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API 510 - 572 - 576 - Questions - Answers PDF
API 510 - 572 - 576 - Questions - Answers PDF
2. API 510 Inspection Code is only applicable to pressure vessels used by the petroleum and
chemical process industries that:
3. The following is an example of a pressure vessel not excluded from coverage by API 510.
(All of the vessels are in-service.)
0
a. Pressure vessel on an ocean-going ship, operates at 100 psig & 100 F.
0
b. Pressure vessel in a oil refinery, operates at 5 psig and 70 F.
0
c. Pressure vessel in a oil refinery, operates at 100 psig and 200 F.
0
d. Pressure vessel in a oil refinery, vol. of 4 cu. ft., & operates at 70 psig and 70 F.
4. If there is a conflict between the ASME Code and API 510 for vessels that have been
placed in service, the requirements of:
9. Safety precautions are important in pressure vessel inspection because of the limited
access to and the confined spaces of pressure vessels. Out of the organizations listed,
which is the primary one that should be reviewed and followed?
a. ASME
b. OSHA
c. NFPA
d. NBIC
a. Creep
b. Brittle fracture
c. Stress Corrosion
d. Erosion
11. If a probable corrosion rate cannot be determined from reviewing data from the same or
similar service vessels or estimated form published data, on-stream determinations shall
be made after approximately __________ hours of service by using NDE methods and a
corrosion rate is established.
a. 500
b. 1000
c. 5000
d. 10000
12. The maximum allowable working pressure for the continued use of a pressure vessel shall
be based on computations determined by using the:
a. latest edition of the National Boiler Inspection Code or the construction code to
which the vessel was built.
b. latest edition of the ASME Code or the construction code to which the vessel was
built.
c. latest edition of the API/ASME Code or the construction code to which the vessel
was built.
d. latest edition of the Underwriters Laboratories Code or the construction code to
which the vessel was built.
13. Out of the many methods of inspection ___________ is considered the most important and
the most universally accepted method of inspection.
a. radiographic examination
b. careful visual inspection
c. ultrasonic thickness measurement
d. hammer testing
14. If external or internal coverings, such as insulation, refractory protective linings, and corrosion
resistant linings are in good condition and there is no reason to suspect that an unsafe condition is
behind them.
15. What API standard provides more information on the inspection of piping, valves and fittings
associated with pressure vessels?
16. For a corroded area of considerable size in which the circumferential stresses govern, the
least thickness along the most critical element of the area may be averaged over a length not
exceeding the following:
16a. For vessels with inside diameters less than or equal to 60 inches--
17. For corrosion calculations the surface of the weld is considered to be:
e. 1 inch on either side of the weld or twice the minimum thickness on either side of
the weld, whichever is greater.
f. 2 inches on either side of the weld or 2 times the minimum thickness on either side of
the weld, whichever is greater.
g. 4 inches on either side of the weld or 4 times the minimum thickness on either side of
the weld, whichever is greater.
h. 6 inches on either side of the weld or 6 times the minimum thickness on either side of
the weld, whichever is greater.
18. Under what conditions is an internal field inspection of a newly installed pressure vessel
waived?
a. The contractor installing the vessel assures the owner-user that the vessel is
satisfactory for its intended service.
b. A manufacturers data report assuring the vessel is satisfactory for its intended
service is available.
c. The owner-user assures the inspector that the vessel is satisfactory for its intended
service.
i. The manufacturer orally assures the owner-user that the vessel is satisfactory for
its intended service.
19. An above ground pressure vessel shall be given a visual external inspection, preferably while
in operation, at least every _____ years or at the same interval as the internal/on-stream
inspection, whichever is less.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 10
20. The period between internal or on-stream inspections shall not exceed one-half the estimated
remaining life of the vessel based on corrosion rate or _______ years whichever is less.
a. 10
b. 15
c. 5
d. 12
21. In cases where the remaining safe operating life is estimated to be less than 4 years, the
inspection interval may be the full remaining safe operating life up to a maximum of _____ years.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
22. If both the ownership and the location of a vessel are changed, what must happen before it is
reused?
