IAS Prelims Public Administration 1995
1. The entrustment of certain specified
functions by the central to the local
authority with the former retaining the
right to issue directives or revise decisions
is termed as
a. Devolution
b. Deconcentration
c. Decentralization
d. Delegation
2. Which one of the following does NOT
relate to supervision process?
a. The top authorities simply laying down
the objectives and policy in board
terms
b. Obtaining reports from subordinate
units.
c. Requiring the prior approval of the
departmental head
d. Requiring the prior approval of the
superior if expenditure is proposed
3. Which one of the following CANNOT be
the function of the staff agency?
a. Rendering advice and consultancy
services
b. Performing substantive functions of an
agency
c. Coordination of the activities of the
agency
d. Gathering information and collating it.
4. Which of the following is a major staff
agency in the government of India?
a. Railway board
b. Central pollution control board
c. Planning commission
d. Central board of direct taxes
5. Which of the following are true regarding
staff and line?
1. They are concepts derived from
military science.
2. They are meant to work at crosspurposes.
3. They are meant to complement the
work of each other.
4. They are inevitable in all public
organizations.
Choose the correct answer from the codes
given below:
a. 1,2 & 3
b. 1,3 & 4
c. 1, 2 % 4
d. 2, 3 & 4
6. The following are some of the steps in
16. Given below are two statements, one
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Chester Barnard identified
communication channels with channels of
authority.
Reason (R): Chester Barnard thinks that a
communication that cannot be understood
can have no authority.
In the context of the above statements,
which one of the following is correct?
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
17. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer.
List I
A. Robert Presthus
B. Chirs Argyris
C. Robert Dubin
D. Frederick Herfberg
List II
1. A social organization can sustain
required behaviors even when the
institution is not central to the actor’s
interest
2. Work is the central life interest of most
people who want variety and challenge
in their jobs
3. Some factors can cause worker
dissatisfaction but when these are
corrected, they contribute very little to
job satisfaction.
4. The subordinate must relieve his
anxiety or tension by bowing to the
wishes of his superior
Codes
ABCD
a. 1 2 4 3
b. 4 2 1 3
c. 1 3 4 2
d. 4 3 1 2
18. What is the correct chronological sequence
in which the following viewpoints and
theories emerged?
1. Existence, Relatedness, Growth
(ERG). Theory of needs (Alerter)
2. Hierarchy of needs (Maslow)
decision-making:
1. Acquiring backboard information
concerning the problem
2. Determining the problem
3. Choosing the preferred alternative.
4. Evaluating the alternatives.
5. Identifying the alternatives.
Which is the correct sequence of the above
steps? Choose the answer from the codes
given below:
a. 1,5,2,4,3
b. 2,4,1,3,5
c. 1,2,4,5,3
d. 2,1,5,4,3
7. Which one of the following approaches to
decision-making is referred to as the with
or with out principle’
a. Cost-benefit analysis
b. Factor analysis
c. Differential analysis
d. Marginal analysis
8. Which one of the following NOT true
about the emergence of New Public
Administration?
a. It grew out of meetings of Minnow
brook in September, 1968.
b. It was a movement pioneered by the
younger generation of American
Public Administrations.
c. Waldo’s book “Public Administration
in a time of Turbulence” gave impetus
to it
d. It was triggered by problems of
comparative and development
9. Which one of the following pairs is NOT
correctly matched?
a. Intelligence activity ……….develops
possible course of action.
b. Values and facts ………Facilitate
rational calculations.
c. Premises…….. simplify decisionmaking
process.
d. Design activity……. Inventing and
analyzing alternative coerces of action.
10. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer by using the codes given
below the lists:
List I
A. Herbert Simon
B. Charles Lindblom
C. Chester Barnard
D. Amitai Etzioni
3. Motivation seen as part of complex
human behavior (Elton Mayo)
4. Satisfaction –Dissatisfaction theory of
Motivation (Herzberg)
Choose the correct answer from the codes
below:
a. 1,2,3,4
b. 2,4,3,1
c. 3,1,4,2
d. 3,2,1,4
19. The Civil service was defined as
“professional body of officials, permanent,
paid and skilled” by
a. Herman Finer
b. O.Glenn Stahl
c. Felix Nigro
d. E.N. Gladden
20. The system of recruitment through
competitive examination first came into
vogue in the.
a. 5th century B.C.
b. 2nd century B.C.
c. 19th century
d. 20th century
21. By positive recruitment is meant
a. Calling applications from candidates
b. Reaching the source of supply
c. Making provision for lateral entry
d. Making provision for weaker sections
22. Given below are two statements, one
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Induction training does not
focus on the task of improving work skills.
Reason (R): Objective of training of
servants is to improve their efficiency.
In the context of the above two statements,
which one of the following is correct?
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
23. Learning by doing is called
a. Formal training
b. Informal training
c. In-service training
d. Post –entry training
24. Elevation from state civil services to the
IAS is done by
a. A board with a member of the UPSC
List II as its chairman
1. Positive and negative decisions b. A board with the chief secretary as
2. Logical positivism chairman
3. Mixed-scanning c. The state Public Service commission
4. Instrumentalism d. A board with the secretary of the
5. One best way department of personnel as chairman
Codes: 25. Which of the following criteria are used
ABCD for jading merit?
a. 1 2 3 4 1. Length of service
b. 1 4 3 5 2. Achievements in the service
c. 2 4 1 3 3. Intellectual attainment
d. 2 1 4 3 4. Socio-economic profile of the
11. Listed below are four leadership qualities individual
mentioned by Chester Bernard: Choose the correct answer from the codes
1. Responsibility and intellectual capacity given below:
2. Decisiveness a. 1 and 2
3. Vitality and endurance b. 1 and 3
4. Persuasiveness c. 2 and 3
Which according to him is their d. 2 and 4
importance in descending order? 26. Given below are two statements, one
a. 1,2,4,3 labella as Assertion (A) and the other
b. 2,1,4,3 labeled as Reason (R):
c. 3,2,4,1 Assertion (A): Civil servants have the
d. 4,2,1,3 right to strike in India.
12. Match List I with List II and select the Reason (R): Right to strike is available to
correct answer. workers.
List I In the context of the above two statements,
A. A store clerk tells the top executive which one of the following is correct?
when to buy a commodity. a. Both A and R are true and R is the
B. A youth rushing to save life and correct explanation of A
property of a house on fire commands b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
neighbors to collect water. correct explanation of A
C. A newly elected secretary advises c. A is true but R is false
members abut their duties. d. A is false but R is true
D. A leader attempts to bend his 27. Which one of the following reports laid
followers to his will in most kinds of down the traditional concept of civil
work. service neutrality in Britain?
List II a. Master man committee Report
1. Leadership by Personality b. Hoover commission Report
2. Leadership by Position c. Northcote - Trevelyan Report
3. Leadership by Function d. Fulton Report
4. Leadership by Situation 28. Which one of the following illustrates the
Codes: nature of traditional concept of Civil
ABCD service neutrality?
a. 1 3 2 4 a. Committed
b. 2 4 3 1 b. Positive minded
c. 3 4 2 1 c. Non-partisan
d. 3 2 4 1 d. Impartial
13. Who among the following said that 29. Neutrality may make a civil servant
‘Governmental sense’ and ‘political sense’ a. Apolitical
are major attributes of good administrative b. Non-responsive and conservative
leadership? c. Indifferent and apolitical
 a. John Millet
b. William Siffin
c. Paul Appleby
d. L.D. White
14. The author who described complicated
communication of bureaucracy as
‘officialese’ ‘or’ gobbledygook’ was
a. Herbert Simon
b. Rudolf Flesch
c. Chester Barnard
d. Lloyd George
15. Given below are two statements, one
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Under theory ‘X’ upward
communication is as important as
downward communication.
Reason (R): Under Theory ‘X’
subordinates have little participation in
setting the objectives of the organization.
In the context of the above two statements,
which one of the following is correct?
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
IAS Prelims Public Administration 1995
 31. Given below are two statements, one
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In parliamentary
democracies, the system of financial
administration must be so organized as to
secure compliance with the will of the
legislature.
Reason (R): Only the legislature
authorities the executive government to
rest to deficit financing in the context of
the above two statements which one of the
following is correct?
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
32. Given below are two statements, one
d. Apolitical and non-responsive
30. ‘Rule of lapse’ means
a. All appropriations voted by the
legislature expire at the end of the
financial year
b. All pending bills in Parliament lapse
with its prorogation
c. The demand for grants of a ministry
lapse with criticism of its policy by the
opposition
d. The appropriation bill lapses if it is not
returned by the Rajya Sabha within 14
days
46. Which of the following are reasons for the
bureaucratic model being most useful for
comparative study?
1. The model is set in a wide frame work
that spans history and culture
2. Weber developed the model by
following the historical method
3. Bureaucracy is the most powerful
instrument of the executive in all
couturiers
4. It focuses attention upon the chief
structural functional characteristics of
bureaucracy.
Select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4
47. Which one of the following statements is
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): No public expenditure can
be incurred except with the sanction of the
legislature
Reason (R): During an emergency, the
president of India is empowered to
authorities the expenditure from the
consolidated fund of India. In the context
of two above tow statements, which one of
the following is correct?
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
33. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer.
List I
A. A process which brings out the total
governmental operations through a
classification by functions
programmes, activities and projects.
B. Emphasizes the planning aspect of
budgeting for selecting the best out of
a number of available programmes and
for optimizing the choice in economic
terms
C. An operating, planning and budgeting
process which requires each manager
to justify his entire budget request in
detail from scratch
D. Embodies the concept of self-retiring
government programmes by providing
for the termination of statutory
authorization of programmes
List II
1. Zero Base budgeting
2. Sunset Legislation
3. Performance Budgeting
4. P.P.B.S.
5. Line Item budgeting
Codes:
ABCD
a. 3 5 1 5
b. 3 4 1 2
c. 4 1 3 2
d. 2 3 1 5
34. Money can be advanced out of the
contingency find of India to meet
unforeseen expenditure by the
correct?
a. What the Treasury done in UK is done
by the Bureau of the Budget in USA
b. What the Treasury done in U.K. is
shared by two agencies in USA- the
treasury and the office of management
and Budget
c. What the treasury does in UK is done
by the U.S treasury
d. There are civil services commissions in
both countries
48. Which of the following are distinct
features of the British civil service as
compared with the French Civil service?
1. Dominance of generalists administers
2. Anonymity of central government
officer.
3. restrictions on political rights of civil
servants
4. Appointment of the British
administrative class as chief executive
officers of Local authorities
Choose the correct answer from the codes
given below:
a. 1,2 & 3
b. 1,2 & 4
c. 1,3 & 4
d. 2,3 & 4
49. Given below are two statements one
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The Civil service in France
comprises a large number of corps.
Reason (R): The stratification and
fragmentation of the French Civil service
results from ideology.
In the context of the above two statements,
which one of the following is correct?
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
50. Which of the following are British
legacies?
1. Planning commission
2. District administration
3. Civil service
4. Ministerial responsibility
Select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
a. Parliament a. 1 and 2
b. President b. 2 and 3
c. Finance Minister c. 3 and 4
d. Prime Minister d. 1 and 3
35. The function of integrated Financial 51. Which of the following have caused the
advisers in different ministries of the growth of cooperative federalism in India?
central Government is. 1. Union-state collaboration in economic
a. To facilitate the integration of plan matters.
proposals and tax proposals 2. Union-state legislative relations
b. To provide for the integration of the 3. Compulsion of developmental finance
finances of the Government of India 4. Dynamics of electoral politics
and the states Choose the correct answer from the codes
c. To facilitate quicker sanction and given below:
release of funds for expeditious a. 1 and 3
implementation of development b. 1 and 4
programmes c. 2 and 3
d. To reduce the burden of work on the d. 2 and 4
Ministry of Finance and the planning 52. Which of the following are NOT
commission mentioned in the construction of India?
36. When Demands for grants are introduced 1. Council of ministers
in Lok Sabha the speaker applies the 2. Collective responsibility
guillotine 3. Resignation of ministers
a. After the demands are discussed and 4. Office of the deputy Prime Minister
approved Select the correct answer from the codes
b. After the demands are discussed and given below:
voted down by Lok Sabha a. 1 and 2
c. When the demands are discussed and b. 2 and 3
reduced c. 3 and 4
d. When the time allotted is coming to a d. 1 and 3
close 53. Match List I with List II and select the
37. Who which among the following perform correct answer.
(s) the watch dog functions in the financial List I
management in the Government of India? A. Central secretariat
1. The controller general of accounts B. Cabinet sectarian
2. The comptroller and auditor general of C. Planning commission
India D. Fiancé commission
3. The Public Accounts committee List II
4. The Finance Minister 1. Principles governing grants –in-aid to
Choose the correct answer from the codes states
given below: 2. Formulation of policies
a. 1 and 2 3. Coordination of activities of various
b. 2 and 3 ministers
c. 3 only 4. Allocation of resources
d. 1 and 4 5. Depoliticisation of policy decisions
38. Which among the following are the merits Codes:
of the recently constituted Parliamentary ABCD
committees in India to scrutinize the a. 5 4 2 3
budget proposals? b. 4 3 1 2
1. Legislative control is now more legal c. 2 3 4 1
because the committees are established d. 3 4 1 5
by law 54. Which one of the following statements
2. Experts and specialists have been about the executive powers of the Indian
nominated to help the members of the
Parliament
3. Legislative control is now much more
close, continuous and in depth
4. the Rajya Sabha and the opposition
parties can play a greater role in
exercising financial control
Select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4
39. Which of the following constitute the basis
on which the legislature exercises control
over the executive in a democracy?
1. It is the legislature which votes the
supplies
2. It represents the people who have the
sovereign power
3. The political executive is part of the
legislature
4. It has the power to decide all policy
matters
Choose the correct answer from the codes
given below:
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4
40. Given below are two statements, one
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In a parliamentary
democracy like India the government goes
out of power if the lower houses passes a
no confidence motion against the
government.
Reason (R): The constitution of India
provides for the removal of the Prime
Minister through a no confidence motion
passed in the Lok Sabha.
In the context of the above two statements,
which one of the following is correct?
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
41. There is excessive parliamentary
interference in Public Administration of
president is incorrect?
a. All important appointments are made
by the president on the advice of the
council of ministers
b. The prime Minister and all Union
Ministers are appointed by the
president
c. The president has the absolute power
to appoint and remove the chairmen
and the members of statutory bodies at
his discretion
d. The President is the supreme
commander of the Armed Forces
55. The President of India
a. Is similar to the president of finance in
the mode of his election to office
b. Is part of parliament
c. Cannot stand for election for more than
tow terms
d. Presides over joint sittings of both the
Houses of Parliament
56. Which one of the following is
constitutionally correct?
a. The prime minister decides allocation
of portfolios among the ministers
b. When the prime minister resigns, the
council of misters gets dissolved
c. All the principle policy announcements
of the government are made by the
Prime minister
d. It shall be the duty of the Prime
Minister, to communicate to the
president all decisions of the cabinet
relating to the administration of the
affairs of the Union.
57. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer.
List I
A. Secretary/Special Secretary
B. Joint secretary
C. Deputy secretary
D. Under secretary
List II
1. Department
2. Division
3. Branch
4. Wing
5. Section
Codes:
ABCD
a. 1 4 2 3
b. 1 3 4 2
India.” This is has been the conclusion of
the
a. Booth lingam committee report
b. Appleby report
c. Hanumanthaiya commission report
d. Raja Chelliah committee report
42. Which one of the following statement is
NOT correct?
a. Parliamentary control over
administration by its very nature tends
to be weak and discontinuous
b. Executive control over administration
is the best guarantee of efficiency and
integrity
c. Judicial control over administration is
not a contradiction in terms
d. Redressal of citizens’ grievances does
not constitute control over
administration
43. Which one of the following is the most
effective means of executive control of
administration?
a. Appointment and removal of top
officials
b. Subordinate Legislation
c. Financial Administration
d. Political Direction
44. Given below are two statements, one
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The control to be exercised
by the Lokpal and the Lokayukt on
administration can be more effective than
control by others.
Reason (R): The Lokpal and the
Lokayukts are members of the judiciary.
In the context of the above two statements
which one of the following is correct?
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
45. The Parliamentary commissioner of UK
will entertain a complaint from a citizen
only under certain circumstances. Which
of the following are among such
circumstances?
1. When it has been referred to him by a
member of parliament
2. When a complaint has exhausted all
c. 5 4 3 1
d. 4 1 2 3
58. Given below are two statements, one
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The “tensure system” is
essentially an institutionalization of the
need for change at higher levels in the civil
service.
Reason (R): The “tensure system” does
not fit in quite well in a federal policy with
autonomous states.
In the context of the above two statements,
which one of the following is correct?
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
59. Given below are two statements, one
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Many ministries in the
government of India have their own
research units.
Reason (R): The Indian institute of Public
administration offers facilities for research.
In the context of the above two statements,
which one of the following is correct?
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
60. Which one of the following is NOT a
function of the cabinet secretariat?
a. To watch the progress of important
administrative measures of the
government which affect more than
one ministry
b. To assist in coordinating the major
administrative activities and policies of
the government
c. To watch the implementation of
decisions in which the cabinet is
interested
d. To act as a watchdog or invigilator on
behalf of the prime minister
 the opportunities of appeal
3. When it has been recommended by the
speaker of the house of commons
4. When the Minister concerned certifies
that the relevant records and
information will be made available
Choose the correct answer from the codes
given below:
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 2 and 4
IAS Prelims Public Administration 1995
 
61. Which of the following are true of the
cabinet secretariat
1. It acts as the secretariat of the cabinet
2. It acts as an originating department
3. The cabinet secretary presides over
meetings of secretaries
4. It implements the decisions of the
cabinet
Select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
a. 1 and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 3 and 4
62. Who/which among the following
recommend to the Union Government the
grant of financial assistance to the states?
1. The president of India
2. The comptroller and auditor general of
India
3. The finance commission
4. The planning commission
Select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4
63. Reviewing the implementation of national
plans from time to time is the function of
a. The Research programmes Committee
b. The Union council of Ministers
c. The Planning Commission
d. The National Development Council
64. The CAG of India does NOT audit the
receipts and expenditure of
76. Given below are two statements, one
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Specialists also are found
in Civil Service.
Reason (R): Specialists are always critical
of generalist’s dominance in
administration.
In the context of the above two statements
which one of the following is correct?
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true.
77. Given below are two statements, one
labeled as Assertion-CA) ad the other
labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The superiority of
generalists is due to their high caliber in
comprehending socio-economic problems
and the varied experiences gained during
their training at the district level.
Reason (R): Since recruitment to the IAS
is open to candidates belonging to
different socio-economic backgrounds, it
is wrong to say that only the generalist is
capable of comprehending socioeconomic
problems.
In the context of the above two statements
which one of the following is correct?
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is Not a
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but is false
a. Municipal Undertakings
b. State Governments
c. Government Companies
d. Central Government
65. Under the Indian constitution, the
comptroller and auditor general is
a. Responsible only to the executive head
b. Responsible to both Parliament and the
executive
c. Responsible to only Parliament
d. Independent of both Parliament and the
executive
66. Which one of the following is NOT a
pattern of management of Public enterprise
in India?
a. Department
b. Public corporation
c. Joint company
d. Operating contract
67. Which of the following are functions of
the department of Public enterprises at the
central levels?
1. To act as a central point for proving
technical and expert assistance to
controlling ministers
2. To function as the secretariat of the
public enterprise selection board
3. To furnish periodic reports to
Parliament on the working of Public
understandings
4. To make appointments to posts below
the board level in public corporations
Choose the correct answer form the codes
given below:
a. 1,4 & 3
b. 2,4 & 3
c. 1,2 & 4
d. 1,2 & 3
68. The role of the Fiancé commission in
centre-state fiscal relations has been
undermined by
a. The state governments
b. The zonal councils
c. The planning commission
d. The election commission
69. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer.
List I
A. The Fiancé commission
B. Government of India
C. The planning commission
D. The C & AG
d. A is false but R is true.
78. Given below are two statements, one
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In India, the relationship
between the political executive and
permanent executive has not been cordial
and harmonious.
Reason (R): The Cabinet Secretary has
not been able to devote his attention to
guide the civil servants in their relations
with ministers.
In the context of the above two statement,
which one of the following is correct?
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true.
79. Rules for more convenient transaction of
business in the Secretariat of the State
Government are made by
a. The Chief Secretary
b. A Committee of Secretaries
c. The Department of Home of the
concerned state Government
d. The Governor and the Council of
Ministers
80. The de-jure head of a State administration
is the
a. Chief Minister of the State
b. Law Minister of the State
c. Home Minister of the State
d. Governor of the State
81. The plan proposals of the State
Government are put forth before the
Planning Commission by
a. The Chief Secretary
b. The Chief Minister
c. The Governor
d. The Chairman oft he State Planning
Board
82. Some State Governments have besides
Cabinet Ministers and Ministers of State
Parliamentary Secretaries also. These
Parliamentary Secretaries who are also
member of the state legislature are
appointed by
a. The Chief Minister
b. The Governor
c. The Chief Whip of the ruling party
List II
1. Plan grants
2. Certificate of net proceeds
3. Terms of reference of the finance
commission
4. Allocation of I.T. proceeds
5. Corporation taxes to be shared
Codes:
ABCD
a. 5 1 4 3
b. 4 3 1 2
c. 3 4 2 1
d. 2 1 3 4
70. The scheme of examination for
recruitment to civil services in India is
based on the view of
a. Transferability of academic talents to
government work.
b. Assessment of entire personality of the
applicant
c. Matching the selected candidate with
the type of work in civil service
d. Acquiring intellectual ability and
training through education required for
work in civil service
71. Which one of the following statements
does NOT go with the view that the
recruitment to all India Services and
Group A’ of Central Services, is fair?
a. It gives equal opportunities to all
eligible men and women in India
b. It treats graduates of all the
Universities of India at par
c. It gives equal weight age to arts,
science and humanities
d. It gives equal opportunities to all
including nationals non- nationals and
public servants at all levels.
72. Recruitment to the higher civil service in
India is based on the recommendations of
a. A.D. Gorwala and Paul Appleby
Reports
b. Macaulay D.S. Kothari and Sati
Chandra Committees
c. Paul Apple by, C.D. Deshmukh and
Hanumanthaiah Commissions
d. D.S. Kothari Committee, Sati Chandra
Committee and the Second Pay
Commission
73. Given below are two statements, one
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R)
d. The speaker
83. The central administrative pool was
established by the selection of officers
from
a. The central service
b. The Indian administrative service
c. The state services
d. The IAS, central services and state
services
84. Given below are two statements, one
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): A state secretariat issues
directions to the field agencies.
Reason (R): It is responsible for the
implementation of policies.
In the context of the above two statements,
which one of the following is correct?
85. The formal channel of official
communication between a secretary to the
government of India and the state
administration is
a. Secretary to the chief Minister
b. Governor of the state
c. Chief Secretary
d. Secretary to the department concerned
86. The police force of a district maintain law
and order under the general suspension of
a. Home Minister of the state
b. Law minister of the state
c. Collector and magistrate of the district
d. S.P. of the district
87. The book Grass without Roots deals inter
alia with
a. Problems of administration of rural
development programmes
b. Urban local self governing institutions
c. The role of the Governors
d. The question of the abolition of village
Panchyats
88. The district collector is no longer the
channel of communication between the
government and the people which of the
following are reason for it?
1. End of the colonial rule
2. Rise of more effective democratic
institutions in the districts
3. Increasing political consciousness of
the people.
4. Lack of high caliber officers
Choose the correct answer from the codes
given below:
 Assertion (A): State Governments in India
tend to look upon the All India Services as
something foreign and even regard them as
encroachment on their autonomy.
Reason (R): Members of the (AS tend to
regard themselves as superior.
In the context of the above two statement,
which one of the following is correct?
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT a
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
74. Given below are two statements one
a. 1 and 2
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
b. 1 and 3
labeled as Reason (R):
c. 2 and 3
Assertion (A): One of the purposes of the
d. 3 and 4
personality test is to test the mental
89. The central council of local self
alertness of candidates:
government was set up under
Reason (R): Public officials have to face
a. The provisions of the constitution of
different kinds of situations during the
India
course of their service.
b. The order of the president of India
In the context of the above two statements,
c. An enactment of Parliament
which one of the following is correct?
d. The order of the Ministry of
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
Agriculture and rural development
correct explanation of A
90. The need or constitutional sanction to
b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT a
village panchayats was first felt by the
correct explanation of A
a. Balwantray Metha Committee
c. A is true but R is false
b. Asok Metha committee
d. A is false but R is true
c. G.V.K. Rao Committee
75. Given below are two statements one
d. L.M. Singhvi committee
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Candidates selected for AS
receive general training in every branch of
administration.
Reason (R): Indian Administrative
Service is a multipurpose service. In the
context of the above two statements which
one of the following is correct?
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true.
 
IAS Prelims Public Administration 1995
 91. Which of the following are the advantages 106. Herbert Simon’s concept of rationality
of the 73rd constitutional amendment of the does NOT recognize the role of
constitution of India? a. Choices
1. Constitutional status to panchayats b. Means
2. Holding of panchayat elections at c. Ends
regular intervals d. Intuition
3. Reservation of seats for women 107. Which of the following are the main
4. Providing permanent structures for characteristics of the behavioral approach?
district planning 1. It is descriptive
Select the correct answer from the codes 2. It is empirical
given below: 3. It is historical
a. 1,2 & 4 4. It is interdisciplinary
b. 1,3 & 4 Choose the correct answer by using the
c. 2,3 & 4 codes given below:
d. 1,2 & 3 a. 1,2 and 3
92. Which of the following are urban local b. 2,3 and 4
bodies in India? c. 1,2 and 4
1. District boards d. 1,3 and 4
2. Municipal corporations cantonment 108. According to Abraham Maslow one should
boards try to understand behavior in
3. Notified area committees and town administration through
area committees a. Mass Behavioral
4. Town ship committees and port trusts b. Human Relations
Select the correct answer from the codes c. Group activity
given below: d. Psychoanalysis
a. 1 and 2 109. Match List I with List II and select the
b. 2 and 3 correct answer.
c. 3 and 4 List I
d. 1 and 4 A. “Satisfying’
93. Given below are two statements, one B. ‘Zone of Indifference’
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other C. ‘Job-enrichment’
labeled as reason (R): D. ‘Equi-genetic’
Assertion (A): The existence of two List II
important function areas at the district 1. Riggs
level, namely the chairman of the Zilla 2. Simon
Parished and the collector and district 3. Taylor
magistrate has resulted in conflict of 4. Barnard
authority. 5. Herzerg
Reason (R): There is no division of Codes:
functions between the two. ABCD
In the context of the above statements, a. 2 4 5 1
which one of the following is correct? b. 2 1 4 3
a. Both A and R are true and R is the c. 3 4 2 1
correct explanation of A d. 4 3 5 2
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a 110. Organizations have come to be
correct explanation of A increasingly characterized as input
c. A is true but R is true absorbers, processors and output
d. A is false but R is true. generators and hence could be envisioned
94. A Mayor-in council form of government’ as
means a. Formal Structures
a. Cabinet form of government at the b. Individuals and groups
municipal level c. Systems
b. Classical prefetorial form of d. Informal Entities
government at the municipal level 111. Match List with List II and select the
c. Making mayor unaccountable to his correct answer,
colleagues List I
d. Presidential form of government at the A. Classical
municipal level. B. Human Relations
95. Which of the following are reasons or facts C. Behavioural
that made good now separate the spheres D. Systems
of Politics and Administration List II
1. Both were separate disciplines 1. Fact-orientation
2. Separation of powers provided the 2. Environment
basis of distinction 3. Structure
3. He was keen to promote administration 4. Informal Organization
as an independent discipline 5. Incentives to work
4. Politics and Administration are two Codes:
separate functions of government ABCD
Choose the correct answer by using the a. 4 2 1 3
codes given below: b. 1 4 3 2
a. 1,2 & 3 c. 3 2 4 5
b. 1,2 & 4 d. 3 4 1 2
c. 1,3 & 4 112. Which one of the following is NOT correct
d. 2,3 & 4 regarding the principle of hierarchy?
96. “The science of Administration is the a. It facilitates delegation of authority
latest fruit of that study of the science of b. It helps in coordination
Politics which was begun some twentytwo c. It promotes order and discipline
hundred years ago.” This statement d. It obliterates superior-subordinate
was made by relationship.
a. J.M. Gaus 113. Which one of the following is the main
b. Frank Goodnow drawback of a hierarchical organization?
c. L.D.White a. Defined structures
d. Woodrow Wilson b. Red-Tapism
97. The book written by Simon Smith berg c. Rule-orientation
and Thompson emphasizes d. Fixed levels of decision making
a. The legal view of Public 114. Match List I with List II and select the
Administration correct answer.
b. The institutional view of Public List I
Administration A. The orderly arrangement of group
c. The managerial view of Public effort to provide unity of action in the
Administration pursuit of a common purpose
d. The integral view of Public B. The superior-subordinate relation ship
Administration through a number of levels of
98. Match List I with List II and select the responsibility
correct answer. C. An employee should receive orders
List I : Writer from one superior only
A. Mayo D. The Number of subordinates an
B. McGregor administrator can personally direct
C. Drucker List II
D. Urwick 1. Hierarchy
List II: Book 2. Span of Control
1. Elements of Administration 3. Co-ordination
2. The Practice of Management 4. Unity of Command
3. The Human Side of Enterprise 5. Integration
4. The Social Problems of an Industrial Codes:
Civilization ABCD
5. Functions of the Executive a. 5 3 4 1
Codes: b. 3 1 4 2
ABCD c. 3 4 1 2
a. 1 4 2 3 d. 2 1 3 4
b. 2 3 4 5 115. Which of the following are reasons for the
c. 4 3 2 1 principle of span of control being revised?
d. 4 2 3 1 1. Increasing use of automation in
99. Match List I with List II and select the administration
correct answer. 2. Growing role of the specialist in
List I administration
A. Universal principles of organization 3. Changes in the training of programmes
B. Standardization of Work Methods of administrators
C. Psychological Motivations and 4. Changes in the means of
Informal Group Behavior communication
D. The most rational among the means of Choose the correct answer from the codes
achieving control over human beings given below:
List II a. 1,2 and 3
1. Human Relations ions Theory b. 1,2 and 4
2. Classical Theory c. 1,3 and 4
3. Scientific management Theory d. 2,3 and 4
4. Bureaucratic Theory 116. Which one of the following is according to
5. Systems Theory Max Webver the defining characteristic of
Codes: authority?
ABCD a. Power
a. 4 2 1 5 b. Coercion
b. 2 3 1 4 c. Tradition
c. 2 4 3 1 d. Legitimacy
d. 1 3 2 4 117. According Chester Bernard, order are
100. Given below are two statements, one authoritative when they are
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other a. Issued by a superior
labeled as Reason (R) : b. Issued by the top executive
Assertion (A): A tenet of scientific c. Accepted by the subordinates
management is cooperation and harmony d. Understood by the subordinates
between worker sand managers. 118. Which one of the following principles is
Reason (R): Taylor believed in directly concerned with preventing overlap
participative management. conflict and friction in an organization?
In the context of the above two statement a. Direction
which one of the following is correct? b. Supervision
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the c. Co-ordination
correct explanation of A d. Span of control
b. Both A and Rare true and R is NOT a 119. Match List I with List II and select the
correct explanation of A correct answer by using the codes given
c. A is true but R is false below the lists:
d. A is false but R is true. List I
101. Who among the following has observed A. Coordination
that Weber’s ideal model of bureaucracy is B. Sontrol
not particularly relevant to the study of C. Supervision
developing societies? D. Planning
a. Herbert Simon List II
b. Chester Barnard 1. Integration of several parts into an
c. Fred W. Riggs orderly whole to achieve the purpose
d. R. K. Merton 2. Ensuring compliance by staff with
 102. Which one of the following cannot be the
characteristic of bureaucratic organization?
a. Its indispensability for attainment of
goals of an organization
b. Its inability to correct its own behavior
by learning from its errors
c. Its precision, continually, discipline,
strictness and reliability
d. Its rigidity, inflexibility and emphasis
on rules
103. Who among the following authors attached
more importance to the structure rather
than persons in organization?
a. LutherGulick
b. Elton Mayo
c. Chester Barnard
d. Mary Parker Follett
104. Which one of the following aspects is
NOT rejected by the Human Relations
theory of organization?
a. Formal institutionalization
b. Social Environment
c. Psychological Processes
d. Economic and non economic variables.
105. The word satisfying refers to
a. The factors that contribute to the
satisfaction of the clients
b. The feeling of sufficient satisfaction on
the part of the administrative man’
c. The satisfaction on the part of the
inquiring authority
d. The subjective satisfaction of the
supervisor and his superiors
IAS Prelims Public Administration 1996
1. Who among the following questioned the
claim of Public administration to being a
science and pointed out the problem of
excluding normative considerations?
a. Barnard
b. Robert Dahl
c. James G. March
d. Gulick Urwick
2. Which of the following are factors through
which a private administrative unit can
become a public administrative unit?
a. A revolutionary change of the political
system and a change of equity
structure
b. A change of equity structure and
nationalization
laws, order and directions
3. Overseeing the work of subordinates
4. Collection of relevant information
5. Devising Ways And Means For
Resolution Of Problems
Codes:
ABCD
a. 1 2 3 5
b. 2 3 4 1
c. 1 4 3 2
d. 3 2 1 5
120. Given below are two statements one
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A): Delegation is a functional
imperative for all types of organizations
Reason (R): The chief executive can
provide effective leadership only when he
has all the power to himself.
In the context of the above two statements
which one of the following is correct?
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT a
Correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true.
16. Which of the following are primary goals
of behavioral approach?
1. Minimizing the burden of supervision
2. Improving individual and organization
performance
3. Increasing the satisfaction of the
participants of the organization
4. Building up a data-bank consisting of
personal characteristics
a. 3 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 4
d. 3 and 4
17. Why is it that administrators CANNOT
function with complete rationality?
a. The share of everything in the
c. Nationalization and taking over of the
sick unit
d. Nationalization
3. Give below are two statements, one
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled (R):
Assertion (A): People get punishment for
no paying taxes or prices for services
rendered by Public administration.
Reason (R): People have the option to pay
or not to pay the price for goods or
services offered by the Private
Administration.
In the context of the above two statements,
which one of the following is correct?
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not a
correct explanation of A
c. A is true bur R is false
d. A is false but R is true
4. The ‘New Public Administration’
movement is mainly against
a. Administrative centralization and
neutrality of administration
b. Neutrality of administration and
meritocracy
c. Meritocracy and political orientation of
administration
d. Political orientation of administration
and administrative centralization
5. Comparing the administrative systems of
different countries is useful. Which of the
following are reasons for this?
1. It promotes democracy in the sense
that democracy in Administration is
allowed to grow.
2. It facilities quick transplantation of
Western administrative institutions in
aid-receiving countries.
3. It helps in formulating universal
general principles concerning public
administration.
4. It widen the scope for interaction
among the countries concerned
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4
6. Given below are two statements one
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R):
environment is not known to them
b. They are not trained fully to deal with
the varied tasks
c. They like to follow meticulously the
division of work
d. They are not supported by specialists
service
18. Given below are two statements one
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The behavioral approach
stresses upon the informal relationship
among the members of an organization.
Reason (R): Behavioral lists employ
integrated and interdisciplinary approach.
In the context of the above two statements,
which one of the following is correct?
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not a
correct explanation of A
c. A is true bur R is false
d. A is false but R is true
19. Which of the following can be considered
as suggestions from the Behavioral lists?
1. Less delegation of authority
2. Less decentralization
3. Less narrow specialization
4. Less emphasis on hierarchy
a. 3 and 4
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 4
20. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer
List I (Concept)
A. Gestatt
B. Homestasis
C. Cybemetics
D. Negative Entropy
List II (Focus)
1. Freed back and control
2. Holistic view
3. Process towards integration
4. Dynamic equilibrium
5. Equi-genetic
ABCD
a. 3 5 1 4
b. 4 3 2 1
c. 2 4 1 3
d. 5 2 4 3
21. The terms Agency jurisdiction and
Assertion (A): The comparative context ‘purpose’ are used in the classical and
has provided a most difficult setting for Bureaucratic theories. Which of the
social scientists. following are their equivalents in the
Reason (R): Academic pogrammes in system Approach?
public administration for study and 1. ‘System boundaries’
research are not offered by all universities. 2. ‘Sub-systems’
In the context of the above two statements, 3. ‘System scope’
which one of the following is correct? 4. ‘System Purpose’
a. Both A and R are true and R is the a. 1 and 2
correct explanation of A b. 2 and 3
b. Both A and R are true but R is not a c. 3 and 4
correct explanation of A d. 1 and 4
c. A is true bur R is false 22. Match List I with List II and select the
d. A is false but R is true correct answer
7. The public choice school sets a concept of List I
a. Bureaucratic Administration A. Bureaucracy
b. Hierarchical Administration B. Closed system
c. Democratic Administration C. Normative control structure
d. Oligarchic Administration D. Scalar chain
8. Which of the following indicate List II
differences between the blue-print 1. Generation of moral involvement
approach and the learning-process 2. Vertical differentiation
approach to development? 3. Facts and values
1. One is preparing a draft plan for 4. Entropy and disorganization
approval by the people and the other is 5. Administration by pointed officials
understanding the needs before ABCD
planning a. 5 4 1 2
PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION b. 4 3 1 2
2. One is planning for the people and the c. 5 4 3 1
other is planning with the people d. 4 1 2 3
3. One is advance planning and the other 23. Given below are two statements one
is planning during the process of labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
Administrating a development labeled as Reason (R):
programme Assertion (A): A hierarchical organization
4. one is intended to be adhered to strictly does not necessarily involve superiorsubordinate
and the other is intended to relationship.
accommodate local needs Reason (R): Delegation of authority is
a. 1 and 2 possible in hierarchical organization.
b. 2 and 3 In the context of the above two statements,
c. 3 and 4 which one of the following is correct?
d. 1 and 4 a. Both A and R are true and R is the
9. Which of the following are key elements correct explanation of A
in contemporary development approach? b. Both A and R are true but R is not a
1. Knowledge-sharing and empower men correct explanation of A
2. Self-reliance and independence c. A is true bur R is false
3. Authorizing the specialists to innovate d. A is false but R is true
4. Organization development 24. Basic assumptions of the principle of
a. 1 and 2 hierarchy and that at various levels of
b. 2 and 3 nature of three of the following four
c. 3 and 4 1. Responsibilities
d. 1 and 4 2. Salary scales
10. Who among the following in the USA 3. Quality of man
expressed great faith in scientific
management and in the trained manager’s
capacity to lead the society?
1. Thoristein Veblen
2. The Technocracy Party
3. James Burnham
4. J.K. Galbaith
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4
11. Which of the following are true of the
bureaucratic model of functioning in a
‘Prismatic society?
1. Rationality in organization behavior is
highest
2. Application of rules is biased
3. Preferential treatment is accorded
4. New values get developed in the
officers
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4
12. Which one of the following is a drawback
in Max Weber’s bureaucratic model?
a. Lack of normative factors as guiding
action
b. Lack of legal-rational principles
c. Lack of a theoretically integrated total
system of action
d. Lack of rule of law upon the
functioning of bureaucratic
organization
13. Given below are two statements one
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Under the classical theory
of organization the whole is bound
together by the line of authority
Reason (R): One of the principles of
organization is unity of command.
In the context of the above two statements
which one of the following is correct?
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not a
correct explanation of A
c. A is true bur R is false
d. A is false but R is true
14. Who among the following are writers in
whose writings efficiency is a dependent
4. Authority
What are the three that the relevant?
a. 1,2 and 3
b. 1,3 and 4
c. 1,2 and 4
d. 2,3 and 4
25. Given below two are statements one
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A):Practical application of
unity of command is not possible always.
Reason (R): Technical and administrative
tasks of require different kinds of
supervision.
In the context of the above two statements
which one of the following is correct
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not a
correct explanation of A
c. A is true bur R is false
d. A is false but R is true
26. Which one of the following constitute the
solution to the dilemma of classical
theorist who emphasized the importance of
unity of command over fictionalization?
a. Delegation and decentralization
b. Interaction and influencing system
c. The concept of staff
d. The concept of the linking-pin
structure
27. Which of the following have negative
correlation?
1. Unity of command and specialization
2. Specialization and hierarchy
3. Hierarchy and unity of command
4. Hierarchy and delegation
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4
28. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer
List I (Structure)
A. Flat Hierarchy
B. Linker-pin Hierarchy
C. Job-task Hierarchy
D. Project and matrix
List II (Theory of concept)
1. Concept of supportive relationships
2. Centralized direction and control
3. Self direction and self control
 4. Decentralization
5. Coequal authority
ABCD
a. 1 5 2 4
b. 3 1 4 2
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 1 2 4 5
variable?
29. Which of the following can widen the span
1. Gulick & Urwick
of control?
2. Riggs
1. Delegation
3. Weber
2. informal organization
4. Simon
3. Planning
a. 1 and 2
4. Unity of command
b. 1 and 3
a. 3 and 4
c. 2 and 4
b. 1 and 2
d. 3 and 4
c. 2 and 3
15. Which of the following are points of
d. 1 and 4
criticism made by critics of Mayo?
30. Given below are two statements one
1. He ignored theory
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
2. He neglected empiricism
labeled as Reason (R):
3. He was not pro-management
Assertion (A): A chief of public works
4. He paved the way for workers
can deal effectively with more direct
manipulation
subordinates that an Army general.
a. 1 and 2
Reason (R): The chief of the public works
b. 2 and 3
is an engineer.
c. 3 and 4
In the context of the about two statements
d. 1 and 4 
which one of the following is correct?
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not a
correct explanation of A
c. A is true bur R is false
d. A is false but R is true
 
31. The principle of span of control has come 46. Match List I with List II and select the
under revision due to correct answer
a. High degree of unionism among List I
employees A. Esteem
b. Increasing resort to automation and B. Physiological
mechanization C. Security
c. High level of education among public D. Self-Actualization
employees List II
d. Obedience and loyalty generated by 1. Fear of loss income
conduct rules 2. Desire to be able to perform
32. Match List I with List II and select the 3. Feeling of prestige
correct answer 4. Nutritious food
List I (Bases of authority) 5. Desire for higher education
A. Finance code and budget manual ABCD
B. Job characteristics a. 1 2 3 5
C. Personal characteristics b. 5 4 1 3
D. Professional competence c. 3 2 1 4
List II (Category of authority)
1. Functional authority
2. Authority of legitimacy
3. Authority of position
4. Charismatic authority
ABCD
a. 5 1 4 2
b. 3 2 1 5
c. 2 3 4 1
d. 5 3 1 4
33. Given below are two statements one
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): To explain the system of
authority and responsibility in terms of
sanctions is to over simplify the reality.
Reason (R): Core of many of the social
institutions consists of system of authority
and a bunch of sanctions for enforcing it.
In the context of eh above two statements
which one of the following is correct?
a. Both A and R are true but R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
34. Which of the following characteristics are
found in the concept of authority?
1. Directive component
2. Independence
3. Statutory safeguard
4. Prestige differential
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4
35. “Promotions are made on the basis of
examination scores.”
Which one of the following is implied by
the above statement?
a. The head of the department is
authorized to conduct the examinations
b. Authority is given to the PSC to decide
promotions
c. Discretion is taken away from the
superiors
d. The responsibility to determine the
merit assigned to superiors
36. Which of the following are the limiting
factors in the development of
coordination?
d. 3 4 1 2
47. Which of the following are true regrinding
F. Hertzberg’s view on Maslow’s theory of
hierarchy of needs?
1. He rejected the theory of hierarchy of
need altogether
2. He considered the physiological needs
only as maintenance factors the
presence of which do not motivate
3. Job-content factors only are motivators
4. He modified Maslow’s theory
5. The absence of maintenance factors
has no effect on motivation
6. Growth in the job is motivator
a. 1,3,4,6
b. 2,4,5,6
c. 2,3,4,6
d. 3,4,5,6
48. Given below are two statements one
labeled as Assertion (A) and are other
labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Behavior positively
rewarded tends to persist
Reason (R): Behavior is sustained though
the conditioning effects of reinforcement.
In which context of the above two
statements which one of the following is
correct?
a. Both A and R are true but R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
49. Which of the following is NOT a role for
the civil service in a developing society?
a. Helping the people to improve their
quality of life
b. Helping the people to participate in
programmes
c. Helping the people to keep abreast of
changes in social life in the developed
societies
d. Improving the efficiency of delivery
systems in public administration
50. The classification of services in India is
governed by the
a. Civil Service Rules, 1930
b. Civil Service Rules, 1950
c. Civil Service Rules, 1960
d. Civil Service Rules, 1987
51. Match List I with List II and select the
1. Time
2. Size
3. Authority
4. Informal organizations
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4
37. Given below are two statements one
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Delegation leads to dual
responsibility
Reason (R): While a subordinate carries
out his assigned task the delegating
superior is responsible for getting the job
done.
In the context of the above two statements
which one of the following is correct?
a. Both A and R are true but R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is false
38. “Inspection is an integral part of Public
administration.”
Which one of the following factors is
unnecessary in the effectiveness of an
inspection system?
a. Observing the existing rules,
regulations and procedures
b. Fault-finding with a view to maintain
discipline
c. Instructing and guiding persons
working in the organization
d. Clarifying the purposes and intentions
of the management
39. The most logical criterion to distinguish
line function from staff is
a. The authority relationships
b. The functional relationships
c. The grouping of functions
d. The departmentalization
40. Given below are two statements one
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The decision theory is an
outgrowth of the theory consumer choice
Reason (R): The decision theory has
arisen out of such economic considerations
as marginal utility and utility
correct answer
List I
A. Santhanam Committee
B. Mudaliyar committee
C. Kothari Committee
D. Fulcan Committee
List II
1. Recruitment policy and selection
methods
2. Reorganization of the British civil
service
3. Prevention of corruption
4. Public services qualifications and
recruitment
5. Training of civil servants
ABCD
a. 5 3 1 4
b. 1 4 3 2
c. 3 4 1 2
d. 3 5 2 1
52. In the case of a bureaucracy assuming
more and more responsibilities training
becomes necessary because
a. The new work happeas to be more
complex and complicated
b. The world around them is changing
very fast
c. Changes in work and work
environment demand new learning to
be effective
d. With age a person’s efficiency tends to
decrease
53. Which one of the following is NOT a
system of efficiency rating in the U.S.A.?
a. Production record system
b. Graphic rating scale system
c. Personality inventory system
d. Personality appraisal system
54. Given below are two statements one
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Promotions should be
made on the basis of performance
evaluation.
Reason (R): There is a need to recognize
the potentialities and qualities of efficient
civil servants.
In the context of the above two statements
which one of the following is correct?
a. Both A and R are true but R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not
maximization.
In the context of the above two statements,
which one of the following is correct?
a. Both A and R are true but R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
41. Which of the following are correctly
matched?
1. The theory of rationality – Maximizing
solutions
2. The science of muddling through –
incremental solutions
3. The theory of comprehensive
rationality – Satisfying solutions
4. Concept of zone of indifference –
Optimizing the results
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 2
d. 2 alone
42. Given below are two statements one
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Democratic culture paved
the way for the exit of tartest theory of
leadership
Reason (R): The concept of “Great man”
is inconsistent with egalitarian perspective.
In the context of the above two statements
which one of the following is correct?
a. Both A and R are true but R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
43. Which of the following are among the key
of leadership identified by Philip Selzmic?
1. Defining of institutional mission and
role
2. Defense of institutional integrity
3. institutional embodiment of purpose
4. Merger of personal status with the
institution
a. 1,2 and 4
b. 1,3 and 4
c. 1,2 and 3
d. 2,3 and 4
44. The following show four possible
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
55. Which one of the following principles was
emphasized by the central pay commission
(1951) in India?
a. Pay scales should be related to the per
capita income of the country
b. Pay should be related to the cost of
living in the country
c. Salaries for the various posts should be
so fixed as to promote the democratic
principle of equalities
d. There should be equal pay for equal
work in all government departments
56. Given below are two statements one
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The relationship of a
minister and a civil servant is that of a
master and a servant.
Reason (R): A civil servant is required to
render honest advice to the minister.
In the context of the above two statements
which one of the following is correct?
a. Both A and R are true but R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
57. Which one of the following is NOT correct
about the Anonymity of civil services?
a. They cannot be criticized by name in
the legislature
b. The minister concerned defends
actions taken by the civil servant of his
department
c. The civil servants are to perform their
official duties as per rules and
regulations.
d. They cannot be held responsible for
their acts of omission and commission
58. Which of the following provides for the
opportunity to examine the justification to
continue the current expenditure?
1. Sunset legislation
2. Performance budgeting
3. Line item budgeting
4. Zero-based budgeting
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
 c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4
communication networks in small groups
59. Which one of the following is suggested as
indicating the flow of information in each
a good alternative principle to the norm of
from members represented by square
balanced budget?
boxes.
a. Spending should not grow faster than
Which one of the these networks is most
the national income
centralized?
b. Capital expenditure budget should be
Figure
separated from revenue expenditure
a. Stare
budget
b. Chain
c. Consensus must be established
c. Circle
between the executive head the central
d. All-channel
bank of the country on the limits of
45. Which one of the following according to
deficit financing
Barnard is NOT a conditions for
d. The executive head and the legislature
‘acceptance’ of a communication by an
must determine the level of public
organization member as authoritative?
borrowing
a. Non-understanding of the
60. Traditional budget is formulated terms of
communication
a. Target to be achieved
b. Inconsistency with the purpose of the
b. The work load of the department
organization
concerned
c. Non-conflict with the personal interest
c. Objects of expenditure
d. Mental and physical ability to comply 
d. Schemes and projects to be
implemented
 
