Earth's atmosphere?
a. It decreases at a constant rate (linear decrease)
b. It decrease quickly at first then more gradually (exponential decrease)
c. It decreases at a rate of 9.8 millibars per kilometer
d. It decreases in the troposphere, increases in the stratosphere, then decreases to the top of the atmosphere

5. In the vertical dimension, the upper level jet stream is located closest to which mandatory synoptic scale pressure level?
a. The 850 millibar level (1,500 meters)
b. The surface
c. The 500 millibar level (5,500 meters)
d. The 300 millibar level (9,500 meters)

6. The seasons of Spring, Summer, Winter, and Fall are a direct result of which phenomenon?
a. The sun's energy output and the Earth's proximity to the sun
b. Shifting of ocean currents
c. The 23.5 ° tilt of the Earth from vertical
d. The jet stream

7. ________________ refers to the horizontal transport of air while _______________ is the vertical transport of air.
a. Advection, convection
b. Convection, advection

8. Which of the following has the highest albedo and thus more reflected solar radiation?
a. Fresh snow     c. Water
b. Grass     d. Blacktop

9. Which of the following is NOT a primary "control" of climate?

a. Altitude     c. Daily weather
b. Latitude     d. Ocean currents

10. Water has a ___________ heat capacity. This means a large amount of energy is needed to raise the temperature of
water relative to other substances.
a. Low
b. High

11. A one degree temperature change on the Fahrenheit scale is equal a _______________ degree change on the Celsius
scale.
a. 0.56     c. 1.8
b. 0.90      d. 3.6

12. Unsaturated air rises at the dry adiabatic lapse rate which is ___________ ° C per kilometer. This is also the same
numerical value as the gravitational force constant in meters per second squared.
a. 15.2      c. 6.5
b. 9.8      d. 5.5

13. Which of the following processes ABSORBS the most latent heat?
a. Melting     c. Evaporation
b. Freezing     d. Condensation

14. Which of the following processes will result in a GREATER dewpoint depression at the surface? The dewpoint depression
is the difference between the temperature and the dewpoint.
a. Wet-bulb cooling
b. Saturating previously unsaturated air
c. Radiational cooling
d. Solar heating

15. One saturated air parcel with a temperature of 10 ° C has a saturation mixing ratio of 7 grams per kilogram; A second air
parcel with a temperature of 20 ° C has a saturation mixing ratio of 14 grams per kilogram; From this information, what is the
most likely saturation mixing ratio of a parcel of air at 30 ° C? Warmer air holds exponentially more water vapor, therefore
the temperature/saturation mixing ratio relationship is not linear.
a. 17.5 grams per kilogram
b. 19.0 grams per kilogram
c. 21.0 grams per kilogram
d. 26.5 grams per kilogram

16. In which air mass type would a rising parcel's slope at the moist adiabatic lapse rate be closest to the dry adiabatic lapse
rate? The moist adiabatic lapse rate is NOT a constant. The moist adiabatic lapse rate has a smaller slope than the dry
adiabatic lapse rate if a parcel contains moisture. The amount of latent heat release depends on the temperature and
moisture content of the air.
a. Maritime tropical (warm and moist)
b. Maritime polar (cool moist)
c. Continental tropical (hot and dry)
d. Continental polar (cold and dry)

17. Which of the following fronts GENERALLY has the smallest slope and is associated with light to moderate and widespread
precipitation? This front is often found to the right of a mid-latitude cyclone in North America.
a. Cold front     c. Dryline
b. Warm front     d. Hurricane

18. Which of the following statements is FALSE:

a. Cloud droplets freeze once temperature drops below 0 ° C.
b. The vapor pressure is higher over water than over ice
c. The typical raindrop is about 2 millimeters in diameter
d. Salt particles make good condensation nuclei

19. The geostrophic wind is a balance of the pressure gradient force and the _______________ force. This balance causes air
to flow nearly parallel to the height contours in the mid and upper levels of the atmosphere.
a. Friction     c. Coriolis
b. Centrifugal     d. Gravity

20. When viewed from above the North Pole of the Earth, the earth rotates _________________ and makes a complete turn
in 24 hours. This causes low pressure to spin counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere. Clue: the sun rises in the east
and sets in the west.
a. Clockwise
b. Counterclockwise

21. The California Current off the US West Coast is a ___________ ocean current while the Gulf Stream off the US East Coast
is a ______________ ocean current. This helps lead to dry summers in California and relatively wet summers in the SE US.
a. Cold, Warm
b. Warm, Cold

22. Which of the following is NOT conducive to lake effect snow?

a. Continental polar air advecting over warm Great Lake waters
b. Strong vertical directional and speed shear with positive LI's
c. Orographic lifting and frictional convergence
d. Large temperature difference between lake and overriding cP air

23. Where is the warm sector located in reference to a developed mid-latitude cyclone over the United States?
a. To the north     c. To the west
b. To the southeast     d. To the northeast

24. Rising motion due to vorticity and warm air advection are most commonly found to the ____________ of the 500 millibar
trough axis over the United States.
a. Left     b. Right     c. North

25. This is the type of fog that forms on nights with light wind, clear skies, low dewpoint depressions, and moist soils.
a. Warm air advection fog     c. Upslope fog
b. Thermal fog      d. Radiational fog

26. Which of the following reasons explains why the stratosphere is absolutely stable.
a. Air temperatures are too cold
b. Air pressure is too low
c. The absorption of radiant energy by ozone
d. The wind speed is too strong

27. Which of the following reasons explains why ice crystals develop much more rapidly than liquid water drops in the upper
and middle levels of thunderstorms?
a. When temperatures drop below freezing, condensation of water vapor onto liquid water does not take place. The water
vapor can, however, build on ice crystals due to deposition.
b. Electrical currents within thunderstorms allow the building of water vapor on ice crystals more rapidly than on liquid
water drops.
c. It is because the vapor pressure of ice is less than that over water. This produces a vapor pressure gradient between liquid
and frozen water. This causes water vapor to move from liquid water drops toward ice crystals.
d. It is due to the turbulent motion of air. Condensation rates onto liquid water slow with increasing windspeed.

28. These clouds have some vertical development and are located in the upper levels of the atmosphere. The clouds have a
lumpy appearance and are made of ice crystals. When viewed from the surface, each cloud element is about the size of a
thumbnail.
a. Nimbostratus      c. Altostratus
b. Fair weather cumulus      d. Cirrocumulus

29. How can virga cause the atmosphere to become increasingly unstable?
a. It can release large amounts of latent heat
b. It can cool the mid-levels of the atmosphere
c. It can cause a warming of the planetary boundary layer
d. It can cause surface to 500 millibar cold air advection

30. When the temperature is below freezing from the surface to 500 millibars, what precipitation type would you expect?
a. Snow      c. Sleet
b. Rain      d. Freezing rain

Severe Weather Section (31-40)

31. The two weather disasters that result in the greatest loss of life are:
a. Floods and Lightning      c. Floods and Hurricanes
b. Hurricanes and Tornadoes     d. Lightning and Droughts

32. Which of the following is true of a "capping inversion"?

a. It can prevent thunderstorms from developing
b. It can enhance thunderstorm activity due to heat and moisture buildup in the planetary boundary layer
c. It is a rapid temperature decrease with height above the planetary boundary layer
d. Both a and b
e. Both b and c

33. The air behind the forward flank downdraft associated with strong thunderstorms consists of _________________ air
while the rear flank downdraft consists of relatively __________________ air.
a. hot and dry; cold and moist
b. cool and moist; warm and dry
c. hot and moist; cold and moist
d. cool and dry; warm and moist

34. Which of the following states has the most frequent and largest hail of the four choices below? Why?
a. Kansas; many high CAPE days, freezing levels can be relatively low
b. Florida; large number of thunderstorm days
c. Michigan; high latitude, lake effect hail, many summer storms
d. Oregon; orographic lifting, many thunderstorm days, jet stream

35. Minimum tropical storm force wind is ________________ miles per hour while the minimum hurricane force wind is
_______________ miles per hour.
a. 50; 100     c. 39; 74
b. 25; 50     d. 44; 69

36. This is a synoptic scale boundary that separates maritime tropical (mT) air from continental tropical (cT) air. Dewpoint
changes dramatically from one side of the boundary to the other. Severe thunderstorms can occur along this boundary,
especially in Spring and early Summer.
a. Gust front      c. Chinook
b. Outflow boundary     d. Dryline

37. In which direction from a winter mid-latitude cyclone is heavy snow most likely to occur? The heaviest snow falls here
due to the best combination of cold air and uplift. In this part of the cyclone, warm and moist air isentropically wraps up and
over (wrap around precipitation) cold PBL air.
a. To the southeast
b. To the north
c. To the southwest
d. About a 100 miles south of the low track

38. In MOST cloud to ground lightning strikes, the ground tends to be _______________ charged.
a. Positively
b. Negatively

39. Thunder travels at the speed of sound which is nearest to:

a. 10 miles per hour
b. 5 miles per second
c. 1 mile every 5 seconds
d. 3 * 10^8 meter per second

40. The primary moisture source for severe thunderstorms in the Great Plains originates from the:
a. Jet stream
b. Mexican plateau and Rocky Mountains
c. Pacific Ocean
d. Gulf of Mexico

Climatology Section (41-50)

41. Many of the world's desert regions are located:

a. Just north and south of the equator
b. West coast regions along the Tropics of Capricorn and Cancer
c. At 60 ° North and 60 ° South
d. On the east coast of most continents