23. A pressure vessel has been in service for 12 years and has shown a history of corrosion over
its service life. The original thickness was 1.9375 thick and the present thickness is 1.405. What
is the corrosion rate for this vessel?
a. 0.266250 inches/year
b. 0.532500 inches/year
c. 0.088750 inches/year
d. 0.044375 inches/year
a. 15 years.
b. 12 years,
c. 10 years.
d. 20 years.
29. When repairs or alterations are to be performed on a pressure vessel, all materials, and all
welding procedures that are to be used must be approved by:
a. the insurance carrier for the company that the pressure vessel belongs to and the
owner-user of the pressure vessel.
b. the owner-user and the contractor performing the repairs or alterations to the
pressure vessel.
c. the API authorized pressure vessel inspector and, if necessary, by an engineer
experienced in pressure vessel design, fabrication, or inspection.
j. the original vessel fabricator and the insurance carrier for the company that owns
the pressure vessel.
30. What type of repairs can an authorized inspector give prior general authorization for?
31. When does an inspector normally approve all specified repair and alteration work.
a. Work is approved after the work contractor certifies the work to be satisfactory and
the contractor has pressure tested the vessel.
b. Work is approved by a process/chemical engineer for the owner-user and the
contractor has pressure tested the vessel.
c. Work is approved after an inspection by the authorized inspector has proven the
work to be satisfactory and any required pressure test has been witnessed by him
b. Work is approved after an inspection and test by the contractor and the unit
operators accept the vessel.
32. Who should be consulted before repairing a crack at a discontinuity, where stress
concentrations may be serious?
34. The repair organization shall use qualified welders and welding procedures qualified in
accordance with the applicable requirements of:
35. The repair organization shall maintain records of its qualified welding procedures and its
welding performance qualifications. These records shall be available to the ____________ prior
to the start of welding.
a. operator
b. owner-user
c. welder
d. inspector
36. For alterations or repairs of vessels initially postweld heat treated as a code requirement and
constructed of P-1 and P-3 steels listed in the ASME Code, preheating to not less than _______
degrees F may be considered as an alternative to PWHT.
a. 200
b. 300
c. 400
d. 500
37. A 2 1/4 % chrome material (P-5) vessel must be repaired by welding in a flush patch
(replacing a corroded area). The vessel is in caustic service and was originally post weld heat
treated. Notch toughness is not a consideration. Which of the following is correct.
38. If local post weld heat treatment is approved for a vessel repair (a complete 360 degree band
around the vessel is not used--only a localized spot), what are the minimum number of
thermocouples required around the localized area to monitor the temperature?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 6
39. When repairing vessels with stainless steel weld overlay and cladding (vessels constructed of
P-3, P-4, or P-5 base materials) the base metal in the area of repair should be examined for
cracking by UT per ASME Section V. This UT inspection should be made________ hours after
repairs have been completed for equipment in hydrogen service, especially for chromium-
molybdenum alloys that could be affected by delayed cracking.
a. 12
b. 24
c. 36
d. 42
a. They may be only used in vessels with shells 3/8 thick or less.
b. They may be used only if approved by the operators.
c. They may be used only on low pressure vessels.
d. They are used for only temporary repairs unless approved for longer use by the
Engineer/Inspector
41. Carbon or alloy steel with a carbon content over _____ percent shall not be welded.
a. 0.30
b. 0.35
c. 0.40
d. 0.45
42. Acceptance criteria for a welded repair or alteration should include NDE techniques that are in
accordance with the:
a. an alteration.
b. a repair.
c. a lightning strike.
d. a unit upset.
45. An API certified inspector who has not been actively engaged, as such, within the previous
three years can be recertified by:
48. If a short-term corrosion rate reflects a .001 per year corrosive environment currently exists
and the long-term corrosion rate is .009 per year, the corrosion rate used in calculating the
inspection interval should be:
a. consequence of a failure
b. likelihood of a failure
c. possibility of a failure
d. a & b above
50. Which assessment should be repeated each time equipment or process changes are made
that could affect the degradation or failure of the vessel?
a. consequence
b. probability
c. likelihood
d. internal/external
51. RBI assessments shall be reviewed and approved by the ________________ when used to
increase the 10 year inspection limit.