61. Given below are two statements one 76. In which one of the following countries
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other there is declaration of the society’s right to
labeled as Reason (R): require every public official an account of
Assertion (A): Estimates of income and his administration?
expenditure should relate to what is a. India
expected to be actually spent or received b. UK
during the years only. c. USA
Reason (R): If estimates are closed to d. France
reality then the final preparation of 77. The experiences of which one of the
accounts is possible soon after the close of following countries in training civil
the financial year. servants will be more relevant orase and
In the context of the above two statements useful to India in the context of
which one of the following is correct? liberalization?
a. Both A and R are true but R is the 1. USSR
correct explanation of A 2. UK
b. Both A and R are true but R is not 3. France
correct explanation of A 4. USA
c. A is true but R is false a. 1 and 2
d. A is false but R is true b. 2 and 3
62. Which one of the following shows the c. 3 and 4
sequence followed in the classification of d. 1 and 4
accounts? 78. Internship is part of the civil service
a. Detailed head of account, Sub-head, training programmee in
Sector, Main head, Major head. a. India
b. Major head, Sub-head, Minor head, , b. USA
Detailed head, Sector c. France
c. Sector, major head, Minor head, Subhead,
Detailed head
d. Minor head, Major head, Sub-head,
Detailed head, Sector
63. Which of the following are facilitated be
the separation of accounts from audit?
1. Watching the flow of expenditure
regularly and taking effective action
whenever necessary by the ministries
2. Setting all claims directly by the
departments by cheques
3. Speeding up of the computation of
accounts
4. Meeting the requirements of
performance budgeting system
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2,3 and 4
d. 1,2,3 and 4
64. Under the departmentalization of accounts
the chief accounting authority of a
ministry of the government India is?
a. The pay and accounts officers
b. The secretary of the ministry
c. The director-general central revenues
d. The financial adviser of the ministry
65. Which of the following are included in the
scope of audit?
1. Discretionary audit
2. Examination of all the assessments
3. Direction to assessing authorities
4. Examination of the value for money
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4
66. Which of the following committees are
helped by the CAG in his work of
exercising legislative control over the
executive?
1. Public accounts committee
2. Committee privileges
3. Estimates committee
4. Committee of public undertakings
a. 1 and 4
b. 1,2 and 4
c. 1,2 and 3
d. 1,3 and 4
67. Given below are two statements one
labeled as assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): “Legislative control over
d. Japan
79. Which one of the following is NOT
explicitly or implicitly provided for in the
constitution of India?
a. A minister of state may have the
independent charge of a ministry
b. Civil servants have to observe the
principle of political neutrality
c. There are a number of all India
services
d. The union may direct a state to
maintain a road of national importance
80. Which of the following are duties of the
inter-state council created under article
263 of the construction of India?
1. Inquiring into and advising upon
disputes which may have arisen
between/among sates
2. Investigating and discussing subjects
in which some or all of the sates of the
Union and one or more of the states
have a common interest
3. Making recommendations upon any
such subject for the better coordination
of policy and action with respect to
that subject
4. Ensuring that officers belonging to All
India services posted in various states
are not punished by the judiciary for
acts of omission
a. 1,2 and 3
b. 1,2 and 4
c. 1,3 and 4
d. 2,3 and 4
81. Which of the following may be done under
conditions of financial emergency?
1. Reduction in the number of districts in
the country for effecting economy
2. Abolition of all state legislative
assemblies to reduce expenditure
3. Reduction in the salaries of the judges
of high court
4. Reservation of money bills of states
legislative assemblies for the
consideration of the president
a. 1,2 and 3
b. 2,3 and 4
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4
82. Which one of the following comprise “ the
executive power for the Union” vested in
the president of India under article 53 of
administration makes the administration
sensitive to the needs of the people”.
Reason (R): “Legislatures have
representatives from weaker sections of
the people.”
In the context of the above two statements,
which one of the following is correct?
a. Both A and R are true but R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
68. Which one of the factors does NOT justify
the apparent need for control of the civil
service by the executive?
a. There is an apparent need for control
of the civil service so that its behavior
may conform to the executives
expectations
b. Under the prevalent system public
policies originate from the chief
executions
c. Policies are implemented by the civil
service who, unlike the chief executive
enjoy permanent tenure at are not
affected by the ups and downs of
political parties
d. The executive control over the civil
service will ultimately lead to the
politicalization of the public
administration.
69. Of all the controls over public
administration the one which is more
continuous and self-corrective is
a. Control by the legislature
b. Control by the executive
c. Control by the judiciary
d. Control by the media
70. Which of the following is the weakness of
judicial control over administration?
1. It follows a post mortem approach
2. It intervenes in cease of error of law
3. Its scope does not cover cases
involving ‘lack of jurisdiction’
4. It tends to act when administration is
guilty of misfeasance
a. 1 and 3
b. 1,2 and 3
c. 1,2 and 4
d. 2,3 and 4
71. Given below are two statements, one
the constitution of India?
1. The determination as well as the
execution of policy
2. The imitation of legislation
3. The recognition or deracination of a
ruler
4. The carrying on of trading operations
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 1,2,3 and 4
83. The planning commission was set up
a. Under the government of India act,
1935
b. As per the provisions of the
constitution of India
c. By a cabinet resolution
d. As per the recommendation of the
national development council
84. Which one of the following statements is
NOT correct in regard to the functions
performed by the planning commission?
a. It makes an assessment of the material
economic and human resources of the
country
b. It makes recommendations to the
president of India with regard to
distribution of proceeds of taxes
between the Union and the sates
c. In formulates plans for the most
effective and balanced utilization of
century’s progress
d. It appraises from time to time the
progress made in the execution of each
stage of the plan and recommends
adjustment in policy and measures
which it deems necessary
85. The planning commission should be
responsibly only for formulation of the
objectives, laying down of priorities
indication of broad sartorial out lays
fixation of the basic targets and approval
of the main programmes. This is the
recommendation of
a. The national development council
b. The finance commission
c. The administrative reforms
commission
d. The proramme evaluation organization
86. Which of the following is NOT true of the
joint stock limited company form of
organization?
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The primary objective of
judicial control is the protection of right of
citizens against arbitrary exercise of
authority by officials.
Reason (R): In a bureaucratic system
official function according to the
provisions of the authority vested in them.
In the context of the above two statements,
which one of the following is correct?
a. Both A and R are true but R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
72. Which of the following institutions have
been set up by Government of India to
check misconduct, malpractices corruption
and misdemeanor on the part of public
servants?
1. Central vigilance commission
2. Lokpal
3. Special police establishment
4. Central bureau of investigation
a. 2 and 3
b. 1 and 4
c. 3 and 4
d. 1,3 and 4
73. Which of the following are major features
of the institutions of Lokpal and lokayukta
as recommended by the administrative
reforms commissions?
1. They should be demonstrably
independent and impartial
2. They should compare with highest
judicial functionary in the country
3. They should be directly accountable to
parliament
4. Their appointments should as far as
possible be non-political
a. 1 and 4
b. 2 and 4
c. 1,2,3 and 4
d. None
74. Which of the following do NOT contain
equivalents/similarities and are totally
different?
1. The Indian prime minister’s office and
the white house office
2. Reservations in civil services in India
a. It requires the sanction of the
legislature and cannot be set up by
executive action
b. It offers autonomy in administration
with necessary freedom in financial
and personel matters
c. It can associate private enterprises with
the company, thus bringing in
additional capital for investment
d. It provides for adequate control by the
government
87. Which one of the following statements is
NOT correct in regard to Government
Corporation?
a. A government corporation is the most
important innovation in political
organization and constitutional practice
b. A corporation represents the
preference for freedom of enterprise
c. All union government corporations in
India have been established by specific
acts of Parliament
d. The corporation form has not been
recommended by the A.R.C. as the
best form of management
88. The principles concerning the provisions
of the Grants –in-aid to the states out of
the consolidate fund of India are
recommended by the
a. Planning commission
b. Administrative reforms commission
c. Finance commission
d. Public accounts committee
89. A major source of revenue assigned to the
Union under the scheme of distribution of
taxing powers is
a. Excise duties on alcoholic liquor
opium. India hemp and other narcotic
drugs
b. Sales tax
c. Corporation tax
d. Professional tax
90. Which of the following is/are correctly
matched?
1. Duty levied by the Union but collected
and appropriated by state – Succession
duty and estate duty in respect of
property other than agricultural land
2. Taxes levied and collected by the
Union but assigned to the state –
Stamp duties and duties of excise on
medicinal and toilet preparations
 and the affirmative action in USA
3. The UPSC in India and the merit
system protection board in USA
4. The ‘roaster’ system in India and the
‘Rule of three’ in USA
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4
75. Which of the following are dominant
trends in British public administration
during the last twenty years?
1. There is tighter central political control
and away from participation by or a. 1 only
consultation with sections of the public b. 2 only
2. There is greater and greater c. Both 1 and 2
deconcentration and Decentralization d. Neither
to reduce concentration of Authority at
the top
3. There is a tendency towards “hiving
off” governmental function to
administrative boards local bodies and
voluntary organizations
4. Government at the local level is being
increasingly subjected to centralized
bureaucratic and ministerial control
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4 
 
91. In which one of the following kinds of a 107. Match List I with List II and select the
public undertaking ministerial controls all pervasive? correct answer
a. Government company List I
b. Departmental undertaking A. India audit and accounts staff training
c. Government corporation college, Simla
d. Joint undertaking B. L.B.S. National academy of
92. Which of the following are the most administration Mussoorie
important factors for the limited success of C. Indian Institute of Public
Public enterprises in India? Administration, New Delhi
1. Lack of autonomy D. Administrative staff college,
2. Over-size of the plants set up Hyderabad
3. Poor material management List II
4. Social objectives as targets to be 1. Refresher courses
achieved 2. Foundational courses
a. 1 and 2 3. Processional courses
b. 2 and 3 4. Mid-career training
c. 3 and 4 5. Initial in service training
d. 1 and 4 ABCD
93. Which of the following are reasons for the a. 1 2 3 4
joint-stock company form of organizing b. 2 3 4 5
public enterprises being popular in India?
1. It is easy and convenient
2. There is a law readily available
3. Government can give instructions
4. The jurisdiction of the c & ag can be
limited
a. 1 and 2
b. 1,2 and 3
c. 1,3 and 4
d. 2,3 and 4
94. Which one of the following statements is
correct?
a. The separate cadre of permanent
central secretariat officers was created
in 1948
b. The central secretariat does not get
fresh blood from state cadres
c. The cabinet secretary assists only the
cabinet
d. The principle secretary to the prime
ministers plays the role of chief
secretary in the central secretariat
95. Which one of the following statements in
NOT correct?
a. The business of the cabinet secretary is
to help the ministers and not to oversee
them
b. The cabinet secretary helps the cabinet
by rendering advice on matters of
administration
c. The cabinet secretary is a watch dog on
behalf of the Prime Minister
d. The cabinet secretary advises the civil
servants informally on many matters of
administration
96. The constitution of India lays down
(Article 78) that proposals for legislation
are to be communicated to the president by
the
a. Prime Minister
b. Speaker of the Lok Sabha and
chairman of the Rajya Sabha
c. Minister for law
d. Minister for Parliamentary affairs
97. According to the constitution of India, if
the president so requires it shall be the
duty of the Prime Ministers to submit for
the consideration of the council of
ministers any matter on which a decision
has been taken by a minister but which has
not been considered by the council. This
ensures
c. 1 2 4 5
d. 5 2 4 1
108. Which one of the following statements is
correct?
a. The Northcote- Trevelyan report
related to education in British India
b. The problem of generalist versus
specialist in administration is peculiar
to India
c. During the British rule, generally the
members of the Indian civil service
were deployed in administrative
positions even in specialized field such
as agriculture, policy judiciary etc.
d. A generalist is of high caliber when
compared to a specialist
109. The Lokayukta and Uplokayuktas act was
first passed in
a. Maharashtra
b. West Bengal
c. Karnataka
d. Orrissa
110. Which of the following are functions to
which the scope of the discretionary
powers of the Governor is limited?
1. The Appointment of the Chief Minister
2. The Dismissal of the Ministry
3. The Dissolution of the legislative
Assembly
4. Assent to bills
a. 1,2 and 3
b. 1,2,3 and 4
c. 1,3 and 4
d. 2,3 and 4
111. The highest policy making body in matters
relating to national planning is the
a. Planning Commission
b. Finance Commission
c. Inter-State Council
d. National Development Council
112. Given below are two statements, one
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The secretariat and
executive departments have separate
identities.
Reason (R): Heads of executive
departments have different designations.
In the context of the above two statements
which one of the following is correct?
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
a. Collective responsibility
b. The status of the prime minister as the
first among the equals
c. The power of the President to nullify
the decision of the minister
d. The inherent power of the minister to
take a decision independent of the
council of ministers
98. In which of the following the president of
India is not bound by the advice of the
council of ministers?
1. The choice of the Prime Minister
2. The dismissal of a Government which
refuses to quit having lost its majority
in the house of the people
3. the allocation of business
4. the dissolution of the house when
appeal to the electorate becomes
necessary
a. 1,2 and 3
b. 1,2 and 4
c. 1,3 and 4
d. 2,3 and 4
99. Given below are two statements one
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The central secretariat is a
thin-tank an vital treasure house of vital
information.
Reason (R): The secretariat carries out a
comprehensive and detailed scrutiny of
every issue.
In the context of the above two statements
which one of the following is correct?
100. An Election Commissioner shall not be
removed from office except on the
recommendation of the
a. President.
b. Supreme Court
c. Chief Election Commissioner
d. Law Minister
101. Which of the following were
recommended by the Kothari Committee?
1. Holding a common examination for
recruitment to the I.A.S., I.P.S and
other civil services
2. Holding a foundation course
examination
3. Holding a post-foundation course
examination
4. Introducing some specified languages
in addition to Hindi and English as
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true bur R is false
d. A is false but R is true
113. Given below are two statements, one
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): There is no fixed tenure
for the post of Chief Secretary.
Reason (R): The A.R.C. has not made any
specific
In the context of the above two statements,
which one of the following is correct?
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
correct explanation of A
c. A is true bur R is false
d. A is false but R is true
114. Which one of the following is NOT a
function of the Directorate?
a. Formulation of the budget of the
department
b. Inspection of the execution of work by
the field officers
c. Rendering of technical advice to the
minister/secretary
d. Coordination of inter-departmental
functions.
115. Who among the following are among
those who comprise the Zila Parished?
1. Chairman/Presidents of the Panchayat
Samitis within the jurisdiction of the
district.
2. MPs. MLAs and MLCs whose
constituencies are in the district.
3. Representatives of co-operative
societies, municipalities, notified area
committee etc.
4. Health care specialists.
a. 1 and 2
b. 1,2 and 3
c. 1,2 and 4
d. 2,3 and 4
116. Given below are two statements, one
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The collector needs to
ensure provision of necessary inputs by
different agencies for the district.
Reason (R): Panchayati Raj bodies do
provide all the inputs needed for
Media for the civil services development.
examination a. Both A and R are true and R is the
a. 1 only correct explanation of A
b. 1 and 5 b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
c. 1,2,3 and 4 correct explanation of A
d. 1,3,4 and 5 c. A is true bur R is false
102. Which one of the following statements d. A is false but R is true
about a member of the Union Public 117. Match List I with List II and select the
service commission on his ceasing to hold correct answer
office is INCORRECT? List I
a. He is eligible to be appointed as A. Panchayati Raj Elections
chairman of the U.P.S.C. B. Democratic Decentralization
b. He is ineligible to be appointed as C. Nagar Panchayats
chairman of any state PSC D. Block Committees
c. He is ineligible for employment under List II
the government of India. 1. 74th Amendment
d. He is ineligible for employment under 2. 73rd Amendment
the state governments 3. B.R. Mehta Committee
103. Who among the following is a 4. Intermediate level
constitutional authority for whose removal 5. Ashok Mehta Committee
form office by the president a referent to ABCD
the Supreme Court is necessary? a. 1 5 2 4
a. Supreme Court is necessary? b. 2 3 1 4
b. Chairman and member of the Union c. 1 5 4 3
Public service commission d. 2 1 5 3
c. Judge of the Supreme Court 118. Which of the following are the important
d. The Chief Election Commissioner features of 73rd constitution amendment in
104. The constitution of India enjoins up on the respect of Panchayati Raj
government to consult the Public service 1. Direct election of members at all levels
commission in disciplinary matters. Which 2. Mandatory provision for holding
one of the following is an institution elections
whose emergence cannot exactly be 3. Direct election of the chairpersons at
reconciled with the constitution prescribed the village level
role of the Public Service Commission 4. Indirect election of chairpersons at the
a. The administrative reforms intermediate and district levels
commission a. 1,2 and 3
b. The central Bureau of investigation b. 2,3 and 4
c. The central vigilance commission c. 1,2 and 4
d. The law commission d. 1,3 and 4
105. Which one of the following is a central 119. Which of the following is correct in
Services? respect of financial powers of local
a. Educational services governments in India?
b. Agricultural services a. Local governments have
c. Overseas communication service constitutionally earmarked taxation
d. Cooperative service power
106. Of the following objectives which one is b. Local Governments are empowered to
NOT an objective fundamental course at levy such taxes as are permitted under
the L.B.S. National Academy? the law
a. To facilitate interchange of personnel c. Local Governments are empowered to
among the different services levy charges on all items within their
b. To develop certain basic professional sphere of activities.
and humanistic values among the d. Local Governments are empowered to
 levy taxes with the permission of the
department concerned.
120. The main sources of revenue of urban
probationers
local bodies in India are
c. To propose esprit die corps among the
1. Taxes
probationers
2. Fees and fines
d. To impart a basic understanding of the
3. Grants
constitutional socio-economic, culture
4. Service charges
and historical frame work of public
a. 1 and 2
administration
b. 1 and 3
c. 1,2 and 3
d. 1,3 and 4
 

Paper : IAS Public Administration PRELIM - 1997 Question Paper

Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 300
1 . Which one of the following statements is incorrect in respect of Simon’s decisions making theory?
(a) Deciding is as Important as doing
(b) Decisions are, in the final analysis, composite
(c) Administrative man maximizes
(d) There is always a means-ends relationship
2. Which of the following statements regarding decision-making are attributable to Simon?
1. Divorce of ends from means is false.
2. Means also entail value assumptions.
3. Traditional ends-means approach is not logical.
4. Behavior alternative model is superior.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4
3 . ‘Decision-making necessitates the location and control of strategic factors,’ this view is
expressed by:
(a) Fayol (b) Barnard (c) Likert (d) Simon
4 . Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Though the decision making process is an important variable in the organization situation,
it alone is not adequate to explain the totality of the organization picture.
Reason (R): Decision-making is a process involving emotional, expressive, rational and instrumental
dimensions. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
5 . The concept of satisfying behavior comes close to the economic concept of :
(a) Maximizing output (b) Optimum output
(c) Best output. (d) Easily achievable output
6 . Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I List II
A. Laissez-faire -Leader 1. Deserter
B. Country-Club-Leader 2. Compromise
C. Task Management Leader 3. Missionary
D. Team Management Leader 4. Executive
5. Autocrat
ABCDABCD
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 5 4
(c) 3 1 5 2 (d) 2 1 4 3
7 . Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I List II
A. Trait theory 1. Exchange process between leaders and followers
B. Sociometric theory 2. Personality characteristic of a leader
C. Group theory 3. Environmental factors
D. Contingency theory 4. Goals and structure of an organization
5. Facts and values
ABCDABCD
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 4 5 1 (d) 3 2 5 4
8 . Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Leadership comes from a complex relationship between the leader and the led conflicts
that arise between the organization and its environment. In the context of the above two statements,
which one of the following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
9 . Which one of the following theories views leadership as a manipulative function?
(a) Human Relations Theory (b) Scientific Management Theory
(c) Classical Theory (d) Decision Making Theory
10 . Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The function of communication is not just to get something off the mind of the
transmitter.
Reason (R) : Communication must create the desired impact at the receiving end.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
11 . Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Classical theorists did not take cognizance of the needs of individuals.
Reason (R) : Need theorists believe that workers are motivated by their own intrinsic needs.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
12 . Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I List II
A. ERG theory 1. A.H. Maslow
B. Acquired-Needs 2. Clayton Alderfer
Theory .
C. Hierarchy of Needs 3. David C. McClelland
Theory
D. Equity Theory 4. J. S. Adams
ABCDABCD
(a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 4 1 3 2
13 . Consider the following statements about Civil Service in a developing society:
1. It should act as an agent of change.
2. It should have concern for social equity.
3. It should have concern for vested interests.
4. It should be politically neutral.
Which of the above are correct ?
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
14 . Which one of the following shows the correct sequence of the four basic steps in the Position
Classification Plan ?
(a) Job analysis, Grouping of Positions, Standardization, Position allocation
(b) Standardization, Job analysis, Grouping of Positions, Position allocation
(c) Grouping of Position, Job analysis, Position allocation, Standardization
(d) Position allocation, Standardization, Job analysis, Grouping of Positions
15 . Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion {A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Rank classification facilitates literal entry.
Reason (R) : Rank classification facilitates transfers within the service.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
16 . ” The most illustrious English jurists have been men who have never opened a law book till after the
close of a distinguished academic career…” This statement was made in favor of
(a) a test of scholastic abilities for entry into civil services
(b) training civil servants for functional specialization
(c) a test after training of civil servants
(d) a period of probation for civil servants
17 . Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Recruitment has been regarded as the most important function of personnel
administration.
Reason (R) : All other aspect of personnel administration are dependent upon right recruitment. In the
context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
18. Which of the following regarding training in civil service are true?
1. It should be of a continuous nature.
2. It should be for upgrading the skills.
3. It should be for updating the knowledge.
4. It should be delinked from promotion.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
19 . Which of the following can be used to ensure objectivity in assessing the suitability of candidates for
promotion?
1. Prescribing such criteria as qualifications and experience.
2. Laying down qualities to be assessed
3. Requiring reasons to be recorded for denial of promotion.
4. Requiring adverse reports to be given to the employee concerned.
5. Constituting multimember boards for the purpose.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (d) 2, 3, 4 and 5
20 . According to Lopez, which of the following are the primary purposes of performance evaluation?
1. Information 2. Control 3. Review. 4. Motivation 5. Development
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2,3 and 4
(c) 1, 4 and 5 (d) 3, 4 and 5
21 . Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Staff councils are the best device to resolve the disputes between the government and
public employee.
Reason (R) : Cordial relations between the employer and employees are indispensable for optimum
productivity of an organization.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
22 . Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Public employees, like others, should have the right to demonstrate in order to arouse
public conscience about their grievances.
Reason (R) : The government as a model employer is required to provide fair conditions of service.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
23 . Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The principle of ‘fair comparison’ for determination of salaries in the civil service, is NOT
acceptable.
Reason (R) : Public Administration has no profit motive.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not tile correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
24 . Which of the following are major considerations in salary structuring for civil service?
1. Ability to pay 2. productivity 3. Adequacy 4. Rationality
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
25 . Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Restrictions on political activities of public employees are in their own interests. Reason
(R) : Neutrality of civil servants ensures that all of them are treated alike.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
26 . Which of the following are included in the principles of anonymity of civil service?
1. Non-accountability of the civil service to the legislature
2. Civil servants becoming professional experts
3.Application of the doctrine of ministerial responsibility
4. Explaining by civil servants what their departments are doing
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1,2 and 3. (d) 2, 3 and 4
27 . Which one of the following is a common objective of the ‘Rule of Lapse’, ‘Sunset Legislation’ and
‘Zero-Based Budgeting’?
(a) Economy in expenditure
(b) Legislative control
(c) Review and reauthorization of expenditures
(d) Ensuring achievement of physical targets
28 . Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I List II
A. The Speaker 1.Fixes the time limit for discussion of Demands
B. The Finance Minister 2. Examines the financial operation of the executive
C. The President 3. Makes mention in the Parliament about the annual financial statement
D. The C & AG 4. Participates in the formulation of Five Year Plan
ABCDABCD
(a) 1 4 3 2 (b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 1 4 2 3 (c) 4 1 3 2
29. Given below are two statements, one labeled as R. Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason
(R) :
Assertion (A) : Re-appropriation is an executive act.
Reason (R) : Re-appropriation is permissible to meet the expenditure in a new service.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
30 . In the context of the budget, the term guillotine is used with reference to
(a) Appropriation bill
(b) Consolidated fund charges
(c) Voting of Demands
(d) Finance Bill
31 . Which of the following form part of the budget in India?
1. Estimated income and expenditure for the following year
2. Revised figures for the preceding year
3. Revised estimates for the current year
4. Actual figures for the previous year
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4
32 . Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The Ministry of Finance is no longer the central agency to exercise control over finances.
Reason (R) : Administrative ministries demand greater delegation of financial powers from the Finance
Ministry for speedy implementation of development programmes.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the Correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(a) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
33 . Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I List II
A. Voting on the 1. Prior consent of the demands for grants President
B. Budget 2. Not subject to vote of Parliament
C. Money Bill 3. Al instrument of socioeconomic change
D. Charged Expenditure 4. Enactment of Budget
5. Public Accounts Committee
ABCDABCD
(a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 3 4 2 5
(c) 1 3 4 2 (d) 1 4 3 2
34 . In the h1dian budgetary system, pending the passage of Finance Bill in the Parliament, the
provisional collection under Tax Act, 1931 empowers the government to collect taxes for a period of
(a) 50 days (b) 60 days (c) 75 days (d) 90 days
35 . Which of the following are included in Budgetary Control by executive?
1. Allotment
2. Apportionment
3. Audit
4. Sanctions
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2,3 and 4 (b) 1,2 and 4
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 and 4
36 . Which one of the following is NOT the occasion for criticizing the administration in the Lok Sabha?
(a) General discussion on the budget
(b) Voting on demands for grants
(c) Motion of tanks to the President
(d) Discussion on the finance Bill
37 . Which one of the following is NOT a function of the Committee on Subordinate Legislation? (a) To
evolve a systematic pattern of the terms of delegation ,
(b) To improve the methods of publicity of the rules
(c) To lay down rules and regulations on the table of the House
(d) To achieve uniformity in rule-making procedures
38. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The Legislature exerts authority over administration through the appropriation process.
Reason (R) : The gross amount of the appropriation determines the volume of official activity and an
itemized appropriation act may leave little or no administrative discretion.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explaT1ation of A
(b) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
39. Which of the following are tools of executive control over administration?
1. Budget 2. Civil Service Code
3. Audit by C & AG 4. Rule-making power
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
40. The most important device of supplying power to the judiciary to invalidate a Statute in India is
provided by:
(a) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(b) The Fundamental Rights
(c) Articles 350 and 351
(d) Prerogative Writs
41. Under which of the following circumstances judicial intervention in administration is justified? 1. When
there is abuse of discretion
2. When there is honest difference of opinion
3. When there is error of law
4. When there is lack of jurisdiction
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
42 . The specific purpose of the proposed institution of Lok Pal is to
(a) strengthen legislative control over administration
(b) supplement Judicial Control over administration
(c) protect and promote insufficient administration
(d) enable effective popular control over administration
43 . Which of the following are emphasized by Riggs to compare administrative systems?
1. Model building
2. Cultural Dimension
3. Ecological perspective
4. Structure-functional approach
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
44 . In which one of the following countries is control over the administration through questions and
motions to ‘no confidence’ NOT possible ?
(a) Pakistan (b) Britain
(c) USA (d) France
45 . Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Comparative Public Administration is an attempt to study administrative systems in their
ecological settings.
Reason (R) : Socio-economic context has a bearing on administration.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
46. The major conceptual achievement of the Civil Service Reform Act of 1978 in the USA is the
vindication of the
(a) inadequate validity of the merit principle
(b) separation of managerial, political and legal aspects of personnel administration
(c) defect of bipartisan nature of the erstwhile C. S. Commission
(d) merits of the theory of checks and balances
47. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I List II
A. Northgate Trevelyan Report 1. Organization of permanent civil service
B. The Pendleton Act 2. Training of Police Personnel
C. Hoover Commission Report 3. Civil Service Examination reform
D. Satish Chandra Committee Report 4. Political activities of civil servants
5. Introducting Merit System:
ABCDABCD
(a) 5 4 2 3 (b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 1 5 4 3 (d) 1 5 3 2
48. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The Soviet bureaucracy had a subordinate relationship with the Communist Party.
Reason (R) : The functions of the Soviet Government used to be controlled and directed by the
Communist Party.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
49 . Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) What the Treasury does in U.K. is done.
(b) What the Treasury does in U.K. is shared by three agencies in U.S.A.- The Treasury, the
Office of Personnel Management and the Merit Systems protection Board.
(c) What the Treasury does in U.K. is done by the U.S. Treasury.
(d) There are Civil Service Commissions in both the U.K. and the U.S.A
50 . Which of the following are distinct features of the British Civil Service as compared with the French
Civil Service?
1. Dominance of generalist administrators.
2. Anonymity of central government officers.
3. Restriction on political rights of civil servants.
4. Appointment of the members of the British Administrative class as Chief Executive officers of Local
Authorities.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
51 . The term ‘Shadow Cabinet’ in Britain refers to
(a) the Cabinet that is still in the process of formation
(b) the Cabinet Committee that functions under the guidance of the Cabinet
(c) a group of opposition party members with assigned roles
(d) the team of intellectuals advising the Cabinet
52 . In which one of the following countries can a citizen / get speedy justice against the wrongful acts of
officials?
(a) India (b) France (c) USA (d) England
53 . Which of the following statements are true of Public Administration in France?
1. The Prefect is now stripped off of much of his executive power and is rechristened ‘Commissioner of
the Republic’
2. The Prefect is now given more political and financial powers under a scheme of devolution of powers
to communes.
3. The regional prefects’ main role is to coordinate economic planning.
4. The Mayors of local communes are independent of the state officials.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
54. Which of the following factors contributed to the movement for comparative studies in public
administration?
1. the attainment of independence by a large number of former colonial societies.
2. The need to extend the scope of public administration as a discipline.
3. The emphasis by the United Nations as greater interaction among its members.
4. The involvement of a large number of scholars and practitioners of administration in the post-war
reconstruction programmes.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
55 . Which one of the following influenced the shaping of British administration in India ?
(a) Fabianism (b) Utilitarianism (c) Pluralism (d) Mercantilism
56 . The Central Board of Revenue has been set up by
(a) the Constitution
(b) the order of the Finance Minister
(c) a Law of Parliament
(d) a Presidential order
57 . Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of Indian administration?
(a) Uniformity
(b) Decentralization
(c) Diarchy
(d) Independent Judiciary
58 . The expression ‘Prime Ministerial form of government’ indicates a form of government in which (a)
the Prime Minister is directly elected by the people
(b) the Prime Minister heads a coalition
(c) the Prime Minister is the Head of the State
(d) the Prime Minister is no longer the first among equals but is dominant
59 . Which of the following functions are performed by the Central Secretariat?
1. Issuing proclamations of Emergency.
2. Policymaking and its modification.
3. Work concerning legislation.
4. Exercising financial controls.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
60 . The Staff Selection Commission is
(a) an ‘attached office’ under the Ministry of Personnel
(b) a ’subordinate office’ of the UPSC
(c) an autonomous body under the Ministry of Personnel
(d) a statutory body under the UPSC
61 . Which of the following statement regarding the Planning Commission is NOT true?
1. It is a body consisting of only specialists.
2. It has been regarded as a Super Cabinet.
3. It consists of both generalists and specialist.
4. It consists of nominees of the National Development Council.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
62 . One of the functions of the Planning Commission is to
(a) accordance among the states
(b) recommend Plan Grants for public purpose
(c) supervise the implementation of deregulation
(d) recommend grants-in-aid of revenue
63 . Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) The Planning Commission prepares the plans in consultation with Union Ministries and State
Governments
(b) The various central ministries and state governments draw up their own plans according to their
needs irrespective of the allocations of funds
(c) An effort is made through negotiations and discussions to arrive at an agreement among the central
ministries and state governments on priorities for planned development.
(d) The Draft of the Ave Year Plan prepared by the Planning Commission is placed before the National
Development Council for its approval.
64 . Which of the following are NOT subject to the detailed audit of the Comptroller and Auditor General
of India?
1. All Cooperative Societies.
2. All Public Corporations.
3. All civil expenditure.
4. All defence expenditure.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
65 . The Comptroller and Auditor General of India submits three reports to the Parliament/State
Legislatures. Which one of the following reports does NOT come under that category?
(a) Audit Report on Finance Accounts
(b) Audit Report on Appropriation Accounts
(b) Audit Report on Capital Accounts
(d) Audit Report on Commercial and Public Sector Enterprises.
66 . Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Proper maintenance of accounts of the public funds and their audit by an agency
independent of the executive control are essential for an efficient administration of public finances.
Reason (R) : The spending authorities should produce receipts or vouchers concerning every paisa which
they spend.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
67 . Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of a government company?
(a) It has an audit board of its own
(b) It is a body corporate
(c) It is owned by the state
(d) Its employees are not civil servants.
68 . Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I List II
A. Organized as a major sub-division 1. Public Corporation
of a department of government
B. Represents a combination of 2. Control Board
government ownership and business
management
C. The Articles of Association are 3. Departmental Undertaking
drawn up by the government and
can be revised by it
D. Devised for multi-purpose project 4. Government Company
ABCDABCD
(a) 4 1 3 2 (b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 4 2 3 1
69. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A): There is a feeling that the institution of All India Services needs reconsideration. Reason
(R): Members of the. All India Services foster national integration, as they are recruited from different
parts of the country.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A .
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not ti1e correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
70. Which of the following are the features of All India Services?
1. They are common to both Central and State Governments.
2. They are common to all offices of the Government of India throughout the country.
3. The concept of All India Service is based on Tenure System.
4. The members of All India Services are representatives ‘of the Central Government.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 correct
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
71 . Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I List II
(Organisation) (Function)
A. Ministry of Home Affairs 1. Management of IAS
B. U.P.S.C. 2. Recruitment to Class III (Non-Technical) Posts
C. Ministry of Personnel 3. Cadre controlling of I.P .S.
D. Staff Selection commission 4. Recruitment to Class II posts
5. Advising on inter-service promotions
ABCDABCD
(a) 3 5 2 1 (b) 3 5 1 2
(c) 1 3 5 4 (d) 5 2 3 1
72 . Which of the following statements are NOT correct?
1. A Member of UPSC holds office for a term of six years or until he attains the age of 65 years 2. A
Member of UPSC is eligible for reappointment for the same post for a second term.
3. A Member of UPSC can accept employment under Central State government after retirement. 4. A
Member of UPSC can accept employment as a member of state P.S.C. after retirement. Select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
(a) l and 2 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 1,.2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
73. Which of the following ensure functional autonomy of the UPSC?
1. the Chairman and Members can be removed only on the grounds given in the Constitution.
2. The expenditure of the Commission is a charge on the Consolidated Fund of India.
3. The Members and Chairman are allowed to accept jobs after retirement.
4. The Chairman and Members being civil servants function in a neutral manner.
Select the correct using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
74 . Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A): For IAS probationers, “sandwich ” training method is employed.
Reason (R) : Field training is useful for providing an insight into the actual administrative situation. In the
context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
75. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A) : A generalist may be defined as a public servant who does not have a special background
and is easily transferable to any department.
Reason (R): A generalist by virtue of his general knowledge is capable of working in any department.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are hue and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
76 . Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Civil servants are influenced in their work by political executives because they know the
latter have support in the Cabinet.
Reason (R) : Civil servants put up only proposals as are likely to be approved by the Ministers. In the
context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are hue and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
77 . Which of the following are the functions of the Chief Minister?
1. To communicate to the Central Government an the decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the
administration of the State.
2. To instruct District Connectors to carry out and the decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the
administration of the State.
3. To communicate to the Governor an decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration
of the State.
4. To communicate to the Governor an decisions of the Council of Ministers regarding proposals for
legislation.
Select the correct using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
78 . Which one among the following is NOT the function of the State Secretariat?
(a) To assist the Minister in the formulation of policy
(b) To act as a channel of communication between one Government and an other
(c) To prepare drafts of legislation to be introduced in the Assembly
(d) To assist the legislature in its secretarial work
79 . Which of the following are the positions enjoined upon the Chief Secretary of a State?
1. Secretary to the Cabinet.
2. Chief Advisor to the Chief Minister.
3. Chief of the Secretaries.
4. Head of the Civil Service:
5. Representative of the State in all legal matters.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3, 4 and 5
80 . Which of the following statements are true?
1. The territorial jurisdictions of the regional end district offices are coterminous
2. The territorial jurisdictions of regional offices of different departments are not coterminous.
3. The territorial jurisdiction of regional offices of the central and state governments are one and the
same.
4. The territorial jurisdictions of the regional and district offices are different.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
81 . In which one of the following districts has the ‘Files to Field’ programme been introduced?
(a) Sirmour (H.P.)
(b) Ahmedabad (Gujarat)
(c) Ahmednagar (Maharashtra)
(d) Sambalpur (Orissa)
82 . Which one of the following is NOT a function of Deputy Commissioner/District Collector?
(a) Maintenance of law and order
(b) Survey and Settlement
(c) Trial of cases under IPC
(d) Enforcing provisions of Cr. P.C.
83 . Which of the following are provided for in the 73rd Constitutional Amendment?
1. Elections through Chief Election Commissioner.
2. Devolution of functions by State government.
3. Creation of State Finance Commission.
4. Setting up a three-tiered Indian Federation.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
84 . Which of the following are true regarding the I.RD.P?
1. It is Uni.-dimensional in nature.
2. It adopts a holistic approach.
3. It calls for a high level of coordination.
4. It is mainly a poverty alleviation programme.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1,3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
85 . Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Multiplicity of authorities in urban areas has added to the problems of citizens.
Reason (R) : New special purpose agencies have been created for urban functions.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
86 . Which of the following cause the creation of slums in large urban centers?
1. Increased economic activity in urban areas
2. Per capita income being higher in metro cities.
3. Increased government regulations for urban development.
4. Out migration from small urban centres.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
87 . Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : State government are obliged to appoint a State Finance Commission under the
Constitution. .
Reason (R) : The quantum of money to be paid annually by the state governments to the local bodies is
determined by the State Finance Commission.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
88 . Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The Directorates of Local Bodies in States . supervise the working of Municipal
Corporations.
Reason (R) : The State governments need to exercise control over all the local bodies.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R. is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
89 . Which of the following are provided for by the 74 th Constitutional Amendment in respect of
Municipal Corporations?
1. Seats to be filled by direct elections on the basis of wards.
2. Reservation of seats for SC/ST.
3. Reservation of seats for backward classes.
4. One-third reservation of seats for women.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
90. .Gerald Caiden has mentioned that the crucial role as assumed by public administration in
contemporary society is
(a) Institutionalization of Socio-economic change
(b) Strengthening of roots of democracy
(c) Demoralizing administration
(d) Strengthening of human relations in administration
91. From the Value-Fad stand point, various approaches to the study of Public Administration may be
classified as
(a) empirical and normative approach
(b) philosophical and historical approaches
(c) legal and behavioral approaches
(d) structural and ecological approaches
92. Administration is politics since it must be responsive to the public interest.” This statement was made
by
(a) L. Urwick (b) John M. Piffner
(c) Paul H. Appleby (d) L. Gulick
93. Which of the following statements regarding “New Public Administration ” are true?
1. It rejects that public administration which is value-free.
2. It rejects politics-administration dichotomy.
3. It rejects that public administration which is not properly involved in policy.
4. It is more or less bureaucratic and hierarchical.
Which of the above are true?
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
94. In which of the following directions does public administration move at present?
1. Multi-foci in study.
2. Mini-paradigms.
3. New Public Administration.
4. Locus and focus approach.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 4 only
95. Consider the following statements about the post-World War” writing in Public Administration?
1. These seek to undertake cross-cultural studies.
2. These seek to evolve a true science of administration based on interdisciplinary approach.
3. These seek to develop appropriate methodology.
4. These seek to analyze all types of social phenomena.
Which of the above are true?
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
96. In the evolution of Public Administration there has been a shift in emphasis during successive periods.
In this context which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
1. 1887-1926…………. Crisis of Identity
2. 1910-1920…………. Scientific Management
3. 1920-1947………….. Human Relations
4. 1948-1966………….. Behaviorism
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
97. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
(a) Public Administration —Collective activity organisation and mannagement of men and material (b)
Development Administration —Change and Administrative Responsiveness, Rationality, Management-
Worker relations .
(c) Comparative Public Administration— From ideograph to nomothetic
(d) New Public Administration— Relevance, values, social equity, change
98. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The principal objective of scientific management is to secure maximum prosperity for the
employer, coupled with maximum prosperity for employees.
Reason (R) : The philosophy of Scientific Management is that there is no inherent conflict in the interests
of the employer , workers and consumers.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
99. According to Taylor, Mental Revolution is
(a) substitution of war by peace and cooperation instead of strife
(b) co-operation instead of strife and efficiency device
(c) efficiency device and piece-rate system
(d) substitution of war by peace and piece-rate system
100. Which one of the following statements is incorrect respect of Taylor?
(a) His view of man was too mechanistic
(b) He upheld the carrot and stick approach
(c) He was preoccupied with efficiency
(d) He stood for creative relationship with work
101. Which of the following are categories of persons’, categorized in an organisation by Max Weber?
Those who
1.are accustomed to obey commands.
2. are personally interested in continuing domination.
3. evince interest in promoting change.
4. keep them in readiness to perform changing functions.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
102. Give the below are two statements one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A) : The developing countries bureaucracy plays a dominant role.
Reason (R) : Weber brought out the merits of bureaucratic system. .
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
103. The ‘gangplank’ idea is found in the works of
(c) Fayol (b) Follett
(c) Barnard (d) Simon
104. The classical theory of organisation is known as mechanistic theory because
(a) it does not explain the dynamics of organizational behavior
(b) it establishes a formally declared pattern of relationship
(c) it underestimates human factors and oversimplifies motivation
(d) it treats organization as a closed system
105. Mayo made out a case for skills that are:
(a) human and interactive
(b) social and adaptive
(c) scientific and normative
(d) technical and empirical
106. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A) : Mayo’s recommendations are immensely useful not only in the industrial sector but also in
‘the administrative system of a state.
Reason (R) : Human beings in all kinds of Organization have some common social needs, feelings,
attitudes and desires.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
107. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I (Approaches) List II (Defining Features)
A. Behavioral 1. Descriptive
B. Systems 2. Evolutionary
A. Historic 3. Interact ional
D. Institutional 4. Scientific
ABCDABCD
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 3 4 2 1 (c) 3 4 1 2
108. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I List II
A. Distinction between 1. Herbert A. Simon
obedience and acceptance
B. Distinction between ‘economic 2. Chester Barnard
man’ and ‘administrative man’
C. Distinction between 3. F. W. Taylor
‘charismatic’ ‘traditional’
and ‘legal rational authority’
D. Distinction between 4. Max Weber
‘principles’ and ‘mechanics
of management’ 5. H. Fayol
ABCDABCD
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 1 3 5 2
(c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 1 3 2 5
109. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I List II
A. Top-down Theory 1. A H. Maslow
B. Bottom-up Theory 2. F. W. Taylor
C. Self actualization Theory 3. Norbert Wiener
D. Cybernetic Theory 4. C. Barnard
ABCDABCD
(a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 2 4 3 1
110. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : In systems approach, the process and the course of action is adapted to suit the
requirements of the situation.
Reason (R) : The organization has a social purpose’ and is a part of the prevailing environment. In the
context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A .
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
111. Which of the following are implied by Hierarchy?
1. Higher levels cannot take disciplinary action against subordinates.
2. Higher levels have the freedom to carry out the operations.
3. Upper levels set the goals to be pursued.
4. Lower levels take action to pursue the goals.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
112. The scalar principle refers to as
(a) classification of civil servants according to their scales of pay
(b) grading of duties according to the degree of authority
(c) organizing the relations between members of ‘line’ and ’staff agencies
(d) governing the allocation of persons, to the different levels in the hierarchy
113. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other 1abeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Unity of command means that the entire organization has only one boss and one plan of
action to promote efficiency and effectiveness.
Reason (R) : The concept of unity of command is proposed as substitute to the “Functional foremanship”
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
114. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) .
Assertion (A) : Span of control depends on personal qualities, skills and experience.
Reason (R) : Empirical studies have found that the span of control will be small if organizational units are
located at different places.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true. but R- is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
115. Which one of the following is NOT a proposition in Theory X ?
(a) Man wishes to avoid responsibility
(b) Man has an inherent liking for work
(c) Man must be coerced for working
(d) Man must be threatened with punishment
116. Who among the following do NOT up hold the acceptance theory of authority ?
1. Taylor
2. Fayol
3. Barnard
4. Simon
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a} l and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) l and 4
117. Given below are .two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Coordination can be achieved by establishing direct Personal contact with the people
concerned
Reason (R) : Inter-personal communication facilitates quick resolution of differences.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of. the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true .and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
118 . Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Delegation is not a process of abdication.
Reason (R) : The delegate does not shirk his responsibility.
In the context of the above two statements, Which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A .
(b) Both A and R are true .but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
119 . Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Supervision involves inspecting the activities of the subordinates so that they work
towards the goal of the organization.
Reason (R) : Individuals have a tendency to work for the achievement of their own ends.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
120. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A) : Division between one and Staff cannot be watertight.
Reason (R) : Authority is more a matter of influence rather than of command.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