42. The sun is closest to the Earth in ______________, this is known as ______________ and has a ____________ effect on
seasons. Assume you are in the Northern Hemisphere.
a. Summer; Aphelion; large
b. Summer; Perihelion; small
c. Summer; Perihelion; large
d. Winter; Perihelion; small
e. Winter; Aphelion; large

43. Which of the following is a diabatic process as compared to an adiabatic process?

a. Convection
b. Orographic lifting
c. Radiational heating or cooling
d. Rising air due to PBL convergence

44. If you stand with your back to the wind and rotate to the right 30 °, the surface pressure will be _____________ to your
left than your right.
a. Lower
b. Higher

45. In which location are hurricanes most likely to develop?

a. In warm tropical waters 10 ° to 25 ° North and South of equator
b. Along the equator over continental locations
c. Along the west coast of continents at 35 ° North or South
d. In either the Mediterranean Sea, off the east coast of South America, or just south of Australia

46. An "A" climate is characterized as having:

a. Tropical forest climates and hot all seasons
b. A dry climate
c. Warm temperate rainy climates with mild winters
d. Cold forest climates with severe winters
e. Polar climate

47. Climate is a function of:

a. Latitude
b. Altitude
c. Continentality
d. Ocean currents
e. All of the above

48. The mid-latitude winds in the Northern and Southern Hemispheres flow generally from which direction?
a. From the east in both hemispheres
b. From the west in both hemispheres
c. From the west in the Northern Hemisphere and from the east in the Southern Hemisphere
d. From the east in the Northern Hemisphere and from the west in the Southern Hemisphere

49. Which of the following is NOT a high latitude climate?

a. Polar     c. Tundra
b. Tropical wet and dry      d. Taiga

50. The word MONSOON as it applies to climatology refers to:

a. Very heavy rain
b. The intensification of the polar jet
c. A seasonal reversal in wind direction and pressure distribution
d. A cyclone or typhoon with winds over 100 miles per hour

Forecasting section (51-70)

51. The 850 to 700 mb layer thickness can increase by which of the following processes?
a. Strong 500 millibar vorticity advection
b. Evaporational cooling between the 850 and 700 mb layer
c. Strong dry air advection into the layer
d. Strong warm air advection into the layer

52. When comparing the moisture content in the air between two locations it is best to use?
a. The dewpoint      c. The wet bulb temperature
b. Relative humidity     d. The dry bulb temperature

53. Suppose a parcel of air at the surface has a temperature of 50 ° F with a dewpoint of 30 ° F. As it begins to rain heavily
into the parcel, what is the wet-bulb temperature most likely to be after complete evaporational cooling?
a. 55 ° F      c. 37 ° F
b. 43 ° F      d. 32 ° F
54. When forecasting large hail, what are the primary thermodynamic ingredients to look for that produce large hail?
a. Vertical wind shear and surface temperature
b. PBL dewpoint and precipitable water
c. Surface pressure and 500 millibar Lifted Index
d. Elevation, CAPE and freezing level

55. When forecasting large and damaging tornadoes, what are the primary thermodynamic ingredients to look for?
a. PBL direction wind shear, mid-level moisture, speed shear, CAPE, weak to moderate cap and PBL moisture
b. Elevation, CAPE, cloud top height, and surface relative humidity
c. Upward vertical velocities, precipitable water, unidirectional shear, and PBL moisture
d. 500 millibar temperature, surface dewpoint, 700 millibar dewpoint depression, and lots of sunshine

56. When forecasting snow amounts associated with winter mid-latitude cyclones, the most complete list of the primary
synoptic scale ingredients and forecasting tools for heavy snow are:
a. 500 millibar vorticity, speed and directional wind shear in the PBL, 700 millibar temperature, 700 millibar dewpoint
depression, and direction low is moving
b. The size of the low, the deepness of the low, 700 millibar dewpoint, 1000 to 500 millibar thickness, soil temperatures, low
level wind shear, and surface based CAPE
c. The track of the low, intensity of low, PBL temperatures including 850 millibar temperature, isentropic lifting, precipitable
water, 1000 to 500 millibar thickness, 500 millibar vorticity, and the speed of low
d. Surface pressure, cloud tops, 500 millibar temperatures, jet streaks, surface temperature, elevation, 700 millibar wind
speed, and the temperature gradient across the cold front

57. Which of the following defines the "low level jet"?

a. Gust front winds associated with severe thunderstorms
b. Strong PBL winds in the Great Plains which rapidly draws warm and moist air from the Gulf of Mexico
c. It is a polar or subtropical jet stream which is at an unusually low pressure level
d. It is the contrails produced by jet aircraft

58. Why are thunderstorms less common in California than Florida?

a. The directional shear is smaller throughout the year in California
b. Fronts do not move through California except in the Summer. Florida has fronts year round.
c. Florida has warmer ocean waters surrounding it. This results in higher dewpoints, instability and thus more
thunderstorms.
d. The jet stream is stronger over Florida

59. Which of the following operational forecast panels is used to analyze vorticity advection?
a. 850 millibar forecast panel      c. 500 millibar forecast panel
b. 700 millibar forecast panel     d. 300 millibar forecast panel

60. What is vorticity?

a. It is the theoretical value of upward vertical velocity
b. It is the temperature gradient across a trough axis
c. It is the air pressure at 700 millibars
d. It is cyclonic or anticyclonic rotation which can be used to assess upper level divergence

61. Which type of pressure system is found in the southwest US in the summertime? Associated with this pressure system
are hot afternoon temperatures, rising air in the PBL but very little precipitation and sinking air aloft.
a. Warm core low     c. Cold core low
b. Warm core high     d. Cold core high
62. You are in New York City for New Year's and the time has just changed to the year 2000. What time is it in Zulu (Z) time?
a. 5Z JAN 01 2000
b. 18Z DEC 31 1999
c. 12Z JAN 01 2000
d. 0Z JAN 01 2000

63. Of the following choices, which is displayed on 700 millibar forecast charts such as ETA and the NGM?
a. The jet stream
b. 1000 to 500 millibar thickness
c. Upward vertical velocity
d. Forecasted surface temperatures

64. Which of the following is NOT displayed on the ETA, MRF and NGM surface pressure chart?
a. Thickness     c. Sea level pressure
b. Relative humidity     d. Forecasted precipitation total

65. Why do surface afternoon summer temperatures tend to be warmer in southern Arizona than Mississippi when both
states are at about the same latitude?
a. Radiational cooling is stronger in Mississippi; this allows morning temperatures to be cooler in Mississippi
b. Mississippi is at a higher altitude; Less dense air stays cooler
c. The wind tends to be stronger in Mississippi; stronger winds mix cooler high altitude air to the surface
d. There is more evapotranspiration in Mississippi; evapotranspiration is a cooling process that absorbs latent heat

66. Which of the following weather analysis tools can be used to determine at a quick glance whether thunderstorms are
most likely to be supercells, multicells, or air mass thunderstorms?
a. The value of CAPE
b. The 500 and 300 millibar analysis charts
c. The hodograph
d. Meso-ETA forecast panels

67. When is the MOS temperature forecast most likely to bust?

a. On a sunny day with light wind
b. Near the center of synoptic scale high pressure
c. In a barotropic environment
d. When a front or mid-latitude cyclone enters the forecast region

68. When there is a balance between the upward pressure gradient force and the downward force of gravity, the
atmosphere is said to be in ______________ balance.
a. Geostrophic     c. Baroclinic
b. Hydrostatic     d. Hypsometric

69. A type B mid-latitude cyclone has its genesis in the upper levels of the atmosphere and builds toward the surface. Which
of the following synoptic scale features most heavily influences the development of type B cyclones?
a. A large horizontal surface temperature gradient
b. A convectively unstable atmosphere (warm and moist air under dry air)
c. Divergence created by meridional flow within the jet stream
d. Cold fronts, warm fronts and drylines

70. What causes winter mid-latitude cyclones to intensify rapidly into very deep cold cored lows as they move from the
central or southern US into the northeastern US and coastal northeast? They are often termed Nor'easters.
a. The release of enormous amounts of latent heat from Atlantic moisture and an enormous east to west temperature
gradient
b. They move further away from high pressure
c. It is caused by the Appalachian Mountains
d. It is caused by the low becoming vertically stacked and highly occluded

Satellite and Radar (71-90)

71. On a NEXRAD velocity display, air moving away from the radar site will most likely be given a color of:
a. Red
b. Blue

72. As an object emits sound or light and moves TOWARD you, the frequency of the sound or radiation will be
_______________ relative to you than the moving object. This is the Doppler effect.
a. Higher
b. Lower

73. The maximum unambiguous range will increase if the pulse repetition frequency
of the radar ____________.
a. Increases b. Decreases

74. The maximum unambiguous velocity will increase if the pulse repetition frequency of the radar ____________.
a. Increases
b. Decreases

75. This term is defined as a measure of dispersion of velocities within the radar sample volume. It can be used to detect a
tornado vortex signature since velocities will have various directions within a range gate.
a. Rankine vortex     c. Spectrum width
b. Velocity aliasing     d. Vorticity

76. The "bright band" on radar imagery forms due to:

a. Large hail in a supercell thunderstorm
b. Reflectivity from birds or aircraft
c. Cold air in the mid-levels of the atmosphere
d. Snow melting before it reaches the surface

77. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a. The azimuth is the compass direction a hydrometeor is from the radar site
b. A doppler radar detects the actual wind speed in all directions from the radar
c. The range height indicator can be used to measure cloud top heights
d. The plan position indicator can to used to determine how far a hydrometeor is from the radar site.