53. What is the maximum carbon content of a material that will be used for a welded repair?
a. .34%
b. .35%
c. .40%
d. .30%
a. 5 Years
b. 1 Year
c. 10 Years
d. At the same interval as the internal or on-stream inspection.
55. If a pressure vessel was constructed in accordance with ASME Section VIII Division 1 in
1966, can it be rerated in accordance with the latest edition / addendum of ASME Section VIII
Division 1?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Maybe
d. Homework Sucks
56. Any welding technique used to obtain controlled grain refinement and tempering of the
underlying heat affected zone in the base metal is?
57. Who must give prior authorization for all alteration work to be done on pressure vessels that
comply with ASME Section VIII Division 1?
58. When using preheat as an alternative to postweld heat treatment, which of the following
welding techniques cannot be used?
a. SMAW
b. GTAW
c. GMAW
d. FCAW
59. A pressure vessel is constructed with a shell thickness of 2 , the vessel has an MDMT of
30 8F, what is the minimum temperature at which a pressure test should be performed?
a. 50 8F
b. 60 8F
c. 30 8F
d. 40 8F
60. For pressure vessels that have no nameplate, minimal or no design and construction
documentation, and the extent of radiography originally performed is not known, what joint factor
should be used for butt welds?
a. 0.70
b. 0.75
c. 0.85
d. 0.90
61. A pressure vessel has an established corrosion rate of .012 per year. The vessel was last
inspected in 2001 and had a measured wall thickness of .375. The minimum required thickness
for this vessel based on calculation performed in accordance with the original construction code is
.265. Utilizing this information, what is the remaining life of this pressure vessel?
a. 9 Years
b. 5 Years
c. 15 Years
d. 7 Years
62. Which of the following is characterized as a loss of ductility and notch toughness due to
postweld heat treatment or high temperature service.
64. In accordance with API 510, to what extent must NDE examiners be trained or certified?
65. Which of the following vessels is not exempt from the specific requirements of API 510?
a. A vessel that does not exceed 5 cubic feet in volume and 600 PSI design pressure.
b. A vessel that is on moveable structures covered by other jurisdictional regulations.
c. A vessel listed for exemption from the construction in the scope of ASME Section
VIII, Division 1, of the ASME Code.
f. A vessel that does not exceed 1 cubic feet in volume and 600 PSI design
pressure
66. Before local postweld heat treatment is used in lieu of 360-degree banding on local repairs,
what type of review must be conducted to determine if a vessel was postweld heat treated due to
the characteristics of the fluid being handled?
a. The pressure vessel engineer certifies that all inspections and examinations have
been performed in accordance with API 510.
g. The pressure vessel inspector oversees the attachment of an additional nameplate
or additional stamping.
c. The pressure vessel inspector certifies that all inspections and examinations have
been performed in accordance with API 510.
d. The examiner completes all required NDE examinations.
68. A pressure vessel was placed into service in 1989 and was constructed with a design
thickness of .750. In 2001 the wall thickness was measured at .630. Based on this information
and a minimum thickness of .550, when is the next internal inspection due for this pressure
vessel?
a. 4 Years
b. 2 Years
c. 8 Years
d. 10 Years
a. RT
b. VT
c. MT
d. PT
70. When making welded repairs to a pressure vessel, who is responsible for maintaining the
records for welding procedures and welder performance qualifications?
a. The owner/user.
b. The inspector.
c. The pressure vessel engineer.
d. The repair organization.
71. What is the time interval between the issuance of an edition, revision, or addenda of an API
standard and when it goes into effect?
72. The work necessary to restore a vessel to a condition suitable for safe operation at the design
conditions is considered a?
a. Repair
b. Alteration
c. Quality Assurance/Quality Control review
d. Rerating
73. Which of the following is not considered an acceptable means of determining the probable
corrosion rate of a new vessel?
74. If a pressure vessel is to have a pressure test and there is no available information as to the
vessels minimum design metal temperature, what should be used to determine the minimum
temperature at which the pressure test should be performed?