IAS Prelims Public Administration 1998

1. The Railway budget was separated from 17. The 'Navratna' policy of the Government
the Central Budget in the year of India provides the PSUs with which of
a. 1920 the following?
b. 1921 1. flexibility
c. 1922 2. Financial autonomy
d. 1923 3. Administrative autonomy
2. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has been 4. Freedom for joint venture with equity
empowered to exercise 'Guillotine' within 5% of their net worth
a. After demands are discussed a. 1 and 4
b. after demands are discussed and passed b. 2, 3 and 4
c. When the time allotted for budget c. 1,2 and 3
discussions is exhausted d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
d. when the demands are passed with a 18. The Dis-investment Commission has
cut
3. Which of the following are ensured by the
Budget?
1. Financial and legal accountability of
the Executive to the Legislature.
2. Accountability of each subordinate
authority is Executive to the one
immediately above in the hierarchy
3. Accountability of the legislature to the
Judiciary
4. Accountability of government
departments to Finance Ministry.
a. l and 2
b. 1,3 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4
4. Which of the following Committees
consist of representatives of both the
Houses namely Lok Sabha and Rajya
Sabha?
1. Estimate Committee
2. Committee on Subordinate Legislation
3. Public Accounts Committee
4. Committee on Public Undertakings
a. l and 4
b. 1, 2 and 3
5. 2, 3 and 4
6. 1, 2, 3 and 4
5. Which of the following tools of control
may be adopted for raising a discussion in
House on a matter of urgent public
importance
a. Censure motion
b. Adjournment motion
c. Calling attention
d. Cut motion
6. Consider the following statements:
The proposal to merge the Air-India and
Indian Airlines into a single holding
company is designed to
1. achieve flexibility and co-ordination
2. increasing competitiveness
3. avoid financial loss
4. get rid of surplus staff
Of these statements
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
b. 1 and 4 are correct
c. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
d. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
7. A Judicial remedy whereby the State
inquires into the legality of the claim
which a party asserts to an office or
proposed a stock option scheme for the
employees of PSUs. which of the
following are its main features?
1. No physical transfer of shares from the
PSUs to their employee
2. Management of the shares by a trust
composed of experts
3. Allotment of shares to new employees
4. Sale of shares in the stock market by
the shareholding employees
a. l and 4
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
19. Consider the following steps:
1. Closure of sick units
2. Nationalization of joint public private
units
3. Introduction of MOU system
4. Golden hand-shake
5. National Renewal Fund The reform
steps taken by the Government of India
prior to its New Economic Policy
regarding the public sector
undertakings include
a. l and 2
b. 1, 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 3, 4 and 5
d. 3, 4 and 5
20. There shall be a Council of Ministers with
the Prime Minister as the head to aid and
advice the President who shall in the
exercise of his functions act in accordance
with his advice. This provision in the
Constitution has been laid down by which
one of the following Constitutional
Amendment Act?
a. 41st
b. 42nd
c. 43rd
d. 72nd
21. Match List I (features of the Indian
Constitution with List II (their sources)
and select the correct answer:
List I
A. Fundamental Rights
B. Directive Principles of State Policy
C. Emergency Powers
D. Rule of Law
List II
1. Germany
2. U. S. A.
franchise, is better known as 3. U. K.
a. Mandamus 4. Ireland
b. Certiorari Code:
c. Prohibition ABCD
d. Quo Warrant a. 4 2 3 1
8. Which one of the following statements b. 2 4 1 3
about the Planning Commission in India is c. 4 2 1 3
true? d. 2 4 3 1
a. It is a constitutional body 22. Which of the following statements are
b. it is a statutory body true?
c. It has been created by an executive 1. In USA, there is a legal ban strikes by
order public employees
d. It is quasi-judicial in character 2. In India, strike by public employees is
9. Which one of the following is NOT a an offence under the Essential Services
function of the Plan- Ding Commission of Act
India? 3. In UK, the National Whitely Council's
a. Formulation of a plan resolution bans strikes by public
b. Execution of development plans employees
c. Appraisal of plan progress 4. In UK, executive rules regard strikes as
d. Making recommendations on policy offences by public employees
and administration a. 1 and 2
10. Out of the various forms of public b. 2 and 3
enterprises in India, which one of the c. 3 and 4
following is constituted through a separate d. 1, 2 and 4
statutory enactment? 23. Consider the following statements:
a. Departmental The Comparative Public Administration
b. Corporation method of Rigs emphasizes a shift from
c. Company 1. normative to empirical
d. Control Board 2. ideograph to homothetic
11. Which one of the following commissions 3. bureaucratic to non-bureaucratic
recommended the setting up of a Public 4. historical to philosophical
Service Commission for recruitment of 5. Of these statements the correct
personnel to the Public Services in India ? statements are
a. Simon Commission a. 1, 2 and 3
b. Lee Commission b. 1, 3 and 4
c. Atlee Commission c. 3, 4 and 5
d. Radcliff Commission d. 2, 4 and 5
12. Consider the following statements: 24. Under their service rules, the British Civil
The Finance Commission makes Servants are required to be
recommendations to the President in a. neutral in politics
respect of b. can be partisan
1. the distribution of net proceeds of c. can be partly neutral and partly
taxes to be shares between the Union partisan
and the States d. can pursue active party politics
2. assessment of natural, capital and 25. The credit for coining and applying the
human resources concept of indicative planning goes to
3. the principles governing grants in aid a. erstwhile USSR
to the States b. Britain
4. any other matter concerning financial c. USA
relations between the Union and the d. France
States 26. In which of the following modern states do
Of these statements : the civil servants enjoy the legal right to
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
b. 2 and 4 are correct
c. 1, 3 and 4 are correct
d. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
13. Who allocates the business to various
Ministries and Departments in the
Government of India ?
a. President's Secretariat
b. Prime Minister's Secretariat
c. Parliament's Secretariat
d. Cabinet Secretariat
14. Which of the following are some of the
functions of the Cabinet Secretariat ?
1. To provide secretarial assistance to the
Cabinet
2. To provide secretarial services to
various standing committees and
'adhoc committees of the Cabinet
3. To assist ministers in the discharge of
their parliamentary responsibilities
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 3
15. Consider the following statements:
The working of India's ONGC reveals that
Government (Ministry of Petroleum) has
bestowed on it
1. financial freedom
2. operational freedom
3. freedom to take decision at the field
manager level
4. freedom from administered prices
5. freedom for personnel management .
Of these statements
a. 1 alone is correct
b. 1 and 2 are correct
c. 2, 3, 4 and 5 are correct
d. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are correct
16. The economic liberalization policy of the
Government of India has provided for
which of the following measures for the
reforms of the public enterprises ?
1. Exit Policy
2. Privatization of PSUs
3. Providing autonomy to top profitmaking
units
4. Globalization of PSUs
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
a. 1 and 3
b. 1 and 2
take time off from their administrative
career duties and responsibilities in order
to contest elections and join politics for a
term?
a. USA
b. Britain
c. Russia
d. France
27. Consider the following statements:
The members of the erstwhile Soviet
bureaucracy
1. had the right to participate in active
party politics
2. could not take part in party politics
3. could criticize the policies of the
government
4. had the right to pursue private
economic activities
Of these statements :
a. 1 alone is correct
b. 1 and 4 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
28. The United States established the merit
system of recruitment to the civil services
through
a. the Pendleton Act
b. the Budget and Accounting Act
c. the Civil Service Reform Act
d. an executive order of the President
29. Consider the following statements :
The Civi1 Service Reform Act,1978 of
United States introduced
1. performance-budgeting system
2. performance bonus for members of the
senior executive service
3. merit pays provision for middle
managerial personnel
4. performance appraisal system
5. office of Personnel Management
Of these statements :
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
c. 2, 3 and 5 are correct
d. 1, 4 and 5 are correct
30. Which of the following models were
designed by Fred Riggs for the study of
the administrative of developing nations?
1. Bureaucratic
2. Decision-making
3. Non-government
4. Prismatic/sala / bazaar canteen

c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
 
 31. Who among the following remained the
Chairman of the Comparative
Administration Group for ten years in the
United States?
a. Woodrow Wilson
b. Herbert Simon
c. Dwight Waldo
d. Fred Riggs
32. Consider the following statements During
the regime of Margaret Thatcher, Britain
worked towards
1. strengthening the civil service
2. weakening the administrative state
3. strengthening the market economy
4. weakening the welfare state
5. privatizing the public sector units
Of these statements :
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
b. 1, 2, 4 and 5 are correct
c. 1, 3 and 5 are correct
d. 2, 3, 4and 5 are correct
33. When there is no majority in the State
Legislature Assembly the principal
consideration governing the choice of the
Chief Minister by the Governor of the
State is the
a. ability of the person who is most likely
to command a stable , majority in the
House
b. largest political party in the Legislative
Assembly
c. the combination of several parties as a
unit
d. the loyalty and support of the party
members to their respective party
programs and policies
34. Which one of the following is a form of
urban governance found in India?
a. Council Mayor
b. Commissioner
c. Mayor-in-Council
d. Council-Manager
35. Consider the following:
1. Rural-Urban Relationship Committee
2. The Committee of Ministers on
5. Agreria-Industrial
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 4 and 5
d. 1, 4 and 5
46. Assertion (A) : The responsibility and
authority of each supervisor should be
clearly defined in writing.
Reason (R) : Responsibility should always
be coupled with corresponding authority .
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
47. Assertion (A) : In every modem state the
every increasing administration has
focused attention on the urgent need for
unity in administration.
Reason (R) : Integration and co-ordination
have, therefore, become Sine-qua-non of a
good administrative system today.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
48. Assertion (A) : In an organisation such an
environment should be created that
everyone puts in his best in the work and
the result is maximum output,
Reason ( R) : Supervision is to achieve coordination
among the various units of an
organisation.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
49. Assertion (A) : It is not always easy to
separate means from ends while making
decisions.
Reason (R) : An apparent and may be only
a means for some future end.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
Augmentation of Financial Resources
of urban local bodies
3. Local finance Enquirer Committee
4. National Commission on Urbanization
The correct chronological sequence is
a. 2, 3, 4, 1
b. 3, 2, 1, 4
c. 2, 3, 1, 4
d. 3, 2, 4, 1
36. "Local self government is and must be the
basis of any true system of democracy. We
have got rather into the habit of thinking
democracy at the top and not so much
below. Democracy at the top may not be a
success unless we build its foundation
from below" This statement is attributed to
a. Mahatma Gandhi
b. Jaiprakash Narain
c. Jawaharlal Nehru
d. Vinoba Bhave
37. Nagar Palika Bill was first introduced in
Parliament during the Prime Ministership
of
a. V. P. Singh
b. Chandrashekhar
c. Rajiv Gandhi
d. Narasimha Rao
38. The need for constitutional sanction to
village panchayats was first felt by
a. Balwant ray Mehta Committee
b. Asoka Mehta Committee
c. V.K.R. Rao Committee
d. L .M. Singhvi Committee
39. State Finance Commission is appointed by
a State Government every five year to
determine
a. financial resources of the state for
placing state's requirement before the
Union Government
b. development requirements of the state
for formulating state Five year plans
c. budgetary requirements of various
departments of the state government
d. pattern of distribution of state's tax
revenue between the state government
and local bodies (both rural and urban)
and the pattern of grants-in-aid to local
bodies
40. Assertion (A) : The relation between a
generalist and a specialist is that of a
senior and subordinate.
Reason (R) : A specialist is required to
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
50. Assertion (A) : Communication involves
something more than will transmission of
message or transmission and physical
receipt of the same.
Reason (R) : Communication is the
process through which two or more
persons exchange ideas.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
51. Assertion (A) : Leadership is a continuous
process of influencing behavior
Reason (R) : Leaders must show a genuine
human concern for subordinates.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
52. Assertion (A) : "Grapevine" is a means of
communication. It stresses the operation of
social forces at work place.
Reason (R) : Informal communication
helps to minimize conflict in the
organization.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
53. Assertion (A) : Theory 'Y' suggests a new
approach and emphasizes the co-operative
effort of management and employees.
Reason (R) : Theory 'Y' emphasizes that
most people have little capacity for
creativity.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
54. Assertion (A) : Lack of promotion system
has a marked retroactive effect on all
assist the generalist in the formulation and
implementation of Public Policy.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
41. Assertion (A) : Both Public and Private
Administration operate in the same social
environment.
Reason (R) : Pressure group activity is
more intense in Public than Private
Administration.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
42. Assertion (A) : Public Administration is an
action oriented applied social science
because it is engaged in the task of
implementing Public Policies.
Reason (R) : The need to adopt
management science and techniques for
improving the skills of Public
Administrators can hardly be
overemphasized.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
43. Assertion (A) : Public Administration is
characterized by an absence of profit
motive.
Reason (R) : The basic aim of
governmental activities is not to maximize
profit, but to promote societal welfare.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
44. Assertion (A) : Development approach to
the study of Public Administration
emerged due to increased realisation of
their relevance of the western concepts in
understudying the problems of third world
processes of personnel management.
Reason (R) : Promotion system is
vita1forattracting and retaining talented
persons in public services.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
55. Assertion (A) : Though the Central Service
officers are not All India service officers
the nature of their task and postings make
them truly Ali-Indian character.
Reason (R) : Unlike officers of All-India
services (Central service officers do not
work under State governments while
working in the States.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
56. Assertion (A) : In India the Government
provides for different kinds of mechanism
for the settlement of disputes with its
employees.
Reason (R) : Harmonious relations
between employees and the employer lead
to optimum output.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
57. Assertion (A) : The estimates received
from various, ministries are finally
scrutinized by the Union Finance Ministry
Reason (R) : The Union Finance Ministry
consists of Departments of Revenue,
Expenditure, Economic Affairs, Banking
Finance
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
58. Assertion (A) : President of India is the
Chief Executive of Government of India.

nations.
Reason (R) : Development approach aims
at establishing propositions about
administrative behavior, which transcend
national boundaries.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
45. Assertion (A) : Classical theory views
organisation as a formal structure of
authority based on universal principles.
Reason (R) : Classical theory views the
human beings who run an organisation as
mere cogs in the machine.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
61. Which of the following pairs are correctly
matched ?
1. New Public Administration
……………….. Frank Marini
2. Philosophy of Administration
……………… L. Meriam
3. Politics Administration Dichotomy
…………….. W. Wilson
4. Conflict resolution through
integration………… M. P. Follett
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 2, 3 and 4
62. Which one of the following is NOT the
Reason (R) : President of India is elected
by the elected members of Parliament and
elected members of state legislative
assemblies.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
59. Assertion (A) : Reservation of seats for
women in Panchayati Raj bodies will pave
the way for their political empowerment.
Reason (R) : Empowerment of women is
essential for the achievement of
democracy and development.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
60. Assertion (A) : The Chief Minister of a
State is the head of the Council of
Ministers of that State.
Reason (R) : The Chief Minister is
responsible to State Legislative Assembly
and enjoys the support of a majority in the
House.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
76. Which of the following pairs of authors
and. their characterization of bureaucracy
are correctly matched ?
1. M. Weber...................... Most rational
form of organisation
2. K. Marx......................... Bearer of
private interests
3. R. Merton...................... causing 'goal
displacement'
4. M. Michels..................... Creates
"trained incapacity"
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 2 and 3
c. l and 4
d. 1, 2 and 3
function of Public Administration ? 77. Who, among the following, was
a. To establish public health programs instrumental in the evolution of the
b. To resolve problems of foreign policy Concept of New Public Administration ?
c. To settle disputes between private a. F. Marini
companies and labor unions b. H. George Fredrickson
d. To obtain co-operation from the public c. Dwight Waldo
in implementing public policies d. H. A. Simon
63. Match List I with List II and select the 78. Which of the following components are
correct answer : present in Weber's bureaucratic model ?
List I (Authors) 1. Hierarchical arrangement of offices
A. Gulick & Urwick 2. Division of work
B. Dwight Waldo 3. Written rules for carrying out assigned
C. Ferrel Heady tasks
D. Willoughby 4. Social status determining public
List II (Books) employment
1. Public Administration: a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
A Comparative Perspective b. 2 and 4
2. Principles of Public Administration c. 1 and 3
3. Papers on the Science of Public d. 1, 2 and 3
Administration 79. Which of the following features of
4. The Administrative State bureaucracy can be identified with Marx?
Code: 1. It is a particular closed society within
ABCD the State
a. 4 3 1 2 2. It is an integral part of the exploitative
b. 3 4 2 1 social system
c. 3 4 1 2 3. It is an administrative body of
d. 4 3 2 1 appointed officials
64. Match List I with List II and select the 4. What fetishism of commodities is to
correct answer : economics, bureaucracy is to politics
List I a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
A. Fayol b. 2 and 4
B. Gulick c. 1, 2 and 4
C. F. M. Marx d. 1 and 3
D. Dimock 80. While conceiving an organisation chiefly
List II as a designing process which one of the
1. Public Administration is concerned following writers felt that "lack of design
with the what and how of government is illogical, cruel, wasteful and inefficient'?
2. Public Administration mainly has to do a. Luther Gulick
with the activities of the b. Lyndall Urwick
executive branch c. Henri Fayol
3. Administration has to do with d. James Mooney
planning, organization, command, 81. Chris Argyris suggests the T group
coordination and control technique for improving the personal
4. Public Administration embraces every effectiveness of employees. Which one of
area and every activity the following is not part of this type of
under the jurisdiction of public policy sensitivity training ?
Code: a. Individual employees have to expose
ABCD their behaviour and they give, receive
a. 3 2 1 4 and get feedback
b. 2 3 1 4 b. It provides possibilities to learn the
c. 3 2 4 1 nature of effective group functioning
d. 2 3 4 1 c. Subordinates feel happier under
65. The influence of socio psychological conditions of directive leadership
factors on the worker's output was first d. Psychological success, self-esteem and
proved by: inter-personal competence can be
a. Mary P. Follett increased
b. Frederick W. Taylor 82. The code of conduct was maintained for
c. Elton Mayo group solidarity and informal pressure was
d. Rensis Likert used to set right the erring members of the
66. According to Paul Appleby which of the group during the Hawthorne experiments.
following aspects differentiate government It did not include one being a
administration from its private a. rate-buster
counterpart? b. 'squealer'
1. Breadth of scope and impact c. 'chiseler'
2. Public accountability d. 'recluse'
3. Political character 83. Which one of the following approaches
4. Bureaucracy emphasized inter- group relationships in
Choose the correct answer using the codes addition to the formal structure ?
given below: a. Historical approach
a. l, 2 and 3 b. Philosophical approach
b. 2, 3 and 4 c. Legal approach
c. 1, 2 and 4 d. Behavioral approach
d. 1,3 and 4 84. Which one of the following statements
67. Which of the following statements are about the systems approach to organization
correct in respect of cameralists ? is NOT correct ?
1. They did much for the training of a. It is derived from one general systems
administrators theory
2. They were a group of French scholars b. It studies the organisation as a whole in
3. The foremost among them was G. relation to its environment
Zincke c. It leads to certain fundamental
4. They combined professional posts with principles of organisation
public service d. It views the organization and its
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 environment as interdependent for
b. 1, 3 and 4 inputs and resources
c. 2 and 4 85. Which one of the following methods can
d. 1 and 3 an administrator adopt in a crisis situation?
68. Which of the following is NOT one of the a. Acting within his jurisdiction of
three problem are as identified by Dahl in authority.
his "The Science of Public b. Adopting the gangplank after
Administration" ? informing his immediate superior
a. Values c. Seeking the advice of his subordinates
b. Personality differences d. Obtaining orders of the higher ups
c. Policy making through proper channel
d. Socio-culture variations 86. Which of the following are correctly
69. Consider the following statements : matched ?
New Public Administration is 1. Authority.................... It is accepted as
1. anti-positivist legitimate
2. supportive of politics -administration 2. Power....................... Carrying out
dichotomy one's will despite resistance
3. anti-bureaucratic 3. Control...................... Ability to guide
4. client-oriented 4. Discretion..................
Of these statements Choosing among alternatives causes of
a. 1, 3 and 4 are correct action
b. 1, 2 and 4 are correct a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 2 and 4
c. 2 and 3 are correct b. 1, 2 and 4 l and 3
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct 87. Which of the following factors could place
70. Which one of the following is the correct limitations on .the authority of a superior?
sequence in which the following 1. Group behaviour
approaches to the Study of Public 2. Social relationships
Administration as a discipline evolves ? 3. Organisational norms
a. Classical Approach. Human Relations 4. Bonafide instructions
Approach, Policy Approach. a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Behavioral Approach b. 1 and 2
b. Classical Approach, Policy Approach. c. 3 and 4
Behavioral Approach. Human d. 1, 2 and 3
Relations Approach 88. Which of the following have undermined
c. Classical Approach. Behavioral the importance of Principle of Unity of
Approach, Human Relations Command in recent years ?
Approach, Policy Approach 1. Growing size and complexity of
d. Classical Approach, Human Relations government
Approach. Behavioral Approach, 2. Increasing number and influence of
Policy Approach civil servants
71. According to classical school, 'the Science 3. Manning of government positions by
of Public Administration' was based on experts
a. absence of ethical or normative values 4. Increasing number and influence of
b. presence of codified principles and boards, commissions and auxiliary
techniques agencies
c. presence of scientific principles and a. 1 and 3
methods of universal application b. 1 and 2
d. presence of empirical exact knowledge c. 3 and 4
72. All persons in authority , who control the d. 2 and 4
work of others, are supervisors. Which one 89. The statement, "Co-ordination is the
of the following methods of supervision olderly arrangement of group efforts, to
was NOT suggested by Millet ? provide unity of action in the pursuit of a
a. Prior approval of individual projects common purpose" is attributed to
b. Inspection of result as it leads to waste a. Willoughby
of time and energy b. Urwick
c. A reporting system on work progress c. Mooney
d. Budgetary limitations upon the d. White
magnitude of operations 90. When the delegation goes by a climate of
73. According to Henri Fayol the top understanding between the superior and
management/higher civil service is subordinate, it is known as
responsible for the performance of five a. general delegation
important functions, namely b. specific delegation
a. planning, organising, command, coordination c. formal delegation
and control d. informal delegation
b. policy making, planning, management,
communication and reporting
c. organisation, budgeting, public
relation, administrative reform and
delegation
d. decision -making, delegation,
planning, co-ordination and control
74. In his search for scientific approach to
management, Fredrick W. Taylor said:
"What constitutes a fari day's work will be
 a question for scientific investigation,
instead of a subject to be bargained and
haggled over".
In this statement, Taylor used the term "a
fair day's work" to ,
a. Limit the working hours of labour
b. Fix wages on piece-rate basis
c. Save labour from exploitation by
management
d. Eliminate work at night
75. The Hawthorne experiments of Mayo
revealed the importance of
a. standardization of work procedure
b. informal social forces in the
organisation
c. payment on group basis
d. management response to workers'
demands 
 91. The chief reason for delegation of
authority from headquarter to field offices
is to
a. inculcate skill in the latter
b. facilitate local division-making
c. decongest the headquarter
d. control the field office
92. Which one of the following is a feature of
the jobcentre supervisor, according to
Likert ?
a. He experts little pressure on the
subordinates
b. He exercises general supervision
c. He exerts heavy pressure to get the
work done
d. He motivates subordinates to achieve
high performance goals
93. Which one of the following is NOT true of
line activity ?
a. It has operational abilities
b. It stands for thought and facilitation
c. It decides the organisational goals
d. It has authority
94. According to Simon and March, which of
the following are i the limitations of the
classical theory ?
1. Improper motivational assumptions
2. Little attention given to the role of
cognition in task identification and
classification
3. Little importance given to programme
evaluation
106. Which one of the following is NOT an
objective of Whitley Councils ?
a. Ventilation of grievances through
discussions
b. Providing a forum for securing cooperation
between State and civil
servants
c. Proposing legislation on issues relating
to civil servants vis- a-vis their
employment
d. Hearing petitions filed by individual
civil servants
107. A new All India service can be created by
a. an amendment of the Constitution
b. an executive order
c. a resolution under Article 312 of the
Constitution
d. a statute
108. The mid -career Advance Professional
Programme is Public Administration
popularly known as APPP A for civil
servants is organised by.
a. HCM Rajasthan State Institute of
Public Administration, Jaipur
b. Administrative Staff College of India,
Hyderabad
c. Indian Institute of Public
Administration, New Delhi
d. Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy
of Administration, Mussorie
109. Which one of the following countries does
NOT have a Civil Service Commission
4. Lack of sophistication in the theory charged with the responsibility for
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 recruitment to the higher civil service ?
b. 1 and 4 a. Canada
c. 2, 3 and 4 b. U.S.A
d. 1, 2 and 3 c. Britain
95. Power to take decisions, communicating d. France
them to the subordinates for 110. The first Chairman of Administrative
implementation and thus influencing Reforms Commission was
behaviour pattern in an organisation is a. Shri K. Hanurilanthaiah
a. Responsibility b. Gulzari Lal Nanda
b. Hierarchy c. Morarji Desai
c. Authority d. V. T. Krishnamachari
d. Unity of command 111. The political rights available to a civil
96. Mc Gregor's theory 'Y' emphasizes which servant in India do NOT prohibit him/her
of the following elements for an effective from
and successful organisation ? a. expressing a political view
1. Acceptance by management of b. contributing financially to a political
"hierarchy of human needs" concept party
and making room for its fulfillment in c. subscribing to a political movement
the work organisation. d. Voting at national and state elections
2. Enlargement of job 112. Consider the following Reports :
3. Decentralization of authority 1. Paul H. Appleby Report I.
4. Practice of MBO 2. A. D. Gorwale Report
a. 1 alone 3. Santhanam Committee's Report
b. 1 and 2 4. Administrative Reforms Commission's
c. 3 and 4 Report
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 The correct chronological sequence of
97. Which of the following are the functions these reports
of the leader under human relations a. 2, 1, 4, 3
theory? b. 2, 1, 3, 4
1. To facilitate co-operative goal c. 1, 2, 3, 4
attainment among followers d. 1, 2, 4, 3
2. To provide opportunities for their 113. The Fifth Pay Commission of the Central
personal growth and development Government had recommended
3. To set up and enforce performance a. retention of the existing system of
criteria to meet organisational goals classification of services/posts
4. To fulfill needs of the organisation b. modification of the classification into
a. 1 and 3 Class I, class II, Class III and Class IV
b. 1 and 2 c. giving the existing classification into
c. 2 and 4 Group A, B, C, D "a decent burial " as
d. 3 and 4 it served no practical purpose
98. Which of the following are the phases in d. introduction of the American system of
the decision making processes as position classification
conceptualized by Herbert A. Simon ? 114. Consider the following statements :
1. Intelligence A budget presented in terms of functions,
2. Design programmes and activities of the
3. Choice government is known as
4. Implementation 1. line items budgeting
a. l and 4 2. programme budgeting
b. 1, 2 and 3 3. performance budgeting
c. 2, 3 and 4 Of these statements
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 a. 1 alone is correct
99. Match List I with List II and select the b. 1 and 2 are correct
correct answer : c. 2 and 3 are correct
List I d. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
A. Immaturity-Maturity Theory 115. Consider the following statements :
B. Motivation-Hygiene Theory In India, the Comptroller and Auditor
C. Human Group General has to
D. Theory X 1. audit government expenditure
List II 2. make financial policy
1. D. Mc Gregor 3. sanction grants to various departments
2. Chris Argyris 4. see that public expenditure are in
3. F. Herzberg conformity with the government rules
4. George C. Homans Of these statements
Code a. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
ABCD b. 1 and 3 are correct
a. 3 2 1 4 c. 2 and 3 are correct
b. 1 3 4 1 d. 1 and 4 are correct
c. 2 3 1 4 116. Which of the following is NOT true of
d. 3 2 4 1 Audit in India ?
100. Which of the following are the a. It is a Constitutional obligation
assumptions in Theory 'X'? b. It looks into the question of merits of
1. Human beings have an inherent dislike expenditure
of work c. It investigates into the impropriety,
2. Because of human dislike of work, wastefulness or extravagance of
people must be punished expenditure
3. Human beings are committed to d. It is governed by an executive order
objectives 117. When an advance grant is made by
4. Human beings avoid responsibility Parliament, pending the regular passage of
a. 1, 2 and 4 the budget it is called
b. 1, 2 and 3 a. vote on credit
c. 3 and 4 b. token grant
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 c. vote on account
101. Which one of the following is NOT a d. supplementary grant
feature of Barnard's theory of formal 118. What is the correct sequence of the stages
organization ? of the enactment of the budget in India ?
a. Common purpose a. Passing of finance bill, appropriation
b. Willingness to co-operate bill, voting of demand for grants,
c. General incentives general discussion
d. Communication b. General discussion, appropriation bill,
102. Valence Expectancy theory, an alternative voting of demands of grants, finance
theory of motivation, was proposed by bill
a. Chris Argyris c. General discussion, voting of demands
b. Victor H. Vroom for grants, appropriation bill, finance
c. A. H. Maslow bill
d. Mc Gregor d. Finance bill, voting of demands for
103. Consider the following statements grants, general discussion,
regarding Achievement - oriented appropriation bill
leadership: The leader 119. Consider the following statements :
1. does not allow participation by The Finance Ministry is given tremendous
subordinates control over the estimates of other
2. shows a genuine human concern for Ministries because
subordinates 1. usually a Cabinet Minister is in charge
3. sets challenging goals for subordinates of it
 4. asks for and uses suggestions from
subordinates
Of these statements
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c. 3 and 4 are correct
d. 2 and 4 are correct
104. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer:
List I
2. it is not a spending Ministry
A. Masterman Committee
3. it is responsible for the conduct of all
B. Assheton Committee
the financial transactions of the
C. Satish Chandra Committee
Government as a whole
D. Fulton Committee
4. no other ministry can spend without its
List II
sanction
1. Recruitment
Of these statements
2. Political Activities
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
3. Training
b. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
4. Professionalism
c. 1, 3 and 4 are correct
Code:
d. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
ABCD
120. 'Performance Budgeting' was introduced in
a. 2 3 4 1
India, on the recommendations of
b. 2 3 1 4
a. Gorwala Report
c. 3 2 1 4
b. Sanathanam Committee
d. 3 2 4 1
c. Administrative Reforms Commission
105. In India, rules governing conditions of
d. Paul H. Appleby Report
service should NOT be made in violation
of
a. Articles 14, 15, 16 and 311 of the
Constitution
b. Articles 14, 310 and 311 of the
Constitution
c. Articles 15, 16, 310 and 311 of the
Constitution
d. Articles 14, 15, 16, 310 and 311 of the
Constitution
 
1999
1. Which of the following are major sources 16. Which one of the following is NOT a
of revenue of urban local bodies ? feature of the Ombudsman institution ?
1. Property tax a. Being independent of the Executive
2. Octroi and Legislature
3. Sales tax b. The authority to criticise all
4. Tax on vehicles governmental agencies
a. 1 and 2 c. The practices being similar in all the
b. 2, 3 and 4 countries
c. 1, 3 and 4 d. Being recommendatory in nature,
d. 1, 2 and 4 17. Which of the following statements are
2. Match List I with List II and-select the correct ?
correct answer To exercise effective control over
List I administration, the citizen is required to
A. Concept of circular human behaviour
B. Managerial
C. Organizational Morale
D. Hierarchy of needs
List II
1. Blake and Mouton
2. D. McGregor
3. M. P Follet
4. A. Maslow
5. C. Barnard
Code:
ABCD
a. 1 3 2 4
b. 2 4 5 1
c. 3 1 5 4
d. 2 3 1 4
3. Which one of the following is NOT a role
of civil servants in developing societies ?
a. To actively advise the political
executives
b. To increasingly redress people
grievances
c. To participate in formulation of public
policies
d. To restrain elected representative from
usurping roles which are not theirs
4. Which of the following are the purposes of
position classification ?
1. To delineate authority.
2. To establish chain of command.
3. To provide leadership.
4. To ensure equal status to all.
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4
5. Which one of the following agencies is
responsible for both recruitment and
training of civil servants for the
administrative class ?
a. Woodrow Wilson School of Public and
International Affairs, U.S.A.
b. Ecole National d' Administration,
France
c. Civil Service College, U.K.
d. Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy
of Administration, India
6. The Chairman of the Public Accounts
Committee of the Parliament is appointed
by the
a. Speaker of Lok Sabha
b. Prime Minister of India
have
1. high level of education.
2. high degree of political consciousness.
3. the opportunity to participate.
4. some knowledge of the administrative
system.
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 2 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 2, 3 and 4
18. Which one of the following is NOT
applicable regarding the purpose of Cut
Motion ?
a. Raising questions of urgent public
importance
b. Drawing attention to any lapse on part
of administration
c. Drawing attention to specific problems
d. Concentration discussion on some
concrete points
19. Which one of the following is NOT a
measure of control exercised by the
Legislature over Administration ?
a. Asking questions
b. Committee system
c. Review of decision
d. No confidence motion
20. Which one of the writs is issued by an
appropriate judicial authority body to free
a person who has been illegally detained ?
a. Quo-warranto
b. Mandamus
c. Certiorari
d. Habeas Corpus
21. Which one of the following is true of
Appropriation Act?
a. It is the demand for grants approved by
the Parliament
b. It applies to approval of the budget of
the Parliament
c. Authorization by the Parliament for
Withdrawal of money from the
consolidated fund
d. Authorization by the Parliament for
withdrawal of money from the
contingency fund
22. In the U.S.A., the Independent Regulatory
Commission types of organisations as
widely used primarily to
a. escape the pervasive influence of party
politics in administration
b. eradicate corruption in administration
c. President of India c. provide better services to the people
d. Chairman of Rajya Sabha d. off-load the burden of the government
7. The principle of anonymity flows directly departments
from the doctrine of 23. Which of the following statements are
a. legal responsibility correct ?
b. collective responsibility Members of the British Civil Service are
c. ministerial responsibility 1. selected on the basis of general mental
d. professional responsibility ability.
8. Which of the following are implied in the 2. recruited at an early age.
anonymity of civil servants ? 3. non-interchangeable between public
1. They cannot ask a member to speak up and private sectors.
on their behalf in Parliament. 4. directly responsible to the Parliament.
2. They cannot express their views to the a. 1, 2 and 3
Press. b. 1, 2 and 4
3. Their decisions have to be c. 2, 3 and 4
countersigned by the Ministers d. 1, 3 and 4
concerned. 24. Which one of the following statements is
4. They keep away from Committees of NOT correct?
Enquiry. a. The President of France has the power
a. 1 and 2 to dissolve the Parliament
b. 2 and 3 b. Before dissolving the Parliament, the
c. 3 and 4 President of France is required to
d. 1 and 4 consult the Presidents of the two
9. In which of the following does Position chambers of Parliament and Prime
Classification facilitate personnel Minister
Administration ? c. While dissolving Parliament, President
1. Recruitment of France is required to follow the
2. Promotion advice of Prime Minister & Presidents
3. Training of two chambers
4. Separation d. The President of France cannot
a. 1, 2 and 3 dissolve the Parliament more than once
b. 1, 2 and 4 in twelve months
c. 1, 3 and 4 25. The administrative system of France is
d. 2, 3 and 4 called 'classic' because
10. Match List I with List II and select the a. France adopted different administrative
correct answer orientations
List I b. French bureaucracy conforms most
(Services) closely to the Weber Ian model
A. Indian Foreign Service c. Administrative change in France has
B. B. Indian Police Service been abrupt, drastic and frequent
C. C. Railway Service d. France has had remarkable
D. D. Income Tax Service administrative and bureaucratic
List II continuity
(Place of Training establishment) 26. Which one of the following is NOT correct
1. Vadodra (Baroda) regarding the structural features of Soviet
2. New Delhi bureaucracy ?
3. Hyderabad a. Hierarchical structure
4. Nagpur b. Division of labour
5. Mount Abu c. Lack of political commitment
Code: d. Use of regulations
ABCD 27. Lenin did NOT develop which one of the
a. 2 3 4 1 following as the basic principle of
 b. 2 3 1 4
c. 3 5 1 4
d. 3 5 4 1
11. Which one of the following DOES NOT
form a part of the budget ?
a. Review of public finance of the
previous year
b. Estimates of receipts and expenditure
of the current year
c. The actual receipts and expenditure of
the previous three years
d. Proposals for meeting the requirements
of the following requirements
12. The demands for Supplementary Grants
must be presented to and passed by the
House
a. before the end of the respective
financial year
b. before the budget of the following year
is passed
c. after the withdrawal of money from
Consolidated Fund
d. after the submission of report of
C.A.G.
13. While discussing a budget, the Legislature
CANNOT
a. give assent to the demand
b. reduce the demand
c. refuse the demand
d. increase the demand
14. The Speaker is the ex-officio Chairman of
the
a. Rules Committee
b. Committee on privileges
c. Committee on public undertakings
d. Committee on government assurances
15. Which one of the following is NOT related
to Adjournment Motion ?
a. The matter is framed in general terms
b. The matter is urgent
c. The matter is of general public interest
d. The matter does not raise a question of
privilege 
31. Which one of the following was the main
feature of Govt. of India Act 1919 ?
a. Dyarchy in Centre
b. Provincial Autonomy
c. Dyarchy in Provinces
d. Communal Representation
administration ?
a. Democratic centralism
b. Democratic decentralization
c. Objectivity and concreteness
d. Effectiveness
28. Which one of the following does NOT
represent a distinctive feature of the
American Presidential Cabinet ?
a. Political homogeneity
b. Collective responsibility
c. Primacy of the President
d. Lack of agenda
29. Which one of the following is NOT true of
Independent Regulatory Commissions of
America?
a. Headless institutions
b. Fourth organ of the government
c. Islands of autonomy
d. Regulatory institutions
30. Which one of the following is NOT true of
British administration ?
a. It is a product of evolution
b. It is run by a politically committed
bureaucracy
c. It is unitary in character
d. It is based on the common law of the
land
46. The initial idea of recruitment on merit
principle can be traced to the
a. Lee Commission
b. Macaulay Committee
c. Islington Commission
d. Maxwell Committee
47. Which of the following are the functions
32. The `Tenure System' in the Central
Services was started by
a. Lord Macaulay
b. Lord Curzon
c. Lord Ripon
d. Sardar Patel
33. Administrative Tribunals in India
CANNOT undermine the rule of law
because they
a. dispense quick and cheap justice
b. are manned by senior bureaucrats
c. devise their own flexible procedures
d. are regulated by Acts of Parliament
34. The quotation, "The new Indian
Constitution establishes, indeed, a system
of government which is at the most
quasifederal almost revolutionary in
character, a unitary State with subsidiary
federal features, rather than the federal
state with unitary features" is attributed to
a. I. Jennings
b. D.D. Basu
c. K.C. Wheare
d. H. J. Laski
35. The creation of the office of the Lok Pal
was first recommended by the
a. National Police Commission
b. States Reorganization Commission
c. Administrative Reforms Commission
d. Inter-State Council
36. Which one of the following is correct in
terms of the Constitution of India ?
a. The Prime Minister decides the
allocation of portfolios among the
ministers
b. When the Prime Minister decides
resigns, the Council of Ministers gets
dissolved
c. All the principal policy announcements
of the government are made by the
Prime Minister
d. It shall be the duty of Prime Minister
to communicate to the President all
decisions of the Council of Ministers
relating to the administration of the
affairs of the union
37. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer
List I
A. Central Secretariat
B. Cabinet Secretariat
C. Planning Commission
of the Union Public Service Commission ?
1. To conduct examinations for
recruitment to the services of the
Union.
2. To advise on matters referred to them
by the President or the Governor.
3. To advise on all disciplinary matters
affecting a government servant.
4. To advise on the principles to be
followed in respect of promotions and
transfers.
a. 1 and 2
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 2, 3 and 4
48. The L.B.S. National Academy of
Administration provides
a. in-service and post-selection training
to a select group of Government
officers
b. structured post-selection training to a
select group of Govt. officers
c. structured training to all Govt. officers
d. pre-entry training to all Govt. officers
49. When the problem of corruption in public
services assumed serious dimensions, the
Government of India appointed a high
power committee under the chairmanship
of
1. Ananthaswamy Ayyangar
2. P V Subbaiah
3. K. Santhanam
4. K. Hanumanthya
50. Which of the following statements are
correct ?
In democracy, a civil servant must be
committed to the
1. goal of the Constitution
2. common good
3. ruling party's ideology
4. execution of public policy
a. 1, 3 and 4
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 4
51. Which of the following statements are
correct ?
In a Parliamentary democracy,
bureaucracy can become enormously
powerful because of
1. limitations of Parliamentary controls.
2. principle of ministerial responsibility.
D. Finance Commission 3. judicial activism.
List II 4. lack of popular initiative.
1. Principles governing grants-in-aid a. 1, 2 and 3
2. Formulation of policies b. 1, 3 and 4
3. Coordination of activities of various c. 1, 2 and 4
ministries d. 2, 3 and 4
4. Allocation of resources 52. Consider the following statements
Code: The Governor of the State in India has the
ABCD power to appoint
a. 3 2 1 4 1. Judges of the High Court
b. 2 3 1 4 2. Members of the State Public Service
c. 2 3 4 1 Commission
d. 3 2 4 1 3. Members of the State Finance
38. Which of the following functions are NOT Commission
performed by the Central Secretariat? 4. the Accountant General ,
1. Direction, supervision and control. Which of the statements are correct ?
2. Perspective planning. a. 1 and 2
3. Overseeing governmental decisions. b. 2 and 3
4. Secretarial assistance to the c. 1, 3 and 4
Parliament. d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
a. 1 and 2 53. Consider the following statements
b. 1 and 3 Chief Secretary of a State Government is
c. 2, 3 and 4 1. Principal adviser to the Chief Minister.
d. 3 and 4 2. Secretary to the Cabinet.
39. Which of the following are the difficulties 3. Secretary to the Government.
in lateral communication ? 4. Head of Civil service.
1. Lack of cooperative relationship Which of these statements are correct ?
among several officials. a. 1, 2 and 3
2. Organisation of specialist services in b. 1, 3 and 4
the establishment. c. 1, 2 and 4
3. Rivalry among organisation units. d. 2, 3 and 4
4. Superior's reluctance to listen to the 54. In a state directorate, the main
subordinates. responsibility of the directorate is related
5. Physical separation of different units. to
Select the correct answer using the codes a. policy making
given below b. policy implementation
a. 1, 3 and 4 c. policy evaluation
b. 1, 2, 4 and 5 d. policy analysis
c. 1, 2, 3 and 5 55. In matters relating to revenue
d. 2, 3, 4 and 5 administration, the District Collector
40. When the delegation goes by a climate of reports to the
understanding between the superior and a. Chief Secretary
the subordinate, it is known as b. Secretary (Finance Department)
a. informal delegation c. Divisional Commissioner
b. specific delegation d. Secretary (Revenue Department)
c. formal delegation 56. The "Lakhina (Ahmednagar) Experiment"
d. general delegation is associated with
41. The NDC was set up as per a. District Administration
a. the Government of India Act, 1935 b. Panchayati Raj Administration
b. the recommendations of the Finance c. Rural Development Administration
Commission d. Tribal Development Administration
c. the provisions of the Indian 57. Match List I with List II and select the
Constitution correct answer
d. the recommendations of the Planning List I
Commission A. 73rd Constitutional Amendment
42. Which of the following statements B. 74th Constitutional Amendment
regarding the Comptroller and Auditor C. Balwantrai Mehta Committee
General of India is/are true ? The Report D. L.M. Singhvi Committee
of Comptroller and Auditor General of List II
India 1. Democratic Decentralization
1. can be considered by the joint session 2. State Finance Commission
of both Houses of Parliament. 3. Municipal Councils
2. includes examination of income and 4. Constitutional status to Panchayati Raj
expenditure of all public sector Code:
undertakings. ABCD
3. is placed before the Lok Sabha with a. 2 3 4 1
the comments of the Estimates b. 2 3 1 4
Committee. c. 3 2 1 4
4. constitutes the basis for scrutiny by the d. 3 2 4 1
Public Accounts Committee of the 58. The Constitution (74th Amendment) Act,
Parliament. ' 1992 provides for which of the following ?
a. 1 and 2 1. Municipal Committees
b. 1 and 3 2. Ward Committees
c. 2 and 4 3. Committee for District Planning
d. 4 alone 4. Committee for Metropolitan Planning
43. Which of the following statements about Select the correct answer using the codes
Public Enterprises are true ? given below
1. Public corporation form provides for a. 1 and 3
greater autonomy in management. b. 2 and 4
2. Departmental undertaking is subject to c. 1, 2 and 3
extensive legislative and executive d. 2, 3 and 4
control. 59. Which of the following statements are
3. Government company gives greater correct ?
freedom to the creator for direction and Mayor-in-Council form of urban local
control. governance
4. State Roadways Transport 1. ensures executive-deliberative
Corporations are created under State dichotomy
Acts. 2. upholds the principle of collective
a. 1, 2 and 4 responsibility
b. 1, 3 and 4 3. provides a plural political executive
c. 1, 2 and 3 4. dispenses with the party system
d. 2, 3 and 4 a. 1 and 2
44. Match List I with List II and select the b. 2 and 3
correct answer c. 3 and 4
List I d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
(Name of Organisation) 60. Which of the following statements are
A. Indian Railways correct ?
B. Central Warehousing Corporation Village Panchayats are responsible for
C. State Trading Corporation 1. agricultural production
D. Central Water and Power Commission 2. rural industrial development
List II 3. maternity and child welfare
(Form of organisation) 4. higher vocational education
1. Public Corporation a. 1, 2 and 4
2. Government company b. 1 and 3
 3. Board
Code:
ABCD
a. 1 3 2 -
b. 1 3 - 2
c. 3 1 - 2
d. 3 1 2 -
45. The role of the Finance Commission in
Central State fiscal relations has been
undermined by the
a. State Governments
b. Zonal Councils
c. Planning Commission
d. Central government 
61. Assertion (A) : In welfare states, Public
Administration touches almost all aspects
of a citizen's life.
Reason (R) : The scope and importance of
Public Administration increases with
increasing societal complexity,
specialisation and differentiation.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
62. Assertion (A) : The study of public
administration lacks cross-cultural
concepts and principles for being able to
be recognized as a science.
Reason (R) : Administrative culture cannot
transcend national frontiers and national
experiences.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
63. Assertion (A) : A more rational and
integrated approach to managerial
problems is needed for increasing
productivity.
Reason (R) : It was mainly to find ways to
raise industrial output that Taylor came up
with his ideas on `Scientific Management".
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 2, 3 and 4
76. Assertion (A) : The cornerstone of a public
personnel system is built upon a sound
recruitment policy.
Reason (R) : Open competitive
examinations are answer to twin demands
of democracy and good administration.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
77. Assertion (A) : Government provides for
various types of training for its employees.
Reason (R) : Training enhances the
efficiency of employees by improving
their knowledge and skills.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
78. Assertion (A) : Lok Ayuktas have been
appointed in all the States of India.
Reason (R) : An independent institution is
required to redress grievances of people
against the actions of civil servants.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
79. Assertion (A) : The salary and conditions
of service of the Comptroller and Auditor
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
64. Assertion (A) : The Human Relations
theory focuses on management as a web of
interpersonal relationships.
Reason (R) : Management and
administration involve group effort and
collective endeavors of people.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
65. Assertion (A) : The Administrative
Science should study facts about human
behaviour without getting involved in the
question of values.
Reason (R) : Before science can develop
principles, it must possess concepts.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
66. Assertion (A) : Behavioural Approach has
limited relevance in dealing with all types
of problems in administration.
Reason (R) : The complexity and variety
of human nature, motivation and
behaviour preclude attainment of
precision.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
67. Assertion (A) : According to the systems
approach, an organisation is a social
system and has to be studied in its totality.
Reason (R) : A system is a comprehensive
and complex whole of a set of
interconnected and interdependent parts.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
General of India cannot be varied to
his/her disadvantage after he/she is
appointed.
Reason (R) : The office of the Comptroller
and Auditor General of India is a
Constitutional office.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
80. Assertion (A) : Estimates of income and
expenditure should be on cash basis.
Reason (R) : All money that Government
deals with during the current financial year
should be included in estimates.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
81. Assertion (A) : The American Civil
Service is more specialised than British
Civil Service.
Reason (R) : In the selection of civil
servants, the Britishers prefer career
staffing while Americans prefer
programme staffing.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
82. Assertion (A) : Efficiency rating is
undertaken regularly in personnel
management. in the U.S.A.
Reason (R) : In the U.S.A., there is greater
stress on professionalization.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
83. Assertion (A) : The Secretariat maybe said
to be the brain-centre of the administrative
body, directing and overseeing all
administrative activity.
Reason (R) : The Secretariat provides the
68. Assertion (A) : Supervision involves
overseeing, inspecting and directing the
activities of the subordinates so that the
goals of the organisation are accomplished
properly.
Reason (R) : Individuals have a tendency
to pay greater attention to the fulfillment
of their personal goals.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
69. Assertion (A) : Staff-line relations
frequently produce tensions and conflicts.
Reason (R) : The line tends to be
conservative about changes, yet the
mission of staff is precisely that of
investigating the need for change.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
70. Assertion (A) : Without delegating
authority, where necessary, it would be
impossible for the head to carry on the
entire tasks of the organization himself.
Reason (R) : The extent of delegation of
authority, is not related to the size and
diversity of work in an organization.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
71. Assertion (A) : Successful organisation
requires not only command and executive
direction but also sound leadership.
Reason (R) : Leadership tends to be
expressed in terms of power to command
or ability to dominate.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
72. Assertion (A) : Downward as well as
Minister with materials and expert advice
for the formulation of policies and
watches over their application once they
have been formulated.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
84. Assertion (A) : The strength of the State
Council of Ministers has not been
specified in the Constitution of India.
Reason (R) : A number of pressures
operate in the determination of the strength
of tire Ministry.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
85. Assertion (A) : In a democracy, the
functioning of bureaucracy is conditioned
by the operation of party system.
Reason (R) : Where the party system is
unable to produce a stable government,
bureaucracy acquires a special position.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
86. Assertion (A) : The Constitution of India
now provides a mechanism for regular
flow of funds to Panchayati Raj
institutions.
Reason (R) : The Panchayati Raj
institutions have been greatly handicapped
in the performance of their assigned duties
by paucity of funds.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
87. The term "Public" in Public
Administration stands for
a. the citizens in a democracy
b. the formally constituted government
 upward messages received by middle level
officials are often distorted before they are
passed on.
Reason (R) : Whenever such an official
receives a message which he considers
incoherent, illogical or incomplete, he tries
c. any administration having its impact
to "make sense" out of it.
on everybody
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
d. the defining characteristic of a kind of
correct explanation of A
administration
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the
88. The scope of conventional public
correct explanation of A
administration has been under attack from
c. A is true but R is false
Public Choice Theorists, as they
d. A is false but R is true
a. reject the idea of welfare state and
73. Assertion (A) : People are induced to do
services
their work in I the best possible manner if
b. propose restrictions on bureaucratic
they are properly motivated.
functioning
Reason (R) : Fear of punishment acts as a
c. consider the market as a more efficient
motivator but is of a negative kind.
provider of goods and services
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
d. view the politician as being in league
correct explanation of A
with the bureaucrat
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the
89. Which of the following reasons prompted
correct explanation of A
Woodrow Wilson to advocate a "science
c. A is true but R is false
of administration'?
d. A is false but R is true
1. The desire to straighten the paths of
74. Assertion (A) : Assumptions about the
government.
nature of men enable executives to
2. The idea of making government
determine motivational practices.
business less un-businesslike.
Reason (R) : Adoption of theory 'Y'
3. The intention to strengthen and purify
practices kills the initiative of employees.
government organisation.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
4. The need to raise a band of dutiful civil
correct explanation of A
servants.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the
a. 1 and 4
correct explanation of A
b. 2 and 3
c. A is true but R is false
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. A is false but R is true
d. 2, 3 and 4
75. Assertion (A) : Position classification in
90. The New Public Administration is a quest
Civil Services of developing countries is a
for
legacy of the colonial past.
a. ethical values and scientific analysis
Reason (R) : Rank classification in Civil
b. scientific, analysis and relevance
Services can work only in a developed
c. relevance and ethical values
technological society.
d. excellence
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true 
 