78. When the downward bending of radar waves is stronger than normal, such as in association with a strong temperature
inversion, it is called ducting or can also be called _________________.
a. Subrefraction
b. Superrefraction

79. Why does snow tend to have a smaller overall reflectivity as compared to rain?
a. The snow is more dense and smaller
b. The snow falls at a lower velocity and has a high albedo
c. The snow has a lower moisture content and ice generally has a lower reflectivity
d. Snow is colder and does not fall straight down
80. How can a radar operator best determine that a storm is "severe"?
a. By studying DbZ values, VILs, Radial velocities, and radar signatures such as bow echos
b. By studying accumulated precipitation maps, hourly surface observations and Speed/directional wind shear
c. By studying composite reflectivity maps, the closest 12Z thermodynamic sounding, and the ETA/NGM models
d. By studying infrared satellite imagery, the satellite/radar composite, and the MRF model

81. Cloud texture such as shadows and lumpiness are best seen on ____________ imagery.
a. Water vapor     c. Ultaviolet
b. Infrared     d. Visible

82. Define V-notch:

a. A fanning of clouds downstream from the burst point of convective thunderstorms
b. A region of low reflectivity created by an intense updraft
c. The coldest cloud tops associated with an MCC
d. The cloud intersection between a warm front and cold front

83. The dryslot on water vapor imagery, which usually wraps into a mid-latitude cyclone from the southwest, is created by
which feature?
a. Warm air advection      c. The jet stream
b. The surface cold front     d. Isentropic lifting

84. Define parallax:

a. A thin line of convective clouds that forms along the leading edge of a weakening cold front
b. The apparent displacement of a cloud due to the viewing angle of the satellite sensor
c. The point where the sun's most direct rays strike the Earth
d. The maximum upward displacement of a wave

85. Coastal upwelling, the Gulf Stream and cloud top temperatures are best determined using:
a. Visible imagery     c. Water vapor imagery
b. Infrared imagery     d. X-ray imagery

86. Which weather phenomena would be nearly impossible to observe without the aid of satellite imagery?
a. Location of a mid-latitude cyclone
b. Location of a cold front boundary
c. Location of a MCC
d. Location of a deep ocean hurricane

87. How does "edge definition" differ between Stratus and Cumulus clouds? This applies to when these clouds are seen in
person also.
a. Stratus have a low edge definition while cumulus have a well defined definition
b. Stratus have a high edge definition while cumulus have a low edge definition

88. The smallest element on a satellite image is called a(n):

a. Range gate      c. Square
b. Atom      d. Pixel

89. Which imagery uses enhancements to display important temperature details of thunderstorms and hurricanes?
a. Visible imagery      c. Water vapor imagery
b. Infrared imagery      d. Y2K imagery
90. A(n) ___________ surface such as rock does not allow light to penetrate while a __________ surface does allow some
light to transmit.
a. Opaque, transluscent
b. Transluscent, Opaque

Miscellaneous meteorology (91-100)

91. Which of the following temperature scales is a RATIO temperature scale? A ratio is the most powerful mathematical tool
in statistics.
a. Fahrenheit scale
b. Celsius Scale
c. Kelvin Scale

92. Suppose it is 70 ° F in Dallas and 40 ° F in Oklahoma City. The distance between these cities is 150 miles. By using linear
interpolation, what is the likely temperature 50 miles north of Dallas.
a. 60 ° F     c. 45 ° F
b. 50 ° F     d. 55 ° F

93. Which of the following air masses is the most dense?

a. Cold and moist     c. Warm and moist
b. Cold and dry      d. Warm and dry

94. Thickness values can be used to infer the strength of:

a. A jet streak
b. Vorticity
c. Low level convergence
d. Thermal advection

95. If a jet streak is on the ____________ side of a trough, the trough will deepen and become more amplified.
a. Left
b. Right

96. The term "elevated convection" refers to:

a. Slanted convection such as in association with supercell thunderstorms
b. It is another term for an overshooting top
c. It is convection that has an origin above the planetary boundary layer
d. Orographically induced precipitation on windward mountain slopes

97. The numbers 956 next to a station plot at 700 millibars is what value in geopotential meters? Think of the average 700
millibar height in geopotential meters before looking at the choices.
a. 956 millibars     c. 3,956 geopotential meters
b. 2,956 geopotential meters     d. 9,560 geopotential meters

98. The dewpoint is greater than the temperature:

a. When the relative humidity is 100%
b. When clouds form
c. When it is raining
d. Never

99. A 100 mile per hour wind is how many knots?

a. 115 knots     c. 76 knots
b. 146 knots     d. 87 knots

100. A strong developing mid-latitude cyclone over the United States generally tilts to the _______________ with height.
They tilt toward the cold air.
a. Northwest      c. Northeast
b. Southwest      d. Southeast

CLICK HERE FOR ANSWERS

Answers

1. D 11. A 21. A 31. A 41. B 51. D 61. A 71. A 81. D 91. C

2. B 12. B 22. B 32. D 42. D 52. A 62. A 72. A 82. A 92. A
3. A 13. C 23. B 33. B 43. C 53. B 63. C 73. B 83. C 93. B
4. B 14. D 24. B 34. A 44. A 54. D 64. B 74. A 84. B 94. D
5. D 15. D 25. D 35. C 45. A 55. A 65. D 75. C 85. B 95. A
6. C 16. D 26. C 36. D 46. A 56. C 66. C 76. D 86. D 96. C
7. A 17. B 27. C 37. B 47. E 57. B 67. D 77. B 87. A 97. B
8. A 18. A 28. D 38. A 48. B 58. C 68. B 78. B 88. D 98. D
9. C 19. C 29. B 39. C 49. B 59. C 69. C 79. C 89. B 99. D
10. B 20. B 30. A 40. D 50. C 60. D 70. A 80. A 90. A 100. A
1. The most important factor in determining how large hail will be in a storm once a storm is mature is the:
a. Amount of instability
b. Amount of shear
c. Surface dewpoint being greater than 65 F
d. Upper level divergence and low level convergence

2. A potential severe weather situation in which warm and moist air is in the lower troposphere and very dry air is in the
middle troposphere is termed _______________ instability.
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Absolute
d. Convective

3. This causes the updraft of a storm to tilt and is important to the generation of Helicity:
a. Instability
b. Downdraft
c. Wind shear
d. Surface heating

4. Which of the following can cause Convective Available Potential Energy to increase?
a. Strong mid-level subsidence
b. Solar surface heating
c. Strong low level cold air advection
d. A drying of the boundary layer

5. This is a protrusion at the top of a convective storm due to the strongest portion of the updraft penetrating into the
troposphere:
a. Mammatus
b. Overshooting top
c. Anvil
d. Wall cloud

6. About __________ percent of mesocyclones produce tornadoes.

a. 25%
b. 40%
c. 55%
d. 70%

7. A cap of 1.5 C and convective inhibition of 25 J/kg in the boundary layer at 10 am is indicative of a ____________ capping
inversion.
a. Strong
b. Weak

8. The low level jet generally has the strongest winds and is most climatologically found in which of the following regions on
the United States of the choices below?
a. New England
b. Pacific Northwest
c. Southwest U.S.
d. Great Plains

9. A one inch diameter hail stone is about the diameter of a:

a. Dime
b. Pea
c. Quarter
d. Golf ball

10. When saturated air rises, latent heat of condensation release makes the rising air ___________ than it otherwise would
be if it was unsaturated.
a. Warmer
b. Colder

11. A bubble rising in a glass of coke is synonymous with:

a. Forced dynamic lifting
b. Instability release
c. Convective Inhibition
d. Negative buoyancy

12. The best moisture parameter to assess the amount of moisture in the air from the choices below is:
a. Relative Humidity
b. Temperature
c. CAPE
d. Dewpoint

13. These are pouched shaped clouds that protrude downward from the thunderstorm's anvil. They form as negatively
buoyant moisture laden air sinks.
a. Wall cloud
b. Flanking line
c. Mammatus
d. Rain free base

14. The change in wind direction with height is known as:

a. Directional shear
b. Helicity
c. Speed shear
d. Vorticity

15. For positive vorticity to promote rising air it must be:

a. Increasing
b. Rotating
c. Changing
d. Advecting

16. 1000 Joules per kilogram (J/kg) is a value of:

a. CAPE
b. Helicity
c. Vorticity
d. Energy Helicity

17. The whiter rings of a hailstone are produced by:

a. Growth from precipitation that is liquid on the hailstone and then freezes
b. Growth from contact by supercooled water and ice crystals while the hailstone remains below freezing
18. Hail is more likely to reach the surface in a severe weather situation:
a. In low elevation regions
b. When the CAPE is smaller
c. When the freezing level is closer to the surface
d. When wind shear weakens

19. The Energy Helicity Index (EHI) takes into consideration both:
a. Wind shear and moisture
b. Instability and moisture
c. Forced lifting and wind shear
d. Wind shear and instability

20. Which of the following is the most unstable Lifted Index?

a. 4
b. 0
c. -4

KEY

1. A
2. D
3. C
4. B
5. B
6. A
7. B
8. D
9. C
10. A
11. B
12. D
13. C
14. A
15. D
16. A
17. B
18. C
19. D
20. C
1. For every 10 C the Celsius temperature changes, the Fahrenheit temperature changes by:
a. 5 F
b. 9 F
c. 18 F
d. 29 F

2. 50 knots is equal to:

a. 43.5 miles per hour
b. 50 miles per hour
c. 5 miles per hour
d. 57.5 miles per hour