75. How many years is an API certificate valid for an authorized pressure vessel inspector?
76. When should Industry-qualified UT shearwave operators be used per API 510?
a. RBI
b. UT Shearwave Operators
c. FFS Assessments
d. IRE II Assessments
a. API rules
b. CP-189
c. SNT-TC-1A
d. Any of the above if acceptable to the owner/user
1. Several different methods are used to construct pressure vessels. Most pressure vessels are
constructed today using ____________ construction.
a. welded
b. hot forged
c. riveted
d. multilayer
a. titanium
b. austenitic stainless steel
c. Monel
d. carbon steel.
3. Construction codes are periodically revised as the designs of pressure vessels improve and as
new construction materials become available. A pressure vessel should be maintained according
to the:
7. Many problems with pressure vessels are caused by faulty fabrication. Which item on the
following list is not related to faulty fabrication.
a. poor welding.
b. chloride stress corrosion cracking.
c. improper heat treatment.
d. dimensional intolerance.
9. If an internal inspection of a vessel is not the initial one, the first step is to:
10. Which of the following is not a tool for measuring thickness of vessel shells?
11. What is the primary method used to obtaining thickness measurements on process
equipment?
a. Calipers
b. Profile Radiography
c. Ultrasonic instruments
d. Depth drilling
12. Which of the following may leave high residual stresses near welds and may affect the
physical properties and corrosion resistance of a metal?
13. Titanium vessels may lose ductility due to absorption of hydrogen and the resulting formation
of:
a. hydride phases
b. caustic embrittlement
c. polythionic acid embrittlement
d. Sigma phase
a. Heads
b. Shell
c. Nozzles
d. Manways
15. What is the suggested spacing of wire rope clips used on guy wire cables?
16. High temperature sulfidic corrosion will normally take place above what temperature?
a. 300F
b. 200F
c. 450C
d. 450F
17. Which of the following vessels is the most likely to undergo uneven settlement?
18. If a crack is found in a pressure vessel, to what extent must the crack be removed prior to
welded repair?
19. This method of deterioration is usually localized, but at times is very general. It can occur at
cyclone separator internals, exchanger tubes, impingement baffles and mixing columns. This
deterioration is:
a. Corrosion
b. Dezincification
c. Erosion
d. Carburization
20. The three types of information that should make-up a complete record file are?
a. Basic data, field notes, and the data that accumulates in a continuous file.
b. Metallurgical reviews, original construction drawings, and inspection reports.
a. The original construction radiographs, U-1 report, and ultrasonic examination reports.
b. The as built drawings, in-service inspection reports, and engineering design
reports.
a. Fatigue strength.
b. Retiring thickness of the vessel.
c. Rate of deterioration.
d. Both B & C, above.
22. Grounding systems should be tested to insure that the resistance to ground does not
exceed?
a. 5 ohms
b. 10 ohms
c. 20 ohms
d. 25 ohms
23. Which of the following would be used to aid an inspector in locating hydrogen blistering?
a. Thermal imaging
b. A flash light
c. Magnetic Particle Examination
d. Radiography
24. Incomplete penetration, lack of fusion, and slag inclusion are all deficiencies associated with?
25. Dealloying is a degradation characterized by the loss of one or more alloys. 3 common forms
are commonly found in copper alloys. One of these is:
a. Creep.
b. Dezincification.
c. Decarburization.
d. Deschindlerization.
26. The most important biological mechanism that directly influences the rate of corrosion is:
a. H2S.
b. SRB.
c. S04.
d. PMS.
a. Economics
b. Safety and Reliability
c. OSHA regulations
d. To satisfy local environmental concerns
29. Determining the physical condition of a pressure vessel and determining the type, rate, and
causes of deterioration are the basic reasons for?
a. Metallurgical analysis
b. NDE examinations
c. Inspections
d. Impact test
30. Which of the following is not a code or standard used for the design and construction of heat
exchangers and condensers in the United States?
a. TEMA
b. ASME Code
c. API Standard 660
d. BOCA
31. When performing an inspection, the two most important factors in determining the limits of
corrosion and any other type of deterioration that may be tolerated are?
a. The retirement thickness of the part considered and the rate of deterioration.
b. The modules of elasticity and the hoop stress.
c. The amount of NDE originally performed and the type of discontinuities found.
d. The type of welding process used in the original construction and the name of the
manufacturer.