91. Which of the following did Herbert Simon 106. The systems approach to administrative
emphasize ? analysis has enriched our understanding of
1. Valule-fact dichotomy administrative processes by focusing
2. Means-ends relationship
3. Composite decision-making
4. Illusion of final authority
a. 1 and 2
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1, 3 and 4
92. The significance of Public Administration
as a discipline lies in
a. improving government functioning
b. developing scientific knowledge about
public administration
c. organising training programmes for the
civil servants
d. creating informal and intelligent
citizenship
93. In Public Administration, which of the
following type of 'efficiency' have been
advocated by Peter Self ?
1. Administrative efficiency
2. Policy efficiency
3. Service efficiency
4. Profit making efficiency
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 2 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 2, 3 and 4
94. Today, public-private distinction needs to
be understood in terms of
a. contradictory models of governance
b. application of the unique nature of
public administration
c. complementary of the two sectors in
respect of social management
d. the distinctive profit-driven character
of private management
95. Consider the following statements : Under
the impact of neo-classical economic
theory, "privatization" is now being
suggested as new public philosophy which
is oriented towards
1. down-sizing government.
2. contracting out to private agencies.
3. dis-investment in public enterprises.
4. according supremacy to the private
sector.
Which of these statements are correct ?
a. 1 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 2, 3 and 4
96. Which of the following were part of
mainly on
a. interpersonal relations in an
organisation and human behaviour
b. management's crucial role in efficient
coordination
c. open nature of organisation and its
relationship with the environment
d. systematic analysis of organisational
structure and functioning
107. Which of the following statements are
INCORRECT ?
1. Organisations are structured in a
hierarchical manner.
2. In a hierarchy all positions are equal.
3. A hierarchical structure is always of
the pyramid shape.
4. When the organisation grows bottom
shrinks.
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 4
d. 3 and 4
108. Unity of command does NOT mean
a. All the units of an organisation should
be integrated under the authority of
one head
b. The number of subordinates who can
be effectively supervised by an officer
c. There should be one person and not a
body of persons at the apex of an
organisation,
d. An individual employer should not be
subject to the orders of more than
immediate supervisors
109. The characteristic feature of the post-war
period (19481970) in the evolution of the
study of Public Administration has been
described as an era, of
a. re-discovery of principles
b. return to mother science
c. crisis of identity
d. de-emphasis of administration
110. Authority should be commensurate with
a. degree of coordination
b. position in the hierarchy
c. degree of responsibility
d. degree of supervision
111. Which one of the following if NOT
indicative of coordination ?
a. Collective action of one person with
others '
b. Cooperation and team-work among the
recommendations of Minnibrook employees
Conference on New Public Administration c. Inter-relating various parts of the work
(1968)? d. Integration of several parts into an
1. Normative and empirical approaches orderly whole
should be strengthened. 112. In which of the following situations does
2. Public Administration should have the need for coordination arise ?
independent roots. 1. Overlap of efforts
3. Equity' should be the concern of the 2. Duplication of efforts
administrators. 3. Neglect of personal interests
4. American Public Administration 4. Conflicts in interests
should come out of its crisis. a. 1, 2 and 3
a. 1 and 2 b. 1, 2 and 4
b. 1 and 3 c. 2, 3 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4 d. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 113. Match List I with List II and select the
97. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
correct answer List I
List I A. Line agency
(Stages of evolution Public B. Staff agency
Administration) C. Auxiliary agency
A. Political administration separation D. Development agency
B. Human relations List II
C. Science of Management 1. Authority of knowledge
D. Policy Science 2. Authority of action
List II 3. Housekeeping
(Writers associated with the stages of 4. Planning and regulation
evolution) Code:
1. Woodrow Wilson ABCD
2. Elton Mayo a. 1 2 3 4
3. Harold Lasswell b. 2 1 3 4
4. W E Willoughby c. 2 1 4 3
Code: d. 1 2 4 3
ABCD 114. Which of the following statements about
a. 1 2 3 4 decisions making are true ?
b. 2 1 4 3 1. It is a plural activity.
c. 2 1 3 4 2. It is largely based on total rationality.
d. 1 2 4 3 3. Personal values influence its process.
98. Who among the following writers have 4. It allows greater role to the
NOT contributed to the doctrine of administrative person.
Politics-administration dichotomy ? a. 1 and 2
1. Max Weber b. 2 and 3
2. Frank Goodnow c. 1, 3 and 4
3. Fred Riggs d. 2, 3 and 4
a. 1, 2 and 3 115. Who among the following said that
b. 2 and 3 leadership and authority are plural because
c. 1 and 2 of involvement of many people ?
d. 1 and 3 a. Ordway Tead
99. Match List I with List II and select the b. Chester Bernard
correct answer c. Mary Parker Follett
List I d. M. E. Dimock
A. Administrative Behaviours 116. Mc Gregor's Theory Y provides for which
B. Functions of the Executive of the following?
C. Public Administration in a Time of 1. Shared responsibility.
Turbulence 2. Imposed direction and control.
D. Papers on Science of Public 3. Self direction and self control.
Administration a. 2 alone
List II b. 1 and 2
1. Gulick and Urwick c. 3 alone
2. Dwight Waldo d. l and 3
3. Herbert Simon 117. Which one of the following is NOT one of
4. Chester Barnard the types of leadership according to the
Code: concept of Max Weber ?
ABCD a. Charismatic
a. 3 4 2 1 b. Traditional
b. 4 3 2 1 c. Bureaucratic
c. 3 4 1 2 d. Rational-Legal
d. 4 3 1 2 118. Match List I with List II and select the
100. Taylor's concept of mental revolutions correct answer
stands for List I (Leadership)
a. harmony and cooperation A. Personal qualities which a leader has
b. cooperation, harmony and restricted B. Situation in which a leader works
output C. Participation of subordinates in goal
c. restricted output and cooperation setting
d. economy, cooperation and restricted D. Role of leader, situation, followers and
output environment Theory
101. Which one of the following pairs is NOT List II (Theory)
correctly matched ? 1. Trait Theory
a. Guardian bureaucracy Class base 2. Systems Theory
b. Caste bureaucracy Aristocratic type 3. Theory 'Y'
c. Patronage bureaucracy Spoils system 4. Situational
d. Merit bureaucracy Career open to Code
talent ABCD
102. Match List I with List II and select the a. 1 2 3 4
correct answer b. 1 3 4 2
List I c. 3 4 1 2
A. Reconstruction of administrative d. 1 4 3 2
realities through an in depth analysis 119. Herbert Simon's model of decision making
of an event is known as
B. Study of Public Administration as is a. disjointed incrementalism
should be b. behaviour alternative
C. Study of principles underlying c. mixed scanning
administrative activities d. policy science
D. Analysis of informal networks and 120. Who among the following identified
group relationships in the field channels of communication with channels
List II of authority ?
1. Normative Approach a. Herbert Simon
2. Empirical Approach b. Chester Bernard
3. Philosophical Approach c. J. D. Millet
4. Case Method Approach d. Ordway Tead
Code:
ABCD
a. 4 1 3 2
b. 3 1 4 2
c. 4 2 3 1
 d. 3 2 4 1
103. Which of the following are the feature's of
Classical Theory ?
1. Specialisation
2. Efficiency
3. Hierarchy
4. Leadership
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 2 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 2, 3 and 4
104. Which of the following statements
regarding Behavioural approach are
correct ?
1. It is more deductive than inductive.
2. It is less macro and more micro.
3. It is inter-disciplinary in nature.
4. It is more descriptive and less
empirical.
a. 1 and 2
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 3 and 4
105. Which one of the following is attributed to
Barnard ?
a. Science of muddling through
b. Bounded rationality
c. Zone of indifference
d. Management by integration 
 
IAS Prelims Public Administration 2000
1. Which one of the following pairs of 16. Match List I with List II and select the
authors held the view that 'A theory of correct answer:
public administration means in our time a List I
theory of politics also'? (Critics of Weber)
a. John Gaus and Dwight Waldo A. Veblen
b. Dwight Waldo and L. D. White B. Michels
c. Dwight Waldo and Herbert A. Simon C. Mao
d. Herbert A. Simon and L. D. White D. Dewey
2. Match List I with List II and select the List II
correct answer: (Points of Criticism)
List I 1. Iron law of oligarchy
A. Managerial Choice 2. Occupational psychosis
B. Organisation and Innovation 3. Trained incapacity
C. New Patterns of Management 4. Better Read than Expert
D. The Bureaucratic Phenomenon Code:
List II ABCD
1. Chris Argyris a. 3 1 4 2
2. Rensis Likert b. 1 3 4 2
3. Michel Crozier c. 1 3 2 4
4. Frederick Herzberg d. 3 1 2 4
Code: 17. Match List I with List II and select the
ABCD correct answer:
a. 1 4 3 2 List I
b. 1 4 2 3 A. Hawthorne Experiments
c. 4 1 2 3 B. Mental Revolution
d. 4 1 3 2 C. Principles of Organisation
3. Consider the following statements : D. Ecological Approach .
Public administrationists used both 'carrot' List II
and 'stick' to remain within Political 1. John Gaus
Science and underline 2. Henry Fayol
1. public policy-making process 3. Roethlisberger
2. prospect of developing it as pure 4. F. Winslow Taylor
science Code:
3. cultivation of engineering mentality ABCD
4. epistemological benefits of both a. 4 3 1 2
Political Science and Public b. 4 3 2 1
Administration c. 3 4 1 2
Which of these statements are correct ? d. 3 4 2 1
a. 1 and 4 18. Consider the following experiments :
b. 2 and 3 1. Bank Wiring Observation Room
c. 2 and 4 2. Relay Assembly Test Room
d. 1, 3 and 4 3. Mica Splitting Test Room
4. The policy view of Public Administration 4. Productivity Measuring Test Room
is Which of, these experiments did Mayo's
a. a narrow view of the scope of Public research include ?
Administration a. 1 and 4
b. the end of Wilsonian dichotomy b. 2 and 3
c. the view of Henry Fayol c. 1, 2 and 3
d. the beginning of New Public d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Administration 19. According to Herbert A. Simon'
5. The view that there ought to be greater Satisficing' refers to satisfaction, that is
emphasis on normative concerns in Public a. subjective
Administration is held by b. good enough
a. Fred Riggs c. client-oriented
b. H. A. Simon d. objective
c. Frank Marini 20. Match List I with List II and select the
d. Ferrel Heady correct answer:
6. Match List I with List II and select the List I
correct answer: A. Obtaining inputs from and sending
List I outputs to the environment
(Book) B. Leading the changes in the
A. The Administrative State environment
B. The Golden Book of Administration C. Modifying the course of action to
C. Organisation and Management suit the requirements of the situations
D. Bureaucracy D. Moving by the inner force
List II List II
(Author) 1. Cybernetic System
1. Max Weber 2. Adaptation
2. Albrow Mortin 3. Synergic System
3. Dwight Waldo 4. Open System
4. Seckler Hudson Code:
5. Lyndall F. Urwick ABCD
Code: a. 3 2 4 1
ABCD b. 3 2 1 4
a. 3 5 4 2 c. 2 3 1 4
b. 3 5 1 4 d. 2 3 4 1
c. 1 3 4 2 21. Consider the following features :
d. 1 3 5 4 1. Facilitates delegation of authority
7. Which of the following statements 2. Provides for a channel of
regarding the two conferences- communication
Minnowbrook I (1968) and Minnowbrook 3. Makes consensus possible
II(1988), is correct ? Which of these features are true of
a. The former was more pragmatic and hierarchy ?
less radical in thought a. 1 and 2
b. The former was concerned with social b. 2 and 3
equity and later was not c. 1 and 3
c. Both the conferences reaffirmed d. 1, 2 and 3
democratic values with special focus 22. 'Unity of Command' does not
PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION a. mean that one subordinate will receive
on ethics, accountability and only one order
administrative leadership b. mean that a subordinate will have only
d. Both the conferences highlighted the one superior
debate between normative and c. mean that all units are put under one
behaviouralist perspectives with head
emphasis on epistemological questions d. result into a shrinking apex of an
8. Under proper conditions, the average organisation
human being teams not only to accept but 23. Match List I with List II and select the
to seek responsibility. This view has been correct answer:
eked by List I
a. Chris Argyris A. The numbers and range of habitual
b. Frederick Herzberg contacts between superior and
c. Abraham Maslow subordinate
d. Douglas McGregor B. Emancipation of social and individual
9. Consider the following statements: life from the influence of organised
1. The evolution of Public Administration religion
as an academic discipline was C. In all organisations power tends to fall
accelerated by socio-psychological in the hands of small number of
insights in the thirties. leaders, regardless of constitution
2. Chester Barnard was a great classical D. Assigning duties to subordinates
thinker. List II
3. Behaviouralism was a natural 1. Delegation
consequence of socio-psychological 2. Span of Control
inquests. 3. Disclericalisation
4. New Public Administration stresses on 4. Iron Law of Oligarchy
scientific method of study. Code:
Which of these statements are correct ? ABCD
a. 1, 2 and 3 a. 2 3 1 4
b. 2, 3 and 4 b. 3 2 4 1
c. 1 and 3 c. 3 2 1 4
d. 2 and 4 d. 2 3 4 1
10. Consider the following developments : 24. The 'Acceptance' concept of authority was
1. End of politics-Public Administration given by
dichotomy a. Lyndal Urwick
2. Questioning of subjectivity in b. L. D. White
administrative decision making c. Henry Fayol
3. Critique of administrative State d. Chester Barnard
4. Rawl's contribution to justice 25. The Integration of the several parts into an
Which of these developments led to orderly whole to achieve the performance
emphasis on ethics in Public of the undertaking implies
Administration ? a. division of work
a. 1, 2 and 3 b. coordination
b. 2, 3 and 4 c. span of control
c. 1, 3 and 4 d. hierarchy
d. 2 and 4 26. Consider the following statements :
11. Consider the following : 1. Coordination and cooperation are
1. Functional foremanship synonyms.
2. Unity of command 2. Coordination is of the work of
3. Centralisation subordinates by a superior officer.
4. Time and motion study 3. Cooperation is inter-personal
Which of these are associated with relationship between two or more
Scientific Management Movement ? similar individuals or units
a. 1, 2 and 3 4. Coordination and cooperation are not
b. 2, 3 and 4 the same thing
c. 1 and 3 Which of these statements are correct ?
d. 1 and 4 a. 1 and 2
12. The principles of Scientific management b. 2 and 4
developed by F W. Taylor DID NOT c. 1 and 3
include ? d. 2, 3 and 4
a. scientific selection and training 27. Consider the following situations :
b. division of responsibility 1. Staff and line functions are separated
c. esprit de corps 2. Authority is delegated
d. mental revolution 3. Units are interdependent
13. Match List I with List II and select the 4. Work is divided among specialists
correct answer: Under which of these situations does
List I coordination become necessary ?
A. Max Weber a. 1 and 2
B. Laski b. 2 and 3
C. F. Riggs c. 3 and 4
D. S. N. Eisenstadt d. 1 and 4
List II 28. Consider the following factors :
1. In developing countries bureaucracy 1. Organisational policies, rules and
also performs political roles regulations
2. Bureaucracy faces similar development 2. Lower level of ability of subordinates
conflicts as exist in the society 3. Hierarchical system of the organisation
3. Bureaucracy is the most rational form 4. Personality of the delegator
of organisation Which of these factors act as obstacles in
4. Bureaucracy is a threat to democratic delegation ?
government a. 1 and 2
Code: b. 2 and 3
ABCD c. 2 and 4
a. 4 3 2 1 d. 3 and 4
b. 3 4 1 2 29. Match List I with List II and select the
c. 4 3 1 2 correct answer:
d. 3 4 2 1 List I
14. Consider the following factors : A. Estimates Committee
1. The mode of operation B. Public Accounts Committee
 C. Committee on Subordinate Legislation
D. Committee on Public Undertakings
List II
2. Large-scale organisation
1. Examination of Appropriated Accounts
3. A stable state and well-organised
2. Suggestion of Economies in
administration
Expenditure
4. Growth of technology
3. Examination of rules made by the
Which of these factors did Max Weber
executive departments under Acts
identify as those which contributed to the
passed by the Legislature
growth and spread of bureaucracy in
4. Review of working of Public Sector
modem times?
Undertakings
a. 1, 2 and 4
Code
b. 2, 3 and 4
ABCD
c. 1, 2 and 3
a. 1 2 3 4
d. 1, 3 and 4
b. 2 1 3 4
15. The statement, 'Bureaucracy is
c. 3 4 1 2
characterised by a passion for routine in
d. 4 1 2 3
administration, the sacrifice of flexibility
30. That high performing managers are
to rule delay in the making of decisions
humane to their subordinates and low
and refusal to embark upon experiments'
performing managers are tough with their
was made by
subordinates in order to achieve better
a. Lord Hewart
results, came out of the experiments
b. R. K. Merton
conducted by
c. Harold Laski
a. Elton Mayo
d. Herbert Simon 
b. J. M. Pfiffner
c. Rensis Likert
d. Chris Argyris
 
 31. Which one of the following statements 46. Consider the following statements:
about the meaning of supervision is NOT The system of Performance Appraisal of
correct ? employees
a. It includes direction, control and 1. provides systematic judgement for
inspection purposes of promotion, salary
b. It includes only inspection increases, transfers, demotions, etc.
c. It is a process through which the 2. acts as a means of informing a
subordinates are helped about their subordinate as to how he is doing and
requirements by their superiors where he needs to improve.
d. It stands for direction of the work of 3. helps in determining the training needs
others with authority of individual employees
32. Match List I with List II and select the 4. facilitates a healthy dialogue between
correct answer: the employer and employees
List I Which of these statements are correct ?
A. Concerned with object of the a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
organisation b. 1 and 4
B. Prevent the executive from taking c. 1, 2 and 3
hasty and wrong decisions d. 2, 3 and 4
C. Experts in their area of work 47. Legislative control over administration is a
D. Responsible for the house-keeping matter of
List II a. historical accident
1. Auxiliary agencies b. convention
2. Technical staff agencies c. procedural compliance
3. Line agencies d. democratic faith
4. Staff agencies and purchasing 48. Consider the following statements
Code regarding Public Accounts Committee
ABCD 1. It examines the Audit Report of the
a. 4 3 2 1 CAG
b. 3 4 1 2 2. The suggestions made by the
c. 3 4 2 1 Committee are necessarily accepted by
d. 4 3 1 2 the Government
33. Consider the following statements 3. It ensures the observance of the canons
regarding Line and Staff agencies of financial propriety in all transactions
1. Line agencies are an 'end' in 4. The Committee functions in a nonpartisan
themselves whereas Staff agencies are manner
'means' to an end Which of these statements are correct ?
2. Line agencies issue 'orders' down the a. 1, 3 and 4
line whereas Staff agencies issue b. 2, 3 and 4
orders within their agencies c. 1 and 2
3. Line and Staff agencies are d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
accountable to the people 49. Which one of the following events is NOT
4. Line agencies are executive agencies considered to be an indication of loss of
whereas Staff agencies are advisory or confidence of the lower house of the
consultative agencies Parliament ?
Which of these statements bring out the a. Adjournment motion is carried
difference between Line and Staff b. Vote of thanks on the President's
agencies? address is not carried
a. 1, 3 and 4 c. Cut on Money Bill is passed
b. 1 and 4 d. Censure motion is passed
c. 1, 2 and 4 50. Which one of the following is NOT a
d. 2, 3 and 4 limitation of Judicial Control ?
34. Match List I with List II and select the a. Administrative actions are of highly
correct answer: technical nature
List I b. Judicial remedy is quite expensive
A. Scope for bias in decision making c. Judicial process is time consuming
B. Helps to narrow down the d. Judiciary can by itself take cognizance
alternatives of the excess of the officials
C. Slow changes due to consensusapproach 51. At present, institutions for the redressal of
in decision making citizen's grievances in India include
D. Socio-economic environment of an a. Supreme Court and the Lokpal
organisation b. Lokpal and the Lokayukta .
List II c. Lokayukta and the Supreme Court
1. 'Fact and Value' d. Administrative Tribunals and the
2. Incrementalism Lokpal
3. Non-programmed 52. Consider the following characteristic
4. MIS features
Code: 1. Being run by a government department
ABCD with a Minister at the top
a. 3 4 1 2 2. Being a corporate body created by a
b. 3 4 2 1 special statute of Parliament
c. 4 3 2 1 3. Being financed by annual
d. 4 3 1 2 appropriations from the Treasury
35. Which one of the following is a strategic 4. Enjoying financial autonomy and
decision ? being expected to be self-supporting
Decision taken by Which of these are the characteristic
a. a bureaucrat on an application for a
licence
b. the Board of Directors on the
introduction of new rules for changing
the functioning of the production unit
c. the Managing Director on opening a
new department in the organisation
d. the Managing Director on the transfer
of an officer from the workshop to the
head office
36. The odd one out of the following is
a. Country club leadership
b. Middle road leadership
c. Laissez faire leadership
d. Team leadership
37. Mr. X, an employee in an organisation,
finds a notice about an increase in dearness
allowance pasted on the notice board and
passes on the information to everyone he
meets. The exact model of communication
applied in this instance is
a. cluster chain
b. probability chain
c. single-strand grapevine
d. gossip grapevine
38. Which one of the following is NOT an
element of communication ?
a. Consistency
b. Uniformity
c. Rigidity
d. Adequacy
39. For increasing production, the Managing
Director in a government company
introduced health insurance with premium
contributed by the company but this did
not lead to an increase in production.
Change however came when he made
frequent visits to the workshop, reshuffled
the job-schedule of the workers and
reminded them of the market forces.
Whose theory of motivation has an
explanation for this change?
a. Victor H. Vroom
b. Frederick Herzberg
c. Abraham Maslow
d. David McClelland
40. Which one of the following factors DOES
NOT fall within the scope of the
reinforcement theories of motivation ?
a. Proper monetary reward
b. Proper work environment
c. Praise for the desired performance
features of a public corporation ?
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 4
d. 3 and 4
53. When a company is in a position to control
the management of another company, it
automatically becomes a/an
a. private limited company
b. amalgamated company
c. joint limited company
d. holding company
54. Which one of the following statements
about Performance Budget is NOT
correct?
a. It operates with clearly defined
objectives
b. It lays emphasis on purposes of
expenditure
c. It is concerned with outputs and not
inputs
d. It is used for implementations of
government programmes
55. Consider the following statements:
A budget is always
1. a statements of estimated income and
expenditure
2. either surplus or deficit
3. bound by a time frame
4. performance-oriented
Which of these statements are correct ?
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 4
56. Which one of the following statements is
not correct ?
a. The Railway budget and the demand
for grants relating to Railways are
presented to the Parliament separately
b. Generally one demand for grant is
presented in respect of each Ministry
or Department
c. The demand for grants for the
Department of Telecommunications is
presented to the Parliament separately
d. The demands for grants of various
Ministries include both plan and nonplan
estimates of expenditure under
each head
57. Which one of the following statements
about 'Audit' is NOT correct ?
d. Reward at the moment of specific
achievement
41. Consider the following statements
regarding Civil Services/ Civil Servants
1. The structure of the civil service is
conditioned by social realities
2. Civil servants perform the role of a
change agent
3. Public perception and self-image of the
civil service are contradictory
4. Civil servants always show high regard
for democratic institutions
Which of these statements are true of Civil
Services/Civil Servants in developing
societies ?
a. 1 and 2
b. 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 2, 3 and 4
42. Consider the following statements:
1. When rank classification is accepted,
candidates are appointed to a specific
'service'.
2. All public employees appointed to a
'service' are paid the same scale of pay
3. Rank classification facilitates equal
pay for equal work
4. Rank classification is not based on
order of merit
Which of these statements are correct ?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4
43. Consider the following statements:
The purpose of keeping a new recruit on
probation is to
1. give some time to him to learn the job
2. give training to him to do his job
3. assess his suitability and aptitude for
the job
4. provide opportunities to improve his
qualifications
Which of these statements are correct ?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4
44. Consider the following statements:
Group discussions for selection of
candidates are advantageous as they help
in assessing a candidate's ability to
a. It adopts a fault-finding approach
b. It concerns itself with financial
propriety
c. It is concerned with adherence to rules,
regulations and procedure
d. It critically examines income,
expenditure and performance
58. Consider the following statements:
Fiscal deficit in Government budget can be
reduced by
1. rationalising and economising
expenditure
2. cutting down inefficiency
3. improving workers' productivity
4. adopting new methods of budgetmaking
Which of these statements are correct ?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 1, 3 and 4
59. Which one of the following is NOT a
primary function of the accounting
system?
a. To reveal financial conditions of the
organisation
b. To protect those who handle funds
c. To prevent necessary adjustments in
expenditure
d. To help auditing
60. Which one of the following Acts restricts
the political activities at the State and local
level civil servants in the USA ?
a. Civil Service Act, 1883
b. Ransteck Act, 1940
c. First Hatch Act, 1939
d. Second Hatch Act, 1940
 1. excel other
2. socialise with others
3. work as a member of a group/team
4. communicate effectively
Which of these statements are correct ?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
45. Which one of the following is the correct
sequence of formal disciplinary action
against a civil servant ?
a. Censure-suspension-demotionwithholding
increment
b. Censure-withholding promotion and
increment reduction to a lower postsuspension
c. Suspension-censure-withholding of
promotion and increments-reduction to
a lower post
d. Censure-reduction to a lower postsuspension-
with holding of promotion
and increments
 
 61. Match List I with List II and select the 76. Match List I (Provisions) with List II
correct answer: (Schedules of Constitution of India) and
List I select the correct answer:
(Forms of Local Govt.) List I
A. A Weak-Mayor Council form A. The tribal areas in the state of
B. Strong-Mayor Council Plan Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and
C. The Commission Plan Mizoram
D. The Council Manager Plan B. All-India Services
List II C. Control of Schedules Areas and
(Features of Local Govt.) Scheduled Tribes
1. Form of urban local government D. Comptrollers and Auditor-General of
mostly found in big cities India
of the USA List II
2. Oldest form of urban local government 1. Second Schedule
n the USA 2. Fifth Schedule
3. Described as an outgrowth of 3. Sixth Schedule
Commission Plan 4. Seventh Schedule
4. Affairs of the city managed by a small Code:
group of elected members ABCD
Code: a. 4 3 2 1
ABCD b. 3 4 1 2
a. 2 4 1 3 c. 4 3 1 2
b. 2 1 4 3 d. 3 4 2 1
c. 3 1 4 2 77. New Public Administration emphasizes
d. 3 4 1 2 a. social equity
62. Consider the following trends b. lean government
1. Legal-formal to behavioural c. performance appraisal
2. Normative to empirical d. management by objectives
3. Ideographic to nomothetic
4. Non-ecological to ecological
According to Riggs, which of these are the
three trends prominent in comparative
Public Administration ?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4
63. In which one of the following countries
was domicile qualification in recruitment
to civil services first prescribed ?
a. UK
b. USA
c. France
d. Erstwhile USSR
64. Which one of the following public
corporations in the USA is NOT
completely under the budgetary and
administrative control of the Executive and
also under the detailed review of US
Congress?
a. Panama Canal Corporation
b. Port of New York Authority
c. Tennessee Valley Authority
d. Federal Crop Insurance Corporation
65. In the USA, the 'Spoils System' was
discarded in favour of the 'merit principle'
by the
a. Civil Service Reform Act, 1978
b. Pendleton Act, 1883
c. Hatch Act, 1939
d. Civil Service Act of 1853
66. In 1990, Gorbachev sought constitutional
amendment in the meeting of the Central
Committee. What was the major
recommendation in this meeting ?
a. Monopoly of the Communist Party to
continue
b. Introduction of two-party dominant
system
c. To allow multi-party political system
to function
d. To dissolve the Communist Party
67. Consider the following
Committees/Commissions appointed in the
post-Independence period to examine and
report on local government
1. Committee of Ministers on
Augmentation of Financial Resources
of Urban Local Bodies
2. Rural-Urban Relationship Committee
78. Consider the following functions
1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet
meetings
2. Recording decisions of the Cabinet
3. Supervising the implementation of
Cabinet decisions
4. Coordinating the work of various
ministries
Which of these are the functions of the
Cabinet Secretariat ?
a. 1 and 2
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
79. Consider the following functions
1. Assisting the government in policy
formulation
2. Reviewing periodically the working of
the National plan
3. Recommending measures for the
achievement of the aims and targets set
out in the National plan
4. Assessing the material, capital and
human resources of the country
Which of these are the functions of the
National Development Council ?
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 2, 3 and 4
80. Which one of the following statements
about Comptroller and Auditor-General of
India is NOT correct ?
a. He has no direct access to the
Parliament and no minister can
represent him
b. His salary and emoluments are
chargeable on the Consolidated Fund
of India
c. He cannot disallow any expenditure
which in his opinion violates the
Constitution
d. He has been debarred from holding
any office of profit under the Union or
State Governments after his retirement
81. Which one of the following was not
among the recommendations of the Satish
Chandra Committee ?
a. Negative marking for objective-type
test
b. Common competitive examinations for
all services
3. National Commission on Urbanisation c. Exemption from preliminary
4. Local Finance Enquiry Committee examination to those candidates who
The correct chronological sequence in had qualified once for interview
which these Committees/ Commissions d. Introduction of education as an
were set up is optional subject
a. 1, 4, 3, 2 82. Consider the following types of trainings
b. 1, 4, 2, 3 programmes
c. 4, 1, 3, 2 1. Induction
d. 4, 1, 2, 3 2. Pre-selection
68. Soviet Administrative and party structure 3. Refresher
were created on the principle of 4. Specialized
a. democratic decentralisation 5. In-service
b. democratic centralism The training programmes gone through by
c. authoritarianism the IAS and IPS officers include
d. centralisation a. 1, 2 and 5
69. Under the Constitution of erstwhile USSR, b. 2, 3 and 4
the official policy-making authority was c. 1, 3, 4 and 5
vested in the d. 2, 3, 4 and 5
a. Supreme Soviet 83. Match List I with List II and select the
b. Presidium correct answer:
c. Bureaucracy List I
d. Communist Party A. Appleby Report
70. Which one of the following machineries B. Gorwala Report
was created in Britain in 1967 to examine C. Assheton Report
complaints of mal-administration ? D. Fulton Report
a. Ombudsman List II
b. Whitley Council 1. 1944
c. Parliamentary Commission 2. 1951
d. Procurator-General 3. 1953
71. Which one of the following is an issue 4. 1966
about which a Governor CANNOT make a Code:
recommendation to the President ? ABCD
a. Dismissal of the State Council of a. 3 2 1 4
Ministers b. 3 2 4 1
b. Removal of the Judges of the High c. 2 3 4 1
Court d. 2 3 1 4
c. Dissolution of the State Legislative 84. A Joint Public Service Commission for
Assembly two or more States can be established by
d. Declaration of breakdown of the a. the concerned States
constitutional machinery in the State b. an Act of Parliament
72. In which one of the following pairs of c. the Union Public Service Commission
countries are the administrative d. the Government of India
departments LEAST independent of 85. According to which one of the following
control of the executive ? Articles of the Constitution of India, is the
a. UK and France Government bound to seek the advice of
b. UK and USA the UPSC ?
c. USA and France a. Article 120
d. France and former Soviet Union b. Article 220
73. Which one of the following is a unique c. Article 320
feature of Ecole Nationale d. Article 420
d'Administration of France ? 86. Who among the following said, "There can
a. Recruiting agency be no doubt that the standard of
b. Recruiting-cum-training agency administration depends upon the calibre of
c. Policy-making agency civil servants who are appointed to these
d. Public grievance agency posts ?
74. Match List I with List II and select the a. Jawaharlal Nehru
correct answer: b. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
List I c. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
A. India Act, 1858 d. Warren Hastings
B. Indian Council Act, 1861 87. Which one of the following statements is
C. Indian Council Act, 1909 NOT true ?
D. Government of India a. A member of the Union Public Service
List II Commission (UPSC) holds office for a
1. All-India Federation of Provinces and term of six years or until he or she
Princely States attains the age of 65 years
2. Appointment of Secretary of State for b. The Chairperson of UPSC is not
India eligible for further employment under
3. Beginning of representation and the Government of India or
legislative devolution Government of any State after
4. Dyarchy in Provinces Act, 1919 retirement
5. Morley-Minto Reforms c. One half of the members of the UPSC
Code should be persons who have held
ABCD office for at least 10 years either under
a. 1 2 3 4 Government of India or Government of
b. 2 3 5 4 State
c. 3 4 5 1 d. The Chairperson and other members of
d. 2 3 4 1 the UPSC are appointed by the Prime
75. Consider the following statements Minister
regarding money bills: 88. Which one of the following Committees
1. They originate in Lok Sabha was appointed by the UPSC in 1974 to go
2. They originate in Rajya Sabha into the issue of recruitment and selection
3. Rajya Sabha can recommend methods ?
amendments a. A. D. Gorwala Committee
4. Both the Houses have equal power b. D. S. Kothari Committee
over them c. Santhanam Committee
Which of these statements is/are correct ? d. Joint Committee on Administrative
a. 1 alone Reforms
b. 1 and 3 89. The Staff College at Vadodara imparts
c. 2 alone training to the recruits of the
d. 4 alone a. Central Secretariat Service
b. Railway Traffic, Transportation and
Accounts Service
c. Indian Civil Accounts Service
d. Income Tax Service
90. Consider the following statements:
The Governor of a state
1. is vested with executive power under
the Constitution of India
2. is needed because of the federal
structure of government
3. was to be elected according to the
original Draft Constitution of India
4. is chosen only from among the
categories laid down in the

Which of these statements are correct ?
a. 1 and 4
b. 2 and 3
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 2, 3 and 4
91. Consider the following powers / functions
1. Appointing ministers and allocating
portfolios to them
2. Presiding over the meetings of the
Cabinet
3. Resolving conflicts between ministers
4. Communicating with the Governor
The powers/functions of the Chief
Minister of a State in India include
a. 2, 3 and 4
b. 1 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
92. The principal function of the Secretariat of
a State Government is to
a. carry on day to day administration of
the State
b. supervise the work of field agencies
c. assist in policy formulation and its
implementation
d. manage public relations
93. Consider the following statements:
The Chief Secretary of a State
1. works as principal advisor to the Chief
Minister
2. looks after all such matters which do
not fall within the jurisdiction of any
other Secretary
3. works as advisor to the Governor
during the President's Rule
4. works as Chairman of the Zonal
Council by rotation
Which of these statements are correct ?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
94. The principal function of Directorates in a
State Government is to
a. facilitate policy formulation
b. undertake policy implementation
c. promote inter-agency cooperation and
coordination
d. render auxiliary services
Constitution of India
106. Assertion (A) : Line and Staff agencies are
so inextricably intermingled in practice
that many scholars and practitioners of
management do not even attempt to clarify
a Line and Staff concept.
Reason (R) : Many ministries such as
Finance and Education are neither purely
Line agencies nor purely Staff agencies.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
107. Assertion (A) : Leadership qualities are
not fixed, though they are essentially
viewed in terms of relationship between
the leader and the led.
Reason (R) : Leadership depends upon the
capacity to control the over changing
organisational environment.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
108. Assertion (A) : The function of
communication is not just to send out a
message.
Reason (R) : Communication must satisfy
the receiver for moving towards the
desired end.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
109. Assertion (A) : Recruitment rules are
generally framed by Government to
provide for competition and selection on
merit through written examination and/or
interviews.
95. Consider the following statements:
As the custodian of law and order in the
district, the District Collector is effective if
he
1. adopts formal and informal measures
2. uses provocative means
3. practices good public relations
4. uses a two-way communication system
Which of these statements are correct ?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 2, 3 and 4
96. Which one of the following statements
about the duties and responsibilities of the
District Collector holds good in every
State?
a. The State Government is represented
by him at the district level
b. Upward reporting by departmental
officers is done through him.
c. Handling of crisis situations is passed
on by him to departmental officers
d. He is the hub of all development
activities
97. Which one of the following does not form
a part of Swarna Jayanti Village Self-
Employment Scheme ?
a. Lifting up the families living below the
poverty line as the aim
b. Rural individual poor as the focus
c. Prior identification and selection of
activities
d. Implementation in the same manner as
a project
98. Consider he following statements:
In the post-73rd Amendment era, there has
to be decentralisation of
1. decision-making powers
2. system as a whole
3. judicial powers
4. administrative powers
5. reporting requirements
Which of these statements are correct ?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 2 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 5
d. 3, 4 and 5
99. Consider the following objectives
1. Bringing about uniformity in the
structure of local governments
throughout the country
Reason (R) : Subjectivity prevails in the
determination of merit.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
110. Assertion (A) : Some of the developing
societies have realized that their country is
over-governed.
Reason (R) : They feel that downsizing of
government would be in every one's
interest.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
111. Assertion (A) : Promotion in the civil
service is considered as a matter of
routine.
Reason (R) : Promotion can be earned
through competition amongst all eligible
contenders.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
112. Assertion (A) : Developing societies need
reforms in civil service fields.
Reason (R) : The expenditure on training
and development of civil servants has been
on the increase in such societies.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
113. Assertion (A) : 'Fair comparison' cannot be
accepted as a principle to pay public
employees.
Reason (R) : Public services have many
direct and indirect advantages.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
2. Ensuring regular and rational flow of
funds from the State's revenue
3. Having properly elected Governments
of regular intervals
4. Having single unified authority f or the
city's management and development
Which of these did the 74th Amendment to
the Constitution of India, try to inject into
the working of urban local bodies ?
a. 1 and 2
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 2, 3 and 4
100. Consider the following statements:
The pressure on the finances of urban local
bodies has enormously risen during the
past several years on account of
1. inelastic sources of tax revenue
2. continuous rise in population size
3. increase in the wages of municipal
employees
4. increase in the cost of service provided
5. increase in developmental needs of the
city
Which of these statements are correct ?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 5
c. 1, 2, 4 and 5
d. 2, 3, 4 and 5
101. Assertion (A) : The difference between
Private and Public Administrations is
narrowing down.
Reason (R) : Private Administration all
over the world is getting more and more
accountable.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
102. Assertion (A) : New Public
Administration emphasized that the
discipline of public administration should
shed its positivist character.
Reason (R) : Positivism is not scientific.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
114. Assertion (A) : The rule of lapse is not
essential for effective financial control.
Reason (R) : The rule of lapse suffers from
weaknesses relating to planning and
control of expenditure.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
115. Assertion (A): Control over administration
is slowly shifting from legislature to
executive.
Reason (R) : Parliament hardly finds
sufficient time for detailed examination
and scrutiny of expenditure and
achievements.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
116. Assertion (A) : When a specialist is
required to do the job of a generalist, he
loses both ways.
Reason (R) : A specialist is a relative term
depending upon the context.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
117. Assertion (A) : The All-India Services
violate the federal principle of the
Constitution as well as the autonomy of
States.
Reason (R) : The All-India Services
officers are governed by Central
Government rules and the State
Governments do not have full control over
them.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
 118. Assertion (A) : Relationship between the
103. Assertion (A) : Classical theory treats
civil servants and political executives at
organisation as a closed system.
the State headquarters has to be of mutual
Reason (R) : Classicists lacked
trust, confidence and respect.
behavioural analysis
Reason (R) : Civil servants start teaming to
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
work with politicians right from their
correct explanation of A
initial postings in the field.
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
the correct explanation of A
correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
d. A is false but R is true
the correct explanation of A
104. Assertion (A) : The quality of work in an
c. A is true but R is false
organisation depends to some extent on the
d. A is false but R is true
effectiveness of control of the superior
119. Assertion (A) : People do want to know
over the subordinates.
what is being done, why it being done and
Reason (R) : A superior cannot exercise
how it is being done in their district.
control over unlimited number of persons
Reason (R) : The district administration
because the span of control is limited by
holds a different view about transparency
the span of human attention.
and accountability.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
d. A is false but R is true
105. Assertion (A) : The concepts of power and
120. Assertion (A) : Rural development as a
leadership have much in common and
function of Government of India started 'as
they, more or less, mean the same thing.
a search for an alternative to laissez faire'.
Reason (R) : Power indicates coercion,
Reason (R) : The efforts of Mahatma
authority and command but a good leader
Gandhi provided the necessary, impetus
cannot always rely on these instruments
and momentum for the rural development
along.
in India.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
d. A is false but R is true
 
IAS Prelims Public Administration 2001
1. A leadership style in which the leader 16. In the American administrative system. the
himself develops a plan of action and Presidential Cabinet is essentially
achieves the challenging goals is called a. A collegial executive
a. Instrumental b. An administrative agency
b. Supportive c. An advisory body
c. Participative d. A supervisory body
d. Achievement - oriented 17. Consider the following features of the
2. Which one of the following states of the Civil Service in the USA:
Indian Union has vested the power in the 1. Top posts are filled up by ‘insiders and
Gram Sabha to recall the members of the outers’.
Village Panchayat? 2. Recruitment takes place at various
a. West Bengal
b. Rajasthan
c. Madhya Pradesh
d. Karnataka
3. The basic objective of an interview is to
assess, the candidate’s
a. Intellectual capacity
b. General knowledge
c. Personal qualities
d. Power of expression
4. In which one of the following training
methods, do the trainees expose their
idiosyncrasies to their fellow-trainees who
rub them off through mutual interaction
a. Syndicate Method
b. Case - Study method
c. Lecture Method
d. T- Group Method
5. Which one of the following is not a correct
statement?
a. The principle of seniority gives
certainty of promotion of employees
b. Greater experience is a greater
qualification for promotion
c. Seniority principle helps in building up
the morale and efficiency of public
services
d. Seniority is a matter of a fact which
cannot be denied
6. Who made the following statement? “The
problem of ethical conducts for public
officials arises by virtue of the power and
influence that he commands and the
commitment that he Undertakes of loyal
and disinterested service to the public.”
a. Woodrow Wilson
b. L. D. White
c. Glen Stahl
d. Herbert. Simon
7. The number of Standing Parliamentary
Committees that exist to scrutinize the
demands for grants of various ministries is
a. Ten
b. Twelve
c. Seventeen
d. Twenty
8. A system of budgeting in which the bulk
of expenditure on the on - going activities
of. the government is left untouched, while
only marginal adjustments are made in
raising and allocating revenue is
a. Zero - base budgeting
levels of hierarchy.
3. Partisan political activities are
prohibited.
4. Rank classification system is not
upheld.
Which of these are correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4
18. Which one of the following is not a
member of the British Cabinet?
a. Lord Chancellor
b. Chancellor of the Exchequer
c. Attorney General
d. Lord President of the Council
19. Which one of the following is not correct
in respect of Whitleyism of Britain?
a. It has influenced the Joint Consultative
Machinery of India
b. It is marked by informality
c. It is designed to redress personal
grievances
d. Its staff side has links with the trade
union movement
20. Consider the following functions in
relation to the Parliamentary
Commissioner for Administration in
Britain He can
1. Investigate complains from the public
2. Redress public grievances
3. Recommend remedial measures
4. Ask for information and papers from
departments
Which of these are correct?
a. 1,2 and 3
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
21. Which one of the following statements
about design-state in decision-making
process is correct?
a. Inventing, developing and analyzing
possible courses of action
b. Finding occasions calling for a
decision
c. Selecting a particular course of action
from those available
d. Carrying out the decision
22. According to F W. Riggs. Which one of
the following shifts does not denote the
trends in comparative public
b. Performance budgeting
c. Incremental budgeting
d. Line - item budgeting
9. The economy cut-motion seeks to reduce
the proposed expenditure of a demand for
grant by
a. Rupees one hundred
b. Rupee one
c. A specified amount
d. An unspecified amount
10. Under the scheme of Departmentalization
of Accounts that began in 1976, who
amongst the following is the chief
accounting authority for all transactions of
a Ministry and its subordinate offices?
a. Comptroller and Auditor General of
India
b. Secretary of the Ministry concerned
c. Finance Ministry
d. Controller of Accounts
11. The Estimates Committee of the Lok
Sabha
a. Prepares estimates of expenditure of
Central Government
b. Examines the accounts of Departments
of Government of India
c. Prevents unauthorized collection of
taxes
d. Suggests economies to be made in the
Central administration
PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION
12. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer
List I
A. Habeas Corpus
B. Mandamus
C. Certiorari
D. Quo Warranto
List II
1. What warrant or authority
2. Certified or to be made certain
3. Command to perform public duty
4. Produce the body of a person
ABCD
a. 4 3 2 1
b. 3 4 2 1
c. 4 3 1 2
d. 3 4 1 2
13. Consider the following :
In realizing social justice. Public Interest
Litigation (PIL) is used as an effective tool
because it makes the judicial process
Administration?
a. From normative to empirical
orientation
b. From ideographic to no moth tic
orientation
c. From non-ecological to ecological
orientation
d. From formal to informal orientation
23. In Japan, small-city administration is
headed by
a. Centrally-appointed official
b. Regionally-appointed official
c. Mayor elected by the local assembly
d. Mayor elected by the local people
24. Which one of the following Acts laid the
foundation of the British Administration in
India?
a. Regulating Act, 1773
b. Pitt’s India Act, 1784
c. Indian Councils Act. 1861
d. Indian Councils Act, 1892
25. Which one of the following statements is
not correct about the Advocate General of
the State?
a. The Advocate General holds office
during the pleasure of the Governor
b. The Advocate General of the State is
appointed by the Governor
c. The Advocate General advises the
State Government on legal matters
d. The Advocate General cannot take part
in the proceedings in the State
Legislature
26. Consider the following:
The President of India cannot be a dictator,
because
1. He can be impeached for violation of
Constitution.
2. The ordinances issued by him require
the approval of the Parliament.
3. The proclamation of Emergency
requires Parliament’s approval.
4. He has to act on the advice of Council
of Ministers.
Which of these are correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4
27. President of India is not empowered to
proclaim
a. Emergency arising out of war, external