3. 100 miles per hour is equal to:

a. 161 kilometers per hour
b. 115 kilometers per hour
c. 87 kilometers per hour
d. 62 kilometers per hour

4. When it is 12 Z in New York City, NY it is also 12 Z in Los Angeles, CA.

a. True
b. False

5. Central Standard Time occurs in:

a. The cooler half of the year
b. The warmer half of the year

6. It turns the next day in the United States before it turns the next day in Europe.
a. True
b. False

7. This is a line of equal sea level atmospheric pressure change over a given time:
a. Isobar
b. Height change
c. Isotach
d. Isallobar

8. A map is showing contours of temperature, dewpoint and height. The contours on the map include:
a. Isobars, isotachs and isodrosotherms
b. Isotherms, isodrosotherms and isohypse
c. Isotherms, isohyets, and isobars
d. Isohypse, isallobars and isotherms

9. A thickness line is the vertical distance between two:

a. Isobars
b. Isohypse
c. Isotherms
d. Isodops

10. In meteorology, wind direction is expressed as the direction the wind is ____________.
a. Going toward
b. Coming from

11. Which of the following statements does not have an error?:

a. The height is 990 millibars
b. The surface pressure is 3,000 geopotential meters
c. The dewpoint depression is negative 7
d. The height change is 40 meters

12. A wind from 135 degrees is a ____________ wind.

a. Northeast
b. Northwest
c. Southeast
d. Southwest

13. This is the equation used to calculate thickness between two pressure surfaces:
a. Hypsometric
b. Hydrostatic
c. Poisson's
d. Clausius-Clapeyron

14. This equation relates pressure, density and temperature.

a. Hypsometric
b. Newton's second law of motion
c. Poisson's
d. Ideal gas law

15. When latent heat is absorbed, the surrounding environment:

a. Warms
b. Cools

16. These are both warm core lows:

a. Anticyclone, hurricane
b. Midlatitude cyclone, thermal heat low
c. Hurricane, thermal heat low
d. Nor-easter, mid-latitude cyclone

17. A sign that a cold core low is maturing and can undergo further intensification is when it tilts toward the cold
air with height.
a. True
b. False

18. These two air masses are similar but this one is the coldest and driest:
a. Continental Polar
b. Continental Arctic

19. All the following terms mean Planetary Boundary Layer except:
a. Friction layer
b. Surface wind layer
c. Boundary layer
d. Free atmosphere
 20. When winds are light, the Planetary Boundary Layer will:
a. Expand
b. Contract

KEY

1. C
2. D
3. A
4. A
5. A
6. B
7. D
8. B
9. B
10. B
11. D
12. C
13. A
14. D
15. B
16. C
17. A
18. B
19. D
20. B
1. This chart will have the most data available for the operational meteorologist to interpret:
a. Surface
b. 850 mb
c. 500 mb
d. 300 mb

2. All of the following charts have height contours except:

a. Surface
b. 850 mb
c. 500 mb
d. 300 mb

3. This occurs when the downstream wind speeds are faster than the upstream wind speeds:
a. Rising air
b. Sinking air
c. Convergence
d. Divergence

4. This is a region of high heights:

a. Surface high
b. Shortwave
c. Ridge
d. Trough

5. Both of the following promote rising air:

a. Low Level Cold Air Advection, Differential Positive Vorticity Advection
b. Low Level Warm Air Advection, Differential Positive Vorticity Advection
c. Low Level Cold Air Advection, Differential Negative Vorticity Advection
d. Low Level Warm Air Advection, Differential Negative Vorticity Advection

6. If the height contours are parallel to the isotherms a forecaster would expect:
a. Thermal advection to take place
b. No thermal advection to take place

7. A height contour is also known as an ___________.

a. Isodrosotherm
b. Isotach
c. Isobar
d. Isohyet
e. Isohypse

8. The strength of thermal advection is determined by the spacing of height contours, the spacing of isotherms and:
a. The temperature gradient
b. The wind speed
c. The angle the height contours and isotherms intersect
d. The spacing of isobars

9. This side of a shortwave is most likely to have uplift, clouds and precipitation:
a. Right side (downstream of shortwave axis, exit sector)
b. Left side (upstream of shortwave axis, entrance sector)

10. A region with sinking air and warming of an air mass is most likely to experience:
a. Positive Vorticity Advection
b. Ridging
c. Troughing
d. Upslope flow

11. A shortwave that has temperature advections associated with it is a _________ shortwave.
a. Barotropic
b. Baroclinic

12. As a 700 mb shortwave approaches, a forecaster would expect heights at 700 mb to:
a. Increase
b. Decrease

13. This is the type of vorticity generated from wind speeds changing over synoptic scale distances:
a. Shear
b. Curvature
c. Coriolis

14. A vort max will be located at the point where there is:
a. The greatest uplift
b. The greatest warm air advection
c. The greatest combination of positive shear and positive curvature vorticity
d. The greatest positive vorticity advection

15. When vorticity advection is occurring, the upward forcing from positive vorticity advection will occur
__________ from the axis of highest vorticity.
a. Downstream
b. Upstream

16. From the answers below, a vorticity maximum is most likely to be found:
a. In the axis of a ridge
b. In tropical locations
c. Near the core of a high pressure system
d. In the axis of a shortwave

17. A weakening trough is one that is:

a. Digging
b. Deepening
c. Lifting
d. Amplifying

18. If the 300 mb winds are much stronger in the entrance sector of a trough than they are in the exit sector of a
trough the trough will:
a. Dig
b. Lift

19. On the global scale, the Pressure Gradient Force points from the equator toward the pole in the middle
latitudes. What force causes this wind to be deflected from that path of motion to create the typically west to east
 flowing jet stream aloft in the middle latitudes?:
a. Friction
b. Centripetal
c. Gravity
d. Coriolis

20. This quadrant is in the entrance sector of a jet streak and dynamic lifting is favorable:
a. Left front
b. Right front
c. Left rear
d. Right rear

KEY

1. A
2. A
3. D
4. C
5. B
6. B
7. E
8. C
9. A
10. B
11. B
12. B
13. A
14. C
15. A
16. D
17. C
18. A
19. D
20. D
1. These are high clouds that are composed of ice crystals:
a. Cumulus
b. Nimbostratus
c. Altocumulus
d. Cirrus

2. A wall cloud is an example of a(n):

a. Accessory cloud
b. Upper level cloud
c. Cirrus
d. Lenticular

3. Clouds that develop due to convective uplift are termed:

a. Stratiform clouds
b. Noctilucent clouds
c. Cumulus clouds
d. Fair weather

4. Which of the following is a cloud on the ground?:

a. Funnel cloud
b. Fog
c. Wall cloud
d. Shelf cloud
e. All of the above

5. All the following are cirrus type clouds except:

a. Mackerel sky
b. Mare's tails
c. Anvil
d. Fractus
e. Uncinus

6. Precipitation generated from dynamic lifting and not convective lifting will fall from a _____________ clouds.
a. Nimbostratus
b. Cumulonimbus

7. The prefix "alto" means:

a. Upper
b. Middle
c. Lower

8. The two ingredients needed to form clouds aloft are:

a. Instability and lifting
b. Lifting and saturated air
c. Wind shear and Lifting
d. Air with a high dewpoint and instability

9. Which clouds occurs at the highest altitude:

a. Altostratus
b. Cirrostratus
c. Stratocumulus
d. Noctilucent
e. Lenticular

10. The term stratus means:

a. Vertically developed
b. Upper level
c. Horizontally layered
d. Low level

11. Cloud droplets can remain liquid even when they have a temperature of below freezing.
a. True
b. False

12. A mid-latitude cyclone will often have a __________ shape on satellite imagery.
a. Rectangular
b. Dumbbell
c. Comma
d. Pentagon

13. These are cirrocumulus that look like fish scales.

a. Lenticular
b. Mackerel Sky
c. Mare's tails
d. Uncinus

14. A ring around the sun or moon will show when they shine through this cloud:
a. Nimbostratus
b. Altocumulus
c. Fair weather cumulus
d. Cirrostratus

15. The most fair weathered and smallest of the cumulus clouds is the:
a. Cumulus congestus
b. Cumulonimbus
c. Cumulus humilis

16. Fog formed by cooling of the earth's surface at night is:

a. Radiation fog
b. Advection fog
c. Steam fog
d. Frontal fog

17. Precipitation that vaporizes before making it to the earth's surface is:
a. Fog
b. Virga
c. Cloud droplets
d. Haze

18. The clouds produced behind aircraft exhaust that is often visible high aloft are called contrails.
a. True
b. False
 19. The height of stratus cloud bases tends to lower as a warm front approaches.
a. True
b. False

20. This is the visible portion of a tornadic circulation produced by condensation of rapidly rotating rising air.
a. Hook echo
b. Mammatus
c. Funnel cloud
d. Wall cloud

KEY

1. D
2. A
3. C
4. B
5. D
6. A
7. B
8. B
9. D
10. C
11. A
12. C
13. B
14. D
15. C
16. A
17. B
18. A
19. A
20. C
1. Good forecasters learn the tools of making a forecast through:
a. Time spent learning as much weather analysis and forecasting as they can
b. Concentrating on and understanding the weather data
c. Learning from other forecasters
d. Having a solid college meteorology education
e. All of the above

2. This is a term for investigating weather analysis and forecasting questions a person may have. It requires looking up
information in books, journals, webpages, etc.
a. Meteorology coursework
b. On the job forecasting experience
c. Research
d. Weather analysis