32. Under which of the following conditions would external corrosion most likely occur.
33. Which of the following methods could be used to detect de-carburization of austenitic
stainless steels?
a. Metallurgical examinations
b. Ultrasonics
c. Acoustic Emissions
d. None of the above
34. The bottom head and shell of fractionators processing high-sulfur oils are susceptible to
what type of deterioration?
a. Hydrogen Embrittlement
b. Sulfide Corrosion
c. Chloride Stress Corrosion Cracking
d. Sulfur De-oxidation
a. Soil corrosion
b. CUI
c. Atmospheric corrosion
d. Hydrogen blistering
36. What NDE technique can be utilized to determine if creep cracking is prevalent, per RP
572?
a. MT
b. PT
c. AE
d. Any of the above
37. When a vessel is supported with guy wires, how should the wire rope clips be attached to the
wire rope?
a. With the base against the dead or short end and the u-bolt against the live or long
end of the wire rope.
b. With the base against the live or long end and the u-bolt against the dead or short
end of the wire rope.
c. The orientation of the wire rope clip in regards to the wire rope is irrelevant.
d. Two wire rope clips should be used to secure the wire rope. One clip needs to be
oriented with the base against the dead or short end and one clip needs to be
oriented with the base against the live or long end.
a. Carbide precipitation
b. High-temperature hydrogen attack
c. Embrittlement
d. Amine cracking
39. When profile radiography is performed, what has to be shown on the developed film of the
vessel part, per RP 572?
40. Which magnetic particle analysis is the most sensitive in finding cracks, per RP 572?
a. Temper embrittlement
b. Neutralization
c. Graphitization
d. Decarburization
43. If amine materials are used or stored in a pressure vessel, where is cracking most likely to
occur?
44. Which of the following inspection methods would be best suited for the inspection of internal
linings such as paint, glass, plastic, and rubber?
a. Magnetic Particle
b. Liquid Dye Penetrant
c. Profile Radiography
d. Spark Tester
45. When settlement of pressure vessel foundations and/or supports is found, and routine
monitoring is taking place, at what time should the taking of settlement measurements be
suspended?
a. When sufficient information has been obtained to reliably predict the amount of
settlement occurring.
b. When sufficient information has been obtained to calculate the amount of
settlement that will take place over the life of the vessel.
c. When the information obtained reveals that uniform settlement is taking place.
d. Measurements should be taken until the settlement stops.
46. What type of pressure vessel is constructed with a casing or outer shell that forms a space
between itself and the main shell?
a. 500 8F
b. 750 8F
c. 800 8F
d. 900 8F
48. If vibration is noted on auxiliary equipment associated with a pressure vessel and supports
cannot be added to reduce the vibration, what should be done?
a. The inspector should consult with operations personnel to determine if the auxiliary
equipment can be removed.
b. The auxiliary equipment should be placed on a preventive maintenance schedule
to monitoring for fatigue cracking.
c. A qualified engineer should perform calculation to assure that the vibrations will not
cause fatigue cracking.
d. The auxiliary equipment should be radiographed on a routine basis to ensure no
fatigue cracking is taking place.
49. Which of the following inspection techniques should not be used on pressure vessels that are
under pressure?
50. Tube sheets that are in water service are generally constructed from what types of metal?
52. What are the most important conditions to check for when examining metallic linings?
a. That the lining is applied evenly, it has sufficient ductility, and no film lifting is
visible.
b. There is no corrosion, it was properly installed, and that no holes or cracks exist.
c. That the lining is of sufficient strength to resist mechanical forces and there are no
blisters caused by inadequate surface preparations.
d. All of the above.
53. What type of deterioration can be expected on the shell of exchangers next to bundle baffles
and impingements plates?
54. What must the manufacturers of pressure vessels constructed in accordance with ASME
Section VIII Division 1 and Division 2 have?