1. Less expensive
2. Expeditious
3. Humane and judicious
4. Cumbersome
Which of these are correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4
14. Consider the following:
Right to information is necessary in India
because it
1. Increases people’s participation in
administration.
2. Makes administration more
accountable to people.
3. Makes administration more innovative.
4. Makes people aware of administrative
decision making.
Which of these are correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 1, 3 and 4
15. Which one of the following pairs is not
correctly matched?
a. Britain : Merit Protection Board
b. India : Appointments Committee on
the Cabinet
c. Japan : National Personnel Authority
d. USA : Office of Budget and Personnel
Management  Comptroller and Auditor General
31. Which one of the following forms of
public enterprises in India, is constituted
through a separate statutory enactment?
a. A control board
b. A joint-stock company
c. A departmental undertaking
d. A public corporation
32. Consider the following statements:
The Finance Commission of India differs
from the Planning Commission because
1. The former is a Constitutional body
and latter a Cabinet creation
2. The former determines the principles
aggression or armed rebellion
b. Emergency due to breakdown of
constitutional machinery in states
c. Financial emergency in the State of
Jammu and Kashmir
d. Emergency arising out of threat to
financial stability
28. Which one of the following is not correct
in relation to the Council of Ministers?
a. It is recognized by the Constitution
b. Number of its members is not specified
in Constitution
c. Its working is as per the provisions in
the Constitution
d. Its members and their ranks are
decided by the Prime Minister
29. The Programme Evaluation Organization
is an integral part of the
a. National Development Council
b. Central Secretariat
c. Department of Public Enterprises
d. Planning Commission
30. Which one of the following does not fall
within the scope of the Committees on
Public Undertakings?
a. Examination of the reports and
accounts of such public undertakings
as have been specifically allotted to the
committee
b. Matters of major government policy as
distinct from business or commercial
functions of the public undertakings
c. Examination of the reports of the
d. Examination of the autonomy and
efficiency of the public undertakings
46. ,Jawahar Gram Samridhi Yojana (JGSY)
is implemented entirely at the level of
a. District Panchayat
b. Intermediate Panchayat
c. Village Panchayat
d. Nagar Panchayat
47. In the context of grass root democracy.
people’s participation signifies citizens
1. Contesting elections to Local Self-
Government institutions,
2. Attending meetings of political parties.
3. Aggregating and articulating public
demands through public discussions.
4. Making decisions in local bodies.
of allocation of grants-in - aid to the
States and the latter allocates funds for
the Central and the State Governments.
3. The former emphasizes the distinction
between Plan and Non-plan
expenditure and the latter maintains it.
4. The formers report is submitted to the
Union finance Minister and the latter’s
to the Cabinet.
Which of these are correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 3 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
33. Consider the following in relation to the
Prime Ministers Office
1. It assists the Prime Minister as the
head of the Cabinet.
2. It co-ordinates the activities of
Government departments.
3. It keeps liaison with State
Governments on matters of Prime
Ministers interest.
4. It helps the Prime Minister to perform
his functions as the head of the
Government.
Which of these are correct?
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4
34. The need for introducing functional
specialization in the I.A.S. was
recommended by
a. Appleby Report
b. Satish Chandra Committee
c. Administrative Reforms Commission
d. Kothari Committee
35. Which one of the following is not a
function of the Election Commission?
a. To superintend, direct and control
elections to the office of the President
b. To select candidates for election
c. To recognize and derecognize political
parties
d. To prepare electoral rolls
36. Which one of the following is the function
of the Finance Commission?
a. Preparation of the Central Budget
b. Assessing income tax proceeds
c. Determining the principles governing
grants - in - aid to States
Which of these are correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1. 2, 3 and 4
48. Which one of the following functions is
not performed by District Collector?
a. Maintenance of law and order
b. Collection of Land Revenue
c. Dispensation of Justice
d. Social Welfare
49. In which one of the following Schedules of
the Constitution of India is Urban Local
Self Government mentioned?
a. Seventh
b. Eighth
c. Eleventh
d. Twelfth
50. According to Herbert Simon, if a decision
is directed towards individual’s goal, it is
a. Organizationally rational
b. Personally rational
c. Objectively rational
d. Subjectively rational
51. Consider the following with respect to the
revolutionary features of the 73rd
Constitutional Amendment :
1. Bestowal of Constitutional status on
Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs).
2. Mandatory elections to PRIs.
3. Introduction of third tier of
Government with powers in rural
India.
4. 33% reservation of seats and
chairpersonships for women in the
Panchayats at each level.
Which of these are correct ?
a. 1 and 4
b. 1,2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 1,2,3 and 4
52. Consider the following statements:
President’s Rule in a State can be
proclaimed if
1. There is constitutional breakdown in a
State.
2. The Governor sends a report to the
President to that effect.
3. The Governor of a State fails to
perform his constitutional functions.
4. The State Administration fails to
function in accordance with the
d. Exercising control over Government
expenditure
37. Which one of the following is not a
characteristic of departmentally-managed
public undertaking in India?
a. It is financed by annual appropriation
from the treasury
b. Its permanent staff consists of civil
servants
c. It is created by an executive order of
the Government
d. The price of products and services of
the enterprise are determined by the
market forces
38. In terms of Constitutional status, the Union
Public Service Commission is
a. An Advisory Board
b. A Grievance Redressal Body
c. A body in charge of directing
recruitment at State level
d. A body which supervises training of
civil servants
39. Consider the following statements:
The Administrative Reforms Commission
recommended
1. Introduction of performance budgeting
system.
2. Departmentalization of accounts.
3. Zero-based budgeting system.
4. The need to recruit and post specialists
in policy making functions.
Which of these are correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 2. 3 and 4
40. The Governor of a State in his role as
Administrator of an adjoining Union
Territory exercises his functions, as such
independently of
a. The President of India
b. The State Council of Ministers
c. The Prime Minister
d. The Union Home Minister
41. Which one of the following is not the
function of the State Secretariat?
a. Co - ordination and cross - clearance
between the administrative
departments in the Secretariat.
b. Taking policy decisions on
administrative departments proposals
c. Framing proposals for legislative
provisions of the Constitution.
Which of these are correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 2 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 3 and 4
53. Consider the following in relation to
impacts of the policy of economic
liberalization on public sector
undertakings
1. Disinvestment of equity shares in
PSUs.
2. Allowing full (100% Government
ownership in core sector PSUs.
3. Deregulation, deli censing and dequota
system.
4. Full convertibility of the Rupee in the
current account.
Which of these are correct ?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1,2 and 3
d. 2, 3 and 4
54. Which one of the following statements
relating to the power of Judicial Review in
India is correct?
a. Supreme Court can take up matters for
judicial review On its own
b. Supreme Court can be directly
approached for judicial review of
legislative decisions
c. Supreme Court can review its own
judgments in the light of new
developments
d. Supreme Court can ask Lower courts
to submit a case for its judicial review
55. Assertion (A): Hierarchy brings rigidity
and affects human relationships in
administration
Reason (R): Hierarchy is a built - in -
device to achieve coherence in the
organization.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
56. Assertion (A): Narrowing of the span of
control, has undesirable effect of
hampering communication by decreasing
the number of organizational levels.
enactments on the basis of policy
decisions of the Heads of Directorates
d. Functioning as the main channel of
communication between the Central
and other State Governments
42. Consider the following:
Chief Secretary to the State Government is
also
1. Secretary to the Chief Minister.
2. Head of the Civil Services in the State.
3. Secretary to the State Cabinet.
4. Advisor to the Governor.
Which of these are correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 2 and 4
43. After Independence, the role of the District
Collector has undergone a substantial
change due to
a. Rise of political consciousness
b. Democratic decentralization
c. Role of mass media
d. Public interest litigations
44. Ashok Mehta Committee (1977),
recommended for the establishment of
a. Mandal Panchayat
b. Nagar Panchayat
c. Panchayat Samiti
d. Gram Panchayat
45. Which one of the following Committees /
Commissions recommended for
integration of Union, State and Local
Finances?
a. Taxation Enquiry Commission
b. Local Finance Enquiry Committee
c. Rural - Urban Relationship Committee
d. Rural - Urban Relationship Committee  management activity.
Reason (R): Span of control determines
permutations and combinations of
relationships requiring the attention of the
superiors.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
57. Assertion (A): Fredrick Taylor’s concept
of “functional foremanship” is regarded as
unworkable in traditional administration.
Reason (R): In functional supervision,
authority of the expert is brought to bear
fully upon the operator.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
58. Assertion (A): Weber’s ideas of
‘impersonal detachment’ and ‘esprit de
corps’ are incompatible.
Reason (R): Reason (R) ‘Esprit de corps’
can emerge if the relationship in the
organization is dictated by formality and
impersonality.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
59. Assertion (A): Henri Fayol identified five
elements as the primary functions of
Reason (R): According to him, knowledge
of administration. Rather than technical
knowledge. Is needed at higher levels of
an organization.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
60. Assertion (A): To be truly effective, Ur
wick felt that command must represent a
common objective.
Reason (R): Effectiveness depends

61. Assertion (A): Whenever Government
seeks to replace an Ordinance by a Bill, a
statement explaining the circumstances
which necessitated promulgation of
Ordinance must accompany the Bill.
Reason (R): President shall have the
power to legislate on any subject through
an Ordinance which is co-extensive with
the legislative powers of Parliament.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
62. Assertion (A): In his Administrative
Theory, Herbert Simon followed positivist
approach.
Reason (R): It is based on the assumption
that Administration can be reduced to a
science by considering facts and not
dealing with values.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
63. Assertion (A): Effective and successful
leadership depends on formal and right
rules.
Reason (R): It is circular response and
situations/circumstances which are crucial
for modern day administrative leadership.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
64. Assertion (A): Unintelligible
communications are difficult to understand
primarily upon the spirit that emanates
from the commander’s personality.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
76. Assertion (A): Responsive Government
would require complete decentralization of
delivery of services through fully
empowered elected Local Government
bodies consistent with the spirit of the 73rd
and 74th Constitutional Amendments.
Reason (R): State Governments are
required to take steps to strengthen the
financial and administrative capacity of the
local bodies and vest them with adequate
resources and powers.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
77. Match List I (Authors) with List II (Books)
and select the correct answer
List I
A. Willoughby
B. Goodnow
C. Gulick and Urck
D. Stillman
List II
1. Papers on the Science of
Administration
2. Public Administration Concepts and
Cases
3. Politics and Administration
4. Principles of Public Administration
ABCD
a. 4 3 1 2
b. 3 4 2 1
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 3 4 1 2
78. The claim that Public Administration is a
science, was challenged by
a. Ferrel Heady
b. Robert Dahi
c. James G. March
d. Samuel Huntington
and consequently have no authority. 79. Comparative Public Administration does
Reason (R): Orders issued in general not uphold
terms ‘face problems at the time of their a. Cross-cultural administration
implementation as most of the time is b. Theory-building in administration
spend in interpretation and applicability of c. Adoption of normative approaches to
such orders to concrete situations. administration
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the d. Practical application of knowledge to
correct explanation of A administration
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT 80. Which one of the following is not correct
the correct explanation of A about the emergence of New Public
c. A is true but R is false Administration?
d. A is false but R is true a. It emerged out of Minnow brook
65. Assertion (A): Advocates of promotion by Conference 1968
seniority assume that length of service is a b. It was the outcome of Honey Report
guarantee that one should get promotion c. It emerged from Waldo’s book ‘Public
Reason (R): Senior one is qualified for Administration in a Time of
handling the work of an advanced position. Turbulence”
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the d. It was the outcome of the problems of
correct explanation of A Comparative ‘arid Development
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT Administration
the correct explanation of A 81. Match List I with List Ii and select the
c. A is true but R is false correct answer
d. A is false but R is true List I (Scholars)
66. Assertion (A): There is no inherent clash A. Vincent Ostrom
in Public Administration been political B. J. Habermass
control and administrative autonomy. C. A. Etzioni
Reason (R): The administrator needs D. G. Fededckson
autonomy and discretion in much the same List II (Fields of work)
way as the politician needs control and 1. Organizations
intervention 2. New Public Administration
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the 3. Public Choice School
correct explanation of A 4. Critical Theory
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT 5. New Public Management
the correct explanation of A ABCD
c. A is true but R is false a. 3 4 2 5
d. A is false but R is true b. 4 3 1 2
67. Assertion (A): Seniority based promotion c. 3 4 1 2
is upheld in the Japanese Civil Service. d. 4 3 2 5
Reason (R): A Japanese civil servant 82. 82. Consider the following statements:
continues in the same ministry all his life. New thrust areas for analysis of
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the Comparative Public Administration in the
correct explanation of A context of globalization and liberalization
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT may consist of
the correct explanation of A 1. Study on citizen charter.
c. A is true but R is false 2. Disinvestment of public sector
d. A is false but R is true undertakings.
68. Assertion (A): The impeachment of the 3. Debureaucratization.
President is a quasi-judicial procedure in 4. Community-based organizations.
Parliament. Which of these are correct?
Reason (R): Either House of Parliament a. 1 and 2
has to prefer a charge of violation of the b. 1 and 3
Constitution before the other House which c. 1,2 and 3
may investigate and resolve to remove the
President by not less than 2/2 rd of the
total membership of the House.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
69. Assertion (A): The Cabinet Committees
have no authority to give binding decisions
on matters assigned to them.
Reason (R): Reason (R) : Any decision of
a Cabinet Committee may be revised by
the Cabinet.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
70. Assertion (A): The “tenure system” is
essentially an institutionalization of the
need for change at higher levels in the civil
service.
Reason (R): The “tenure system” does not
fill in well in a federal polity.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
71. Assertion (A): Public Corporations
emerged in order to s1oulder the economic
and financial responsibility of the State
particularly after the Second World War.
Reason (R): The expanding activities of
the state required a new type of
organization.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
72. Assertion (A): Riggs holds that the
degrees of differentiation are potentially
quantifiable on a diffraction scale.
Reason (R): The ecological models enable
us to make functional comparisons of
impressionable categories.
d. 1,2,3 and 4
83. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer
List I (Approach)
A. Bureaucratic
B. Behavioural
C. General System
D. Ecological
List II (Characteristics)
1. Agrarian -Transitia – industrial
2. Administrative system as a subsystem
of the society
3. Analysis of human behavior in
Administrative settings
4. Legal - Rational Authority
ABCD
a. 4 3 1 2
b. 3 4 1 2
c. 3 4 2 1
d. 4 3 2 1
84. Which one of he following statements is
not correct in respect of the public choice
theory?
a. It is a critique of the bureaucratic
model of administration
b. It believes in the politicsadministration
dichotomy view
c. It supports institutional pluralism in he
provision of public services
d. It is sympathetic to market forces
85. Which one of the following is not
highlighted in the state verus market
debate?
a. Private Sector Domination in
Management
b. Organizational Flexibility
c. Bureaucratic Domination
d. Establishment of Regulatory Authority
86. Which one of the following statements is
not correct in respect of New Public
Management?
a. It has market orientation
b. It upholds public interest
c. It advocates managerial autonomy
d. It focuses on performance - appraisal
87. Which one of the following is not correct
about the role of civil servants in
developing countries?
a. Planning and implementing
development programmes
b. Monitoring and evaluating
development schemes/projects
 a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
73. Assertion (A): “Public Policy is not an
independent variable and human history
shows little evidence of systematic
learning from policy experience.”
Reason (R): “The Public Policy analysts
do not have availability of the kind of data
required to estimate costs and benefits.”
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
74. Assertion (A): Generalists play an
important role in the policy function of the
Government.
Reason (R): A large number of the top
posts in the Union and State Governments
are manned by the specialists.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
75. Assertion (A): Much of the time of the
Head of Department could be saved by
adequate. Clear and proper financial and
administrative delegation to him.
Reason (R): The Head of the Department
has to devote much of his time sending up
cases for financial sanction and
administrative approval.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
91. Consider the following aspects of
organizations:
1. Integration of several parts into an
orderly whole.
2. Geographical dispersion of modern
c. Formulating development policies
d. Working towards socio - economic
development and nation - building
88. According to M. P Follett. coordination
implies harmonious ordering of parts
because coordination is
a. By indirect contact
b. The reciprocal relations of all factors
in a situation
c. In the last stages of implementation
d. An inconsistent process
89. Which one of the following is not the
characteristic of a Prismatic Society?
a. Polynorrnativism
b. Overlapping
c. Institutionalization
d. Elite domination
90. Deficit financing is resorted to by the
Government
a. To increase the budget allocation for
different ministries
b. To meet the gap between the revenue
and expenditure budgets
c. To increase government expenditure
on specific items
d. To pay the salaries of government
employees
106. Which one of the following has the
authority to constitute an area into a
municipality or a municipal corporation or
a panchayat?
a. Central Government
organization. b. Divisional Commissioner
3. Enormous growth in size & personnel c. District Collector
of Public Administration. d. State Government
4. Harmonious combination of agents and 107. Which one of the following statements
functions to achieve a desired goal. denotes the Human Relations Approach?
Which of these are treated as hindrances to a. Emphasizing the formal organization
coordination? structure
a. 1 and 2 b. Considering workers as cogs in the
b. 2 and 3 machine
c. 3 and 4 c. Emphasizing informal organization
d. 3 and 1 among workers
92. Consider the following statements: d. Authoritarian style of supervision
The extent of delegation depends upon 108. Consider the following statements:
1. Nature of the problem. The ‘great illumination’ experiment led to
2. Circumstances prevalent. the discovery, that for higher productivity
3. Responsibilities involved. of an organization
4. Organizational history. 1. Relations between workers and
Which of these are correct? supervisors are important
a. 1, 2 and 3 2. Relations between the workers are
b. 2. 3 and 4 important.
c. 1, 3 and 4 3. Working conditions are important.
d. 1. 2, 3 and 4 4. Social security is important.
93. In order to ensure Representative Which of these are correct?
Bureaucracy. Government of India has a. 1 and 2
provided for the following facilities to b. 1, 2 and 3
women c. 1, 2 and 4
1. Reservation of 33% jobs in Civil d. 2, 3 and 4
Services. 109. According to Herbert Simon’s Decision
2. Equal pay for equal work. Making Theory. the decision makers
3. Maternity leave. a. Know all the alternatives
4. Housing / Children education b. Know the utilities or values of all
allowances. alternatives
Which of these are correct? c. Have an ordered preference among all
a. 1 and 2 alternatives
b. 2 and 3 d. Choose a course of action which is
c. 2, 3 and 4 satisfying
d. 1. 2. 3 and 4 110. The concept of system, as propounded by
94. Match List I with List II and select the Talcott Parsons, does not involve the study
correct answer: of
List I a. The parts of a system
A. Line agency b. Interactions among sub-systems
B. Personal staff c. Interactions between the system and its
C. Specialized staff environment
D. General staff d. Politics - administration dichotomy
List II 111. Which one of the following statements
1. Collection of data and its analysis correctly defines the term Prismatic
2. Looking after personnel administration Society?
3. Maintenance of diary of different a. The concept is primarily concerned
engagements of line officials with socio-administrative change
4. Functions directly contributing to goal b. A high degree of formalism,
achievement overlapping and heterogeneity
ABCD c. It is related to goal and action-oriented
a. 4 3 1 2
b. 3 4 2 1
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 3 4 1 2
95. The estimates of expenditure from the
Consolidated Fund of India included in the
budget and required to be voted by the Lok
Sabha are submitted in the form of
a. Charged Expenditure
b. Capital Budget
c. Demands for Grants
d. Revenue Budget
96. The concept of ‘Mental Revolution’
coined by F W. Taylor focuses on
a. Collective attitudinal changes amongst
the employees of an organization
towards revolutionary structures
b. Understanding and sharing of
responsibilities and functions between
workers and management for
achieving high production, profits,
wages and low prices
c. Social revolution in an organization for
bringing about changes in the psyche
of the workers
d. Changes in attitudes, perspective and
vision amongst the management
personnel towards evolving humanrelation
reforms in an organization
97. Consider the following statements:
Weber used the Greek work ‘charisma’ to
mean
1. Inherited qualities
2. Supematura qualities
3. Superhuman qualities
4. Exceptional qualities
Which of these are correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
98. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer :
List I (Concepts)
A. Constructive conflict
B. Social Organization
C. Functions of the Executive
D. The Administrative Man
List II (Thinkers)
1. Herbert Simon
2. Elton Mayo
3. Mary Parker Follett
administrative systems
d. It refers to the administrative system of
developed nations
112. Which one of the following statements is
not correct about behavioral approach?
a. It emphasizes the study of how people
behave in organizations
b. It is descriptive rather than prescriptive
in nature
c. It views organizations as a social
system
d. It implies economic incentives as
motivators
113. Which one of the following is not a part of
the systems approach?
a. Emphasis on total view of the
organization
b. Input-conversion-output process
c. ‘One-best-way of structuring
organizations
d. Concept of boundary
114. Which of the following Committees /
Commissions recommended the
establishment of Lokpal at the Central
level ?
a. Baiwant Rai Mehta Committee
b. Administrative Reforms Commission
c. Committee on Lok Adalats
d. Citizens Redressal Commission
115. Consider the following statements:
1. The effectiveness of control mainly
depends on the acceptance by the
subordinates.
2. Control may stifle the initiative on
personal responsibility, but this can be
fixed in all cases.
3. Control is an expensive process
involving a lot of time & effect.
4. Control helps in improving the
performance of subordinates.
Which of these are correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4
116. Which one of the following is not
considered as part of the Civil Society?
a. Non-Movement Organizations
b. Caste – associations
c. Legislature
d. Family
117. Which one of the following statements
4. Chester Bernard about the feature of downward -
ABCD communication is not correct?
a. 2 3 4 1 a. It represents the flow of information
b. 3 2 4 1 from top level to lower levels
c. 2 3 1 4 b. It represents the flow of information
d. 3 2 1 4 between different levels
99. In which article of our constitution, is the c. It communicate policies and orders to
Finance commission dealt with? the subordinates
a. Article 280 d. It is used to get things done through
b. Article 380 the subordinates
c. Article 281 118. Which one of the following is not included
d. Article 381 in hygiene factors as defined by F
100. The chairman of Public Accounts Hertzberg?
committee is appointed by the a. Pay and job-security
a. President of India b. Working conditions
b. Speaker of Lok Sabha c. Advancement & growth
c. Prime Minister of India d. Inter-personal relations
d. Minister for Parliamentary Affairs 119. Consider the following ‘hierarchy of
101. The Question asked orally after the needs’:
Question Hour in the House is called 1. Safety needs
a. Supplementary question 2. Esteem needs
b. Short-notice question 3. Social needs
c. Starred question 4. Self- actualization needs
d. Un starred question 5. Physiological needs
102. Consider the following statements: According to Maslow. Their correct
The acceptance of a communication as sequence is
authoritative by individuals in a. 3,4,2,5,1
organizations depends upon b. 5,1,3,2,4
1. Zone of indifference to the nature of c. 5,4,2,1,3
authority. d. 3,2,1,5,4
2. Its clarity for purposes of 120. Match List I with List II and select the
understanding. correct answer
3. Its incompatibility with personal List I (Concepts)
interests. A. Intentional words
4. Its inconsistency with organizational B. Ideological barrier
purpose. C. Tyranny of words
Which of these are correct? D. Shop Talk
a. 1 and 2 List II (Authors)
b. 2 and 3 1. Simon
c. 1, 2 and 3 2. Millet
d. 2, 3 and 4 3. Terry
103. Which one of the following statements is 4. Pfeiffer
not correct? ABCD
a. Henri Fayol was an ardent advocate of a. 3 4 1 2
principle of unity of command b. 1 4 3 2
b. F W. Taylor rejected the principle of c. 3 4 2 1
unity of command d. 2 4 3 1
c. Under unity of command, an employee
receives orders from more than one
superior officer
d. Under unity of command, an employee
of an organization should report to one
 superior
104. The purpose of adjournment motion is to
a. Propose a reduction in the budget
b. Seek the approval of the house on a
proposal
c. Draw the attention of the house to a
matter of urgent public importance
d. Seek the leave of the house to
introduce a government bill
105. Which one of the following is the most
effective instrument of the ‘Executive
Control over administration?
a. Civil Service Code
b. Communication
c. Power of appointment and removal
d. Rule - making power 
IAS Prelims Public Administration 2002
1. Maslow’s theory proposed that
a. Money could motivate behavior in all
situations
b. Self -actualization is a lower-level
need
c. A satisfied need is a motivator
d. Lower-level needs must be satisfied
before higher-order needs
2. Consider the following statements:
The two-factor theory of motivation
1. Is given by Herbert Simon and James
March.
2. Is given by Herzberg, Mouser and
Snyder man.
3. Deals with achievement, recognition,
responsibility, work and advancement.
4. Is concerned with job satisfaction,
working conditions, interpersonal
relations, policy and administration
and supervision.
Which of these are correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 2, 3 and 4
3. The State Government’s administrative
control over municipalities does not
include power
a. Of inspection
b. Of approving bye-laws and rules
c. To decide over-borrowings
d. Of dissolution and super session
4. Ther merit principle of recruitment was
15. Which one of the following statements is
not correct?
a. The Railway Budget and the Demand
for Grants relating to Railways are
presented to the Parliament separately
b. Generally one Demand for Grant is
presented in respect of each ministry
or department
c. The Demand for Grants for the
Department of Telecommunications is
presented to the Parliament separately
d. The Demand for Grants of various
ministries include both plan and nonplan
estimates of expenditure under
each Head 
16. Consider the following audits:
1. Propriety Audit
2. Audit against provision of funds
3. Audit of stocks and stores
4. Audit of public undertakings
Which of these constitute audit of
expenditure?
a. Only l
b. 2,3 and 4
c. 3 and 4
d. l and 2
17. Which one of the following is not a
primary function of the accounting
system?
a. To reveal financial health of the
organization
b. To protect those who handle funds
c. To prevent unnecessary adjustments in
first recommended by expenditure
a. Northcote -Trevelyan Committee d. To help auditing
b. Aitcheson Commission 18. Consider the following statements:
c. Islington Commission The Administrative Tribunals are
d. Lee Commission advantageous because these are
5. Ministerial cabinet in the French 1. Cost-effective
administrative system is 2. Easily accessible
a. An instrument of administrative 3. Time-effective
supervision 4. Free from rigid rules and procedures
b. A committee of the council of Which of these are correct?
ministers a. Only 1
c. A coordinating organ at the head of a b. 1 and 2
ministry c. 1,2 and 3
d. A link between the ministry and the d. 2, 3 and 4
public 19. Lokayukta submits his report to the
6. Which one of the following statements is a. Chief Minister of the State
not correct about the training of personnel? b. Chief Justice of the State High Court
a. It is an investment in human resource c. Governor of the State
development d. Speaker of State Legislative Assembly
b. It is a tool of improving efficiency of 20. Which one of the following governments
personnel have enacted Right to Information Act in
c. It is to maintain the morale of the the year 2001 (w.e.f. October 2, 2001)?
personnel a. Government of Andhra Pradesh
d. Training can be formal only b. Government of Himachal Pradesh
7. Match List I with List II and select the c. Government of National Capital
correct answer: Territory of Delhi
List I : (Objective) d. Government of Tamil Nadu
A. To acquire administrative skills 21. Which one of the following statements is
through practice not correct about civil society
B. To introduce an appointee to the basic organizations?
concepts of his job, new work a. They are sovereign bodies
environment, organization and its goal b. They are voluntary but non-profit
C. To prepare a prospective employee for making agencies
public service c. They work in close proximity with
D. To stimulate the employees to make people
them efficient d. They create awareness, educate and
List II : (Training) sensitive people on common issues and
1. In-service acts as catalysts of social change
2. Informal 22. Which one of the following events is not
3. Orientation considered to be an indication of loss of
4. Pre-entry confidence of the Lower House of
ABCD Parliament?
a. 4 1 2 3 a. Adjournment motion is carried
b. 2 3 4 1 b. Vote of thanks on the President’s
c. 4 3 2 1 address is not carried
d. 2 1 4 3 c. Cut on money bill is passed
8. The system of Efficiency Rating for d. Censure motion is passed
scientifically assessing the performance of 23. Which one of the following writs
public officials for promotion, first examines the procedures of inferior Courts
originated in or Tribunals?
a. UK a. Quo warranto
b. USA b. Mandamus
c. China c. Prohibition
d. Japan d. Certiorari
9. Consider the following statements: 24. Consider the following recommendations:
In all parliamentary democracies the civil 1. Setting up of a Civil Service College
servants become more powerful because of 2. Unified Grading System
1. Principle of collective responsibility. 3. Setting up of a Civil Service
2. Principle of ministerial responsibility. Department
3. The practice of delegated legislation. 4. Greater specialization for
Which of these are correct? administrators
a. l and 2 Which of these recommendations were
b. 2 and 3 made by Fulton Committee?
PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION a. Only 1
c. 1,2 and 3 b. 1 and 2
d. l and 3 c. 2 and 3
10. Match List I with List II and select the d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
correct answer 25. Which one of the following committees
List I : (Fund) dealt with political activities of Civil
A. Consolidated Fund Servants in Britain?
B. Contingency Fund a. Northcote -Trevelyan Committee
C. Public Account b. Assheton Committee
D. National Renewal Fund c. Masterman Committee
List II : (Explanation) d. Plowden Committee
1. Unforeseen expenditure 26. In the Union Kingdom, the Parliamentary
2. Safety net to workers in sick Commissioner does not enjoy the power to
enterprises and to finance their training a. Look into the general complaints
3. Receipts through PF, small savings and arising out of a policy decision of the
other deposits Government
4. All revenue receipts, loans raised and b. Look into complaints of alleged maladministration
recovery of loans c. Investigate the work of the
ABCD Government departments, executive
a. 2 3 1 4 agencies and other bodies
b. 2 1 3 4 d. Report to the Parliament, from time to
c. 4 3 1 2 time, on the work done by him
d. 4 1 3 2 27. The document published by the British
11. The process of transferring funds from one Government in 1991 with the objective of
budget Head to another of the same raising the standards of public services
department, where there is need for more was entitled
expenditure, is called a. Civic Declaration
a. Re-allocation b. Civil Rights Charter
b. Transfer c. Citizen’s Charter
c. Vote on credit d. White Paper on Equal Opportunities
d. Re-appropriation 28. Which one of the following statements is
12. Consider the following statements: not correct in relation to Administrative
The Comptroller and Auditor-General of Courts in the United Kingdom?
India a. Statutes, Common Law and Equity are
1. Audits all expenditures from the sources of administrative laws
revenues of the Union and the States. b. The Administrative Courts developed
2. Ensures that total withdrawals by the on ad hoc basis
Union Government do not exceed the c. The Franks Commit-tee, 1955 was
amounts approved by the Parliament. appointed to study the working of the
3. Can comment on correctness or Administrative Courts
otherwise of financial transactions of d. The Franks Committee recommended
 the Union and the States.
4. Point out cases of non-compliance of
rules and regulations in expenditure.
Which of these are correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
13. Consider the following statements:
A budget is always
1. A statement of estimated income and
expenditure.
2. Either surplus or deficit.
3. Bounded by a time frame.
4. Performance oriented.
Which of these is/are correct?
a. Only 1
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 2, 3 and 4
14. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer
List I : (Thinker/Document)
A. Kautilya
B. Hoover Commission’s Report
C. L D. White
D. Plowder Report
List II (Abstract/Views)
1. All understandings depend on finance,
hence foremost authentic should be
paid to the treasury
2. Every administrative act has its
financial implications; either creating a
charge on the treasury or making a
contribution to it
3. Financial administration is at the core
of modem governments
4. Budget is a process in which the
instruments of taxation and
expenditure are used to influence the
course of economy
ABCD
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 1 3 2 4
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 4 2 3 1
31. Consider the following categories:
1. The engineers
2. The administrative generalists
3. The technical generalists
that the Chairman of the
Administrative Court should be
appointed by the King and not by the
minister
29. Consider the following statements:
The Office of Personnel Management in
the USA
1. Is an independent agency under the
President?
2. Takes care of recruitment and training
of federal employees.
3. Have appellate responsibilities.
4. Formulates basic personnel policies.
Which of these is/are correct?
a. Only 1
b. 2 and 3
c. 1,2 and 4
d. 3 and 4
30. Consider the following statements:
In the USA, control over financial
administration is exercised by the
1. Congress
2. Office of Management & Budget
3. Controller General
4. Department of Treasury
Which of these are correct?
a. 1,2 and 3
b. 1,3 and 4
c. 2 and 4
d. 3 and 4
47. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer:
List I (Definition)
A. Orderly synchronization of efforts to a
4. The scientists stated objective
Which of these are components of Higher B. Adjustment of the parts to the product
Civil Service in France? of the whole
a. 1,2 and 3 C. Integration of the several parts into an
b. 1,3 and 4 orderly whole to achieve the purpose
c. 2 and 4 D. Placing many aspects of an enterprise
d. 3 and 4 to proper positions
32. Consider the following statements: List II (Authors)
Introduction of administrative reforms in 1. Newman
France, in the recent past, has led to 2. Terry
1. Simpler administrative system 3. Charlesworth
2. Decentralized and participative 4. Dimock and Dimock
administrative system 5. James Mooney
3. Rendering the administrative system ABCD
re-inventive and adaptive to a. 4 2 1 3
global/regional developments b. 1 5 3 4
4. Helping administrative system c. 4 5 1 3
establish a superior territorial d. 1 2 3 4
authority/region 48. Which one of the following is not an
Which of these is/are correct? advantage of centralization?
a. Only 1 a. It provides for maximum control in
b. 2 and 3 organization
c. 1, 3 and 4 b. It ensures uniformity in administration
d. 2, 3 and 4 c. It enhances flexibility in the
33. Consider the following statements: organization
Japan’s Civil Service is characterized by d. It prevents abuse of authority in
1. Impartiality and anonymity administration
2. Neutrality and legality 49. Consider the following statements:
3. Politicization and patronage Centralization and decentralization have a
4. Promotion by seniority and total situational relevance and depend upon
quality consciousness 1. Responsibility factor
Which of these are correct? 2. Stability factor
a. Only 1 3. Functional factors
b. 2 and 3 4. Moral factors
c. 1,2 and 4 Which of these are correct?
d. 2,3 and 4 a. 1,2 and 3
34. Who among the following described b. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Public Administration as a subject matter c. 2, 3 and 4
in search of a discipline and said that there d. 1 and 4
was no single dominant analytical 50. Which one of the following statements
paradigm in the field? provides evidence that shows that meaning
a. L. D. White of authority and power differs from each
b. W F Willoughby other?
c. Paul H. Appleby a. Power means delegation of functions
d. Dwight Waldo and authority means making new
35. Consider the following statements: policies
Public administration is different from b. Power means supervision while
private administration for it authority means sanction of finances
1. Has to provide socially essential public c. Power means the competence to do
services something and authority means the
2. Has to protect and promote public right to order action by others
interest d. Power means authorizing a person
3. Is subject to public accountability while authority means integrating the
4. Can show differential treatment to activities of his subordinates
different people 51. Match List I with List II and select the
Which of these is/are correct? correct answer :
a. Only 1 List I (Agency)
b. 1 and 2 A. Line agency
c. 2,3 and 4 B. Staff agency
d. 1,2and3 C. Auxiliary agency
36. Consider the following statements: D. Technical staff agency
The imperatives of globalization for public List II (Job)
management reforms include 1. Responsible for substantive purpose
1. A push towards non-governmental 2. Provides means to achieve ends
sector. 3. Suggests reforms to the system
2. Empowerment of weak and women 4. Facilitates the work
3. Re-invention of government ABCD
4. Human resource development in a. 2 4 1 3
developing countries b. 1 3 2 4
Which of these are correct? c. 1 4 2 3
a. 3 and 4 d. 2 3 1 4
b. 1 and 2 52. Which one of the following is not correct
c. 2 and 4 about Scientific Management Movement?
d. 1 and 3 a. It was based on rationality and
37. The Public Choice Model known as the predictability in work
paradigm of democratic administration b. It emphasized on designs and
was advocated by processes of work
a. Vincent Ostrom c. It advocated close cooperation between
b. Herbert Simon workers
c. L. D. White d. It stressed on collaboration between
d. Robert A. Dahi workers and managers
38. Who among the following mooted the 53. Consider the following statements:
Minnow brook Conference of 1968? In Herbert A. Simon’s opinion, it is
a. L. D. White impossible for an individual making
b. Dwight Waldo personal or organizational decisions, to
c. Wamsley reach highest degree of rationality because
d. John Ruhr 1. Individuals have incomplete
39. Consider the following statements: knowledge of facts surrounding a
According to F. W. Riggs, Comparative problem
Public Administration involves a shift 2. Identifying all alternative solutions for
from a problem is normally impossible
1. Normative to empirical 3. The anticipated consequences of
2. Non-ecological to ecological various alternatives often differ from
3. Idiographic to homothetic those that are actually realized
4. Inter- disciplinary to intra-disciplinary 4. Human beings are guided by emotions
Which of these is/are correct? in the decision making process
a. Only 1 Which of these is/are correct?
b. I and 2 a. Only 1
c. 1, 2 and 3 b. 2 and 3
d. 2, 3 and 4 c. 1,2 and 3
40. The mercerization and privatization of d. 2, 3 and 4
public administration may result in 54. Which one of the following was not
a. Quasi - socialism emphasized by Max Weber in the
b. Laissez faire Idea/type of bureaucracy?
c. Neo - Capitalism a. Impersonal order should orient the
d. Liberalized regulations actions
41. Consider the following statements: b. Actions are bound by rules and norms
The New Public Management perspective c. Rules and norms are determined by
1. Theorizes proactive participation of circumstances
public-minded communities d. Actions, decisions and rules are
2. Emphasizes on inter-agency recorded in writing
adhocracies 55. Match List I with List II and select the
3. Does not dismiss non-public correct answer:
administrative structures as extra legal List I (Criticism)
4. Concentrates on existing institutions, A. Certain dysfunctional consequences
organizations and bureaucracies. are produced by the legal-rational
Which of these is/are correct? model
a. Only 1 B. The internal consistency of ideal type
b. 2 and 3 of bureaucracy is questioned
c. 3 and 4 C. The problem of goal displacement is
d. 1, 2 and 3 raised
42. Consider the following statements: D. The need for a fresh look at the
In Public Choice Model, the organization concept of rational administration is
of public services is strongly inclined emphasized
towards List II (Critic)
1. Small-scale rather than large-scale 1. Philip Zelznick
enterprises in public service provision. 2. Peter Black
2. Single all-purpose provider structures 3. Robert Merton
of public service rather than multipleprovider 4. Talcott Parsons
structures. ABCD
3. User-charges rather than general tax a. 1 4 3 2
funds as the basis of funding public b. 3 2 1 4
services other than pure public goods. c. 3 4 1 2
4. Private or independent enterprise d. 1 2 3 4
rather than public bureaucracy as the 56. Which one of the following principles is
instrument of service provision. not entailed in the famous acronym
Which of these is/are correct? POSDCORB?
a. Only 1 a. Planning
b. 2 and 3 b. Directing
c. 1, 3 and 4 c. Budgeting
d. 2, 3 and 4 d. Communicating
43. Who among the following said that “in a 57. Consider the following statements:
hierarchy, every employee tends to rise to The Classical theory of administration
his level of incompetence’? emphasizes that
a. Frederick W. Taylor 1. Economic incentives are the sole
b. Mary P Follett motivating factors
c. Peter F Drucker 2. It views the organization as a machine
d. Laurence J. Peter model
44. Consider the following statements: 3. Humanistic attitude towards the
Advantages of the principle of hierarchy employees should be shown
are that it 4. Only formal relationship is important
1. Enables to fix the responsibility at each Which of these is/are correct?
level a. Only 3
2. Leads to centralized decision-making b. 1 and 3
at top level c. 1, 2 and 4
3. Provides a channel of d. 2, 3 and 4
 58. Consider the following:
1. Effective leadership
2. Hierarchy
3. Administrative skills
4. Cooperation
According to Gulick, lack of which of
these is/are hindrances to coordination?
a. Only 1
command/communication
b. 1 and 3
4. Binds all units into an integrated whole
c. 2 and 4
Which of these is/are correct?
d. 2, 3 and 4
a. Only 1
59. Match List I with list II and select the
b. 2 and 3
correct answer:
c. 1,3 and 4
List I (Decision making)
d. 2, 3 and 4
A. Rational decision making approach
45. The principle of Unity of Command
B. Environmental scanning
ensures
C. Contingency plans
a. Accountability
D. Sub-optimizing
b. Acceptability
List II (Explanation)
c. Specialization
1. Systematic and step-by-step strategy
d. Co-ordination 
2. Continuous search of business
46. Match List I with List II and select the
environment for new opportunities and
correct answer:
threats to the organization
List I : (Concepts)
3. Accepting less than the best possible
A. Span of attention
outcome to avoid unintended negative
B. Level jumping
effects on other aspects of the
C. Classical theory of organization
organization
D. Functional foremanship
4. Taking alternative actions if primary
List II : (Thinkers)
course of action is unexpectedly
1. Henri Fayol
disrupted or rendered inappropriate
2. F. W. Taylor
ABCD
3. V. A. Graicunas
a. 1 3 4 2
4. Luther Gulick
b. 1 2 4 3
ABCD
c. 4 2 1 3
a. 3 4 1 2
d. 4 3 1 2
b. 3 1 4 2
60. Decision makers cannot deal with all
c. 2 1 4 3
possible aspects and information about
d. 2 4 1 3
every problem and its alternatives and
therefore choose to tackle some
meaningful subset of it. This assumption is
called
a. Satisfying
b. Rule of thumb
c. Bounded rationality
d. Self reaction
 
61. Match List I with List II and select the 74. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer: correct answer:
List I (Views) List I (Officer)
A. Discovering the informal A. Secretary
organization’s effect on B. Additional Secretary
output/productivity C. Deputy Secretary
B. Disputing the concept of total D. Under Secretary
rationality in administrative behavior List II (Responsibility)
C. Recommending creation of informal 1. In charge of a branch of the department
organization as a means of 2. Overall in charge of the department
communication and cohesion 3. In charge of a number of sections
D. Classifying bureaucracy into 4. Shares responsibilities of the Head of
aristocratic merit, guardian and caste the department
List II (Thinkers) ABCD
1. Herbert Simon a. 1 4 3 2
2. Chester Barnard b. 2 4 1 3
3. F.M. Marx c. 2 3 4 1
4. Elton Mayo d. 1 3 4 2
5. Max Weber 75. Which one of the following statements is
ABCD not correct about the Chief Secretary of a
a. 4 2 3 1 state?
b. 5 1 2 3 a. He is Secretary to the State Cabinet
c. 5 2 3 1 b. He is the Head of the civil services in
d. 4 1 2 3 the State
62. Consider the following statements: c. He is the principal advisor to the State
In the Systems approach Chief Minister
1. Every problem is viewed as a complex d. He supervises the execution of Cabinet
whole decisions
2. Linkage between different problems is 76. Consider the following statements with
considered respect to the legislative powers of the
3. The interaction between an Governor:
organization and its environment is 1. He summons, prorogues and dissolves
emphasized the assembly
4. At supervisory level, the relationship 2. He adjourns the sittings of the state
of hourly activities and immediate assembly
production objectives is not the prime 3. He addresses the first session of the
consideration legislative assembly after elections
Which of these are correct? 4. He causes to lay the budget in the
a. 1 and 2 assembly
b. 1,2 and 3 Which of these are correct?
c. 3 and 4 a. 1 and 2
d. 1,3 and 4 b. 2 and 3
63. Which of the following is not a statement c. 2 and 4
of Herbert Simon? d. 1 and 3
a. Decisions do not involve value 77. Which one of the following committees
propositions recommended the separation of regulatory
b. Every decision is a combination of fact and development functions at the district
and value propositions level?
c. Complete rationality in decision a. Dantwallah Committee
making is not possible b. Hanumantha Rao Committee
d. A decision is a choice between several c. Kothari Committee
alternatives d. G.VK. Rao Committee
64. Match List I with List II and select the 78. The main responsibility of Directorate in
correct answer: state administration is to
List I (Source of leader’s influence) a. Review policies
A. Expert Power b. Implement policies
B. Referent Power c. Make policies
C. Legitimate Power d. Evaluate policies
D. Personal Power 79. Which one of the following is not the duty
List II (Explanation) of District Magistrate?
1. A person controlling critical a. Maintenance of law and order
information for decision-making b. Collection of land revenue
2. Resides in the individual, regardless of c. Implementation of poverty alleviation
the position being filled programmes
3. Power granted by virtue of ones d. Conduct of local bodies elections
position in the organization 80. Consider the following statements with
4. When a person serves as a role model respect to the 73rd Constitutional
for others to follow Amendment: It provided
ABCD 1. For 27% reservations to the Other
a. 3 2 1 4 Backward Classes
b. 1 4 3 2 2. That the chairperson of the Panchayat
c. 3 4 1 2 at intermediate/ district level shall be
d. 1 2 3 4 elected by, and from amongst the
65. Who among the following tried to measure elected members thereof
a leader’s behavior with an instrument 3. For reservation for SCs / STs
called Least Preferred Co-worker Scale 4. For uniform five-year term for local
(LPC)? bodies
a. Edwin Fleischmann Which of these is/are correct?
b. Fred E. Fiedler a. Only 1
c. Robert R. Blake and Jane S. Mouton b. 1 and 2
d. E. E Harris c. 2, 3 and 4
66. Match List I with List II and select the d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
correct answer: 81. In which part of the Indian Constitution,
List I (Approach) has the provision for Panchayats been
A. Michigan and ohio State studies made?
B. Trait a. IX
C. Behavioral b. IV
D. Contingency c. Ill
List II (Explanation) d. IX A
1. Attempts to identify stable and 82. In which one of the following states, is
enduring characteristics that provision relating to reservation for
differentiate effective leaders from Scheduled Castes in Panchayats under
non-leaders 73rd Constitutional Amendment not
2. A set of behavioral features displayed’ applicable?
by the effective leader in any group or a. Nagaland
organizational setting b. Mizoram
3. Tries to identify behaviors that c. Meghalaya
differentiate leaders from non-leaders d. Arunachal Pradesh
4. Suggests that a leader’s effectiveness 83. The Recall provision to remove the elected
depends on the situations office-bearers from the local self
ABCD government institution has been executed
a. 3 1 2 4 in
b. 2 4 3 1 a. Bihar
c. 3 4 2 1 b. Kerala
d. 2 1 3 4 c. Madhya Pradesh
67. Consider the following statements: d. Haryana
Encoding and decoding problems in 84. Consider the following statements with
communication include respect to the Constitutional (Seventyfourth
1. Lack of common understanding Amendment) Act, 1992 : It
between source and receiver provided for
2. Problems related to semantics 1. Three-tier municipalities.
3. Value judgments 2. Ward committees
4. Selective attention 3. District Planning Committees
Which of these are correct? 4. Direct elections of chairperson of a
a. 1 and 2 municipality
b. 2 and 3 Which of these is/are correct?
c. 3 and 4 a. Only 1
d. 1, 3 and 4 b. 2and3
68. Match List I with List H and select the c. 1,2and3
correct answer: d. 2, 3 and 4
List I (Communication Network) 85. Assertion (A): The 73rd Constitutional
A. Wheel Amendment Act is the culmination of the
B. Chain process of democratic decentralization.
C. Circle Reason (R): The state should take steps to
D. Channel organize village Panchayats and endow
List II (Explanation) them with such powers and authority as
1. Information flows between the person, may be necessary to enable them to
at the end of each segment arid the function as units of self-government.
modal person a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
2. Each member communicates with the correct explanation of A
persons on both sides but with no one b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
else the correct explanation of A
3. Each member communicates with the c. A is true but R is false
persons above and below, but not with d. A is false but R is true
the individuals on each end 86. Assertion (A): Managerialism and
4. All members communicate with all mercerization can help public
other members administration move towards an increased
ABCD volume of public goods and services.
a. 1 2 3 4 Reason (R): Failure to implement public
b. 4 2 3 1 law principles relating to contracts reduces
c. 4 3 2 1 the accountability of the public
d. 1 3 2 4 administration.
69. Which one of the following statements a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
about the grapevine is not correct? correct explanation of A
a. It is much more flexible than formal b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
channels the correct explanation of A
b. It transmits information rapidly c. A is true but R is false
c. It is a convenient way to pass on the d. A is false but R is true
information that is not to be 87. Assertion (A): The New Public
transmitted formally Administration movement has failed to
d. It gives reliable information in making take root.
optimal decisions Reason (R): It was a mere gust of
70. The Articles in the Indian Constitution that emotions with no clearly defined
are grouped under Services under the operational underpinnings.
Union and the States are a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
a. Articles 310 to 323 correct explanation of A
b. Articles 308 to 323 b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
c. Articles 306 to 323 the correct explanation of A
d. Articles 305 to 323 c. A is true but R is false
71. Which of the following is not reserved by d. A is false but R is true
the Governor for the consideration of the 88. Assertion (A): Acquisition rather than