3. Often the greatest and quickest strides in becoming a good forecaster occur through:
a. Meteorology coursework
b. On the job forecasting experience
c. Research
d. Watching others forecast

4. A degree in meteorology guarantees that a person will be a good weather forecaster.

a. True
b. False

5. The weather determines how:

a. People dress
b. People eat
c. People travel
d. People entertain themselves
e. All of the above

6. A broadcast meteorologist has to be the most serious and informative during:

a. Severe weather events
b. High pressure days
c. The morning show

7. Which of the following has the least description:

a. It will most likely rain in the afternoon
b. The rain will be heavy at times
c. About half an inch of rain can be expected
d. There is a 30% chance of rain

8. Meteorologists will often get questions that a ___________ would be best at answering. Therefore, it is important for the
meteorologist to have a strong handle on all the geosciences and space sciences so that they can handle these questions
when they are posed.
a. Astronomer
b. Geologist
c. Oceanographer
d. Climatologist
e. All of the above
9. A practical purpose for having correct forecasts is to:
a. Save businesses and people time and money
b. Prevent injuries and save lives
c. Successfully plan, prepare and dress for traveling, commuting and shopping
d. All of the above

10. It is a good idea to forecast with an accuracy that you know will not be achievable in many cases since your forecast will
have more specific detail than the forecasts generated by others.
a. True
b. False

11. What is an in-house meteorologist?:

a. A meteorologist that works out of the house
b. A meteorologist that does not have a forecasting job
c. A meteorologist that is employed by the business they are forecasting for
d. A meteorologist that forecasts the weather conditions that occur inside a house

12. These forecasters work for the federal government:

a. Private weather forecasters
b. In-house meteorologists
c. National Weather Service forecasters
d. Farmers
e. The general public

13. Forecasting is an:

a. Art
b. Science
c. Both a and b

14. At some point in the future it will be possible to make perfect forecasts.
a. True
b. False

15. The question, "How is the weather going to be on my wedding in a month from now?" is best answered:
a. Meteorologically
b. Climatologically
c. Randomly
d. Not at all

16. If one thing can be said about the weather it is that it is:
a. Constantly changing
b. Boring
c. Always the same
d. Always unpredictable

17. A good forecast is one that offers:

a. Actionable information
b. Information based on multiple data sources
c. Information based on the most update data
d. Information on mesoscale effects
e. Information that is communicated clearly
f. All of the above

18. What often happens when a forecaster makes a habit of "sticking the head out too far" too often:
a. Brilliant forecast accuracy
b. Busted forecasts

19. One of the more difficult forecasts to make is the:

a. Winter precipitation forecast
b. Fog forecast
c. Hurricane landfall forecast
d. All of the above

20. Give a severe weather situation the coverage it deserves without hype or being overly calm.
a. True
b. False

KEY

1. E
2. C
3. B
4. B
5. E
6. A
7. D
8. E
9. D
10. B
11. C
12. C
13. C
14. B
15. B
16. A
17. F
18. B
19. D
20. A
1. Spell out what the following forecast discussion abbreviations stand for:

ATTM, MXD, CWA, ZR, TDA, ADV, BLO, CG, FA, FROPA

2. Spell out what the following forecast discussion abbreviations stand for:

GFS, HVY, INVOF, IP, LLJ, LSR, MCS, MISG, MOS, WL

3. Spell out what the following forecast discussion abbreviations stand for:

PBL, PDS, POP, PW, QPF, SFC, UVV, WAA, YDA, WK

4. This is a horizontal transport of air (fairly parallel to earth's surface or a pressure surface):
a. Convection
b. Advection
c. Subjection
d. Objection

5. A high pressure system is a(n):

a. Cyclone
b. Shortwave
c. Longwave trough
d. Anticyclone

6. An overcast sky (cloudy conditions) is given the abbreviation:

a. CL
b. BKN
c. OVC
d. CC

7. This is the V-shaped pattern due to wind shear around a supercell and is seen on radar:
a. V-notch
b. Enhanced-V
c. V-rbatum
d. Visible-V

8. The weakening of a front is known as:

a. Frontal forcing
b. Frontogenesis
c. Frontocyclosis
d. Frontolysis

9. This is a temperature increase with height:

a. Hydrolapse
b. Inversion
c. Steep lapse rate
d. Superadiabatic lapse rate

10. An isotach is a line of constant:

a. Temperature
b. Dewpoint
c. Wind speed
d. Height

11. The is the term for when several precipitation types are falling at once or over a period of time.
a. Nutty weather
b. Mixed bag
c. Barotropic
d. Delirious precip

12. The tilt of a trough that often indicates greater instability is:
a. Negatively tilted trough
b. Positively tilted trough
c. Neutrally tiled trough

13. Nocturnal means:

a. Very unstable
b. Developing rapidly
c. Moving rapidly
d. Occurring at night
e. Occurring during day

14. All of the following indicate dynamic lifting of air except:

a. Upper level divergence
b. CONQ
c. Positive Omega forcing
d. Subsidence

15. Another term for a short wave trough is a(n):

a. Open wave
b. Closed low
c. Cut-off low
d. Barotropic trough

16. The term quasi (i.e. quasi-geostrophic) means:

a. Absolutely
b. Not
c. Nearly
d. Opposite of

17. Retrograde motion means to:

a. Accelerate forward
b. Move backwards from the normal direction
c. Strengthening rapidly
d. Occlude and weaken

18. A spin-up is:

a. Frontolysis
b. Frontogenesis
c. An increase in rate of rotation
d. A decrease in rate of rotation
 19. An occluded mid-latitude cyclone will:
a. Tilt significantly with height
b. Strengthen rapidly
c. Have strong cold and warm fronts connected to the center of circulation
d. Have a vertically stacked structure

20. This is a wind that turns clockwise with height and is associated with warm air advection:
a. Backing wind
b. Veering wind
1. At the moment, mixed, county warning area, freezing rain, today, below, cloud to ground,
forecast area, frontal passage
2. Global Forecast System, heavy, in the vicinity of, ice pellets, low level jet, local storm report,
mesoscale convective system, missing, model output statistics, will
3. Planetary boundary layer, potentially dangerous situation, probability of precipitation,
precipitable water, quantitative precipitation forecast, surface, upward vertical velocity, warm
air advection, yesterday, weak
4. B
5. D
6. C
7. A
8. D
9. B
10. C
11. B
12. A
13. D
14. D
15. A
16. C
17. B
18. C
19. D
20. B
1. The mesoscale front that is found along coastlines during the afternoon due to differential heating between land
and sea is the:
a. Sea breeze
b. Outflow
c. Land breeze
d. Vegetation boundary

2. Which of the following is mesoscale in size and time:

a. Mid-latitude cyclone
b. Jet stream
c. Thunderstorm
d. Squall line

3. Instability can generally increase due to:

a. Surface cold front passage
b. Daytime heating
c. Boundary layer inversion intensification
d. Dry punch into boundary layer

4. The forecast models have the most difficult time resolving this feature:
a. Mid-latitude cyclones
b. Mountains
c. The jet stream
d. Mid-latitude anti-cyclones

5. In this layer of the troposphere friction is a significant force. In this layer winds tend to be gusty especially at
higher wind speeds and convective mixing is common.
a. Boundary layer
b. Free atmosphere
c. Tropopause
d. Elevated warm layer

6. Surface boundaries that experience a density discontinuity in a thunderstorm situation tend to:
a. Enhanced uplift and wind shear in the thunderstorm environment
b. Reduce uplift and wind shear in the thunderstorm environment

7. A region of high velocity wind in the lower troposphere due to a strong thermal gradient near the cold front
boundary is termed the:
a. Jet streak
b. Subtropical jet
c. Monsoonal jet
d. Low level jet

8. The warm air advection pattern associated with a baroclinic shortwave tends to occur in the ______ in relation to
the shortwave axis.
a. Upstream area
b. Downstream area

9. All Mesoscale Convective Complexes are Mesoscale Convective Systems.

a. True
b. False
10. The temperature will often be warmer behind the dryline as compared to ahead of the dryline in the afternoon
due to:
a. Less cloud cover to reflect solar radiation
b. Drier land resulting in more sensible heating from the sun
c. Adiabatic warming from a downsloping wind
d. All of the above

11. A region experiencing strong positive vorticity advection will likely also experience ______________ since rising
air cools adiabatically.
a. Height rises
b. Height falls

12. A region experiencing strong low level warm air advection will likely also experience ____________ since
warmer air has a larger volume than the same mass of colder air.
a. Height rises
b. Height falls

13. The surface wind experienced in the boundary layer is a result of these three forces:
a. Coriolis, centrifugal, gravity
b. Pressure gradient force, gravity, Coriolis
c. Coriolis, Pressure gradient force, friction
d. Centrifugal, Coriolis, pressure gradient force

14. The term "meso" means:

a. Big
b. Middle
c. Small

15. An increase of boundary layer dewpoints can occur from:

a. Moisture advection from a warm body of water
b. Evaporation of precipitation aloft and from the surface
c. Transpiration from plants and evaporation from wet soils
d. All of the above

16. In which case could higher elevation regions be warmer than lower elevation regions:
a. Inversion produced by shallow cold air within lower troposphere
b. Cold front banking against higher elevation regions
c. Higher elevation regions shadowing lower elevation regions
d. Cold air drainage toward lower elevations
e. All of the above

17. The side of a mountain range that has upslope wind and is more likely to have clouds and precipitation is the
____________ side.
a. Windward
b. Leeward