55. If external or internal coatings or linings appear visually to be in good condition, with no
evidence of corrosion or deterioration, the Inspector should:
56. If a pressure vessel has historical records of past inspections, little or no corrosion is evident,
and the vessel has operated under normal conditions, what is the least amount of thickness
measurements that should be taken?
58. When should a service history record be established for a pressure vessel?
a. Crevice Corrosion
b. Biological Corrosion
c. Galvanic Corrosion
d. Intergranular Corrosion
60. When performing a pneumatic pressure test in lieu or a hydrostatic pressure test, the
recommendations set forth in which code or standard should be followed?
a. API 510
b. API 574
c. API 576
d. ASME Code
1. Using the following description, pick the type pressure-relieving device from the list. The spring
is fully exposed; it is used on steam boiler drums; it is also used for general air and steam service
in a refinery.
a. Rupture Disk.
b. Safety Relief Valve.
c. Relief Valve.
d. Safety Valve.
2. Using the following description, pick the type pressure-relieving device from the list. They are
used in liquid or incompressible fluid service. They have closed bonnets. They should not be used
in steam, air, gas, or vapor service.
a. Rupture Disk.
b. Safety Relief Valve.
c. Relief Valve.
d. Safety Valve.
3. Using the following description, pick the type pressure-relieving device from the list. They are
used in gas or vapor service and liquid service. They have closed bonnets. They should not be
used on steam boilers. They are used in corrosive refinery service.
a. Rupture Disk.
b. Relief Valve.
c. Safety Relief Valve.
d. Safety Valve.
4. Using the following description, pick the type pressure-relieving device from the list. They are
used in refinery process industries for gas, vapor, air or liquids. They can be used in corrosive
refinery service. They minimize the effects of back pressure on its operation characteristics. They
should not be used as pressure control or bypass valves.
a. Safety Valve.
b. Balanced Safety Relief Valve.
c. Relief Valve.
d. Rupture Disk.
5. What is the common limitation for use on the following pressure relief devices: Safety Valve,
Relief Valve, Safety Relief Valve, Balanced Safety Relief Valves.
a. corrosion.
b. proper maintenance.
c. damaged seating surfaces
d. failed spring.
a. 7
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
9. Which one of the following list is not an item to be checked when a visual on-stream inspection
of a pressure-relieving device.
a. Check to make sure the inlet nozzle of the valve and/or the piping to the valve inlet is
not plugged.
b. Check to make sure the correct relief device was installed.
c. Check to make sure no gags, blinds, closed valves or piping obstruction prevent the
relief device from working.
d. Check to make sure the seals installed to protect the spring setting have not been
broken.
10. When a pressure-relief valve is first received in the shop, what should be done prior to
dismantling?
11. A self locking seal that when placed in position and closed, locks and must be physically cut
or broken to be removed is a ?
a. Lock-Out
b. Car Seal
c. Locking Pin
d. Cotter Key
12. Which of the following should be on a pressure relieving devices identification tag?
a. Test dates.
b. Unit designation.
c. Set pressure.
d. All of the above.
14. Which of the following pressure-relieving devices is characterized as having a bonnet that
encloses the spring and forms a pressure tight-cavity, with the bonnet cavity being vented to the
discharge side of the valve?
15. If a pressure relief valve is received and the valves inlet and outlet are not covered, what
should be done?
a. Provisions should be made to ensure that in the future they are covered before
leaving the shop.
b. The relief valve shall be sent back to the shop to verify the set pressure.
c. The inlet and outlet of the relief valve should be flushed with water, steam or
another suitable medium.
d. The relief valve should be dismantled and cleaned.
16. Which of the following may cause the improper performance of a pressure-relieving device?
17. Pressure gauges to be used for the setting of pressure relief valves should be calibrated by
what means?
18. Which of the following pressure-relieving devices would be used to protect the upstream side
of a pressure relief valve against corrosion?
a. Safety Valve
b. Relief Valve
c. Rupture Disk
d. Conventional Safety Relief Valve
a. In an upright position.
b. Incased in a protective compartment
c. On their side to prevent the relief device from falling over during shipment.
d. UPS ground.
a. To determine if the devices were manufactured in accordance with ASME and API
requirements.
b. To determine the general physical and operating conditions of the devices, and to
ensure that their performance meets the requirements for a given installation.
c. To ensure the devices ability to withstand external shock loadings.
d. All of the above.