President?
a. Bills affecting powers of the High
Courts
b. Bills relating to compulsory
acquisition of property
c. Bills seeking to impose restrictions on
the inter-state trade
d. Bills relating to imposition of taxes on
agricultural income
72. Which one of the following Constitutional
Amendments made it possible to appoint
one person to hold the office of the
Governor in two or more states
simultaneously?
a. Constitution (Seventh Amendment)
Act, 1956
b. Constitution (Forty- second
Amendment) Act, 1976
c. Constitution (Forty- third Amendment)
Act, 1977
d. Constitution (Forty- fourth
Amendment) Act, 1978
73. Which one of the following is not correct
with respect to the powers of the Governor
regarding a Bill passed by the State
Legislature?
a. He may give his assent to the Bill
b. He may withhold the Bill
c. He may reserve the Bill for the
consideration of the President
d. He shall have no alternative but to give
his assent to the Bill
91. Assertion (A): Position-classification is
the foundation of modern personnel
administration.
Reason (R): Position-classification allows
rationalization in civil services.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
92. Assertion (A): Service conduct rules lay
stress on penalties and punishments for
aberrations and departures from the
underlined ethical guidelines.
Reason (R): These conduct rules speak of
factors that lead to situations and
responsiveness is the major thrust in
market debate.
Reason (R): Market concerns and public
interest ethics, in their ultimate are
supplementary.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
89. Assertion (A): In government offices, 0 &
M units function as line agencies.
Reason (R): o & M units are expected to
play advisory role.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
90. Assertion (A): It is the functions of the
judiciary to ensure that the civil service
functions within the limits of law.
Reason (R): The judicial control over civil
service is expensive, dilatory and
complicated.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
104. Consider the following:
The Prime Minister is the head of the
1. Finance Commission
2. Planning Commission
3. National Development Council
4. Cabinet Secretariat
Which of these is/are correct?
a. 1,2 and 3
b. 1,3 and 4
c. 2,3 and 4
d. Only 4
105. Who among the following is responsible
for the final compilation of the accounts of
the Union Government?
a. Finance Minister
b. Secretary (Finance)
c. Controller General of Accounts
behavioral norms to be followed in cases
of conflicts and decisional dilemmas.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
93. Assertion (A): In order to maintain high
level of ethical and professional standards
in the civil services, it is not necessary to
frame a code of conduct for public
officials.
Reason (R): Professional standards are
determined by exemplary political
leadership, sound administrative traditions,
social ethics and effective disciplinary
measures.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
94. Assertion (A): In a line-item budget only
input related matters are considered
whereas in a performance budget only
output related matters are given
importance.
Reason (R): Performance budgeting is
linking performance levels with specific
budget amounts.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
95. Assertion (A): Attaché System is
prevalent in the Ministry of External
Affairs and the Ministry of Defense.
Reason (R): The nature and complexity of
the business of these ministries is beyond
the capacity of assistants and clerks.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
96. Assertion (A): Financial accountability of
the Union Government to Parliament is
d. Comptroller and Auditor-General 
106. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer:
List I (Commission/Committee)
A. Maxwell Committee
B. Tottenham Committee
C. Secretariat Procedure Committee
D. The Lee Commission
List II (Recommendations)
1. Constitution of Public Service
Commission
2. Staff Pattern of Imperial Secretariat
3. Division of Ministerial Staff
4. Central Staff Selection Board
ABCD
a. 3 2 4 1
b. 4 1 3 2
c. 3 1 4 2
d. 4 2 3 1
107. Which one of the following was
established to improve administrative
efficiency of the Government
departments?
a. Central Statistical Organization
b. Organizations and Methods Division
c. Ministry of Personnel, Public
Grievances and Pension
d. Ministry of Statistics and Programme
Implementation
108. Consider the following functions:
1. To prepare briefs for Cabinet meetings
2. To monitor implementation of Cabinet
decisions
3. To redress complaints regarding
service matters
4. To keep the President and the Vice-
President apprised of the major
Cabinet decisions
Which of these functions are performed by
the Cabinet Secretary?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4
109. Which one of the following bodies
regularly reviews the progress of the Five
Year Plans?
a. National Development Council
b. Planning Commission
c. Cabinet Secretariat
d. Union Cabinet
110. In prescribing the form in which the
ensured through the reports of the
Comptroller and Auditor- General.
Reason (R): Comptroller and Auditor-
General have to submit the report to the
President who causes it to be laid before
the Lok Sabha.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
97. Assertion (A): The relations between
administrative officials and elected
representatives should be more cordial and
of mutual trust in the interest of
development of the community.
Reason (R): It is emphasized that sense of
involvement and of participation by the
people is vital for the success of the Five
Year Plans.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
98. Assertion (A): The principles which
govern the grants - in-aid of the revenues
of the States out of the Consolidated Fund
of India are determined by the Finance
Commission.
Reason (R): The Finance Commission is a
Constitutional body to deal with financial
relations between the Union and the States.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
99. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer:
List I (Concept)
A. Dyarchy in Provincial Government
B. Rigid centralization
C. Federal scheme of Government
D. Communal representation
List II (Source)
1. Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
2. Government of India Act, 1935
3. Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919
accounts of the Union and the States are to
be kept, the Comptroller and Auditor-
General is expected to take approval of the
a. Parliament
b. Legislature of the State concerned and
the Parliament
c. Finance Minister
d. The President of India
111. Consider the following institutions:
1. The Planning Commission
2. The Supreme Court
3. The Finance Commission
4. Special Officer for Linguistic
Minorities
Which of these is/are not enumerated in
the Constitution of India?
a. 1 and 2
b. Only 1
c. Only 4
d. 1 and 3
112. In the post-liberalization period, the
concept of BOOT refers to the
development of
a. Private sector
b. Public sector
c. Infrastructure
d. Import and export
113. The Consolidated Fund of India is made
up of
a. The excise duty and the income tax
b. the income tax and the corporate tax
c. the money raised from all loans
d. all revenue receipts of the Government
of India
114. Consider the following statements:
The Prime Ministers Office
1. Came into existence in January 1950
2. Was known as the Prime Ministers
Secretariat till June 1977
3. Has no subordinate offices attached to
it
4. Assists the President to know about the
work of the Government
Which of these are correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4
115. Who among the following advocated the
need for psychological tests in
recruitments of the civil services in India?
a. Paul Appleby
4. Indian Councils Act, 1861
ABCD
a. 2 1 3 4
b. 2 4 3 1
c. 3 1 2 4
d. 3 4 2 1
100. Consider the following statements:
The Vice - regal system of colonial India
embodied the principle of
1. Absolute bureaucratic rule
2. Ceremonial role of the viceroy
3. Constitutional autocracy
4. Centralized administration
Which of these is/are correct?
a. Only 1
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 2, 3 and 4
101. The grants made in advance by the Lok
Sabha in respect of estimated expenditure
is called
a. Token grant
b. Vote on credit
c. Exceptional grant
d. Vote on account
102. Consider the following statements:
The President of India has the power to
address both Houses of Parliament at the
commencement of
1. The first session after the general
elections
2. Each session
3. The first session of each year
4. The budget session each year
Which of these are correct?
a. 2 and 3
b. 1 and 4
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 4
103. Which one of the following is not the duty
of the Prime Minister in India?
a. To communicate to the President all
the decisions of the Council of
Ministers
b. To furnish to the President information
relating to the administration of the
affairs of the State
c. To submit to the President the agenda
of the Cabinet meeting for his approval
d. To submit any matter for the
consideration of the Council of
Ministers, if the President so requires
b. A. D. Gorwala
c. Harry W. Blair
d. V. Subramaniam
116. Which one of the following Commissions
recommended functional specialization in
the Indian Administrative Service?
a. Expenditure Reforms Commission
b. Administrative Reforms commission
c. IVth Central Pay Commission
d. Vth Central• Pay Commission
117. Consider the following statements:
Recruitment to the Indian Administrative
Services is made by
1. Open competitive examination
2. Promotion of members of State Civil
Services
3. Selection in special cases from among
persons who hold gazette posts under
the State Governments and are not
members of the State Civil Services.
Which of these is/are correct?
a. Only 1
b. 1 and 2
c. 1 and 3
d. 1,2 and 3
118. The Minister- Civil Servant relationship in
India emerged as a result of
a. Government of India Act, 1935
b. Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919
c. Indian Constitution, 1950
d. Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
119. Which among the following is empowered
to create more All-India Services?
a. Rajya Sabha
b. Union Parliament
c. Lok Sabha
d. Union Cabinet
120. Consider the following services:
1. Overseas Communication Service
2. Military Engineering Service
3. Company Law Board Service
4. Defense Lands and Cantonment
Service
Which of these is/are Central services?
a. 3 only
b. 2 only
c. 2 and 4
d. 1,2,3 and 4

IAS Prelims Public Administration 2003
1. A great provided by the Parliament in
respect of the estimated expenditure for
the part of the ensuring financial year
pending the regular passage of the budget
is called
a. Appropriation Account
b. Token Cut
c. Vote on Account
d. Cut Motion
2. The most effective instrument of the
executive control over administration is
a. Civil service code
b. Communication
c. Rule-making power
d. The charged expenditure includes
3. The charged expenditure and Removal
a. Any sums required to satisfy any
judgment decrees or award of any
court of arbitral tribunals
b. Debt charges for which the
government of India is libel
c. The salaries and allowances of certain
high officials
d. All the above
4. The primary objective of judicial control is
to
a. Punish the criminals
b. Resolve disputes
c. Protect citizens’ rights
d. Safeguard private property
5. Which one of the following is involved in
the preparation of the budget estimates?
a. Finance Ministry
b. Administrative Ministries
c. Planning Commission
d. All the above
6. Which one of the following is not correct?
Citizen& participation makes
administrative processes
a. Responsive
b. Effective
c. Efficient
d. Transparent
7. Which one of the following is not a
function of Union Public Service
Commission?
a. Recruitment rules
b. Classification of services
c. Disciplinary mailers
d. Promotion and deputation
17. Consider the following statements:
The Finance Commission in India is
created
1. By the President of India on the advice
of the Union Cabinet
2. Under Article 280 of the Constitution
of India
3. To suggest ways and means to
augment the financial resources of the
Union and the States
4. To make recommendations to the
President defining the principles which
should govern the grants-in-aid of the
revenues of the States out of the
Consolidated Fund of India
Which of these statements are correct?
a. 2, 3 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4
18. Consider the following statements:
The Council of Ministers under the NDA
Government comprises
1. Cabinet Ministers
2. Ministers of State
3. Deputy Ministers
4. Parliamentary Secretaries
Which of these statements are correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 1 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
19. Which one of the following is not true
about audit?
a. The audit is mostly limited to
expenditure side only
b. Audit in India is a Union Subject
c. Audit examines the question of
propriety of expenditure
d. Audit is conducted on behalf of the
Executive
20. Which one of the following is not a correct
statement in relation to public corporation?
a. It comes into existence as a result of an
Act of Parliament
b. It is a legal body capable of suing and
being sued
c. It is subject to the budget, accounting,
audit laws and procedures applicable to
government departments
8. The role of civil society in public
administration is manifested in the form of
a. Pressure Groups
b. Political Parties
c. Non-governmental Organizations
d. Press
9. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer:
List I
A. Designation of the Governor General
of Bengal as the Governor-General of
India and his Government as the
Government of India
B. Dyarchy introduced in Indian
Government
C. Twin features of All-India Federation
and Provincial Autonomy
D. Control of the Government of India
transferred from• East India Company
to the British Crown
List II
1. Charter Act of 1833
2. Government of India Act, 1858
3. Government of India Act, 1919
4. Government of India Act, 1935
ABCD
a. 1 4 3 2
b. 2 3 4 1
c. 1 3 4 2
d. 2 4 3 1
10. The body at the apex of the system of
administrative courts in France is
a. The Constitutional Council
b. The Economic and Social Council
c. The Council of State
d. The Court of Accounts
11. Central Secretariat in the Government of
India comprises
a. Presidential Secretariat. Lok Sabha
Secretariat and Cabinet Secretariat
PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION
b. All Ministries and Departments (with
Secretaries to the Government) in the
Government of India
c. Prime Ministers Secretariat and
Cabinet Secretariat
d. Lok Sabha Secretariat and Rajya Sabha
Secretariat
12. Match List I with List If and select the
correct answer:
List I (Bodies)
A. Central Secretariat
d. It is under State ownership
21. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer:
List I (Provisions)
A. Tenure of office of persons serving the
Union or State
B. Public Service Commissions for the
Union and for States
C. Recruitment and conditions of service
of persons serving in the Union or
State
D. Dismissal, removal, reduction in rank
of persons employed in civil capacity
under the Union or State
List II (Contained in)
1. Article 315
2. Article 310
3. Article 312
4. Article 309
5. Article 311
ABCD
a. 2 5 4 1
b. 4 1 3 5
c. 2 1 4 5
d. 4 5 3 1
22. Consider the following statements:
The importance of public administration in
developing countries has increased
because
1. People are asking for better public
services
2. Political management is of poor quality
3. Administration has lagged behind in
technological innovations
4. The developmental thrusts are too
heavy for the administration to manage
Which of these are correct?
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 2, 3 and 4
23. Which of the following is not correct in
respect of local government bodies?
a. English local bodies are multipurpose
b. American local bodies are more
nonfunctional
c. In India. local bodies though elected,
do not have constitutional status
d. In France, Canton was made the unit of
local government
24. Consider the following statements:
The principles that differentiate public
B. Cabinet Secretariat administration from the private
C. Planning Commission administration are
D. Finance Commission 1. Principle of uniformity
List II (Related Activities) 2. Principle of external financial control
1. Principles governing grants-in-aid to 3. Principle of ministerial responsibility
States 4. Principle of profiteering in an
2. Formulation of policies enterprise
3. Coordination of activities of various Select the correct answer using the codes
Ministries given below:
4. Allocation of resources a. 1 and 4
ABCD b. 2 and 4
a. 2 1 4 3 c. 1, 2 and 3
b. 4 3 2 1 d. 2, 3 and 4
c. 2 3 4 1 25. The ‘CLECTS’ in Prismatic Society of
d. 4 1 2 3 Riggs are
13. Consider the foil owing statements: a. Hereditary leaders of caste groups
The Cabinet Secretariat b. Elected leaders of middle class
1. Is a constitutional body c. Political leaders who could not win
2. Is a staff agency elections
3. Works under the direction of the prime d. Elite groups who use traditional clout
Minister to win elections
4. Is a creation of the cabinet 26. ‘There should be a science of
Which of these statements are correct? administration which shall seek to
a. 1 and 2 straighten the paths of government, to
b. 2 and 3 make its business less un business-like, to
c. 3 and 4 strength then and purify its organizations,
d. l and 4 and to crown its duties with dutifulness.’
14. Match List I with List 11 and select the Which one of the following scholars
correct answer: cherished this idea?
List I (Function) a. Frank J. Goodnow
A. Supervision of Expenditure b. Peter F. Drucker
B. Coordination in the Central Secretariat c. R. H. DahI
C. Appointment of High Court Judges d. Woodrow Wilson
D. Alternative Expenditure Policy 27. Consider the following statements:
List II (Constitutional Authority) The study of formal organization
1. President of India 1. Treats it as a skeleton
2. Chief Minister 2. Deals with it as a social system
3. Financial Adviser in the Ministry of 3. Examines behavior of its members
Finance 4. Evaluates application of first principles
4. Cabinet Secretary of administration
5. Estimate Committee Which of these statements are correct?
ABCD a. 1 and 2
a. 1 5 2 4 b. 2 and 3
b. 3 4 1 5 c. 3 and 4
c. 1 4 2 5 d. 1 and 4
d. 3 5 1 4 28. Match List I with List II and select the
15. Consider the following statements: correct answer:
The Comptroller and Auditor-General of List I (US Offices)
India is responsible for the audit of the A. The White House
accounts of B. Office of Policy Development
1. The Union Government C. Office of the US Trade Representative
2. State Governments D. Office of the Budget Management
 List II (Characteristic)
1. It aids the President in formulation.
implementation and coordination of
the economic and domestic policy
2. It covers the entire range of executive
functions
3. It assists the President in preparation
and execution of the
4. annual budget
5. It assists the President in executing
trade agreements
3. The Governments of Union Territories
6. It assists in recruitment and the
4. The urban and rural local bodies
Government posts
Which of these statements are correct?
ABCD
a. 1, 2 and 3
a. 3 5 1 2
b. 2, 3 and 4
b. 2 1 4 3
c. 1, 3 and 4
c. 3 1 4 2
d. 1, 2 and 4 
d. 2 5 1 3
16. Consider the following statements:
29. In view of developmental orientation of
The Committee on Public Enterprises
District Administration, which one of the
1. Is a creation .of Parliament
following can be regarded as the chief role
2. Is a constitutional body
of District Collector?
3. Was created by the Cabinet
a. As a ruler
4. Has 22 members
b. As a coordinator
Which of these statements are correct?
c. As a manager
a. 1 and 2
d. As a supervisor
b. 2 and 3
30. Which of the following are not correctly
c. 3 and 4
co-related?
d. 1 and 4
1. Unity of command : Hierarchy
2. Long chain of command : Broad span
of control
3. Small chain of command : Broad span
of control
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 3
c. 3 only
d. 2 and 3
 
31. Consider the following factors: 47. Match List I with List II and select the
1. Nature of work correct answer:
2. Age of the agency List I
3. Leadership A. C. I. Bernard
4. Location of the organizational units B. D. Easton
These factors are the determinants of C. F Riggs
which one of the following? D. Blake and Mouton
a. Delegation List II
b. Supervision 1. Bazaat-Canteen model
c. Authority 2. Managerial grid
d. Span of control 3. Systems approach
32. Who among the following is not in favor 4. Input-Output model
of coordination as a separate function? 5. Linking -pir model
a. Mooney ABCD
b. Tead a. 1 2 5 4
c. Simon b. 3 4 1 2
d. Fayol c. 1 4 5 2
33. Consider the following statements: d. 3 2 1 4
Pressures for centralization throughout the 48. Which of the following is not a department
administrative system arise of State Secretariat?
1. From the economic angle about a. Census
centralized purchasing of stores b. Home
2. From the demand of public employees c. Revenue
for more equality of treatment by d. Planning
centralizing the personnel management 49. The US Civil Service was set up under a
3. From the skill angle which justify statute passed by the Congress in 1883, but
uniform treatment to a particular was abolished and replaced by the
specialized work a. Office of Personnel Management.
4. From the need for imposition of b. Merit System Protection Board
controls by respective heads of c. Federal Labor Relation Authority
departments d. Civil Service Department
Which of these statements are correct? 50. The President of India enjoys the right to
a. 1 and 2 issue regulations with regard to the
b. 1, 2 and 3 a. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
c. 3 and 4 b. Lakshadweep
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 c. Both Andaman and Nicobar Islands,
34. Consider the following: and Lakshadweep
1. Granting prior approval of the projects d. Neither Andaman and Nicobar Islands
2. Placing budgetary limitations upon the nor Lakshadweep
magnitude of operations 51. Match List I with List II and select the
3. Seeking reports on work programme correct answer:
All these techniques relate to which one of List I (Concepts)
the following? A. Structure
a. Coordination B. Functions
b. Delegation C. Dysfunction
c. Supervision List II (Meaning)
d. Planning 1. Unobserved consequences
35. Influenced by the works of Taylor and 2. Unintended consequences
Fayol; Gullick and Urwick developed the 3. Formal pattern of relations within a
classical theory of organization, which is framework
known as 4. Observed objective consequence of an
a. Traditional Management Theory action
b. Theory of Functionalism ABC
c. Administrative Management Theory a. 3 4 2
d. Theory of Departmentalism b. 4 2 1
36. What is the correct chronological sequence c. 4 1 3
of the following events? d. 3 2 4
1. Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms 52. Match List I with List II and select the
2. Inauguration of Provincial Autonomy correct answer:
3. Morley-Minto Reforms Bill List I (Books)
Select the correct answer using the codes A. Administrative Theories and Politics
given below: B. Public Administration and Synthesis
a. 1, 2, 3 C. Management in Government
b. 2, 3, 1 D. Organizational Behavior
c. 3, 2, 1 List II (Authors)
d. 3, 1, 2 1. Fred Luthans
37. Match List I with List II and select the 2. C. D. Keeling
correct answer: 3. Peter Self
List I (Author) 4. Howard McCurdy
A. Henry Fayol ABCD
B. Gulick and Urwick a. 3 1 2 4
C. Mary Parker Follett b. 2 4 3 1
D. Mooney and Reily c. 3 4 2 1
List II (Contribution) d. 2 1 3 4
1. POSDCORB 53. Consider the following statements in
2. Four principles relation to the Office of the Parliamentary
3. Motivation and leadership Commission for Administration in Britain:
4. Fourteen principles of organization 1. Ii looks into acts of maladministration
ABCD 2. Citizens’ complaints must he referred
a. 3 1 4 2 to it by a Member of Parliament
b. 4 2 3 1 3. Its decisions are binding on the
c. 3 2 4 1 Government
d. 4 1 3 2 4. Its report is submitted to the Queen
38. Match List I with List II and select the Which of these statements are correct?
correct answer: a. 1 and 2
List I (Critics of Weber) b. 2 and 3
A. Gouldner c. 1 and 4
B. Merton d. 1, 2 and 3
C. Bennis 54. What is the correct sequence of the
D. Presthus following studies?
List II (Points of Criticism) 1. Michigan Studies
1. Lack of flexibility 2. Bank Wiring Room Study
2. Outmoded form 3. Philadelphia Studies
3. Product of alien culture 4. Ohio State Studies
4. Internal contradictions Select the correct answer using the codes
ABCD given below:
a. 4 1 2 3 a. 3, 2, 4, 1
b. 3 2 1 4 b. 4, 1, 3, 2
c. 4 2 1 3 c. 3, 1, 4, 2
d. 3 1 2 4 d. 4, 2, 3, 1
39. Which one of the following statements is 55. Consider the following statements with
not correct? regard to the prohibition as to the holding
Weberian model of bureaucracy is of offices by members of Public Service
criticized because it insists on Commissions on ceasing to be such
a. Rigid adherence to the principle of members:
hierarchy 1. The Chairman of the UPSC shall be
b. Emphasis on maintenance of written ineligible for further employment
documents either under the Government of India
c. Belief in increase of efficiency on or under the Government of State
account of structure 2. The Chairman of a State Public
d. Recognition of informal organization Service Commission shall be eligible
in formal organization for appointment as Chairman or any
40. An organization exists when the following other member of the UPSC or as
conditions are fulfilled : Chairman of any other State Public
1. There are persons able to communicate Service Commission, but not for any
with each other
2. They are willing to contribute to the
action
3. They attempt to accomplish a common
purpose
Who amongst the following proposed
these conditions?
a. E. Mayo
b. C. I. Bernard
c. Max Weber
d. Henry Fayol
41. Consider the following statements:
Human behavior in terms of decisionmaking
1. Is totally rational
2. Is totally irrational
3. Depends upon degree of satisfaction
4. Depends upon degree of dissatisfaction
Which of these statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 4
d. 3 and 4
42. Behavioral approach recognizes three
major factors in decision-making process.
These are
a. Legal-rational authority, values and
influence
b. Values, facts and policies
c. Purpose, place and people
d. Goals, policies and orders
43. Which one of the following is not correct
about the Hawthorne Studies?
a. Results in the relay room were
practically illumination experiment
b. The wage incentive in itself was not an
independent effect on the individual
c. Information about employee attitudes
and group dynamics was ably collected
d. Positive relationship between the
capacity to perform and actual
performance was revealed
44. Which one of the experiments was carried
out as Bank Wiring Observation Room
experiments?
a. Experiments investigating the
relationship between illumination and
productivity
b. Experiments investigating the
relationship between hours of work,
rest periods and productivity
c. Experiments concerned with the
analysis of employees’ attitudes
other employment either under the
Government of India or under the
Government of State
3. A member other than Chairman of the
UPSC shall be eligible for appointment
as Chairman of the UPSC or as
Chairman of a State Public Service
Commission but not for any other
employment, either under the
Government of India or under the
Government of a State
4. A member other than Chairman of the
State Public Service Commission shall
be eligible for appointment as
Chairman or any other member of
UPSC or as Chairman of that or any
other State Public Service
Commission, but not for any other
employment either under the
Government of India or under the
Government of a State
Which of these statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 4
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
56. ‘Training is the process of developing
skills, habits, knowledge and attitudes in
employees in their present government
positions as well as preparing them for
future government positions.’ This
definition of training has been given by
a. Paul Appleby
b. William G. Tropey
c. Nigro
d. L. D. White
57. Which one of the following statements is
not correct?
a. A Minister is appointed by the
Governor on the advice of the Chief
Minister
b. Before a Minister enters upon his’
office, the Governor shall administer to
him the oath of office and of secrecy
c. There shall be a Council of Ministers
with the Chief Minister at the head to
aid and advise the Governor who shall,
in the exercise of his functions, act in
accordance with such advice
d. Only the Governor of Jammu and
Kashmir is vested with the power to
impose Governor’s rule in Jammu and
 d. Experiments investigating the analysis
of the social organizations of work
groups
45. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer:
List I (Hawthorne Experiments)
A. Illumination Experiments
B. Relay Assembly Test Room
Experiments
C. Bank Wiring Observation Room
Kashmir
Experiments
58. Consider the following statements:
D. Interviewing Programmes
National Development Council is
List II (Focus)
concerned with the work of
1. Fatigue
1. Assessment of resources for the Plan
2. Physical working
2. Formation of National Plan
3. Human relations
3. Consideration of the National Plan
4. Employee relations with supervisor &
4. Review of the National Plan
management
Which of these statements are correct?
ABCD
a. 1, 3 and 4
a. 2 1 4 3
b. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 3 4 1
c. 2, 3 and 4
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 1, 2 and 4
d. 4 3 2 1 
59. Which one of the following is not a
46. Match List I with List II and select the
function of the Chief Secretary of a State
correct answer:
Government?
List I (Characteristics of a System)
a. Providing secretarial assistance to the
A. Transformation
State Cabinet
B. Negative Entropy
b. Approval of incentives to State Civil
C. Differentiation
Servants
D. Equi-finality
c. Acting as the policy coordination
List II (Explanation)
centre
1. A constant exchange of inputs and
d. Serving as a data bank
outputs with the environment
60. Who among the following is the sole
2. It suggests that the organization can
representative of the State Government in
reach the same point of view through
the district?
any of several routes
a. Chairman of Zila Parishad
3. It suggests that all organized forms
b. MP from the District
move towards disorganization and
c. Divisional Commissioner
demise
d. District Collector
4. Moving towards well-differentiated
specialization of roles and functions
5. A process includes work done on the
input and then internal operation of the
organization
ABCD
a. 4 3 1 2
b. 5 2 4 3
c. 4 2 1 3
d. 5 3 4 2
 
61. In which one of the following States, is 77. Assertion (A): The classification of
unified personnel system operating in
municipal corporations?
a. Andhra Pradesh
b. West Bengal
c. Gujarat
d. Kerala
62. As per Article 243-H of 73rd
Constitutional Amendment Act the
Legislature of a State, may by law, provide
for making grants-in-aid to the Panchayats
from
a. Contingency Fund of the. President
b. Contingency Fund of the Governor
c. Consolidated Fund of the State’
d. Consolidated Fund of India
63. Consider the following statements:
73rd Amendment of the Constitution has
provided constitutional sanction for
1. Building a three-tier structure of
Panchayati Raj
2. Reservation of seats for women
3. Withdrawal of the right of
governments to hold elections to
Panchayats
4. Taking away the right of State
Governments to give grants to
Panchayats
Which of these statements are correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4
64. Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution
relating to the Panchayats contains
a. 18 items
b. 28 items
c. 19 items
d. 29 items
65. Which one of the following is not correct
for the Local Government?
a. A constitutional obligation for the
Village Panchayats to function as units
of self-government
b. The Constitution places the subject of
local self- government as a
responsibility of the States
c. A constitutional obligation for the
Slates to constitute Finance
Commission to ensure financial
viability of Municipalities
d. A constitutional obligation for the
Municipalities to carry out schemes
services in United States of America is
more scientific than that of Great Britain.
Reason (R): In America the system of
position classification prevails as against
that of Great Britain wherein the system of
rank classification has been adopted.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
78. Assertion (A): The morale of public
officials is universally recognized to be
one of the important factors conducive to
efficiency in administration.
Reason (R): It is the management’s
responsibility to appreciate the
significance of morale, to fashion tools to
measure it and discover ways to foster it.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
79. Assertion (A): The Finance Commission
depends mainly on the data and
information of the financial needs of the
States, supplied by the States themselves.
Reason (R): This information and data
may not be free from the hidden
unrealities; and an attempt to secure more
financial assistance and window dressing
of the financial position of the States
cannot be ruled out.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
80. Assertion (A): It has been felt by the
experts that there is a general tendency in
the administration to lay more emphasis on
material and financial management while
utterly neglecting the personnel.
Reason (R): Administration is not
attending earnestly to the administration of
the personnel’s who are the real agents of
development and ultimately the
beneficiary of the process of development.
related to public distribution system
66. In which pair of Schedules of the
Constitution, the functions of Panchayats
and Municipalities are incorporated?
a. 8th and 9th
b. 9th and 10th
c. 10th and 11th
d. 11th and l2fth
67. A new Panchayat constituted upon the
dissolution of a Panchayat before the
expiration of its term shall continue
a. For next five years from the date of its
first meeting and no longer
b. For the remainder of the period for
which the dissolved panchayat would
have continued had it not been so
dissolved
c. Till it enjoys the pleasure of the
Governor
d. Till State Legislative Assembly allows
it to continue
68. Consider the following with regard to
important features of the 73rd
Constitutional Amendment
1. Direct elections of members at all
levels
2. Mandatory provision for holding
elections
3. Direct election of Chairperson at the
village level:’
4. Indirect election of the Chairperson at
the intermediate and at the district
level
Which of these statements are correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 1, 3 and 4
69. Ashok Mehta Committee report, 1978
recommended Constitution of
a. Two tiers of Panchayati Raj
institutions at the village and block
levels
b. Two tiers of Panchayati Raj
institutions at Mandal (group of
villages) and district levels
c. Three tiers of Panchayati Raj
institutions at the village, block and
district levels
d. Three tiers of Panchayati Raj
institutions at the village, district and
regional levels
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
81. Assertion (A): Zero-base budgeting
ensures better participation of executives
which leads to better communication,
development of interpersonal
relationships, better learning and personnel
development.
Reason (R): In zero-base budgeting, any
subsequent changes in the availability of
funds for spending during the budget
period do not require earlier allocation of
finance.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
82. Assertion (A): The tools of legislative
control over administration in a
parliamentary system are different from
those in the presidential system.
Reason (R): An important feature of
democratic government is the legislative
control over administration.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
83. Assertion (A): American Civil Service in
higher ranks is specialist-oriented and not
generalist-oriented.
Reason (R): FSEE and PACE
Examinations have created specialist
cadres.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
84. Assertion (A): Directorates translate into
action the policies framed by the State
Secretariat.
Reason (R): They are the executive arm of
70. Which one of the following is not a feature
of the Japanese Civil Service?
a. No horizontal entry into top and
middle ranks
b. There are post-retirement assignments
c. Participatory decision-making does not
fit into working of the private sector
d. Social sanctions ensure responsibility
and accountability of civil servants
71. Assertion (A): Provision of public
services irrespective of citizens’
satisfaction is the aim of traditional model
of Public Administration.
Reason (R): The Public Choice theorists
believe that bureaucracy has oversupplied
public services.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
72. Assertion (A): The traditional approach
to the principle of unity of command
assumes that each individual receives
orders from one and only one superior.
Reason (R); It is not practicable. In case
of conflict of commands, the subordinates
tend to obey the command of different
superiors.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
73. Assertion (A): The number of social
relationships is more crucial to analyzing
span of control than merely the number of
subordinates.
Reason (R): The number of relationships
in a span of control increases at a
tremendous rate.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
74. Assertion (A): Delegation is a process
whereby the superior assigns certain tasks
and responsibilities within his control to
the State Government.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
85. The book entitled Politics and
Administration by Frank Good now
a. Advanced Wilsonian theme further
b. Contradicted the Wilsonian dichotomy
c. Supplemented Wilson’s arguments
d. Agreed with Wilson’s thesis but
offered new arguments
86. Which one of the following statements is
not correct?
a. Simon believed in the concept of total
rationality in administrative behavior
b. Simon believed in neither total
rationality nor total irrationality in
actual human behavior
c. Simon believed in bounded rationality
d. Simon differentiated between different
types of rationality
87. According to Simon, an organization is a
structure of decision-makers and decisionmaking
is the core of administrative
action. According to him, which of the
following is involved in the decisionmaking
process?
a. A complex process of many activities
b. Surveying the organizational
environment
c. A series of activities involving
intelligence, design and choice in that
order of sequence
d. A choice between alternative courses
of action
88. Which one of the following is not a
method for promoting participatory
leadership?
a. Quality circles
b. Suggestion scheme
c. Work study
d. Brainstorming session
89. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer:
List I (Definitions)
A. A leader is not the President of the
organization or head of the department
but one who can see all-round situation
and understand how to pass from one
 situation to another
B. Leadership is the activity of
his subordinates.
influencing people to strive willingly
Reason (R): Thus, delegation creates
for group objectives
authority-responsibility relationship
C. Leadership is an influence relationship
between a superior and his subordinates.
among leaders and followers who
a. Both A and R are individually true and
intend real changes that reflect their
R is the correct explanation of A
mutual purposes
b. Both A and R are individually true but
D. Political leadership is manifestly and
R is not the correct explanation of A
essentially a phenomenon of power
c. A is true but R is false
because it consists of the ability of one
d. A is false but R is true
or few at the top to make others do a
75. Assertion (A): March and Simon’s
number of things that they would not
‘Organizations’ was as important to the
or might not have done
behavioral movement in Public
List II (Thinkers)
Administration as Gulick’s ‘Papers on the
1. G. R. Terry
Science of Administration.
2. Mary Parker Follett
Reason (R); ‘Organizations’ was easy to
3. Jean Blonde!
read and its lessons could be easily
4. James Rost
understood by the new students of
5. Warren Bennis
administration.
ABCD
a. Both A and R are individually true and
a. 2 1 4 3
R is the correct explanation of A
b. 3 4 5 2
b. Both A and R are individually true but
c. 2 4 5 3
R is not the correct explanation of A
d. 3 1 4 2
c. A is true but R is false
90. Match List I with List II and select the
d. A is false but R is true
correct answer:
76. Assertion (A): Scientific management
List I (Models)
primarily involves a complete mental
A. Bureaucratic
revolution on the part of workers and
B. Socio-psychological
management regarding their approach to
C. Human relational
work, fellow workers and daily problems.
D. Systems
Reason (R): Under scientific
List II (Characteristics)
management, the management of an
1. Group/team aspects and need
organization takes the responsibility of
fulfillment
Determining standards, planning work,
2. Superior-subordinate relationship
organizing, controlling and devising
3. Participative decision-making
incentive schemes.
4. Management by exception
a. Both A and R are individually true and
5. Relationship among leader,
R is the correct explanation of A
6. situation and group
b. Both A and R are individually true but
ABCD
R is not the correct explanation of A
a. 3 5 4 1
c. A is true but R is false
b. 2 5 3 1
d. A is false but R is true
c. 3 1 4 5
d. 2 1 3 5
 
91. In the training sessions for leadership 103. In which one of the following countries,
development mentioned below, which is approach to training was conditioned until
the one having the least degree of direct recently by the belief in the principle of
impact on leadership development? training by doing and in learning from
a. Group exercise to promote mutual mistake?
understanding so as to promote a
climate of trusted cooperation
b. Group work to encourage the
involvement of all, including the most
shy persons
c. Repeated exercises in statistical
methods, to ensure adequate skill
development in the same so as to
promote objectivity in decisions
d. Repeated exercises in communication
to ensure skill development in
understanding and transacting feelings
and messages
92. Identify the correct observation from
among the following: Leadership theories
seek to
a. Provide up-to-date information
technology required by those in
positions of control so as to make their
grip over the others more complete
b. Provide systematic explanation on the
shifting market trends so as to be
properly guided in investment
decisions in the Public Sector Units
c. Establish a rational framework for
defining the ends of social justice and
to design appropriate systems and
procedures to ensure the same so as to
help the emergence of good leaders
from the down-trodden
d. Systematically explain the causes and
pattern of influence over individuals
and groups with the help of sound
assumptions and empirical data
93. Neo-human relation/behavioral school
thinkers like McGregor, Argyris and
Rensis Likert who have conceptualized
control over employees with a view to
higher performance and need-fulfillment
have emphasized new techniques and
strategies for supervisors.
Identify these techniques from those given
below and select the correct answer using
the given codes:
1. Exerting heavy pressure on
subordinates to get work done.
2. Giving little freedom of action to
employees and not reposing trust and
confidence in them
3. Earning the confidence and trust of the
subordinates and delegating functions
and power to them
a. France
b. Nigeria
c. The USA
d. The UK
104. The United States of America has
developed a comprehensive system of preentry
training for administrative and
managerial positions in the forms of
a. Apprenticeship and internship
b. T-group method and apprenticeship
c. Syndicate method and internship
d. On-the-job training and apprenticeship
105. The principle of anonymity of civil
servants goes with
a. The principle of neutrality
b. The principle of ministerial
responsibility
c. The principle of committed
bureaucracy
d. The principle of rational bureaucracy
106. Political neutrality is
a. absence of political bias in Civil
Services
b. absence of extra-party activities
c. Supporting every policy of the
government
d. Absence of political influences on
Civil Services and loyalty to the
government that be
107. Which of the following modes of
corruption has not been identified by the
Central Vigilance Commission of India?
a. Causing loss to Government by
negligence
b. Wong assessment of claims of
displaced persons
c. Lavish and extravagant entertainment
of visiting officials to obtain undue
favors
d. Moral turpitude
108. Identify the trend which is not visible in
the Civil Services of many countries in
modern times
a. Growth of diversification by
employment of more and more
technical personnel and specialists
b. Continuous extension of powers of the
Civil Service
c. Change in the concept of Civil Service
neutrality
d. Less emphasis on moral and
professional standards
4. Increasing the achievement orientation 109. The question of preference for residents of
of subordinates by motivating them to State to the services was raised during the
accept and work for higher goals debate in Constituent Assembly on the
a. 1 and 2 Report of the
b. 2 and 3 a. Committee on Fundamental Rights
c. 3 and 4 b. Committee on Tribal and Backward
d. 1 and 3 Classes
94. Match List I with List II in respect of c. Backward Classes Commission
administrative systems of the USA and d. Drafting Committee
select the correct answer: 110. The amakudari system of Japan implies
List I a. Professional training
A. Northcote-Trevelyan Report b. Post-retirement assignment
B. Office of Management and Budget c. Monetary compensation
C. Brown low Commission d. Foreign postings
D. Assheton Committee 111. The powers of the Indian Parliament in
List II budgetary matters are covered in:
1. Government personal management a. Article 111 to 115
2. Training of civil servants b. Article 112 to 117
3. US Treasury c. Article 114 to 119
4. All-round administrator d. Article 115 to 119
ABCD 112. Fiscal policy aims at
a. 1 2 4 3 a. Increasing exports
b. 4 3 1 2 b. Making credit available in plenty to
c. 1 3 4 2 industries
d. 4 2 1 3 c. Making cheap credit available to the
95. Which of the following were industries
recommended by the Fulton Committee? d. Accelerating the economic growth
1. Generalist 113. The fiscal deficit represents
2. Unified grading structure a. The excess of foreign exchange
3. Specialist payments over foreign exchange
4. Professionalism receipts
Select the correct answer using the codes b. The total amount of borrowed funds
given below: required by the government to fully
a. 1 and 2 meet its expenditure
b. 2 and 3 c. The excess of imports over exports
c. 1 and 3 d. None of the above
d. 2, 3 and 4 114. Which of the following indicates that how
96. Which of the following statements are not much of the government borrowings are
correct in respect of the French Civil going towards meeting expenses other than
Service? interest payments?
a. Recruitment and training are combined a. Primary deficit
in the ENA b. Revenue deficit
b. A Corp is a basic unit of organization c. Primary revenue deficit
of the Civil Service d. Budgetary deficit
c. Ecole Polytechnique does not conduct 115. Charged expenditure upon the
training for the higher technical corps Consolidated Fund of India:
d. It is elitist and very legalistic a. Is submitted to the vote of Parliament
97. Match List I with List II and select the b. Is not submitted to the vote of Rajya
correct answer: Sabha
List I (Theories) c. Is not submittted for the sanction of the
A. Need Priority Theory President
B. Motivation-Maintenance Theory d. Is not submitted to the vote of
C. Expectancy Theory of Motivation Parliament
D. X and Y Theory of Motivation 116. Which of the following States require(s)
List II (Scholars) judicial qualifications for the appointment
1. Herzberg of Lokayukta ?
2. Victor H. Vroom 1. Maharashtra
3. Maslow 2. Rajasthan
4. McGregor 3. Bihar
5. Lyndall and Urwick 4. Andhra Pradesh
ABCD Select the correct answer using the codes
a. 3 1 2 4 given below:
b. 4 2 5 3 a. 1 only
c. 3 2 5 4 b. 2 and 3
d. 4 1 2 3 c. 4 only
98. Which one of the following is the correct d. 1 and 4
order of hierarchy of human needs? 117. Consider the following statements:
a. Security - social - biological - self Legislative accountability of a Minister is
esteem – self actualization essential because
b. Biological - security - social - self 1. He is the political head of the
esteem – self actualization department
c. Self esteem - security - social - 2. He cannot delegate policy-making
biological – self actualization function to senior administrators in his
d. Self actualization - self esteem - social department as it is a political function
- security - biological 3. Administrative policy is based on
99. Karl Marx regarded bureaucracy political direction
a. As an instrument of Government 4. Policy in the final analysis is based on
b. As a medium of policy implementation a popular mandate
c. As an instrument of dominant ruling Which of these statements is/are correct?
class promoting their particular a. 1 only
interests b. 2 and 3
d. As an instrument of the nobles c. 1 and 4
promoting their interests d. 2, 3 and 4
100. Which one of the following is not correct 118. ‘Audit means the process of ascertaining
about the classification in relation to the whether the Administration spent or is
countries mentioned below? spending its funds in accordance with the
a. Position classification : United States terms of the legislative instrument which
of America appropriated the money.’ This definition
b. Rank classification : India was given by
c. Position classification : United a. Gladstone
Kingdom b. Charles worth
d. Rank classification : France c. Francis
101. United States of America discarded spoils d. Rico
system of recruitment in favor of merit 119. Consider the following statements:
principle by the Limitations of judicial control are
a. Civil Service Act, 1884 1. Prohibitive costs
b. Civil Service Recruitment Act, 1883 2. Time-consuming procedures
c. Civil Service Act, 1853 3. Lack of technical expertise
d. Civil Service Act, 1883 4. Limited jurisdiction
102. ‘Efficiency Records’ method for Which of these statements are correct?
determining the merit is practiced in a. 1 and 2
a. The USA b. 2 and 3
b. France c. 3 and 4
c. The UK d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

d. Japan
IAS Prelims Public Administration 2004
 1. Coordination requires:
1. Acquisition of resources to accomplish
a specific objective
2. integration of resources of the
organization into a dynamic system
3. Mastering the totality of the job that
needs to be done
4. Funnelling of the work done by
functional specialists through the
project
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. Which one of the following statements can
be attributed to Tead?
a. Communication is a shared
understanding of a shared purpose
b. The underlying aim of communication
is a meeting of minds on common
issues
c. Communication is the blood stream of
administrative organization
d. The essence of communication is not
information but understanding
3. Consider the following statements:
According to Chester 1. Bernard, effective
communication in an organization depends
upon
1. definite channels of communication
2. direct line of communication
3. authenticated substance of
communication
4. authority behind communication
which of the statements given above are
correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 4
120. ‘No tax shall be levied or collected except
by authority of law.’ Which Article of the
Constitution of India provides this?
a. Article 209
b. Article 215
c. Article 256
d. Article 265
15. Regarding the nature of comparative
public administration, F W Riggs
visualized three trends. Which of the
following is not one of them?
a. A shift from empirical to normative
orientation
b. A shift from normative to empirical
orientation
c. A shift from ideographic to nomothetic
orientation
d. A shift from non-ecological to
ecological orientation
16. In American system a Bill approved by
both the Houses is sent to the President. If
the President does not respond within ten
days but the Congress ends the session
before ten days, then the Bill dies. This is
called:
a. The veto
b. Bad legislation
c. Overridden Bill
d. The pocket veto
17. The executive office of the President of
USA comprises which of the following?
1. White House office
2. Office of Budget and Management
3. National Security Council
4. Council of Economic Advisors
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
18. Which one of the following is true about
the American Cabinet?
a. It is appointed by the President
b. It is based on the principle of collective
responsibility
c. It comprises politicians who are
elected directly by the people
d. It is answerable to the Congress
4. Match List-I (Leadership Theories) with 19. The idea of a permanent civil service in
List-II (Scholars) and select the correct England originated in the report of
answer using the codes given below the a. Northcote Trevelyn
lists: b. Ridley Commission
List I (Leadership Theories) c. Franks Committee
A. Ethical theory d. Fulton Committee
B. Triat theory 20. Which one of the following statements is
C. Situational theory not correct about the Office of the
D. Contingency theory Parliamentary Commissioner for
List II (Scholars) Administration in the UK?
1. Fred Fielder a. The Office was set up on the
2. Robert House recommendations of the Whyatt
3. Stogdill Report.
4. Keith Davis b. This Office investigates cases of maladministration
5. Amatai Etzioni c. This Office receives complaints
Code: directly from the people
a. A-5 B-4 C-3 D-1 d. This office was created in 1967
b. A-1 B-3 C-2 D-5 21. “The authority of the British Civil service
c. A-5 B-3 C-2 D-1 and for that matter of experts, is one of the
d. A-1 B-4 C-3 D-5 influence, not of power”-was commented
5. According to A. Maslow, which one of the by
following is the correct sequence of a a. Ramsay MacDonald
person’s needs (from lower to higher-order b. Herold Laski
needs)? c. Ramsay Muir
a. Physiological-Esteem-Safety-Social- d. Winston Churchill
Self-actualization 22. Which one of the following is not a group
b. Physiological-Safety-Social-Esteem- of General Departments of the
Self-actualization Government of Britain?
c. Safety-Social-Physiological-Selfactualization- a. The Treasury
Esteem b. The Home Office
d. Self-actualization-Safety-Social- c. The Health Office
Physiological-Esteem d. The Scottish Office
6. In the context of the two-factor theory of 23. Consider the following statements about
motivation propounded by Herzberg, Conseild’ Etat of France:
identify correctly the satisfiers (motivation 1. stands at the top of the Administrative
factors) from the following groups: Courts
1. Company policy and administration, 2. advises the government on the
supervision, work conditions and executive matters
salary 3. enjoys ultimate disciplinary authority
2. Relation with supervisors, subordinates over the civil servants
and peers. 4. is the managing authority of Ecole
3. Personal life, status and security Nationale d’Administration.
4. Achievement, recognition, work, Which of the statements given above are
responsibility, advancement and correct?
growth a. 1, 2 and 3
Select the correct answer using the codes b. 2, 3 and 4
given below: c. 1 and 4
a. 1 only d. 1 and 3
b. 1 and 2 24. Ecole Nationale d’ Administration of
c. 2 and 3 France is not concerned with
d. 4 only a. Recruitment
7. The theory of ‘prismatic society’ in public b. Promotion
administration is based on c. Training
PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION d. Disciplinary action
a. The study of public services in 25. In Japan, the Monarchy is hereditary, and
developed and developing societies final authority to change the law of
b. Institutional comparison of public primogeniture rests with
administration in developed countries a. The people
c. Structural –functional analysis of b. The parliament
public administration in developing c. The judiciary
societies d. The defence department
d. Historical studies of public 26. Match List-I (Finance Commission of
administration in different societies India) with List-II (Chairman) and select
8. Who of the following did not accept the the correct answer using the codes given
principle of unity of command in the below the lists:
functioning of an organization? List I
a. Henry Fayol (Finance Commission of India)
b. Luther Gullick A. First Finance Commission
c. J.D. Mooney B. Fourth Finance Commission
d. F.W.Taylo C. Sixth Finance Commission
9. Match List-I with List-II and select the D. D. Eighth Finance Commission
correct answer using the codes given List II
below the lists: (Chairman)
List I 1. Shri Rajamannar
A. Representative bureaucracies 2. Shri Neogi
B. Party bureaucracies 3. Shri Y.B. Chavan
C. Ruler-dominated bureaucracies 4. Shri Brahmananda Reddy
D. Ruling bureaucracies Code:
List II a. A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3
1. Totalitarian regime b. A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1
2. Colonial rule c. A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1
3. Competitive political process d. A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3
4. Autocratic regime 27. Which of the following are the correct
Code: principles of the budgeting?
a. A-4 B-1 C-3 D-2 1. Estimates should be on departmental
b. A-3 B-2 C-4 D-1 basis.
c. A-4 B-2 C-3 D-1 2. Estimates should be on revenue basis
d. A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2 3. Budgeting should be net and not gross
10. Consider the following statements: Select the correct answer using the codes
1. Work sampling and assessment centre given below:
are two best known performance a. 1 and 2
simulation test. b. 1 only
2. Competent employees remain c. 3 only
competent forever. d. 1, 2 and 3
3. On-the-job training methods do not 28. Which one of the following is the correct
disrupt the workplace. chronological order of the evolution of the
Which of the statements given above is/are given Office/Committees?
correct? a. Committee on Public Undertakings-
a. 1 only Estimates Committee-Public accounts
b. 2 and 3 Committee-Comptroller and Auditor
c. 1 and 3 General of India
d. 1, 2 and 3 b. Comptroller and Auditor General of
11. The function of the Cabinet Secretariat is India-Estimates Committee-Public
a. To formulate policies Accounts Committee-Committee on
 b. To implement policies
c. To act as a staff agency
d. To act as Prime Minister’s Secretariat
12. Which of the following are not the training
methods adopted by United Kingdom for
its civil servants? Public Undertakings
1. Post-entry training c. Committee on Public Undertakings-
2. Pre-entry training Public Accounts Committee-Estimates
3. Seminar/conference method Committee-Committee on Public
4. Special course in administration and Undertakings
management d. Comptroller and Auditor General of
Select the correct answer using the codes India-Public accounts Committee-
given below: Estimates Committee-committee on
a. 1 and 2 Public Undertakings
b. 2 and 3 29. Which of the following documents are
c. 3 and 4 presented to the parliament along with the
d. 1 and 4 Union Budget?
13. Which one of the following is not a basic 1. An explanatory memorandum on the
premise of behaviouralism according to budget
David Easton? 2. The summary of demands for grants
a. Discoverable uniformities in human 3. An Appropriation Bill
behaviour 4. A Finance Bill
b. Value commitment Select the correct answer using the codes
c. Inter-disciplinary focus given below:
d. Systematization a. 1 and 2
14. Match List-I (Act in the Administrative b. 2 and 3
System of USA) with List-II (Feature) and c. 3 and 4
select the correct answer using the codes d. 2 and 4
given below the lists: 30. According to the Eleventh Finance
List I Commission of India, the horizontal
(Act in the Administrative System) distribution of net proceeds of central tax
A. Taft Hartley Act revenue with the States were to be
B. Hatch Act governed by
C. Ramspeck Act a. Population, income and area
List II b. Population, and area only
(Feature) c. Population, income, area, index of
1. Right to political activities infrastructure and tax efforts
2. Right to strike d. Population, income, area, index of
3. Machinery for negotiations of disputes infrastructure, tax efforts and fiscal
4. Right to organize discipline
5. Merit system
a. A-1 B-5 C-3
b. A-2 B-1 C-5
c. A-1 B-4 C-3
d. A-2 B-5 C-1
 