18. This is a high speed segment of wind within the Polar jet stream produced by a region of enhanced temperature
gradient in the troposphere.
a. Low level jet
b. Eddy
 c. Jet streak (jet surge, jetlet)
d. Vorticity maximum

19. Strong mesoscale upward forcing will occur where:

a. Low level winds diverge
b. Two low level convergence boundaries intersect
c. Frontolysis occurs
d. The temperature and moisture gradient are reduced

20. On hot sunny days, the temperature over a lake surface tends to be cooler than over a land surface. Why?
a. Water has a higher heat capacity than land
b. Heat can mix through a larger depth within water than it can on land
c. Evaporation over the water surface absorbs latent heat and thus cools the air
d. Often sunlight will reflect more from a water surface as compared to a land surface
e. All of the above

KEY

1. A
2. D
3. B
4. B
5. A
6. A
7. D
8. B
9. A
10. D
11. B
12. A
13. C
14. B
15. D
16. E
17. A
18. C
19. B
20. Ewithin water than it can on land
c. Evaporation over the water surface absorbs latent heat and thus cools the air
d. Often sunlight will reflect more from a water surface as compared to a land surface
e. All of the above
. The best prog to analysis pure thermal advection for locations near sea level is:
a. Surface
b. 850 mb
c. 500 mb
d. 300 mb

2. The prog that upward vertical velocity is usually displayed upon is:
a. Surface
b. 700 mb
c. 500 mb
d. 300 mb

3. The jet stream, jet streaks, longwave pattern, and amplification pattern of troughs and ridges is analyzed at:
a. 300 mb
b. 700 mb
c. 850 mb
d. Surface

4. All these models are primarily used for short term forecasts (0 to 48 hours) except:
a. ETA
b. NGM
c. AVN
d. GFS

5. For vertical motion to occur from 500 mb vorticity which of the following needs to occur:
a. The value of the vort max to be increasing over time
b. The value of the vort max to be decreasing over time
c. A wind flow through the vorticity gradient
d. A wind flow parallel to the vorticity gradient

6. High values of relative humidity always mean there is a large quantity of water vapor in the air.
a. True
b. False

7. Instability on the models is assessed through both the:

a. CAPE and LI
b. Vertical velocity and Helicity
c. Dewpoint and relative humidity
d. Thermal advection and vorticity advection

8. This is a numerical form of model data for a specific location:

a. FWC
b. PVA
c. MPL
d. MOS

9. The tendency for a forecast model to make the same mistake each time similar weather conditions set-up for a particular
region is termed a model:
a. Deviation
b. Error
c. Bias
d. Mistake

10. Dynamic upward vertical motion on the forecast models assess the strength of a thunderstorm's convective updraft if
they develop.
a. True
b. False

11. A 1000 to 500 mb thickness of 6,000 meters would indicate:

a. A column of very warm air
b. A column of very cold air

12. Air will __________________ along frontal boundaries.

a. Diverge
b. Converge

13. 850 temperatures tend to warm in which situation:

a. Strong dynamic lifting
b. Cold air advection pattern
c. Evaporation into the air
d. Downsloping wind

14. Rain can not occur if instability is not present.

a. True
b. False

15. A ridge is a region of ____________ and _____________.

a. Higher heights and warmer temperatures
b. Higher heights and colder temperatures
c. Lower heights and warmer temperatures
d. Lower heights and colder temperatures

16. Which of the following is displayed on the 1000-mb model ETA prog?
a. The upper level trough-ridge pattern
b. Convergence
c. Surface temperature
d. Predicted precipitation

17. Which of the following is shown on all the 850, 700, 500 and 300 mb ETA prog panels?
a. Temperature and dewpoint
b. Height contours and horizontal wind vectors
c. Wind direction and temperature
d. Vertical velocity and relative humidity

18. A decreasing thickness over time due to temperature advection indicates:

a. Cold air advection
b. Warm air advection

19. The ___________ pressure systems tend to cover a larger spatial area.
a. High
b. Low
20. This prog is used to pick out both short waves and vorticity centers.
a. 850 mb
b. 700 mb
c. 500 mb
d. 300 mb

KEY

1. B
2. B
3. A
4. D
5. C
6. B
7. A
8. D
9. C
10. B
11. A
12. B
13. D
14. B
15. A
16. B
17. B
18. A
19. A
20. C
1. Differing colors on radar reflectivity refer to:
a. Temperature differences
b. Power transmitter back to the radar
c. Height of clouds
d. Speed that the clouds are moving

2. The ability of radar to detect wind motions within thunderstorm clouds is due to ____________ technology.
a. Satellite
b. Reflectivity
c. Cell phone
d. Doppler

3. Differing colors on radial velocity refer to:

a. Temperature differences
b. Power transmitter back to the radar
c. Height of clouds
d. Motion of hydrometeors or particulates toward or away from the radar site

4. As range increases from the radar site, the radar beam tends to climb to higher elevations due to:
a. Earth's curvature
b. Elevation angle that beam is emitted
c. Both answers above

5. This is a mode used for high sensitivity analysis such as the detection of small particulates and hydrometeors:
a. Clear Air Mode
b. Precipitation Mode
c. Composite Mode
d. Base Mode

6. The hydrometeor that will have the strongest reflectivity return on radar is:
a. Rain
b. Snow
c. Hail
d. Sleet

7. In precipitation mode, how often are NWS radar images updates:

a. Every 5 seconds
b. Every 50 seconds
c. Every minute
d. Every 5 minutes

8. Reflectivity from buildings and objects at the earth's surface that are picked up usually close to the radar site are
referred to as:
a. Ground Clutter
b. UFO
c. Clear air returns
d. Doppler aliasing

9. A radar beam that bends more toward the earth's surface than normal due to a strong inversion is termed:
a. Subrefraction
b. Superrefraction
10. Radar emits energy at nearly the speed of light and the speed of light is:
a. 345 meters per second
b. 14,480 meters per second
c. 30,300 meters per second
d. 299,800,000 meters per second

11. Red on a radial velocity display indicates motion:

a. Toward the radar
b. Away from the radar

12. An S-shaped radial velocity pattern indicates a ____________ and indicates ____________.
a. Backing wind, warm air advection
b. Backing wind, cold air advection
c. Veering wind, warm air advection
d. Veering wind, cold air advection

13. Doppler radar is able to indicate if a tornadic circulation is on the ground.

a. True
b. False

14. This supercell type looks like a kidney bean on radar. The precipitation echoes wrap around the updraft
circulation. This is the most difficult supercell type to spot in the field due to poor visibility.
a. LP
b. Classic
c. HP

15. This is the term to describe precipitation on radar reflectivity products that partially wraps around the mid-level
mesocyclone region of a supercell.
a. Inflow notch
b. Bounded Weak Echo Region
c. Gust front
d. Hook echo

16. A TVS icon denotes a possible:

a. Hail shaft
b. Supercell
c. Tornadic circulation
d. Microburst

17. The resolution of radar data ____________ with distance away from the radar site.
a. Increases
b. Decreases

18. With the same amount of moisture, dry snow will have ___________ reflectivity compared to wet snow.
a. The same
b. A higher
c. A lower

19. The Doppler dilemma states there is a(n) _____________ relationship between the unambiguous range and the
unambiguous velocity.
 a. Inverse
b. Direct
c. Unknown

20. As a train with a whistle approaches a stationary observer, the whistle will have a __________ frequency (pitch)
and lower wavelength relative to the observer's detection as the train approaches the observer as compared to
when the train whistle is moving away from the observer.
a. Higher
b. Lower

KEY

1. B
2. D
3. D
4. C
5. A
6. C
7. D
8. A
9. B
10. D
11. B
12. C
13. B
14. C
15. D
16. C
17. B
18. C
19. A
20. A
1. This is the fraction of visible radiation that reflects off an object:
a. Opaqueness
b. Albedo
c. Transmissivity
d. Color

2. Cloud shadowing is best seen on this type of satellite image:

a. Visible
b. Infrared
c. Water Vapor

3. This satellite imagery shows contrasting temperatures of cloud tops. Approximate cloud heights can be determined using
this imagery:
a. Visible
b. Infrared
c. Water Vapor

4. If a colder surface is next to a warmer surface on conventional infrared imagery, which one will appear more white on the
satellite image output?
a. The colder surface
b. The warmer surface

5. On visible imagery, fog will cover unfrozen lakes and rivers while snow will not.
a. True
b. False

6. The process of distributing heat by mixing air is:

a. Radiation
b. Conduction
c. Convection

7. Half of the earth's atmosphere is below _________ kilometers of elevation.

a. 550
b. 55
c. 5.5
d. 0.6

8. Clouds on satellite imagery can be identified by their:

a. Texture
b. Brightness
c. Temperature
d. All of the above

9. In this season visible imagery is most useful since the days are longer and the sun angle is higher:
a. Summer
b. Winter

10. An advantage of infrared imagery over visible imagery is that:

a. Infrared imagery is best at detecting thunderstorm texture
b. Infrared imagery is best at detecting cloud thickness
c. Infrared imagery can be used at night
d. All of the above

11. This imagery detects moisture or lack of moisture in the middle and upper layers of the troposphere:
a. Visible
b. Infrared
c. Water vapor

12. This imagery has the highest resolution of data:

a. Visible
b. Infrared
c. Water vapor

13. This is the best imagery for detecting low clouds when the earth's surface and the clouds have the same temperature.
a. Visible
b. Infrared
c. Water vapor

14. The wavelength of visible light is:

a. 4 to 7 meters
b. 4 to 7 centimeters
c. 4 to 7 millimeters
d. 0.4 to 0.7 micrometers