21. A pressure-relieving device whose spring is fully exposed outside of the valve bonnet and is
normally used on stream boiler drums and super-heaters.
a. Relief Valve
b. Safety Relief Valve
c. Safety Valve
d. Conservation Vent
22. Which of the following would not be a precaution taken when removing a pressure-relieving
device while the equipment is in operation?
a. The space between the relief device and any adjacent block valve should be
vented to a safe location.
b. The bonnet of the relieving device should be removed and tested for hazardous
materials or explosive mixtures.
c. A blind should be inserted between the pressure relief device and any adjacent
upstream block valve.
d. An authorized person should isolate a relief device by closing any adjacent block
valves upstream or downstream.
23. What is essential to the effective administration and control of any pressure-relieving device
program in a process industry?
24. What normally causes the failure of pressure relief valve springs?
25. Which of the following pressure relieving devices is normally used for the protection of
atmospheric storage tanks?
26. A visual on-stream inspection should be performed on pressure relieving devices at what
intervals?
a. As determined by the performance of the devices in the particular service
concerned
with a maximum interval of 10 years.
b. As determined by previous on-stream inspections - with a maximum interval of 5
years.
c. In accordance with manufacturers recommendations.
d. As determined by previous on-stream inspection - with a maximum interval of 10
years.
27. What is the usual service life of a pre-bulged metal rupture disk under normal operating
conditions?
a. 1 Year
b. 2 Years
c. 3 Years
d. As determined from previous inspections.
28. When is the best time to perform inspections on pressure relieving devices?
29. Which of the following shall be installed between a rupture disk device and the inlet of a
pressure relief valve to detect disk rupture or leakage?
a. Try cock
b. Pressure gauge
c. A free vent
d. All of the above
30. If a rupture disks manufacturer specifies a bolting torque procedure and the tightened bolts
are loosened, the rupture disk should be what?
a. Replaced
b. Disassembled and inspected to insure no damage has occurred.
c. The bolting should be retightened in accordance with the manufacturers
recommendations.
d. The rupture disk and housing should be externally visually inspected to insure no
damage has occurred.
32. The annular pressure chamber located downstream of the seat of a pressure relief valve for
the purpose of assisting the valve to achieve lift is?
a. Bonnet Chamber
b. Huddling Chamber
c. Try Cock Chamber
d. Seating Chamber
33. Which side of a conventional domed rupture disk (pre-bulged) is designed for pressure?
34. If unusual corrosion, deposits, or conditions are noted during the shop
maintenance/inspection of a pressure relief valve, who should be called upon to assist in the
inspection?
a. The Inspector
b. The Employer
c. The Pressure Relief Valve Engineer
d. The Pressure Vessel Engineer
35. When operating pressures are as high as 90% of a disks design bursting pressure, what type
of rupture disk should be used?
36. Why is the size (capacity) of a pressure relief valve test stand important?
a. Insufficient surge volume could damage a pressure relief valves internal parts.
b. Insufficient surge volume could produce inaccurate test gauge readings.
c. Insufficient surge volume might not cause a distinct pop, and may cause an
incorrect set pressure.
d. The size of the pressure relief valve test stand is irrelevant.
37. For pressure relief valves that comply with ASME Section VIII, Division 1, what is the
minimum and maximum deviation between the pop pressure and the set pressure?
a. January 1, 1990
b. January 1, 1986
c. January 1, 1998
d. January 1, 1989
39. What is the relieving capacity used as the basis for the application of a pressure relief device
determined in accordance with the applicable code or regulation?
40. When inspecting reverse acting rupture disk that utilizes knife blades, what should the
inspector look for?
a. A reduction of the void between the knife blades and the disk.
b. The inspector should verify the orientation of the knife blades.
c. Misalignment between the diaphragm and knife blades, which can cause the
reduction of the available cutting surface.
d. Dulling of the knife edges, which could cause the knife not to sever the disk.