IAS Prelims Public Administration 2004
 31. Which one of the following elements is 46. Which one of the following does not
ignored by the classical theory? constitute the human relations movement
a. Formal structure of Elton Mayo?
b. Managerial techniques a. The first inquiry
c. Informal patterns
d. Principles of organization
32. “In developing States, bureaucratic
administration has been transformed into
an institution that emphasizes the
sovereignty of politics rather than the
supremacy of administration”- was
commented by
a. David C. Potter
b. K.R. Hope
c. Max Weber
d. F.M. Marx
33. Consider the following statements:
The concept of new public management is
based on:
1. adoption of private sector management
practices in public administration.
2. laying of implicit standards and
measures of performance.
3. stress on greater discipline and
parsimony in resource use.
4. shift to greater emphasis on
procedures.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 3
34. Heuristics” in the context of decisionmaking
imply
a. Judgmental shortcuts in decision
making
b. Judgment based on deep analysis
c. Reviewing elaborate training methods
for employees
d. Reviewing elaborate recruitment
methods for employees
35. Staff agency is of the nature of
a. Executive control over administration
b. Parliamentary control over
administration
c. In-built control over administration
d. Quasi-judicial control over
administration
36. Match List-I (Statement) with List-II
(Scholar) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Statement)
A. Wherever authority is exercised,
responsibility arises
B. Authority as expressed in legal terms is
b. Hawthorne studies
c. Shop management
d. The Great illumination
47. Which one of the following approaches
emphasizes more on social and
psychological factors at the workplace
which in turn determine the workers’
satisfaction and organizational output?
a. System approach
b. Behavioural approach
c. Classical approach
d. Human relations approach
48. Which one of the following is not a
significant feature of the Hawthorne
research?
a. Emphasis on rules
b. Informal organization
c. Human relations approach
d. Man’s relations approach
49. An organization system is concerned
primarily with
a. Defined sets of interactions
b. A set of connected parts
c. The roles that individuals play
d. Interdependent parts and their
interactions
50. Match List-I (Essence) with List-II
(Administration Theories) and select the
correct answer using the codes given
below the lists:
List I (Essence)
A. Policy decision is the expression of
formal organisation
B. It is the out-come of grapevine
C. It is the result of social construction
D. It is the decision of peoples’
representatives
List II
(Administration Theories)
1. Classical theory
2. Informal organization theory
3. Post-modernism
4. Democratic theory
Code:
a. A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4
b. A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
c. A-1 B-4 C-3 D-2
d. A-3 B-2 C-1 D-4
51. Budget Division works under the
a. Department of Revenue, Ministry of
Finance, Government of India
b. Department of Expenditure, Ministry
essentially static of Finance, Government of India
C. The principle of correspondence c. Department of Economic Affairs,
between authority and responsibility Ministry of Finance, Government of
should be applied India
D. Authority depends upon the d. Finance Commission
willingness of the subordinates to 52. Consider the following:
accept orders from their superiors 1. Selection of proper worker for the job
List II 2. Establishing the time in which the job
(Scholar) is to be accomplished
1. Chester I Bernard 3. Definition of the task to be
2. Henri Fayol accomplished
3. F.M. Marx 4. Motivating the worker for a high level
4. L.F. Urwick performance
Code: The correct sequence of the above
a. A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3 activities in which a responsible manager,
b. A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1 under scientific management, should direct
c. A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1 the workers is
d. A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3 a. 3-4-2-1
37. Consider the following: b. 2-1-3-4
1. Consultation and training c. 3-1-2-4
2. Coordination d. 2-4-3-1
3. Fact finding and research 53. Which among the following is/are the
4. Planning basis of Herbert Simon’s decision making
Above are the main functions of which or theory?
the following? 1. The need to take administrative
a. Staff agencies principles seriously
b. Auxiliary agencies 2. Preferences and social conditioning of
c. Line agencies the administrator
d. Independent regulatory bodies 3. Orders of the superior
38. Consider the following statements: Select the correct answer using the codes
Taylor’s principles of scientific given below:
management were based on a. 1 only
1. first-hand experimentation b. 1 and 2
2. observation c. 2 only
3. work procedure d. 3 only
4. industrial unrest 54. Which one of the following was not
which of the statements given above are identified by Robert Dahl as an issue in the
correct? science of public administration?
a. 1, 2 and 3 a. Need for normative considerations
b. 2, 3 and 4 b. Human behaviour
c. 1 and 4 c. Importance of machine concept of
d. 1, 2 and 4 organization
39. Which one of the following is not a feature d. Sociological factors
of Max Weber’s bureaucratic theory? 55. Consider the following statements in
a. Division of work is based on relation to the human relations school
functional specialization based on Hawthorne Studies:
b. Tasks are divided into personal spheres 1. Mayo opened the door to research into
of authority social man.
c. Rules of conduct are applied uniformly 2. Work satisfaction depends largely on
d. Transaction of official business must the informal social pattern of the
be recorded in writing working group
40. Consider the following statements: 3. Supervision, morale and productivity
Weber’s model makes bureaucracy are interlinked.
1. rule-oriented 4. Apart from technical and economic
2. value-neutral aspects of a programme, human aspect
3. client-centred is also important
4. impersonal Which of the statements given above are
Which of the statements given above are correct?
correct? a. 1 and 3
a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 4
b. 2 and 3 c. 1, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 4 d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
d. 3 and 4 56. Who is responsible for the observance of
41. Which one of the following does not the Rules of Business of the state
consist of the ideal characteristics of government in India?
bureaucracy as propounded by Max a. The Governor
Weber? b. The Chief Minister
a. Impersonal order c. The Advocate General
b. Monocratic type d. The Chief Secretary of the State
c. Hierarchy Government
d. Informal methods 57. For which of the following Bills, the prior
42. Consider the following statements: sanction of the president is required before
Classical theorists were concerned with the they are introduced in the Parliament?
1. structuring of authority a. All the money bills
2. principles of organization b. Bills concerned with the alternation of
3. fatigue caused by work the boundaries of the States
4. work arrangement c. Both (a) and (b)
Which of the statements given above are d. Neither (a) nor (b)
correct? 58. Which one of the following is not the
a. 1 and 2 function of the Directorates at the State
b. 1, 2 and 4 level in India?
c. 2, 3 and 4 a. To execute policies of the government
d. 1, 3 and 4 b. To control field agencies
43. Which theory makes a complete c. To collect data for suggesting
distinction between the office and the alternative course of action
incumbent, thereby stressing the fact that d. To frame basic policies for governance
personal and public spheres are distinct 59. In 1977, under whose chairmanship, the
and separate? Panchayat Raj Committee was formed?
a. Behavioural theory a. Ashok Mehta
b. System theory b. Sardar Swaran Singh
c. Human relations theory c. Balwantrai Mehta
d. Bureaucratic theory d. Madhu Dandwate
44. Who advocated the situational theory of 60. Who among the following is hailed as the
leadership? father of local self-government in India?
a. Mary Parker Follett a. Lord Mayo
b. Elton Mayo b. Lord Ripon
c. Douglas McGregor c. Jawaharlal Nehru
d. Chris Argyris d. Mahatma Gandhi
45. According to Mary Parker Follett, a leader
is one
1. who energizes his group
2. to whom the total inter-relatedness is
clear
3. who is at the apex of the organization
 4. who possesses expert knowledge
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
a. 1 and 2
b. 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
 
61. Which of the following units of urban 76. Assertion (A): Osborne and Gabler made a
local self government does not have a plea for reinventing the government at the
constitutional foundation? Second Minnowbrook Conference, 1988.
a. Cantonment Boards Reason(R): The Second Minnowbrook
b. Municipal Councils Conference reviewed the developments
c. Municipal Corporations after 1968 and found the growth of new
d. Nagar Panchayats public administration as inadequate.
62. Herbert Simon’s concept of administration a. Both A and R are individually true and
is based on R is the correct explanation of A
a. Structural-functional approach b. Both A and R are individually true and
b. Logical positivism R is not the correct explanation of A
c. Systems approach c. A is true but R is false
d. Elite approach d. A is false but R is true
63. Municipal Area means the territorial area 77. Assertion(A):Effective implementation of
of a Municipality as is notified by the a government project needs unity of
a. Governor command.
b. Municipal Commissioner Reason(R): Programmes and projects in
c. Municipal Council government are driven by politics and not
d. Council Ministers by policy.
64. Under which Article of the Constitution of a. Both A and R are individually true and
India, did the District Planning Committee R is the correct explanation of A
come into existence? b. Both A and R are individually true and
a. Article 243 ZD R is not the correct explanation of A
b. Article 243 ZE c. A is true but R is false
c. Article 244 ZD d. A is false but R is true
d. Article 242 ZD 78. Assertion(A): The span of control varies
65. Who consolidates the plans prepared by with the capacity of the manager and the
the Panchayats and Municipalities in the task.
district? Reason(R): A manager merely supervises
a. State Planning Commission the work of his subordinates who could be
b. Public Accounts Committee six to eight.
c. District Planning Committee a. Both A and R are individually true and
d. District Planning and Development R is the correct explanation of A
Council b. Both A and R are individually true and
66. Under which of the following Articles of R is not the correct explanation of A
the Constitution of India, the state c. A is true but R is false
legislatures delegate powers and functions d. A is false but R is true
to the Panchayats? 79. Assertion (A): Shared beliefs and informal
a. 243 and 243 A contacts of the top administrators are the
b. 243 A and 243 B crucial factors in achieving a coordinated
c. 243 G and 243 H action.
d. 243 D and 243 F Reason(R): Scientific theorists have
67. 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments excessive belief in the values of a
do not apply to which of the following disciplined hierarchy.
states? a. Both A and R are individually true and
a. Meghalaya R is the correct explanation of A
b. Goa b. Both A and R are individually true and
c. Sikkim R is not the correct explanation of A
d. Himachal Pradesh c. A is true but R is false
68. Match List-I (Items) with List-II (Article d. A is false but R is true
of the 74th Constitutional Amendment 80. Match List-I (Author) with List-II (Book)
Act) and select the correct answer using and select the correct answer using the
the codes given below the lists: codes given below the lists:
List I List I
(Items) (Author)
A. Constitution of Municipalities A. Fred W. Riggs
B. Reservation of seats in Municipal B. L.D. White
Bodies C. Herbert A Simon
C. State Finance Commission D. J.C. Charlesworth
D. Duration of Municipalities List II
List II (Book)
(Articles of the 74th Constitutional 1. Administrative Behaviour
Amendment Act) 2. Introduction to the Study of Public
1. 243Q Administration
2. 243T 3. The Ecology of Public Administration
3. 243Y 4. Governmental Administration
4. 243U Code:
Code: a. A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3
a. A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2 b. A-3 B-2 C-1 D-4
b. A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4 c. A-4 B-2 C-1 D-3
c. A-3 B-2 C-1 D-4 d. A-3 B-1 C-2 D-4
d. A-1 B-4 C-3 D-2 81. The function of public administration is
69. According to Article 243 S of the that of assuring social stability by
Constitution of India it is obligatory to facilitating change. Who amongst the
constitute ‘Ward Committees’ in the area following gave this concept about the role
of a municipality. The population of such of public administration?
municipality should be a. Paul J. Gordon
a. One lac or more b. Henri Fayol
b. Two lacs or more c. Brooks Adams
c. Three lacs or more d. John M. Gaus
d. Five lacs or more 82. Fred Riggs in his work Prismatic Society
70. “Leadership is influence over people and Revisited does not talk about
not power over them”. Who among the a. Developed societies
following commented this? b. Structural functionalism
a. Marry Parker Follett c. Importance of citizen’s participation
b. Chester I. Bernard d. Need for differentiation and integration
c. McGregor 83. Public administration is different from
d. Rensis Likert private administration in
71. Which was the first country to introduce a. Productivity
the Right to information? b. Judicious risk-taking
a. Canada c. Financial returns
b. Japan d. Legislative approval
c. Sweden 84. Public administration is superior to private
d. USA administration is superior to private
72. Assertion(A): The Estimate Committee of administration by virtue of the fact that
the British Parliament has been described
as a ‘continuous economy committee’.
Reason(R): It is a means of legislative
control over the administration
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true and
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
73. Assertion(A):The system approach is
based on the concept that organization
should be studied as a whole because the
behaviour of one part has a considerable
impact on the other.
Reason(R): The system approach ignores
the interactions between a system and its
environment.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true and
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
74. Assertion(A):Behavioural research
suggested theory building in the area of
comparative public administration.
Reason(R): The studies in comparative
public administration got bogged down
because of the concept of administrative
culture.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true and
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
75. Assertion(A):Centralization implies that
everything in the organization is managed
by the officials at the top
Reason(R): The principle of centralization
requires that ultimate responsibility
remains at the top.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true and
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
 
a. Its achievements and failures are
subject to scrutiny
b. It works in accordance with welldefined
procedures
c. It has to maintain high standards of
efficiency
d. It has the primary responsibility to
promote public welfare
85. The three pillars of government are usually
known as the executive, the legislature and
the judiciary. Who amongst the following
said that the administration is the fourth
pillar of government?
a. Luther Gullick
b. W.F. Willoughby
c. Paul Appleby
d. F.M. Marx
86. Consider the following statements:
An organization is
1. a blend of inter-dependent parts
2. a mass of people inside it
3. a framework of authority and
responsibility
4. a system in the service of outsiders.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
87. Which one of the following is a distinctive
feature of a formal organization?
a. Common rules of behaviour
b. Common code of behaviour
c. Common values of workers
d. Common ambitions of workers
88. Match List-I (Name of the Commission)
with List-II (Created Under Article of the
Constitution of India) and select the
correct answer using the codes given
below the lists:
List I
(Name of the Commission)
A. The Finance Commission
B. The Commission for Backward
Classes
C. The Election Commission
D. The Official Language Commission
List II
(Created Under Article of the Constitution
of India)
1. Article 280
 2. Article 340
3. Article 324
4. Article 344
Code:
a. A-1 B-4 C-3 D-2
b. A-3 B-2 C-1 D-4
c. A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4
d. A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
89. Match List-I (Theories of Organization)
with List-II (Orientation) and select the
correct answer using the codes given
below the lists:
List I
(Theories Organization)
A. Traditional theory
B. Humanistic theory
C. System theory
D. D. Situational design theory
List II
(Orientation)
1. Employee-centred
2. Openness
3. Task-centred
4. Inter-connective
Code:
a. A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
b. A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3
c. A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2
d. A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3
90. The term ‘Gang plank’, used by Henry
Fayol refers to
a. Need for level jumping
b. Conformity to hierarchy
c. Emphasis on formalism
d. Defeat of objectives
 
91. “Planning has superseded the Federation 111. Match List-I (Event) with List-II
and our country is functioning like a (Act/Year) and select the correct answer
unitary system in many respects”- was using the codes given below the lists:
stated by List I
a. Ashok Chanda (Event)
b. K. Santhanam A. Establishment of supreme government
c. Estimates Committee at Fort William, Calcutta
d. Administrative Reforms Commission B. Creation of the post of Governor
92. Which one of the following is not the view General of India
of closed model in relation to role of C. Separate Secretariat for the
organizations? Government of India
a. Rationality has been the organisation’s D. Assumption of the responsibility of
sole prerogative direct administration of India by the
b. In an organization most men enjoy British Crown
work and tend to be creative List II
c. A rigid, hierarchical structure with
heavy formalism would improve the
efficiency of the organization
d. Organizational order and maintenance
of discipline comes from the top of the
organization, not out of spontaneous
human behaviour
93. Who amongst the following introduce the
concept of ‘zone of indifference’ in an
organization?
a. Herbert Simon
b. Douglas McGregor
c. Chester I. Bernard
d. Chris Argyris
94. An attached office differs from a
subordinate office under the Government
of India in that
a. The former is a line agency while the
latter is a staff agency
b. The former is a permanent agency
while the latter is temporary agency
c. The former provides technical advice
while the latter renders routine services
d. The former is headed by the
bureaucrats while the latter is headed
by the technocrats
95. Which one of the following powers of the
Rajya Sabha is provided in the
Constitution of India?
a. To reject or amend a money bill
b. To decide whether a bill is a money
bill
c. To vote for public expenditure
d. To delay a money bill for a period not
exceeding fourteen days
96. Which one of the following statements
about the Finance Commission in India is
not correct?
a. The Commission comprises a
Chairman and four other members
b. The Parliament is authorized to
determine by law the qualifications of
the members of the Commission
c. All the appointments are made by the
President of India.
d. All the members have to be from
Indian Economic Service or Indian
Statistical Service
97. Consider the following statements:
Audit in India
1. Is governed by an executive order
2. looks into extravagance of expenditure
(Act/Year)
1. The Charter Act of 1833
2. Government of India Act, 1858
3. Regulatory Act, 1773
4. Year 1843
Code:
a. A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2
b. A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3
c. A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
d. A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3
112. Who recommended that the Planning
Commission should purely be a technical
body?
a. Sarkaria Commission
b. L.K. Jha Committee
c. Chelliah Committee
d. Administrative Reforms Commission
113. Select the correct sequence of the
following amendments:
1. Voting age reduced from 21 years to
18 years
2. Right to properly deleted from the list
of Fundamental Rights
3. Sikkim became a State of the Indian
Union
4. Hindi version of the Constitution was
accepted officially
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
a. 3-1-4-2
b. 4-2-3-1
c. 3-2-4-1
d. 4-1-3-2
114. Which one of the following is the correct
sequence of the given stages in relation to
the enactment of the budget in India?
a. Voting of demands for grants-General
discussion-Consideration and passing
of the Appropriation Bill-
Consideration and passing of the
Finance Bill
b. General discussion-Voting of demands
for grants-Consideration and passing
of the Appropriation BillConsideration
and passing of the
Finance Bill
c. Voting of demands for grants-
Consideration and passing of the
Appropriation Bill-Consideration and
passing of the Finance Bill-General
discussion
d. General discussion-Consideration and
3. concerns with financial propriety passing of the Finance Bill-
4. is not a constitutional obligation. Consideration and passing of the
Which of the statements given above are Appropriation Bill-Voting of demands
correct? for grants
a. 1 and 2 115. Match List-I with List-II and select the
b. 3 and 4 correct answer using the codes given
c. 2 and 4 below the lists:
d. 2 and 3 List I
98. The Central Administrative Tribunals were A. Mandamus
set up on the recommendations of B. Habeas Corpus
a. The Ministry of Law and Justice C. Certiorari
b. The Administrative Reforms D. Quo-warranto
Commission List II
c. The India Law Commission 1. Direction to an official for the
d. The Sarkaria Commission performance of duty
99. The Comptroller and Auditor General of 2. Release of an illegally detained person
India submits its reports to the 3. Transferring of a case from an interior
a. Prime Minister court to a court of higher jurisdiction
b. Parliament 4. Calling upon one to show by what
c. President authority does he hold or claim a
d. Chief Justice of India franchise or office
100. The Union Public Service Commission Code:
submits its annual report to the a. A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4
a. Parliament b. A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
b. Department of Personnel and Training c. A-1 B-4 C-3 D-2
c. Cabinet Secretary d. A-3 B-2 C-1 D-4
d. President 116. Which one of the following committees
101. Immediately before 26 January, 1950, the had recommended people’s participation
Union Public Service Commission was in community development programmes?
known as a. Ashok Mehta Committee
a. Public Service Commission b. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
b. Federal public Service Commission c. Rural-urban Relationship Committee
c. Central Public Service Commission d. L.M. Singhvi Committee
d. Imperial public Service Commission 117. Match List-I with List-II and select the
102. “Our aim is not to replace specialists by correct answer using the codes given
administrators or vise-versa. They should below the lists:
be complementary to one another” – was List I
recommended by which one of the A. Dyarchy in provincial government
following Reports? B. Rigid centralization and slow
a. ARC report on Personnel Decentralization
Administration C. Federal scheme of government
b. Second Hoover Commission Report D. Communal representation
c. Gorwala Report on Public List II
Administration 1. Minto-Morley Reforms
d. Fulton Committee Report 2. Government of India Act, 1935
103. Under the provisions of the Article 217(1) 3. Montague-Chelmsford Reforms
of the Constitution of India, who is entitled 4. Indian Council’s Act, 1861
to be consulted by the President of India in Code:
the matter of the appointments of the a. A-3 B-4 C-2 D-1
judges of the High Courts? b. A-1 B-2 C-4 D-3
a. The Union Minister of Law and Justice c. A-3 B-2 C-4 D-1
b. The Chief Justice of the High Court d. A-1 B-4 C-2 D-3
c. The Attorney General of India 118. Match List-I with List-II and select the
d. The Governor correct answer using the codes given
104. In 1953, Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru below the lists:
announced the formation of a commission List I
to study the reorganization of states on a A. Tax levied by the Union of India and
linguistic basis under the chairmanship of assigned to the Centre
a. T.K. Krishnamachari B. Tax levied by the Union of India but
b. Vallabhai Patel assigned to the States
c. Fazal Ali C. Tax levied by the State and assigned
d. G.B. Pant D. Tax levied by the Union of India and
105. The salaries and allowances of the council distributed between the Union and the
of ministers of the state government are States
paid from the List II
a. Reserve Bank of India 1. Income Tax
b. Treasury of the state government 2. Land Revenue
c. Contingency Fund of the state 3. Estate Duty
d. Consolidated Fund of the state  4. Surcharge
106. The performance budget is a statement of Code:
a. The income of the government a. A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3
b. The difference between expenditure b. A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1
and income of the government c. A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3
c. Selected plans of development d. A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1
d. The entire programme of governmental 119. Which of the following services under the
activity Government of India are termed as All-
107. Controller General of Accounts in India India services?
works a. IAS, IPS and Indian Foreign Service
a. Under the Ministry of finance b. IAS only
b. Under the Comptroller and Auditor c. IPS only
General of India d. IAS, IPS and Indian Forests service
c. Under the Audit and Accounts 120. Consider the following statements about
Department the functions of Cabinet Secretariat in
d. Is independent of all the above three India:
108. The ultimate responsibility of taking due 1. It call up information from the armed
action on the comments of the Comptroller forces.
and Auditor General of India vests with 2. It supervises the work of the
the diplomatic missions.
a. President of India 3. It prepares the agenda for cabinet
b. Supreme Court meetings.
c. Parliament Which of the statements given above is/are
d. National Development Council correct?
109. “Power in a democratic society requires a. 1 and 2
control, and the greater the power the more b. 2 and 3
need for control” who said this? c. 3 only
a. Lord Acton d. 1 only
b. W.A. Robson
c. L.D. White
d. D.R. Rowat
110. Match List-I (Training Institute) with List-
II (Place) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Training Institute)
A. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National
 Police Academy
B. Income Tax Training School
C. Indian Audit and Accounts Service
Training Institute
D. Institute of Secretariat Training and
Management
List II (Place)
1. Hyderabad
2. Shimla
3. Nagpur
4. New Delhi
5. Mount Abu
Code:
a. A-4 B-2 C-3 D-5
b. A-1 B-3 C-2 D-4
c. A-4 B-3 C-2 D-5
d. A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4
 
 
IAS Prelims Public Administration 2006
 1. Who among the following introduced the 16. Consider the following statements:
concepts and phrases-“conflict resolution” 1. There is no provision in respect of the
and “the task of leadership”? Secretariat of State Legislature in the
a. Henri Fayol Constitution of India.
b. Elton Mayo 2. The Constitution of India does not list
c. Mary Parker Follett the powers and functions of the Chief
d. Chester Barnard Secretary of a State?
2. Match List-I (Leadership Type) with List- Which of the statements given above is/are
II (Main Idea/Model) and select the correct correct?
answer using the code given below the a. Only 1
lists: b. Only 2
List-I (Leadership Type) c. Both 1 and 2
A. Participative d. Neither 1 nor 2
B. Contingency 17. Consider the following statements:
C. Behavioural 1. The Administrative Reforms
D. Situational Commission (ARC) had recommended
List-II that the Department of Personnel of a
(Main Idea/Model) State should be put under the charge of
1. Vroom and Yetton’s Normative Model the Chief Secretary of the State.
2. The Managerial Grid 2. Chief Secretary of a State is not
3. Likert’s Leadership Style involved in any manner in the
4. Fiedler’s Least Preferred Co-worker promotion of State Civil officers to the
(LPC) Theory All-India Services.
Code: Which of the statements given above is/are
a. A-2 B-4 C-3 D-1 correct?
b. A-3 B-1 C-2 D-4 a. Only 1
c. A-2 B-1 C-3 D-4 b. Only 2
d. A-3 B-4 C-2 D-1 c. Both 1 and 2
3. Which of the following Departments of the d. Neither 1 nor 2
Government of India were put under the 18. Consider the following statements:
Cabinet Secretariat at the time of their 1. Activities classified for line authority
creation? differ in each organization.
1. Department of Electronics 2. For small organization, all positions
2. Department of Scientific and Industrial may be line positions.
Research 3. Staff authority is based on expert
3. Department of Personnel power.
Select the correct answer using the code Which of the statements given above are
given below: correct?
a. Only 1 and 2 a. 1, 2 and 3
b. Only 2 and 3 b. Only 1 and 2
c. Only 1 and 3 c. Only 2 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3 4. Only 1 and 3
4. Which one of the following States has a 19. Consider the following statements:
joint All-India Service cadre with 1. Decentralization has the same
Arunachal Pradesh, Goa, and Union advantages as delegation.
Territories? 2. Decentralization leads to more
a. Sikkim flexibility in an organization.
b. Mizoram 3. Decentralization leads to slower
c. Nagaland decision making in rapidly changing
d. Jharkhand environment.
5. Which of the following pairs is/are Which of the statements given above are
correctly matched? correct?
1. Introduction to the Study of Public a. 1, 2 and 3
Administration Leonard D. White b. Only 1 and 2
2. Principles of Public Administration c. Only 2 and 3
W.F. Willoughby d. Only 2 and 3
3. The Functions of the Executive 20. Which one of the following is not a
Herbert A. Simon function of a leader in an organization?
Select the correct answer using the code a. Motivating employees
given below: b. Fixing the remuneration package for
a. 1, 2 and 3 the employees
b. Only 1 and 2 c. Resolving conflict
c. Only 2 d. Selecting the most effective
d. Only 1 communication channel
6. Consider the following statements : 21. Consider the following statements:
1. The rationalist paradigm of public 1. In India, whether the expenditure is
policy is dominated by scholars of charged on the Consolidated Fund of
public administration rather than by India or it is an amount voted by the
political scientists. lok Sabha, no money can be issued out
2. The incrementalist paradigm of public of the Consolidated Fund of India
policy making and implementation is unless the expenditure is authorized by
theoretical, effectual, prescriptive and an Appropriation Act.
normative. 2. The Rajya Sabha has no power of
Which of the statements given above is/are amending or rejecting the
correct? Appropriation Bill or the Annual
a. Only 1 finance Bill.
b. Only 2 3. The Rajya Sabha has no further
c. Both 1 and 2 business with the Annual Financial
d. Neither 1 nor 2 Statement beyond the general
7. Consider the following statements: discussion.
1. The Management Information System Which of the statements given above are
(MIS) provides decision making correct?
assistance for unstructured problems. a. 1, 2 and 3
2. Decision Support System (DSS) is b. Only 1 and 2
structured around analytic decision c. Only 2 and 3
models on a specialized management d. Only 1 and 3
database. 22. Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. After the demands for grants in the
correct? Annual Financial Statement are voted
a. Only 1 by the Lok Sabha, the grants so made
b. Only 2 as well as the expenditure charged on
c. Both 1 and 2 the Consolidated Fund of India are
d. Neither 1 nor 2 incorporated in the Annual Finance
PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION Bill.
8. Consider the following statements about 2. The taxing proposals of the budget are
open model of organization: included in an Appropriation Bill.
1. Means (or the proper way to do a job) Which of the statements given above is/are
are emphasized in the open model. correct?
2. Non-routine tasks occur in unstable a. Only 1
conditions in the open model. b. Only 2
3. The beginning of the open model can c. Both 1 and 2
be traced to Saint-Simon and Auguste d. Neither 1 nor 2
Comte. 23. Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. Administrative expenses of the
correct? Supreme Court of India are not subject
a. Only 2 to a vote in the Parliament.
b. 1 and 3 2. No discussion on the conduct of a
c. 2 and 3 Judge of the Supreme Court of India
d. 1 and 2 can take place in Parliament except
9. Which of the following are among the 14 upon a motion for an address to the
principles of management in the classical President of India for removal of the
management work of Henri Fayol? Judge.
1. Personnel tenure Which of the statements given above is/are
2. Unity of command correct?
3. Core competence a. Only 1
4. Scalar chain b. Only 2
Select the correct answer using the code c. Both 1 and 2
given below: d. Neither 1 nor 2
a. Only 1,2 and 3 24. Which of the following pairs is/are
b. Only 2 and 4 correctly matched?
c. Only 1 and 3 Scholar Viewpoint
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 1. F. Riggs: In developing countries,
10. The Wagner Act which proved to be the bureaucracy also performs political
Magna Carta of labour was introduced in roles
which country? 2. Harold Laski: Bureaucracy is a threat
a. United States of America to democratic government
b. Great Britain 3. S. Eisenstadt: Bureaucracy is the most
c. France rational form of organization
d. Japan Select the correct answer using the code
11. Which one of the following statements is given below:
not correct? a. 1 and 2
In the matrix structure of organization, b. Only 1
there is c. Only 2
a. Dual chain of command d. 1 and 3
b. Better communication 25. Which one of the following is not included
c. More flexibility in “hygiene” factors in the Herzberg twofactor
d. Less conflict theory of motivation?
12. Consider the following statements: a. Salary
1. Model synthesis of organization is b. Working conditions
based on the fact that all organizations c. Company’s policy
must deal with uncertainty. d. Responsibility
2. Sources of uncertainty are external as 26. Which of the following pairs is/are
well as internal. correctly matched?
3. If the sources of organizational 1. Cybernetic Theory Norbert Weiner
uncertainty are internal, then the 2. Task-Technology approach to
organization will try to reduce organizational design Joan Woodward
uncertainty by decentralizing. 3. Classical approach to organizational
Which of the statements given above are design Frederick Taylor
correct? Select the correct answer using the code
a. Only 1 and 2 given below:
b. Only 2 and 3 a. Only 1 and 2
c. Only 1 and 3 b. Only 2 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3 c. Only 1
13. Consider the following statements: d. 1, 2 and 3
Organization development is different 27. Consider the following statements:
from 1. The Estimate Committee comprises 20
1. management development which is members elected each year by the Lok
action oriented. Sabha from its elected members and 10
2. operations research which is not members elected each year by the
human value oriented. Rajya Sabha from its elected members.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. The Estimate Committee has no role in
correct? suggesting the form in which the
a. Only 1 estimates shall be presented to the
b. Only 2 Parliament as that is a function of the
c. Both 1 and 2 Comptroller and Auditor-General of
d. Neither 1 nor 2 India.
14. Which of the following are the outcomes Which of the statements given above is/are
of organizational development? correct?
1. Improvement in interpersonal skills of a. Only 1
members b. Only 2
2. More organic organization c. Both 1 and 2
3. Resolution of conflict through d. Neither 1 nor 2
interactive methods 28. Consider the following statements:
Select the correct answer using the code 1. The Twelfth Finance Commission has
given below: not recommended the continuation of
a. 1, 2 and 3 Fiscal Reforms Facility.
b. Only 1 and 2 2. In the Twelfth Finance Commission
c. Only 2 and 3 Report for the period 2005-10, the
d. Only 1 and 3 grants-in-aid recommended for
15. Who among the following is widely maintaining public buildings is five
regarded as the scholar whose published times more than that for maintaining
book started getting academic recognition forests.
for public administration as an academic Which of the statements given above is/are
discipline? correct?
a. W .F. Willoughby a. Only 1
b. Fritz M. Marx b. Only 2
c. Leonard D. White c. Both 1 and 2

d. Frank J. Goodnow
31. The Chairperson of a District Planning
Committee forwards the development plan
recommended by the Committee to which
one of the following?
a. The State Government
b. The District Development Officer
c. The District Collector
d. Chairperson, Zilla Parishad
32. Regarding the Municipalities, who makes
the provisions with respect to the
composition and the territorial area of a
Wards Committee?
a. Municipal Commissioner
b. District Collector
c. State Legislature by law
d. State Election Commissioner
33. Who recommends to the Governor the
principles which should govern the
distribution between the State and the
Panchayats of the net proceeds of the
taxes, tolls and fees leviable by the State
which may be divided between them?
a. Zilla Parishad
b. Chief Minister
c. Finance Minister of the State
d. State Finance Commission
34. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India grants
personnel immunity to the President of
d. Neither 1 nor 2
29. Which one among the following is
responsible for all policy issues pertaining
to external aid received by the
Government of India?
a. Planning Commission
b. Department of Economic Affairs,
Government of India
c. Department of Revenue, Government
of India
d. Finance commission
30. When the Lok Sabha makes any grant in
advances in respect of the estimated
expenditure for a part of any financial year
pending the completion of the procedure
prescribed in the Constitution of India, this
is called
a. Vote on account
b. Vote of credit
c. Supplementary grant
d. Additional grant
46. Consider the following statements about
managerial grid in the context of
leadership theories:
1. It portrays a three-dimensional view of
leadership style.
2. The grid shows dominating factors in a
leader’s thinking in regard to getting
results.
3. The grid does not show results
produced.
4. The grid offers a framework for
conceptualizing leadership style.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
a. Only 1, 2 and 3
b. Only 2, 3 and 4
c. Only 1 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
47. Consider the following statements:
1. Control helps to monitor environment
changes and their effects on the
organization’s progress.
2. Delegation of authority in participative
management does not change the
nature of the control process.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
India and the Governor of a State for
official acts, but no such immunity is
granted to the Ministers.
2. Civil proceedings may be brought
against the President of India or the
Governor of a State in respect of their
personal acts only if six months’ notice
has been delivered to them.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
35. Match List-I (Name of Local Body) with
List-II (State) and select the correct answer
using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Name of Local Body)
A. Janpad Panchayat
B. Mandal Praja Parishad
C. Mandal Panchayat
D. Taluka Panchayat
List-II
(State)
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Karnataka
3. Madhya Pradesh
4. Gujarat
Code:
a. A-4 B-2 C-1 D-3
b. A-3 B-1C -2 D-4
c. A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3
d. A-3 B-2 C-1 D-4
36. Consider the following statements:
1. The Council of Ministers of a State in
India is collectively as well as
individually responsible to the
Legislative Assembly of the State.
2. The Governor of a State has the power
to appoint the Members of the State
Public Service Commission as well as
the State High Court Judges.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
37. Consider the following statements:
1. The minimum prescribed age for any
person to be a member of Panchayat is
25 years.
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
48. Consider the following statements:
1. The New Public Management relies
heavily on third parties of manage and
deliver government services.
2. The New Public Management as a
discipline withdrew from both political
science and management.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
49. Consider the following statements:
1. Zero-base budgeting is useful for
comparing programmes and assisting
financial decision makers.
2. Zero-base budgeting involves
allocation of resources to agencies
based on periodic re-evaluation by
those agencies of the need for different
programmes.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
50. Which one of the following statements is
not correct in respect of the rational
comprehensive approach of decisionmaking
in an organization?
a. It cannot be simulated under laboratory
conditions
b. Values to be realized are usually not
set out distinctly
c. Individual decision-maker cannot take
a comprehensive view of the whole
problem
d. The need for speed compels decisions
to be taken on the basis of incomplete
data
51. Who handles the work relating to the
drafting of the Rules of Business of the
Union Government?
a. Office of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
b. Cabinet Secretariat
c. Prime Minister’s Office
d. Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
52. Who among the following is responsible
2. A Panchayat reconstituted after
premature dissolution continues only
for the remainder period.
3. The 73rd and 74th amendments to the
Constitution of India do not apply to
Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, Jammu
And Kashmir, and Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. Only 2
b. Only 2 and 3
c. Only 1 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
38. The President of India may from time to
time fix the number of Election
Commissioners of the Election
Commission of India on the basis of
a. Advice by the Chief Election
Commissioner
b. Advice by the Prime Minister’s Office
c. Recommendation of the Union Law
Ministry
d. The law made in that respect by the
Parliament
39. Consider the following statements:
1. In the British system, the accounts are
prepared by its Comptroller and
Auditor-General.
2. The Office of the Comptroller and
Auditor-General of India is
substantially modeled upon that of the
Auditor-General under the
Government of India Act, 1935.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
40. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of
India has the power to audit which of the
following?
1. All expenditure from the Contingency
Fund and the Public Account of the
Union.
2. All expenditure from the Contingency
Fund and the Public Account of a
State.
3. All expenditure from the Consolidated
Fund of each Union Territory having a
Legislative Assembly of its own.
4. Accounts of all Government
for evaluation and processing of proposals
relating to the capital restructuring of
various Central Public Sector
Undertakings of the Union Government?
a. Controller General of Accounts
b. Comptroller and Auditor-General
c. Department of Industrial Policy and
promotion
d. Department of Public Enterprises
53. Which of the following techniques used by
organizations engaged in public
administration are based on network
analysis?
1. Organization and Methods (O. and M.)
2. PERT
3. Critical Path Method
4. Work Study
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. Only 1 and 2
c. Only 2 and 3
d. Only 1 and 4
54. Consider the following statements:
1. Defects in co-ordination inherent in
large-organizations may apply to an
organization whether the organization
is bureaucratic or not.
2. Chester Barnard criticized Weber for
falling to analyse the correspondence
of behaviour in organizations with
organizational blueprints.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
55. Who among the following are
administratively linked with the
Department of Personnel and Training?
1. Central Bureau of Investigation
2. Union Public Service Commission
3. Central Vigilance Commission.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
a. Only 1 and 2
b. Only 2 and 3
c. Only 1 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
56. The competitive examination to the ICS
was for the first time held in India,
companies set up under the Indian
Companies Act.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. Only 1 and 2
c. Only 3 and 4
d. Only 1,2 and 3
41. In which year was the decision of
separating accounting function from audit
function taken by the Central Government
for its financial administration?
a. Year 1950
b. Year 1965
c. Year 1976
d. Year 2000
42. Which one of the following statements is
not correct?
a. The main function of the Public
Accounts Committee is to examine the
Report of the Comptroller and Auditor-
General of India
b. The Public Accounts Committee
comprises Members of the Lok Sabha
only
c. A member of opposition can also be
appointed as the Chairman of the
Public Accounts Committee
d. A member of the Public Accounts
Committee can be re-elected for a
second term
43. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India classifies the
members of the Council of Ministers at
the Centre into different ranks.
2. A member of one House of the
Parliament who has been chosen as a
Union Minister does not have the right
to vote in the House of which he is not
a member.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
44. Which one of the following Articles of the
Constitution of India Provides that every
person who is a member of a defence
service or of a civil service of the Union or
of All-India Services holds the office
during the pleasure of the President of
consequent to the
a. Indian Councils Act, 1892
b. Indian Councils Act, 1909
c. Government of India Act, 1919
d. Government of India Act, 1935
57. Assertion (A): The President of India
causes every recommendation made by the
Finance Commission under the provisions
of the Constitution of India to be laid
before the Lok Sabha only.
Reason (R): The Finance Commission is a
body set up under the provisions of the
Constitution of India.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
58. Assertion (A): The principle of Cabinet
responsibility in the States differs from
that in the Union of India.
Reason (R): The Constitution of India does
not empower the President of India to
exercise any function ‘in his discretion’; it
authorizes the Governor to exercise some
functions ‘in his direction’.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
59. Assertion (A): An Election Commissioner
in the Election Commission of India
cannot be removed from office except on
the recommendation of the Chief Election
Commissioner.
Reason (R): An Election Commissioner is
appointed on the recommendation of the
Chief Election Commissioner.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
60. Assertion (A): The Annual Financial
Statement presented in the Lok Sabha
contains apart from the estimates of
expenditure, ways and means to raise
revenue.
 India?
a. Article 310
b. Article 315
c. Article 323
d. Article 323A
45. Consider the following statements:
1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget
Reason (R): After the Annual Financial
Management (FRBM) Act, 2003
Statement is presented in the Lok Sabha,
mandates the Union Government to
the Estimates Committee examines it.
eliminate the revenue deficit by the
a. Both A and R are individually true and
year 2010-11.
R is the correct explanation of A
2. Under the FRBM Act, 2003 and the
b. Both A and R are individually true but
FRBM Rules, 2004, the Union
R is not the correct explanation of A
Government is under obligation not to
c. A is true but R is false
borrow directly from the Reserve Bank
d. A is false but R is true
of India with effect from April 1, 2008.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2 
 