15. When sunlight strikes a layer of fresh snow, most of the energy that makes up the sunlight will be:
a. Reflected by the snow
b. Absorbed by the snow
c. Transmitted through the snow and into the ground

16. NWS meteorologists often issue tornado warnings using satellite data. Satellite has a distinct advantage over radar when
it comes to tornado detection.
a. True
b. False

17. The altitude of a GOES weather satellite is:

a. 35 kilometers
b. 350 kilometers
c. 3,500 kilometers
d. 35,000 kilometers
e. 350,000 kilometers

18. This enhancement scheme is used to highlight temperatures at the top of thunderstorm clouds:
a. ZA
b. BD
c. MB

19. The sun angle above the horizon at the earth's surface is highest in the middle latitudes during:
a. The start of summer
b. The middle of summer
c. The end of summer
20. This is a long line of strong storms that develops due to a common forcing mechanism:
a. Supercell
b. Squall line
c. MCC
d. Sea breeze

KEY

1. B
2. A
3. B
4. A
5. A
6. C
7. C
8. D
9. A
10. C
11. C
12. A
13. A
14. D
15. A
16. B
17. D
18. C
19. A
20. B
1. A parcel of air rising when plotted on the Skew-T can only __________ as it rises.
a. Warm
b. Cool
c. Remain isothermal

2. National Weather Service weather balloon launches are done _________ time(s) per day.
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four

3. The environmental temperature is the:

a. Wet or dry adiabatic lapse rate
b. Parcel lapse rate
c. Dewpoint lapse rate
d. Actual temperature measured by the weather balloon

4. A sounding with no CAPE has no _____________.

a. Instability
b. Equilibrium Level (EL)
c. Level of Free Convection (LFC)
d. Any answer above

5. A hydrolapse is ______________.
a. A dramatic wind shift with height
b. A dramatic temperature increase with height
c. A dramatic dewpoint decrease with height
d. A dramatic temperature decrease with height

6. The ________ is the pressure level of cloud bases when surface heating results in positive buoyancy of surface based
parcels of air.
a. Convective Condensation Level (CCL)
b. Level of Free Convection (LFC)
c. Lifted Condensation Level (LCL)
d. Equilibrium Level (EL)

7. Lifted unsaturated air will _____________ in relative humidity.

a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Have a constant value

8. At a particular pressure level, this is the temperature that results after complete evaporation occurs into initially
unsaturated air:
a. Dewpoint
b. Mixing ratio
c. Wet Bulb
d. Potential
9. This is the distance between two pressure levels and is a function of the temperature and moisture characteristics of that
column of air between two pressure levels:
a. Thickness
b. Helicity
c. SWEAT
d. Temperature gradient

10. An inversion is ______________.

a. A wind shift with height
b. A temperature increase with height
c. A dewpoint increase with height
d. A temperature decrease with height

11. If the temperature is -5 C and the dewpoint is -10 C then the dewpoint depression in Celsius difference is:
a. 15
b. -5
c. 5
d. 15

12. This index assesses the BALANCE between instability and vertical wind shear:
a. Energy Helicity Index (EHI)
b. Lifted Index (LI)
c. Total Totals (TT)
d. Bulk Richardson Number (BRN)

13. Elevated convection from the top of the boundary layer would best be assessed by using the:
a. Showalter Index (SI)
b. Lifted Index (LI)
c. Surface based CAPE
d. Convective Inhibition

14. When CAPE exists, which of the following will be at the highest elevation?:
a. Maximim Parcel Level (MPL)
b. Level of Free Convection (LFC)
c. Equilibrium Level (EL)
d. Lifted Condensation Level (LCL)

15. When forecasting hail which index is least important to know:

a. Convective Available Potential Energy (CAPE)
b. Lifted Index (LI)
c. Surface Relative Humidity (SFC RH)
d. Freezing Level (FRZ)

16. A clockwise turning of the wind with height is termed a ___________ wind.
a. Backing
b. Veering
c. Retrograding
d. Decreasing
17. A line of equal temperature is called a(n) __________________.
a. Isodrosotherm
b. Height contour
c. Thickness line
d. Isotherm

18. The wet adiabates will be nearly parallel to the dry adiabates when rising saturated air is:
a. Very warm
b. Accelerating
c. Very cold
d. Deceleration

19. The dry adiabatic lapse rate is equal to:

a. 9.8 C/km
b. 6.5 C/km
c. 5.5 C/km
d. 1.0 C/km

20. Rain that freezes after hitting the ground is:

a. Sleet
b. Freezing rain
c. Graupel
d. Ice Pellets

KEY

1. B
2. B
3. D
4. D
5. C
6. A
7. A
8. C
9. A
10. B
11. C
12. D
13. A
14. A
15. C
16. B
17. D
18. C
19. A
20. B
1. A large scale region of homogeneous air at the earth's surface is a(n):
a. Front
b. Air mass
c. Cyclone
d. Shortwave

2. A boundary between distinct synoptic scale air masses is term a(n):

a. Front
b. Inversion
c. Cyclone
d. Trough

3. These are cold core lows that form in the mid-latitudes due to synoptic scale temperature gradients:
a. Hurricanes
b. Ridges
c. Polar highs
d. Mid-latitude cyclones

4. Rising air on the synoptic scale can occur due to either:

a. Low level cold air advection or upper level convergence
b. Low level cold air advection or upper level divergence
c. Low level warm air advection or upper level divergence
d. Low level warm air advection or upper level convergence

5. A large scale region of clockwise spinning air that tends to bring a lack of precipitation is a(n):
a. Cyclone
b. Anticyclone
c. Vort max
d. Jet streak

6. The term for when less dense air flows over and lifts over more dense air on the synoptic scale is termed:
a. Convective uplift
b. CAPE release
c. Cold air advection
d. Isentropic lift

7. This is a dry and hot air mass that has a source region over arid and semi-arid locations:
a. Continental tropical
b. Maritime tropical
c. Continental polar
d. Maritime polar

8. All of following terms mean the same except:

a. Upslope flow
b. Orographic uplift
c. Topographic uplift
d. Katabatic wind
9. As unsaturated air rises, the relative humidity of the air:
a. Increases
b. Decreases

10. A balance between the Coriolis and Pressure Gradient Force is termed the __________ wind. This balance occurs most
significantly aloft in the middle latitudes with a straight flowing wind.
a. Gradient
b. Cyclostrophic
c. Geostrophic
d. Ageostrophic

11. The percent that the air is saturated with respect to water vapor describes:
a. Mixing ratio
b. Relative humidity
c. Dewpoint
d. Absolute humidity

12. The growth of precipitation due to the vapor pressure being less over ice than over water in a mixture of ice crystals and
supercooled water is termed:
a. Collision-Coalescence process
b. Bergeron Process
c. Precipitation
d. Warm growth process

13. The force that causes air to decrease in forward speed due to contact with the earth's surface is:
a. Coriolis
b. Gravity
c. Pressure Gradient Force
d. Friction

14. The seasons on earth are primarily caused by:

a. Earth-sun distance changes
b. The tilt of the earth
c. Earth's rotation rate
d. Changes in solar output from the sun

15. The length of a day on earth is caused by:

a. Earth-sun distance changes
b. The tilt of the earth
c. Earth's rotation rate
d. Changes in solar output from the sun

16. Aphelion and perihelion are caused by:

a. Earth-sun distance changes
b. The tilt of the earth
c. Earth's rotation rate
d. Changes in solar output from the sun
17. Low pressure systems spin ___________ in the Southern Hemisphere.
a. Clockwise
b. Counterclockwise

18. This is a violently rotating column of air being accessory to a thunderstorm that is in contact with the earth's surface:
a. Hurricane
b. Funnel
c. Wall cloud
d. Tornado

19. All of the following are names for blocking patterns except:
a. Omega
b. Rex
c. Progressive
d. Cut-off

20. This is a boundary that separates tropical continental air from tropical maritime air and is often found in the high plains
region in Spring:
a. Cold front
b. Dry line
c. Warm front
d. Trough

KEY

1. B
2. A
3. D
4. C
5. B
6. D
7. A
8. D
9. A
10. C
11. B
12. B
13. D
14. B
15. C
16. A
17. A
18. D
19. C
20. B
1. This is defined as the mass of water vapor divided by the mass of dry air in a sample of air.
a. Relative humidity
b. Mixing ratio
c. Absolute humidity
d. Specific humidity

2. This is defined as the pressure exerted by water vapor alone in a sample of air.
a. Relative humidity
b. Mixing ratio
c. Vapor pressure
d. Absolute humidity
e. Specific humidity

3. Equivalent potential temperature is also known as:

a. Saturation mixing ratio
b. Virtual temperature
c. Wet-bulb temperature
d. Theta-E

4. The convective temperature is most likely to be reached on a sunny day in which the boundary layer is:
a. Warm and moist
b. Warm and dry
c. Cold and moist
d. Cold and dry

5. This is the pressure level in which a parcel of air becomes equal again to the surrounding environmental temperature after
the parcel rises through CAPE region. This is the pressure level at the top of the most significant CAPE region on a sounding.
a. MPL
b. EL
c. CCL
d. LCL

6. This Index has the formula: (T850 - T500) + (Td850 - Tdd700)

a. SWEAT
b. EHI
c. KI
c. TT

7. This is a (in)stability index that compares the 500 mb surface based parcel temperature to the 500 mb sounding
temperature.
a. CAPE
b. Lifted Index
c. K index
d. EHI