API 510
ANSWER KEY
1. b (Para. 1.1) 51. d (Para. 6.2)
2. d (Para. 1.1) 52. d (Para. B.5
3. c (Para. 1.2.2) 53. b (Para. 7.2.8)
4. a (Para. 3.2) 54. c (Para. 6.6)
5. c (Para. 3.4) 55. b (Figure 7-1)
6. b (Para. 3.10) 56. d (Para. 3.19)
7. d (Para. 3.17) 57. c (Para. 7.1.1)
8. c (Para. 4.3) 58. d (Para. 7.2.3.1)
9. b (Para. 5.1) 59. b (Para. 6.5)
10. a (Para. 5.2) 60. a (Para. 6.7)
11. b (Para. 5.3) 61. a (Para. 6.4)
12. b (Para. 5.4) 62. d (Para. 5.2)
13. b (Para. 5.5) 63. b (Para. 6.4)
14. a (Para. 5.5) 64. c (Para. 3.18)
15. c (Para. 5.6) 65. a (Para. 1.2.2)
16. A) d B) a (Para. 5.7) 66. d (Para. 7.2.5 note)
17. a (Para. 5.7) 67. b (Para. 7.3)
18. b (Para. 6.1) 68. a (Para. 6.4)
19. c (Para. 6.3) 69. b (Para. 5.5)
20. a (Para. 6.4) 70. d (Para. 7.2.2)
21. b (Para. 6.4) 71. c (Forward)
22. a (Para. 6.4) 72. a (Para. 3.15)
23. d (Para. 6.4) 73. b (Para. 5.3)
24. b (Para. 6.5) 74. b (Para. 6.5 note)
25. a (Para. 6.6) 75. b (Appendix B B.2.3)
26. c (Para. 6.6) 76. c (Para. 5.5)
27. c (Para. 6.6) 77. c (Para. 5.8)
28. c (Para. 6.7) 78. d (Para. 3.21)
29. c (Para. 7.1)
30. d (Para. 7.1.1)
31. c (Para. 7.1.2)
32. d (Para. 7.1.3)
33. c (Para. 7.2)
34. b (Para. 7.2.1)
35. d (Para. 7.2.2)
36. b (Para. 7.2.3.1)
37. d (Para. 7.2.3)
38. b (Para. 7.2.5)
39. b (Para. 7.2.6)
40. d (Para. 7.2.7)
41. b (Para. 7.2.8)
42. b (Para. 7.2.9)
43. a (Para. 7.2.10)
44. c (Para. 7.3)
45. d (Para. B.5.1)
46. c (Para. 3.18)
47. a (Para. 6.4)
48. a (Para. 6.4)
49. d (Para. 6.2)
50. c (Para. 6.2)
API 572
ANSWER KEY
API RP 576
ANSWER KEY
1. d (Para. 4.2)
2. c (Para. 4.3)
3. c (Para. 4.4)
4. b (Para. 4.6)
5. b (Para. 4.2 4.6)
6. b (Section 5)
7. a (Para. 6.4)
8. b (Para. 6.4)
9. a (Para. 6.3)
10. d (Para. 6.2.8)
11. b (Para. 3.1.1)
12. d (Figure 37)
13. b (Para. 4.3.2)
14. a (Para. 4.5)
15. a (Para. 5.8.3)
16. d (Section 5)
17. b (Para. 5.4)
18. a (Para. 5.8.1)
19. c (Para. 4.9.2)
20. b (Para. 6.1)
21. c (Para. 4.2)
22. b (Para. 6.2.4)
23. d (Para. 7.1)
24. d (Para. 5.3)
25. a (Para. 4.8)
26. b (Para. 6.4.2)
27. a (Para. 4.9.3)
28. c (Para. 6.5.1)
29. d (Para. 4.9.2)
30. a (Para. 6.2.21)
31. b (Para. 4.6.1) & (Para. 5.5)
32. b (Para.3.2.2)
33. b (Para. 4.9.1.1)
34. a (Para. 6.2.9 Caution Note)
35. d (Para. 4.9.3)
36. c (Para. 5.4)
37. a (Para. 6.2.14)
38. b (Para. 4.3)
39. a (Para. 3.3.6)
40. d (Para. 4.9.1.4)