8. From the surface, an inverted-V sounding will _____________ in dewpoint depression with height.
a. Increase
b. Decrease
9. As a parcel of air sinks dry adiabatically it will ______________.
a. Warm
b. Cool

10. A parcel rises wet adiabatically by 1 kilometer. If dry adiabatic cooling is 10 C/m and condensation warms the parcel by 4
C than it otherwise would be due to latent heat release, then the parcel would have cooled by __________ C as it rose the 1
kilometer.
a. 14
b. 8
c. 6
d. 4

11. In a sample of tropospheric air near the surface, water vapor will be about ____________ percent of the air sample by
volume.
a. 0.2 to 1
b. 1 to 4
c. 7 to 10
d. 15 to 20

12. A significant temperature decrease with height is termed a(n):

a. Stable lapse rate
b. Isothermal lapse rate
c. Inversion
d. Steep lapse rate

13. A layer in which the surface based parcel is colder than the environmental temperature is a ___________ layer.
a. Unstable
b. Stable

14. This is a circular plot that shows how the wind speed and direction change with height.
a. Hodogram
b. Skew-T Log-P diagram
c. Forecast model
d. Hodograph

15. Winds that turn ______________ with height are termed a backing wind.
a. Clockwise
b. Counterclockwise

16. When air of two different temperatures mix, the heat content will balance out over time and the two air samples will
eventually come into thermal equilibrium. When heat travels to balance the heat content, it travels from ________________
air.
a. Warmer toward colder (excess toward deficit temperature)
b. Colder toward warmer (deficit toward excess temperature)

17. If a baseball is hit exactly the same each time, in which situation will be ball travel the furthest (ignore wind and other
effects not stated in answers).
a. Cold and dry air
b. Cold and moist air
c. Warm and dry air
d. Warm and moist air
18. Which of the following would not work on the moon?
a. Astronaut golf
b. Astronaut sky diving
c. Astronaut basketball
d. Astronaut long jump

19. The lightest gas is:

a. Helium
b. Water vapor
c. Oxygen
d. Hydrogen

20. There is no limit to how much an object can cool. An object can cool to negative infinity.
a. True
b. False

KEY

1. B
2. C
3. D
4. A
5. B
6. C
7. B
8. B
9. A
10. C
11. B
12. D
13. B
14. D
15. B
16. A
17. D
18. B
19. D
20. B
1. The threshold minimum sustained wind speed to be classified as a tropical storm is:
a. 29 mph
b. 39 mph
c. 49 mph
d. 59 mph

2. The threshold minimum sustained wind speed to be classified as a hurricane is:

a. 54 mph
b. 64 mph
c. 74 mph
d. 84 mph

3. Wind pattern in the tropics are best analyzed using:

a. Isobars
b. Height contours
c. Thickness lines
d. Streamlines

4. Which of the following is most likely to be found in the tropical latitudes.

a. Mid-latitude cyclone
b. Cold front
c. Jet streak
d. Easterly wave

5. Wind flow is ____________ curving through an inverted trough.

a. Cyclonically
b. Anticyclonically

6. The belt of low pressure near the equator is termed the:

a. Jet stream
b. Intertropical Convergence Zone
c. Hurricane track
d. Rogue equator
e. Westerlies

7. Tropical systems tend to move toward the _____________ while in the tropics.
a. East
b. West

8. A tropical system can become a hurricane while on the equator.

a. True
b. False

9. A hurricane is a(n):
a. Cold core low
b. Thermal low
c. Warm core low
b. Anticyclonic system
10. Hurricanes need strong vertical wind shear in order to survive.
a. True
b. False

11. The center of a hurricane where subsidence occurs and often clearing occurs is termed the:
a. Eye
b. Mouth
c. Ear
d. Nostril

12. The release of enormous amounts of heat that occur in hurricanes is due to:
a. Fast wind
b. High pressure at the surface
c. Solar radiation
d. Condensation

13. The strongest portion of a hurricane including strong winds and heavy rain is the:
a. Eye
b. Eye wall
c. Feeder bands
d. Wall cloud

14. Hurricanes are rated by using the:

a. Fujita scale
b. Richter scale
c. Saffir-Simpson scale
d. Terror scale

15. The Category of a minimum hurricane is:

a. Category Alpha
b. Category 0
c. Category 1
d. Category A

16. Other than strong maximum sustained winds, heavy rain and the storm surge, hurricanes also often produce:
a. Large hail
b. Tornadoes
c. Tsunami
d. LP supercell storms

17. Most hurricane and tropical storm deaths occur due to:
a. Lightning
b. Tornadoes
c. Severe Wind
d. Flooding

18. Hurricanes and tropical systems that are over the ocean waters are monitored by:
a. Satellite data
b. Hurricane aircraft
c. Buoy data
d. All of the above
 19. Hurricane frequency and intensity tends to be greater in:
a. Warm current tropical waters
b. Cold current tropical water

20. The peak of the Atlantic hurricane season is in:

a. May
b. June
c. September
d. October

KEY

1. B
2. C
3. D
4. D
5. A
6. B
7. B
8. B
9. C
10. B
11. A
12. D
13. B
14. C
15. C
16. B
17. D
18. D
19. A
20. C
1. Snow requires a temperature sounding that is cold and deep enough to support snow, saturated air and:
a. Instability release
b. A lifting mechanism
c. Wind shear
d. Low level cold air advection

2. All of the following are important for heavy lake effect snow except:
a. Deep layer of cold polar air flowing over much warmer lake
b. A lake fetch of 30 kilometers or more
c. An inversion located above the 700 millibar level
d. A minimal amount of directional wind shear with height

3. Snow will not occur if:

a. The surface temperature is above freezing
b. The temperature at 700 millibars of 0 C
c. The temperature at 500 millibars of colder than -20 C
d. The temperature 5,000 feet aloft of 5 C

4. This is the only winter precipitation type that can not occur if the surface air and soil temperature are above
freezing:
a. Snow
b. Sleet
c. Freezing rain
d. Graupel

5. Heavy snow from a mid-latitude cyclone will most likely develop in an environment with a 1000 to 500 millibar
thickness of:
a. 5,460
b. 5,400
c. 5,340
d. 5,280

6. The most powerful nowcasting tool for winter precipitation is:

a. Radar
b. Skew-T
c. Satellite
d. Model data

7. The temperature is 40 F with a dewpoint of 5 F. Using the 1/3 - 5 rule, what temperature would be expected
after complete evaporational cooling of the stagnant air?
a. 35 F
b. 30 F
c. 25 F
d. 20 F

8. If the thickness is 540 dm at a sea level location and precipitation is expected, climatologically it would be
expected that the chance the precipitation type would be snow rather than another precipitation type is:
a. Greater than 50%
b. 50%
c. Less than 50%
9. The depth of the troposphere that has above freezing temperatures aloft with below freezing temperatures both
above and below this layer is known as the:
a. Elevated Mixed Layer
b. Saturated Layer
c. Capping Layer
d. Elevated Warm Layer

10. The threshold temperature difference between the lake water temperature and the 850 mb temperature in
order for heavy lake effect snow to be possible in the Great Lakes region is:
a. 8 C
b. 13 C
c. 18 C
d. 23 C

11. If rain changes to snow, all are possible reasons except:

a. Increased dynamic uplift
b. Cold Air Advection in the lower troposphere
c. Evaporational cooling in the lower troposphere
d. Warm Air Advection in the lower troposphere

12. All of the following will tend to warm a polar air mass except:
a. Radiation from earth's surface on a clear night
b. Movement of polar air over warm soils
c. Warm Air Advection over the top of the polar air mass in the lower troposphere
d. Raindrops that are initially warmer than the polar air falling through it
e. Daytime solar radiation
f. Movement toward a lower elevation

13. These are falling partially melted snowflakes that refreeze before striking the earth's surface as ice particles:
a. Snow
b. Freezing rain
c. Sleet (ice pellets)
d. Hail

14. Air that is 32 F and saturated will have more moisture in the air than air that is 22 F and saturated.
a. True
b. False

15. The lifting of air over a warm front boundary at a fixed point can cause:
a. Warming due to warm air advection
b. Warming due to condensation
c. Cooling due to adiabatic uplift
d. Cooling due to evaporation and melting
e. Any or all of the above

16. There is no need to worry about forecasting winter precipitation if:

a. Only light precipitation is expected
b. The temperature profile can only support rain
c. The surface temperature is below freezing
d. All of the above
17. A dendritic snowflake has _____(1)_____ sides. Dendrites form at a temperature of _____(2)______.
a. (1) 4, (2) -14 C
b. (1) 6, (2) -14 C
c. (1) 4, (2) -4 C
d. (1) 6, (2) -4 C

18. If freezing rain changes over the sleet, which of the following would you most logically conclude?
a. WAA is occurring in the PBL
b. Condensational warming is occurring at 850 mb
c. The thickness of freezing temperature from the surface has increased
d. The entire temperature profile of the troposphere is below freezing
e. The precipitation should change over to all rain soon

19. The form of winter precipitation that is most dangerous to power lines is:
a. Freezing rain
b. Freezing drizzle
c. Sleet
d. Snow

20. Whether a snowflakes will melt or not before reaching the earth's surface depends upon:
a. The size of the snowflake
b. The warmth of the air surrounding the snowflake
c. The depth of above freezing air the snowflake has to fall through
d. All of the above

1. B
2. B
3. D
4. C
5. C
6. A
7. B
8. B
9. D
10. B
11. D
12. A
13. C
14. A
15. E
16. B
17. B
18. C
19. A
20. D