61. Assertion (A): Behavioural approach to 76. Consider the following statements:
leadership believes that individuals trained 1. Development of comparative approach
in appropriate leadership would be able to of public administration was funded by
lead more effectively. the American Government.
Reason (R): Behaviours unlike traits can 2. One reason for funding the
be learned. development of comparative approach
a. Both A and R are individually true and of public administration was political
R is the correct explanation of A interest to arrest communication.
b. Both A and R are individually true but Which of the statements given above is/are
R is not the correct explanation of A correct?
c. A is true but R is false a. Only 1
d. A is false but R is true b. Only 2
62. Assertion (A): The District Collector in c. Both 1 and 2
independent India has less judicial d. Neither 1 nor 2
authority than in pre-Independence India. 77. Who among the following expressed the
Reason (R): Article 50 of the Constitution view that virtually all the decisions in an
of India separates the Judiciary from the organization are such that they do not
Executive. maximize, but only suffice?
a. Both A and R are individually true and a. George Miller
R is the correct explanation of A b. Herbert A. Simon
b. Both A and R are individually true but c. Kurt Lewin
R is not the correct explanation of A d. Abraham Maslow
c. A is true but R is false 78. Consider the following statements:
d. A is false but R is true Performance budgeting is a system of
63. Assertion (A): The agenda for meetings of resource allocation that
the National Development Council is 1. Organises the budget document by
prepared by the Planning Commission operations and programmes.
Secretariat. 2. Links performance levels of operations
Reason (R): The Secretary of the National and programmes with specific budget.
Development Council is also the Secretary Which of the statements given above is/are
of the Planning Commission. correct?
a. Both A and R are individually true and a. Only 1
R is the correct explanation of A b. Only 2
b. Both A and R are individually true but c. Both 1 and 2
R is not the correct explanation of A d. Neither 1 nor 2
c. A is true but R is false 79. Contingency approach to leadership
d. A is false but R is true focuses on which of the following?
64. Assertion (A): A bureaucrat’s capacity to 1. Task requirements
adapt to changing circumstances is far less 2. Peers’ expectations
than that conceived by those who drew up 3. Employees’ expectations
the organizational rules. 4. Organizational policies.
Reason (R): In order to be perceived as Select the correct answer using the code
effective, the bureaucrat behaves given below:
consistently and follows rules strictly. a. Only 1, 2 and 3
a. Both A and R are individually true and b. Only 1, 2 and 4
R is the correct explanation of A c. Only 3 and 4
b. Both A and R are individually true but d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
R is not the correct explanation of A 80. Match List-I (Early Model of Motivation)
c. A is true but R is false with List-II (Person) and select the correct
d. A is false but R is true answer using the code given below the
65. Assertion (A):Any legislative power of the lists:
Executive independent of the Legislature List-I
is unimaginable in the United States of (Early Model of Motivation)
America. A. Traditional Model
Reason (R):The Doctrine of Separation of B. Human Relations Model
Powers underlies the American C. Human Resources
Constitution. List-II
a. Both A and R are individually true and (Person)
R is the correct explanation of A 1. Douglas McGregor
b. Both A and R are individually true but 2. Frederick Taylor
R is not the correct explanation of A 3. Elton Mayo
c. A is true but R is false Code:
d. A is false but R is true a. A-1 B-2 C-3
66. What is a ‘Shadow Cabinet’ in the British b. A-2 B-3 C-1
system? c. A-1 B-3 C-2
a. A group of young members of the d. A-2 B-1 C-3
ruling party 81. Consider the following statements:
b. A group of members from the 1. Motivation cannot be used as a tool to
opposition party who scrutinize some arrange job relationships in an
functions of the government and organization.
present alternative policy 2. Individuals make conscious decisions
c. A team of intellectuals who advise the about their behaviour in the
Cabinet organization.
d. A Cabinet Committee that functions 3. Motivation factors are related to the
under the guidance of the Cabinet job content and the rewards of work
67. Consider the following statements about performance.
the features of the administrative system in Which of the statements given above are
France: correct?
1. Ministers are more concerned with a. Only 1 and 2
direct administration in the provinces. b. Only 2 and 3
2. Specialist personnel are found only in
small numbers in the advisory and
policy-making roles.
3. Freedom of executive action from the
legislature’s supervision increased
under the Fifth Republic.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. Only 1 and 2
c. Only 2 and 3
d. Only 1 and 3
68. Consider the following statements:
1. The British Civil Service developed
during the period of laissez-faire,
whereas the French Civil Service
developed when there was an emphasis
on state intervention.
2. French higher education is much more
career-oriented than the British system.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
69. Consider the following statements in
respect of the Fulton Committee appointed
to review the British Civil Service:
1. Civil Service Department was set up
after the recommendations of the
Fulton Committee.
2. The Fulton Committee noticed
inadequacy of contact between the
services and public.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
70. Consider the following statements:
1. The Us Civil Service Commission was
established by the Pendleton Act.
2. The Hatch Act was responsible for
replacing the patronage system for
appointing civil servants in the United
States of America, by the merit system.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Only 1 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
82. Who among the following come under the
jurisdiction of the Central Vigilance
Commission?
1. Members of All-India Services serving
in connection with the affairs of the
Union and Group A officers of the
Central Government.
2. Senior officers in the Public Sector
Undertakings of the Central
Government.
3. Senior officers in the Public Sector
Banks.
4. Senior officers in the Insurance
Companies in the Public Sector.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
a. Only 1
b. Only 2, 3 and 4
c. Only 1 and 2
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
83. Consider the following statements:
1. The Central Vigilance Commission
comprises a Central Vigilance
Commissioner and three Vigilance
Commissioners.
2. The Central Vigilance Commission
became a multi-member Commission
with statutory status in the year 1998
after promulgation of an Ordinance by
the President of India.
3. The Committee for the selection to the
post of the Director in the Directorate
of Enforcement, Ministry of Finance,
Government of India is chaired by the
Central Vigilance Commissioner.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. Only 2
c. Only 2 and 3
d. Only 1 and 3
84. Consider the following Committees set up
to study the structure, powers and
functions to be assigned to Panchayati Raj
Institutions:
1. Santhanam Committee
2. Ashok Mehta Committee
3. Balwantrai Mehta Committee
4. G.V.K. Rao Committee
Which one of the following is their correct
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
71. Match List-I (Institute) with List-II (Place)
and select the correct answer using the
code given below the lists:
List-I (Institute)
A. National Institute of Smart
Government
B. International Institute for Population
Sciences
C. Institute of Social and Economic
Change
D. National Institute of Rural
Management
List-II (Place)
1. Mumbai
2. Bangalore
3. Gwalior
4. Anand
5. Hyderabad
Code:
a. A-5 B-2 C-1 D-4
b. A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3
c. A-5 B-1 C-2 D-4
d. A-4 B-2 C-1 D-3
72. Consider the following statements:
1. Local government including selfgovernment
institutions in both urban
and rural areas is a subject under the
Concurrent List of the Seventh
Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. Provisions inserted in the Constitution
of India by article 243-243ZG are in
the nature of basic provisions.
3. These provisions have to be
supplemented by laws made by the
respective State Legislatures.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. Only 1 and 2
b. Only 2 and 3
c. Only 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
73. Which one of the following statements is
not correct in respect of the Union Public
Service Commission?
a. The Constitution of India does not
specify the number of Members of the
Union Public Service Commission
while it specifies the number in case of
the Supreme Court Judges
b. As nearly as may be one-half of the
chronological order?
a. 3-4-2-1
b. 2-1-3-4
c. 3-1-2-4
d. 2-4-3-1
85. Whenever the Governor of a State has to
address the State Legislature, who among
the following prepares his address?
a. Chief Secretary of the State
b. Chief Minister and his Council of
Ministers
c. Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
d. Governor himself
86. What is the time-limit within which a non-
Money Bill has to be sent to the legislature
by the Governor for reconsideration?
a. 14 days
b. One month
c. Three months
d. No time-limit is specified
87. Which one of the following statements
about the Central Board of Direct Taxes is
not correct?
a. The Central Board of Taxes provides
essential inputs for public and planning
of direct taxes in India
b. The Central Board of Direct Taxes is
not responsible for administration of
direct tax laws
c. The Chairman and Members of the
Central Board of Direct Taxes are
selected from the Indian Revenue
Service only
d. Various functions and responsibilities
of the Central Board of Direct Taxes
are distributed amongst the Chairman
and the Members, with only
fundamental issues reserved for
collective decision by the Board
88. Which one of the following is not a
defence public sector undertaking?
a. Bharat Dynamic Ltd.
b. Mishra Dhatu Nigam Ltd.
c. Bharat Earth Movers Ltd.
d. Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd.
89. The Fifth Central Pay Commission
suggested that no IAS officer should be
posted as a District Collector unless he has
completed
a. 8 years of service
b. 9 years of service
c. 10 years of service
 Members of the Union Public Service
Commission must have held office for
at least ten years either under the
Government of India or under the
Government of a State prior to their
joining the Commission
c. On ceasing to hold office, a Member of
the Union Public Service Commission
other than the Chairman is eligible for
appointment as the Chairman is
eligible for appointment as the
Chairman of a State Public Service d. 11 years of service
Commission 90. Which of the following taxes belong to a
d. Before creation of a new Group ‘A’ State of Indian Union exclusively?
post under the Central Government, a 1. Taxes on lands and buildings.
clearance from the Union Public 2. Taxes on mineral rights
Service Commission is required 3. Taxes on entry of goods into local
74. How can functions of the Union Public areas.
Service Commission be extended in 4. Taxes on income other than
respect of the services of the Union and agricultural income.
also in respect of the services of any local Select the correct answer using the code
authority or other body corporate given below:
constituted by law or of any public a. Only 1,2 and 3
institution? b. Only 2 and 3
a. By the President c. Only 1 and 4
b. By a Resolution of the Union d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Government
c. By an Act of Parliament
d. By the Union Home Minister
75. Which one of the following statements is
not correct?
Decision making in the public sector, in
comparison to the private sector, involves
a. Higher levels of constraint
b. More complexity
c. Less consultation
d. More conflict 
 
91. Consider the following statements : 104. Who among the following was in the
1. When a State Government suspends an forefront in the development of the
officer of All-India Services, a detailed concept of New Public Administration?
report of the case is required to be sent a. Herbert Simon
to the Centre within 3 months. b. F. Marini
2. A State Government cannot stop the c. Dwight Waldo
increment nor withhold the promotion d. H. Fredrickson
of an officer of All-India Services 105. Which of the following is/are essential to
without prior permission of the Central delegate authority in an organization?
Government. 1. Establish feedback channels
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. Others must not know that delegation
correct? has occurred
a. Only 1 3. Delegatee’s range of discretion should
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
92. Consider the following statements:
1. Henri Fayol was the first to describe
the five functions of management.
2. Henri Fayol was a French Management
theorist whose theories concerning
human relations were widely
influential in the beginning of the 20th
Century.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
93. Which one of the following is not a
component of expectancy model of
motivation?
a. Positive reinforcement
b. Valence
c. Performance-outcome equation
d. Effort-performance equation
94. Consider the following statements in
respect of the New Pension System for the
new entrants to the service under the
Central Government:
1. The New Pension System was
operationalises from January 1, 2004.
2. The New Pension System is based on a
defined contribution-twelve and a half
percent of the salary and dearness
allowance by the employee, which is
matched by the Central Government.
Which of the statement given above is/are
correct?
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
95. Match List-I (Person) with List-II (Major
Area) and select the correct answer using
the code given below the lists:
List-I
(Person)
A. Robert Owen
B. Henry L. Gantt
C. W. Clay Hammer
D. Clayton Alderfer
List-II
(Major Area)
not be specified
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
a. Only 1
b. Only 2 and 3
c. Only 1 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3 
106. Which one of the following statements is
not correct?
Wider span of control is consistent with
efforts of the organizations to
a. Get closer to customers
b. Speed up decision making
c. Reduce cost
d. Improve supervision
107. Consider the following statements:
Computer technology has made the
concept of
1. authority more relevant.
2. authority less relevant.
3. chain of command more relevant.
4. unity of command less relevant.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 3
b. Only 3
c. 2 and 4
d. 1 and 4
108. Consider the following statements:
Human diseconomies from increasing
work specialization beyond a limit surface
in the form of
1. stress
2. poor quality of output.
3. increased absenteeism.
4. high turnover from the organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. Only 1 and 4
c. Only 2 and 3
d. Only 1
109. Consider the following statements:
1. Much of current knowledge of
selection techniques, employee
training and work design is built on the
work of Hugo Munsterberg.
2. Hugo Munsterberg combined scientific
management and industrial psychology
in his work.
Which of the statement given above is/are
correct?
1. Motivation Theories a. Only 1
2. Personnel Management b. Only 2
3. Incentive Scheme for workers c. Both 1 and 2
4. Behaviour Modification Techniques d. Neither 1 nor 2
Code: 110. Which one of the following is not a
a. A-2 B-4 C-3 D-1 component of Max Weber’s ideal
b. A-1 B-3 C-4 D-2 bureaucracy?
c. A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1 a. Job specialization
d. A-1 B-4 C-3 D-2 b. Impersionality
96. Consider the following statements : c. Career orientation
1. like a Member of the Union Public d. Organization as a social system
Service Commission, the Chief 111. Who among the following conducted one
Information Commissioner holds the of the most widely cited pig iron
office for a period of 6 years or till he experiment as an example of scientific
attains the age of 65 years, whichever management?
is earlier. a. Robert Owen
2. The Chief Information Commissioner b. Frederick W. Taylor
shall only be removed from his office c. Chester Barnard
in like manner an don the like grounds d. Mary Parker Follett
as that for a member of the Union 112. In case of difference of opinion amongst
Public Service Commission. the Chief Election Commissioner and
Which of the statements given above is/are other Election Commissioners in the
correct? Election Commission of India.
a. Only 1 a. The matter is to be referred to the
b. Only 2 Supreme Court of India
c. Both 1 and 2 b. The opinion of the Chief Election
d. Neither 1 nor 2 Commissioner is final
97. Who among the following is not a member c. The matter is to be referred to the Law
of the committee which makes Commission
recommendation to President of India for d. The matter is decided by the Election
appointment as Chief Information Commission by majority
Commissioner and Information 113. Who among the following developed the
Commissioners? classic three-step model, of organizational
a. Prime Minister change?
b. Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha a. Kurt Lewin
c. A Union Cabinet Minister to be b. H. Simon
nominated by the Prime Minister c. J. P. Kotter
d. Union Law Minister d. L. R. Murphy
98. In the present context, the Planning 114. Who developed the concept that tension
Commission of India is focusing on which between worker’s ‘logic of sentiment’ and
of the following? manager’s ‘logic of cost and efficiency’
1. Information dissemination role could lead to conflict within the
2. Systems change role organization?
3. Indicative planning for the Indian a. Herbert Simon
economy b. Chester Barnard
Select the correct answer using the code c. Frederick W. Taylor
given below: d. Elton Mayo
a. Only 1 and 2 115. Consider the following statements:
b. Only 1 1. Through the Hawthorne Studies, Elton
c. Only 2 and 3 Mayo could support Mary Parker
d. 1, 2 and 3 Follett’s theory that the lack of
99. Who is the Chairman of the Civil Service attention to human relationships was a
Board in India?
a. Secretary (Personnel), Government of
India
b. Cabinet Secretary, Government of
India
c. Chairman, Union Public Service
Commission
d. Establishment Officer, Government of
India
100. Consider the following statements in
respect of the recommendations of the
Fifth Central Pay Commission:
1. Flexible Complementing Scheme of
promotion first introduced by the Third
Central Pay Commission should be
withdrawn.
2. Cadre reviews should ensure that an
across the board reduction of 1% of
manpower per year is achieved.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
101. What is the pre-tax disparity ratio i.e. the
ratio of the maximum basic pay (of the
post of Secretary to the Government of
India) and minimum basic pay for the
Central Government employees on the
basis of the recommendations of the Fifth
Central Pay Commission?
a. 9.6
b. 10.7
c. 11.4
d. 12.2
102. Which of the following pairs is/are
correctly matched?
1. Committee on Performance-oriented
Appraisal System Surinder Nath
2. Committee on Upgrading Civil Service
Skills B. Yugandhar
3. Committee on Civil Service Reforms
Y. K. Alagh
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. Only 1 and 2
c. Only 2 and 3
d. Only 1
103. How can a new All-India Service be
created?
major flaw in other management
theories.
2. The book-The Human Problems of an
Industrialised Civilisation was written
by Mary Parker Follett.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
116. In the Constitution of India, economic and
social planning is included in the
a. Union List of the VII Schedule
b. State List of the VII Schedule
c. Concurrent list of the VII Schedule
d. None of the above
117. The systems approach is mainly based on
the work of which one of the following?
a. Chris Argyris
b. Chester Barnard
c. Ludwig Bertalanffy
d. A. Etzioni
118. In pursuance of which Article of the
Constitution of India are the conditions of
service including recruitment to the
Central Services regulated by a large
number of rules?
a. Article 309
b. Article 310
c. Article 311
d. Article 312
119. Which one of the following committees
scrutinizes and reports to the Parliament
whether the power to make rules and
regulations conferred by the Constitution
or Statutes is being properly exercised by
the delegated authority?
a. Committee on Government Assurances
b. Committee on Subordinate Legislation
c. Rules Committee
d. General Purposes Committee
120. Consider the following statements about
the civil service system of Japan:
1. Permanent employees are generally
hired as generalists, and not as
specialists, for specific positions.
2. Career progression is highly
predictable, regulated and automatic.
3. Salary increases and promotions each
year are generally uniform for
members of the same graduating class
 who join an employer together.
a. By an amendment of the Constitution Which of the statements given above is/are
b. By Provisions of Article 312 of the correct?
Constitution a. Only 1
c. By an executive order b. Only 2 and 3
d. By a statute c. Only 1 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
 
2009
PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION

1.         Which one of the following leadership styles was identified by the Michigan University
Leadership Studies as the most effective leadership style?
            (a) Democratic style leadership
            (b) Employee-centered leadership
            (c) Participative group leadership
            (d) Team leadership
            ANSWER (B)
 
2.         Who among the following has observed that instead of hierarchy of needs, motivation should
be understood in terms of series of needs?
            (a) Chester Barnard
            (b) David McClelland
            (c) Abraham Maslow
            (d) Warren Bennis
            ANSWER (B)
 
3.         According to Frederick Herzberg, the determinants of job dissatisfaction include
            1. working conditions
            2. supervision
            3. salary
            4. responsibility
            5. recognition
            Which of the above are correct?
            (a) 4 and 5 only
            (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
            (c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
            (d) 1, 2, 3 and 5 on1y
            ANSWER (B)
 
4.         Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists
            List-I (Commission/ Committee)                           List-II (Recommendation) 
            (A) First Hoover Commission                 1.             Division of training and education
            (B) Assheton Committee                        2.             Reorganization of US President’s office
            (C) Brownlow Committee                        3.             Senior policy advisors
            (D) Fulton Committee                                             4.             Senior executive service
                                                                                5.             Office of general services
administration
            Code
                                A              B              C              D
            (a) 4            2              1              3
            (b) 5            1              2              3
            (c) 2             1              3              4
            (d) 3            4              5              2
            ANSWER (B)
 
5.         Which one of the following shows the correct sequence of the four basic steps in the position
classification plan?
            (a) Job analysis-Grouping of positions- Standardization- Position allocation
            (b) Standardization-Job analysis-Grouping of positions-Position allocation
            (c) Grouping of positions-Job analysis-Position allocation- Standardization
            (d) Job analysis-Grouping of positions-Position allocation- Standardization
            ANSWER (A)
 
6.         According to W. F. Willoughby, which of the following are correct about the essentials of a
sound promotion system?
            1. Adoption of standard specifications setting forth the duties and qualifications required for all
positions in a government service
            2. Classification of all positions into distinct classes, grades and services based on duty
classification
            3. The inclusion within this classification of all administrative positions except those having a
political character
            Select the correct answer using the code given below:
            Code:
            (a) 1, 2 and 3
            (b) 2 and 3 only
            (c) 1 and 3 only
            (d) 1 and 2 only
            ANSWER (A)
 
7.         Which of the following scholars has/have not laid any marked emphasis on administrative
ethics?
            (a) Paul Appleby
            (b) Frederick Mosher
            (c) Chanakya
            (d) David Osborne and Ted Gaebler
            ANSWER (D)
 
8.         Which of the following was not identified by the Santhanam Committee as a major cause of
corruption in India?
            (a) Administrative delays
            (b) Scope for personnel discretion in the exercise of powers
            (c) Cumbersome procedures
            (d) Absence of regulatory functions of the government
            ANSWER (D)
 
9.         By which one of the following Acts, are the political activities of civil servants in the USA
regulated?
            (a) The Hatch Act of 1939
            (b) The Civil Service Act of 1883
            (c) The Ramspeck Act of 1940
            (d) The Taft-Hartley Act of 1947
            ANSWER (A)
 
10.       The office of the Ombudsman like institution in the form of Parliamentary Commissioner for
 Administration in the United Kingdom was set up on the recommendations of which one of the
following Reports?
            (a) Sir John Whyatt Report
            (b) Northcote-Trevelyan Report
            (c) Fulton Report
            (d) Aitchison Report
            ANSWER (A)
 
11.       Which one of the following statements in respect of the French Civil Service is not correct?
            (a) ENA is concerned with the training of technical personnel
            (b) Basic unit of organization of the civil service is called Corps
            (c) French Civil Service is elitist
            (d) Civil servants are allowed to take leave and contest for political offices i
            ANSWER (A)
 
12.       Which of the following local government units are prevalent in France?
            1. Department
            2. Arrondissement
            3. Canton
            4. Commune
            Select the correct answer using the code given below:
            Code:
            (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
            (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
            (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
            (d) 1 and 3 only
            ANSWER (C)
 
13.       The Amakudan system in respect of the civil service in Japan is
            (a) post-retirement assignment
            (b) professional training
            (c) foreign posting
            (d) monetary compensation
            ANSWER (A)
 
14.       Which of the following statements regarding civil services in Japan is/are correct?
            1. The NPA and MCA are its principal controlling and coordinating agencies.
            2. The Japanese higher civil service is elitist.
            Select the correct answer using the code given below:
            Code:
            (a) 1 only
            (b) 2 only
            (c) Both 1 and 2
            (d) Neither 1 nor 2
            ANSWER (C)
 
15.       Who among the following has focused on the politics of the budgetary process?
            (a) Robert Golembiewski
            (b) Aaron Wildavsky
            (c) Jesse Birkhead
            (d) A. Premchand
            ANSWER (B)
 
16.       Which of the following is/are advantage/advantages of zero-based budgeting?
            1. It eliminates or minimizes the low priority programmes.
            2. It improves the programme effectiveness.
            3. It facilitates critical review of schemes in terms of their cost effectiveness and cost benefits.
            Select the correct answer using the code given below:
            Code:
            (a) 1 only
            (b) 1 and 2 only
            (c) 2 and 3 only
            (d) 1, 2 and 3
            ANSWER (D)
 
17.       Consider the following statements:
            The expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India comprises of
            1. pension payable to Judges of High Court
            2. debt charges for which the Government of India is liable
            3. salary, allowances and pension payable to Comptroller and Auditor General of India
            Which of the statements given above are correct?
            (a) 1, 2 and 3
            (b) 1 and 3 only
            (c) 2 and 3 only
            (d) 1 and 2 only
            ANSWER (A)
             
18.       Which of the following statements about separation of the Railway Budget from the General
Budget of India are correct?
            1. To introduce flexibility in railway finance management
            2. To facilitate a business approach to the railway policy
            3. To secure stability of the general revenues by providing an assured annual contribu¬tion
from railway revenues
            4. To enable the railways to keep their profits for their own development
            Select the correct answer using the code given below :
            Code :
            (a) 2, 3 and 4 only
            (b) 1 and 4 only
            (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
            (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
            ANSWER (D)
 
19.       Consider the following statements :
            A Bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with the
            1. imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax
            2. regulation of the borrowing of money by the government
            3. appropriation of moneys out of the Consolidated Fund of India
            4. custody of the Contingency Fund of India
            Which of the above statements are correct?
            (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
            (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
            (c) 1 and 4 only
            (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
            ANSWER (D)
 
20.       Which one of the following statements is correct with regard to the powers of the Parliament of
 India in enacting the budget?
            (a) It can increase a tax, but not reduce it
            (b) It can increase a tax as well as reduce or abolish it
            (c) It cannot increase a tax, but can reduce or abolish it
            (d) It can neither increase a tax nor reduce it
            ANSWER (C)
 
21.       Which of the following statements are correct in respect of parliamentary debate on
Appropriation Bill?
            1. No amendments can be moved on the amount of expenditure.
            2. Speaker is empowered to with¬hold permission on matters of repetitive nature.
            3. N- Rajya Sabha has power to amend or reject the Bill.
            Select the correct answer using the code given below :
            Code :
            (a) 1 and 2 only
            (b) 1 and 3 only
            (c) 2 and 3 only
            (d) 1, 2 and 3
            ANSWER (A)
 
22.       To which of the following, the 74th Constitutional Amendment has not paid attention?
            1. Municipal personnel system           
            2. Constitution and composition of municipality
            3. Relations between elected executive and bureaucracy
            4. Relations between municipal government and para-statals
            Select the correct answer using the code given below :
            Code :
            (a) 1 and 2 only
            (b) 1, 3 and 4
            (c) 2, 3 and 4
            (d) 1, 2 and 3
            ANSWER (B)
 
23.       Which of the following is/are correct in respect of 'Zero Hour' discussion?
            1. It is not directed against individual Minister.
            2. It covers questions raised over matters of public importance.
            Select the correct answer using the code given below :
            Code :
            (a) 1 only
            (b) 2 only
            (c) Both 1 and 2
            (d) Neither 1 nor 2
            ANSWER (B)
 
24.       Through which of the following is judicial control over administration in India exercised?
            1. Adjudication
            2. Judicial Review «
            3. Writs
            4. Public Interest Litigation
            Select the correct answer using the code given below :
            Code :
            (a) 1 and 4 only
            (b) 2 and 3 only
            (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
            (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
            ANSWER (C)
 
25.       Which of the following statements is/are correct of the writ of prohibition?
            1. It is an order issued by a higher court commanding a lower court to cease from proceeding
in some matters not within its jurisdiction.
            2. It can be claimed by an aggrieved party as a matter of right.
            Select the correct answer using the code given below :
            Code :
            (a) 1 only
            (b) 2 only
            (c) Both 1 and 2
            (d) Neither 1 nor 2
            ANSWER (A)
           
MAINS TEST SERIES STARTING FROM 20th JUNE
 
26.       In which among the following countries is Charter Mark Programme being effectively used to
evaluate the performance of government agencies through outside independent agencies?
            (a) Japan
            (b) France
            (c) Great Britain
            (d) USA
            ANSWER (C)
 
27.       'Poly-communalism' is the term coined by Fred Riggs to describe
            (a) integrated society
            (b) plural society
            (c) diffracted society
            (d) parochial society
            ANSWER (B)
 
28.       The 'Collegial' type of executive can be found in which one of the following countries?
            (a) Japan
            (b) France
            (c) Switzerland
            (d) Great Britain
            ANSWER (C)
 
29.       On which of the following factors does people's participation depend for its success in
influencing the governance process?
            1. Ability of the people to participate
            2. Willingness of the people to participate
            3. Opportunity to the people to participate
            4. Mechanisms available for participation
            Select the correct answer using the code given below :
            Code :
            (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
            (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
            (c) 3 and 4 only
            (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
            ANSWER (D)
 
30.       Which of the following is/are not correct in respect of the Right to Information Act, 2005?
            1. Information in respect of allegation of violation of human rights can be obtained ^ in 30
days.
            2. There are restrictions for third party information.
            3. Total penalty for not providing information shall not exceed Rs 5,000.
            4. Appeal against the decision of the Central/State Public Information Officer can be made to
officers of higher rank.
            Select the correct answer using the code given below :
            Code :
            (a) 3 only
            (b) 1 only
            (c) 1 and 3
            (d) 2 and 4
            ANSWER (C)
 
31.       Match List-I the correct given below with List-II and select answer using the code the Lists :
            List-I (Committee/ Commission)                           List-II (Recommendation)
            (a) Macaulay Committee                        1.             Classification of civil services
            (b) Aitchison Commission                      2.             Changes in staffing pattern of Central
Secretariat
            (C) Tottenham Committee                      3.             Competitive examination for recruitment
to civil services
            (D) Islington Commission                      4.             Establishment of Public Service
Commission
                                                                                5.             Promotion of provincial civil
services members to ICS
            Code :
                A              B              C              D
            (a) 3            1              2              5
            (b) 5            4              2              3
            (c) 5             4              1              3
            (d) 3            1              5              2
            ANSWER (A)
 
32.       Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India provides provision for the
creation of All India Services?
            (a) Article 300
            (b) Article 312
            (c) Article 320
            (d) Article 321
            ANSWER (B)
 
33.       Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts has/have made the decisions of the
Council of Ministers binding on the President of India?
            (a) 42nd and 44th Amendment Acts
            (b) 43rd Amendment Act
            (c) 40th Amendment Act only
            (d) 40th and 41st Amendment Acts
            ANSWER (A)
 
34.       Which of the following are the functions of the Cabinet according to the Haldane Committee
Report (1918)?
            1. The final determination of the policy to be submitted to the Parliament
            2. The supreme control of the National Executive in accordance with the policy agreed by the
Parliament
            3. Recommendation of important policies to the Prime Minister for his/her final decision
            4. The continuous coordination and delimitation of the authority of the several departments of
the State
            Select the correct answer using the code given below :
            Code :
            (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
            (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
            (c) 2 and 4 only
            (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
            ANSWER (A) (1, 2, 4 are most appropriate answer)
 
35.       Which of the following statements with regard to the Prime Minister's Office (PMO) is/are
correct?
            1. The PMO was given the status^ of a department under the Government of India Allocation
of Business Rules,
            2. Jurisdiction of the PMO extends over all such subjects and activities as are not specially
allotted to any individual department.
            Select the correct answer using the code given below :
            Code :
            (a) 1 only
            (2) only
            (c) Both 1 and 2
            (d) Neither 1 nor 2
            ANSWER (c)
 
36.       Consider the following statements : Indicative planning indicates the,-
            1. broad directions of development
            2. long-term goals in strategic areas
            3. exclusive areas of government planning
            Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
            (a) 1 and 2 only
            (b) 1, 2 and 3
            (c) 3 only
            (d) 1 and 3 only
            ANSWER (A)
 
37.       Which of the following accounts is/are not maintained by the Comptroller and Auditor General
of India?
            1. The Accounts of a State
            2. The Railway Accounts
            3. The Union Government Accounts
            4. Defence Accounts
            Select the correct answer using the code given below :
            Code :
            (a) 2 only
            (b) 2 and 4
            (c) 1 and 3
            (d) 1 and 2
            ANSWER (B)
 
38.       In the context of State v/s Market debate, which of the following statements are correct?
            1. It has a concern for institutional pluralism in the provision of public goods and services.
            2. It promotes consumers' preferences.
            3. It has given rise to market orientation.
            4. It emphasizes the role of Public Administration as the major -provider of goods and services.
            Select the correct answer using the code given below :
            Code :
            (a) 1 and 2 only
            (b) 2 and 3 only
            (c) 1, 2 and 3
            (d) 3 and 4
            ANSWER (C)
 
39.       Which one of the following is not propounded by F. W. Taylor?
            (a) Differential piece rate system
            (b) Time and motion study
            (c) Unity of command
            (d) Shop management
            ANSWER (C)
 
40.       Identify the correct order of stages in decision-making, as identified by Herbert Simon
            (a) Design activity-Choice activity- Intelligence activity
            (b) Intelligence activity-Design activity-Choice activity
            (c) Choice activity-Design activity- Intelligence activity
            (d) Intelligence activity-Choice activity-Design activity
            ANSWER (B)
 
41.       Consider the following statements:
            New Public Administration
            1. upholds social equity
            2. favours ethics-centric public policies
            3. advocates centralized structures
            4. stands for value-based goals
            Which of the statements given above are correct?
            (a) 1 and 4 only
            (b) 1, 2 and 3
            (c) 1, 2 and 4
            (d) 3 and 4
            ANSWER (C)
 
42.       Which one of the following has been suggested by Henri Fayol as an alternative to scalar chain?
            (a) Dual command
            (b) Unity of direction
            (c) Gangplank
            (d) Esprit de corps
            ANSWER (C)
 
43.       Which of the following are the salient characteristics of neo-liberalism that have promoted new
public management?
            1. Welfare State
            2. Individual Liberty
            3. Market Mechanism
            4. Privatization
            Select the correct answer using the code given below:
            Code:
            (a) 1 and 2
            (b) 1 and 3
            (c) 2 and 3 only
            (d) 2, 3 and 4
            ANSWER (D)
 
44.       Consider the following statements:
            The discourse theory of post-modern Public Administration as propounded by Fox and Miller
believes in
            1. pluralistic perspective on public policy
            2. deterministic approach to public policy
            3. de jure nature of public policy
            4. Public Administration as a public energy field
            Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
            (a) 2 and 3
            (b) 1 and 2
            (c) 4 only
            (d) 1 and 4
            ANSWER (D)
 
45.       Consider the following statements in respect of new public management:
            1. It aims at economy, efficiency and effectiveness.
            2. It emphasizes on the vital role of the market as against the State as the key regulator of
society and economy.
            3. Government is the major doer of public activities.
            4. It supports the various concepts and principles of traditional Public Administration.
            Which of the statements given above are correct?
            (a) 1 and 2 only
            (b) 1, 2 and 3
            (c) 2 and 4
            (d) 1 and 4
            ANSWER (A)
 
46.       According to Chris Argyris, which one of the following situations is a positive hindrance in
facilitating coordination in an organization?
            (a) Hierarchical coercion
            (b) Standardized procedures
            (c) Grapevine communication
            (d) Administrative planning
            ANSWER (C)
 
47.       Consider the following paradigms in the evolution of the discipline of Public Administration as
proposed by Nicholas Henry:
            1. Politics/Administration dichotomy
            2. Public Administration as political science
            3. Public Administration as management
            4. Principles of administration
            5. Public Administration as Public Administration
            Which one of the following is the correct order of the above?
            (a) 2—1—4—5—3
            (b) 1—4—2—3—5
            (c) 4—2—1—5—3
            (d) 1—4—3—2—5
            ANSWER (B)
 
48.       Which one of the following is not identified by Nicholas Henry as a factor for organizational
change?
            (a) Process of adaptation
            (b) Task environment
            (c) Technology of organization
            (d) Organization behaviour
            ANSWER (D)
 
49.       Which one of the following statements is not correct?
            The principle of hierarchy is at the foundation of all government departments because the
principle
            (a) involves               superior-subordinate relationship as applicable to government agencies
            (b) gives scope for delegation of authority from a superior to a subordinate officer
            (c) facilitates reporting from lower level to higher level
            (d) is best suited for horizontal type of organizations required in development administration
            ANSWER (D)
 
50.       Who among the following have supported the application of the principle of unity of command?
            1. Henri Fayol
            2. Gulick and Urwick
            3. Seckler and Hudson
            4. Herbert Simon
            Select the correct answer using the code given below
            Code:
            (a) 1 and 2 only
            (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
            (c) 3 and 4 only
            (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
            ANSWER (A)
 
BATCHES STARTING FROM 15th JUNE
MAINS TEST SERIES STARTING FROM 20th JUNE
 
51.       Under which of the following grounds is the principle of unity of command criticized?          {
            1. Creation of large number of staff and auxiliary agencies has diluted this concept.
            2. The concept of one single boss for each person is seldom found in complex governmental
situations.
            3. People in an organization have fixed responsibilities for their functions.
            Select the correct answer using the code given below:
            Code:
            (a) 1 and 2 only
            (b) 2 and 3 only
            (c) 1 only
            (d) 1, 2 and 3
            ANSWER (A)
 
52.       Who among the following has urged that strict adherence to rules results in the displacement of
goals?
            (a) Robert K. Merton
            (b) Alvin Gouldner
            (c) Chester Barnard
            (d) Peter M. Blau
            ANSWER (A)
 
53.       On which of the following does span of control depend?
            1. Personality of the superior
            2. Nature of work to be supervised
            3. Age of the organization
            4. Calibre of the subordinates
            5. Delegation of authority
            Select the correct answer using the code given below:
            Code:
            (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
            (b) 3, 4 and 5 only
            (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
            (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
            ANSWER (D)
 
54.       According to Chester Barnard, the strength of administrative authority lies in the zone of
            (a) acceptance
            (b) resistance
            (c) indifference
            (d) anticipated reactions
            ANSWER (C)
 
55.       Consider the following statements:
            According to Henri Fayol, decentralization is greater when
            1. policy decisions are made at lower levels
            2. important decisions are made at lower levels
            3. more functions are affected by decisions at lower levels
            Which of the statements given above are correct?
            (a) 1, 2 and 3
            (b) 1 and 3 only
            (c) 2 and 3 only
            (d) 1 and 2 only
            ANSWER (A)
 
56.       Which one of the following is a Parliamentary Standing Committee?
            (a) Committee on Draft Five-Year Plan
            (b) Railway Convention Committee
            (c) Business Advisory Committee
            (d) Joint Committee on Fertilizer Pricing
            ANSWER (C)
 
57.       According to Henri Fayol, which of the following actions are required in supervisory control
process?
            1. Standard actions
            2. Corrective actions
            3. Coercive actions
            4. Evaluative actions
            Select the correct answer using the code given below:
            Code:
            (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
            (b) 2 and 3 only
            (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
            (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
            ANSWER (D)
 
58.       Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
            List-I (item)                                                               List-II (Article as per the
                                                                                74th Constitutional Amendment Act)
            (a) Constitution of Municipalities       1. Article 243Q
            (b) Reservation of seats                         2. Article 243T
            (c) Finance Commission                         3. Article 243Y
            (d) Duration of Municipalities, et(c) 4. Article 243U
            Code:
                                A              B              C              D
            (a)               4              2              3              1
            (b)               1              2              3              4
            (c)                4              3              2              1
            (d)               1              3              2              4
            ANSWER (B)
 
59.       The legacy of British rule in India includes which of the following?
            1. Creation of the ICS (Indian Civil Services)
            2. Secretarial System
            3. Local Self-government
            4. Law and Order Administration
            Select the correct answer using the code given below
            Code:
            (a) 1 and 2 only
            (b) 2 and 3 only
            (c) 3 and 4 only
            (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
            ANSWER (D)
 
60.       Consider the following statements :
            Classical theory of administration emphasizes
            1. formal organizational structure
            2. need for citizen participation in governance and administration
            3. principles of hierarchy, division of work and span of control
            Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
            (a) 1 only
            (b) 2 only
            (c) 1, 2 and 3
            (d) 1 and 3 only
            ANSWER (D)
 
61.       Who among the following have been harsh critics of bureaucracy ‘as an instrument of
government’?
            1. Harold Laski and Peter Drucker
            2. Warren Bennis and Robert Reich
            3. Ralph Braibanti and Sardar Patel Select the correct answer using the code given below
            Code:
            (a) 1 and 2
            (b) 2 and 3
            (c) 1 and 3
            (d) 1 only
            ANSWER (A)
 
62.       Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of Weberian bureaucracy?
            (a) Neutral competence
            (b) Professional hierarchy
            (c) Auto-administration
            (d) Legal rationalism
            ANSWER (C)
 
63.       Which one of the following thinkers was first to talk about the concept of ‘Constructive Conflict’
in an organization?
            (a) Elton Mayo
            (b) Mary Parker Follett
            (c) Peter Blau
            (d) Henri Fayol
            ANSWER (B)
 
64.       Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
            List-I (Critic of Weber)                             List-II (Point of Criticism)
            (a) Alvin Gouldner                   1.             Internal contradictions
            (b) Robert Presthus                 2.             Product of alien culture
            (c) James March                       3.             Lack of flexibility
                                                                4.             Behavioural elements ignored
            Code:
                                A              B              C
            (a)               2              3              1
            (b)               1              2              3
            (c)                2              4              3
            (d)               1              3              4
            ANSWER (B)
 
65.       Consider the following statements with respect to duties of the Prime Minister according to the
Constitution of India
            1. To make rules for the more convenient transaction of business of the Govt. of India, and for
the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
            2. If the President so required, to submit for consideration of the Council of ministers any on
which a decision has been taken by a minister but which has not been considered by the Council.
            Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
            (a) 1 only
            (b) 2 only
            (c) Both 1 and 2
            (d) Neither 1 nor 2
            ANSWER (B)
 
66.       Which one of the following is the correct chronological order      of            the
Committee/Commission Reports?
            (a) Macaulay-Aitchison-Lee-Fulton-Islington
            (b) Aitchison-Macaulay-Fulton- Islington-Lee
            (c) Macaulay-Aitchison-Islington-Lee-Fulton
            (d) Islington-Aitchison-Lee-Fulton-Macaulay |
            ANSWER (C)
 
67.       Which one of the following features does not necessarily apply to generalist administration in
India?
            (a) They are trained professionals in administration
            (b) They have been educated in technical disciplines
            (c) They can head or work in any government department
            (d) They have a broader view of administration
            ANSWER (B)
 
68.       Which one of the following is not correct in respect of the Governor’s Ordinance-making power?
            (a) It is exercised only when the Legislature is not in session
            (b) It is a discretionary power which need not be exercised with the aid and advice of Ministers
            (c) The Governor himself is competent to withdraw the Ordinance at any time
            (d) The scope of the Ordinance-making power is limited to subjects in List II and List III of
Schedule VII
            ANSWER (B)
 
69.       Which one of the following statements, with regard to the State Legislature, is not correct?
            (a) The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Governor
            (b) Under Article 167 of the Constitution of India, the Chief Minister has to communicate to the
Governor all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of
the State and proposals for legislation
            (c) Once the Governor reserves a Bill for the consideration of the President, the subsequent
enactment of the Bill is in the hands of the President and the Governor shall have no further part
in its career
            (d) The executive power of the State is vested in the Governor and all executive actions of the
State has to be taken in the name of the Governor
            ANSWER (A)
 
70.       Which one of the following statements is not correct with regard to the Cabinet Secretary of
India?
            (a) The office of the Cabinet Secretary was created in the year 1950
            (b) The Cabinet Secretary is the principal secretary to the Prime Minister
            (c) The Cabinet Secretary provides secretarial assistance to all Cabinet committees
            (d) Tenure of the Cabinet Secretary is fixed for five years
            ANSWER (D)
 
71.       Which of the following statements with respect to State Level Directorate is/are correct?
            1. It is always headed by a specialist.
            2. It is a line organization.
            Select the correct answer using the code given below:
            Code:
            (a) 1 only
            (b) 2 only
            (c) Both 1 and 2
            (d) Neither 1 nor 2
            ANSWER (B)
 
72.       Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
            List-I                                                           List-II
            (a) Lord Wellesley                   1.             Created the post of Civil Judge
            (b) Warren Hastings                                2.             Created the office of Chief Secretary
            (c) William Bentinck                               3.             Created the office of District Collector
            (d) Lord Cornwallis                  4.             Created the post of Deputy Collector
            Code:
                                A              B              C              D
            (a)               2              4              3              1
            (b)               1              3              4              2
            (c)                2              3              4              1
            (d)               1              4              3              2
            ANSWER (C)
 
73.       Which one of the following recommended the separation of regulatory and development
functions at the district level?
            (a) Dantwalla Committee
            (b) Hanumantha Rao Committee
            (c) Administrative Reforms Commission
            (d) G. V. K. Rao Committee
            ANSWER (C)
 
74.       Consider the following statements:
            The Prime Minister as the head of the Council of Ministers
            1. has a free hand in the distribution of portfolios
            2. can reshuffle the Ministers and ask any Minister to resign
            3. is bound by the advice of the Ministers
            4. advises the Ministers in day-to-day administration of Ministries
            Which of the statements given above are correct?
            (a) 1 and 2 only
            (b) 2 and 3
            (c) 1, 2 and 4
            (d) 3 and 4
            ANSWER (A)
 
75.       The Administrative Reforms Commission (1966) recommended the establishment of ‘Lokpal’ in
India on the lines of Ombudsman of which of the following countries?
            1. Finland
            2. Denmark
            3. Norway
            4. Switzerland
            Select the correct answer using the code given below:
            Code:
            (a) 1, 2 and 4
            (b) 1 and 2 only
            (c) 1, 2 and 3
            (d) 3 and 4
            ANSWER (C)
 
BATCHES STARTING FROM 15th JUNE
MAINS TEST SERIES STARTING FROM 20th JUNE
 
76.       Mayor-in-Council form of Municipal Corporation is
            (a) brought in by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act
            (b) based on the theory of separation of powers
            (c) akin to Cabinet form of government
            (d) based on the American local government pattern
            ANSWER (C)
 
77.       Consider the following statements:
            State Finance Commissions
            1. receive grants directly from the Finance Commission set up by the Union Government
            2. review the economic conditions of the various Panchayati Raj Institutions and Municipal
Bodies in the State
            Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
            (a) 1 only
            (b) 2 only
            (c) Both 1 and 2
            (d) Neither 1 nor 2
            ANSWER (B)
 
78.       Consider the following statements:
            The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act provided
            1. for 27% reservation of seats at the Panchayats for the Other Backward Castes (OBCs)
            2. that the Chairpersons of the Panchayats at intermediate or district level, shall be elected by,
and from amongst the elected members thereof
            Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
            (a) 1 only
            (b) 2 only
            (c) Both 1 and 2
            (d) Neither 1 nor 2
            ANSWER (B)
 
            Directions:
            The following five (5) items consists of two statements, one labelled as 'Assertion (A)' and the
other as 'Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers
to these items using the code given below:
            Code:
            (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
            (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
            (c) A is true but R is false
            (d) A is false but R is true
 
79.       Assertion (A): A system constantly reacts to the outside environment and under¬ goes a
process of change.
            Reason (R): A system has an inherent survivability instinct, which increases its capacity to face
changes.
            ANSWER (A)
 
80.       Assertion (A): Coordination is both a positive and a negative concept.
            Reason (R): Coordination prevents disharmony, inefficiency, wastage and conflict in an
organization.
            ANSWER (B)
 
81.       Assertion (A): Governor can withhold non-Money Bill passed by the Legislature.
            Reason (R): Governors are empowered by the Article 200 of the Constitution of India to do so.
            ANSWER (A)
 
82.       Assertion (A): Conventional Public Administration is based upon the dichotomy of politics and
administration. Reason (R): Public Administration in India and Britain is opposed to any political
 role of civil servants.
            ANSWER (B)
 
83.       Assertion (A): Functional supervision runs counter to the principle of unity of comman(d)
            Reason (R): Unity of command is helpful in attaining the unity of direction.
            ANSWER (B)
 
84.       Who among the following subscribed to the ‘non-coercive’ theory of organization?
            (a) George Frederickson
            (b) Frank Marini
            (c) Dwight Waldo
            (d) Frederick Thayer
            ANSWER (D)
 
85.       Which of the following are the contributions of Mary Parker Follett?
            1. Circular behaviour
            2. Integrative unity
            3. Law of the situation
            4. Strategic limiting factor
            Select the correct answer using the code given below:
            Code:
            (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
            (b) 1 and 3 only
            (c) 2 and 4 only
            (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
            ANSWER (A)
 
86.       According to Chester Barnard, which of the following are the characteristics of organizational
decisions?
            1. They are impersonal.
            2. They cannot be delegate(d)
            3. They are specialize(d)
            4. They result from logical thought processes.
            Select the correct answer using the code given below:
            Code:
            (a) 1, 3 and 4 only
            (b) 1 and 2 only
            (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
            (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
            ANSWER (A)
 
87.       Chester Barnard’s concept of ‘zone of indifference’ refers to orders that are
            (a) barely unacceptable
            (b) just about acceptable
            (c) unquestionably acceptable
            (d) not always acceptable
            ANSWER (C)
 
88.       Consider the following statements Human relations theory
            1. views organization as a psychological and social system
            2. takes the social view of man
            3. emphasizes the physiological and mechanical aspects of organization
            4. assumes that people are homogeneous
            Which of the statements given above are not correct?
            (a) 1 and 2
            (b) 2 and 3
            (c) 3 and 4
            (d) 1 and 4
            ANSWER (C)
 
89.       Which one of the following experiments was not included in the Hawthorne experiments?
            (a) Bank wiring observation room
            (b) Relay assembly test room
            (c) Cutting metals
            (d) Great illumination
            ANSWER (C)
 
90.       Consider the following statements Hawthorne studies showed that workers had devised norms
for the output of a group as one should not be a
            1. rate-buster
            2. chiseller
            3. squealer
            Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
            (a) 1 only
            (b) 1 and 2 only
            (c) 2 and 3 only
            (d) 1, 2 and 3
            ANSWER (D)
 
91.       Which of the following statements are correct?
            The behavioural approach is considered to be
            1. a humane approach
            2. based on Hawthorne findings
            3. largely concerned with decision¬making
            4. the dominant approach in the pre-World War I period
            Select the correct answer using the code given below:
            Code:
            (a) 1 and 3 only
            (b) 2 and 4 only
            (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
            (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
            ANSWER (A)
 
92.       Which of the following is correct about systems approach?
            (a) Emphasizes the static structure of the organization
            (b) Considers mainly the formal structure of the organization
            (c) Explains human motivation in terms of several factors
            (d) Views organizational order as being imposed from the top
            ANSWER (C)
 
93.       Which of the following authors can be credited with the earliest systematic use of social
systems approach in administrative studies?
            (a) F. J. Roethlisberger and W. J. Dickson
            (b) John M. Pfiffner
            (c) Mary Parker Follett
            (d) Frank J. Goodnow
            ANSWER (C)
 
94.       Which one of the following is not correct with regard to the systems theory of organization?
            (a) A system is characterized by parts and         sub-parts
            (b) A change in one part affects changes in other parts
            (c) A system is characterized by dynamic disequilibrium
            (d) A system is open and interactive
            ANSWER (C)
 
95.       To which of the following notions of the man in an organizational setup does the concept of
bounded rationality relate more closely?
            1. Economic
            2. Optimizing
            3. Administrative
            4. Satisficing
            Select the correct answer using the code given below:
            Code:
            (a) 1 and 2
            (b) 2 and 4
            (c) 3 and 4
            (d) 2 and 3
            ANSWER (C)
 
96.       Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
            List-I (Advocate)                       List-II (Model)
            (a) Herbert Simon                    1.             Mixed-scanning model
            (b) Charles Lindblom                              2.             Economic rationality model
            (c) Amitai Etzioni                     3.             Bounded rationality model
                                                                4.             Incremental model
            Code:
                                A              B              C
            (a)               2              3              4
            (b)               3              2              1
            (c)                2              1              3
            (d)               3              4              1
            ANSWER (D)
 
97.       According to Yehezkel Dror, which of the following characteristics of the optimal model of policy
making help man in understanding the optimal model?
            1. It contains both rational and extra rational elements.
            2. It has basic rationality and economic rationality.
            3. It contains a built-in feedback system.
            4. It adopts the methodology of logical positivism.
            Select the correct answer using the code given below:
            Code:
            (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
            (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
            (c) 1 and 4 only
            (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
            ANSWER (A)
 
98.       Which of the following are propounded by the Theory Y of Douglas McGregor?
            A person in an organization
            1. exercises self-direction in the service of objectives that he seeks to realize
            2. has commitment to objectives as a function of rewards
            3. inherently likes work
            4. has a capacity for imagination, ingenuity and creativity
            Select the correct answer using the code given below
            Code:
            (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
            (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
            (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
            (d) 3 and 4 only
            ANSWER (C)
 
99.       Who among the following have advocated the public policy aspect of Public Administration?
            1. H. Walker
            2. M. E. Dimock
            3. F. (A) Nigro
            4. J. W. Fesler
            Select the correct answer using the code given below
            Code:
            (a) 2, 3 and 4
            (b) 1, 2 and 3
            (c) 2 and 4 only
            (d) 1, 3 and 4
            ANSWER (A)
 
100.     Who among the following views Public Administration as the art and science of management as
applied to the affairs of the State?
            (a) John Mc Veigh
            (b) Luther Gulick
            (c) (D) Waldo
            (d) J. M. Pfiffner
            ANSWER (C)
 
BATCHES STARTING FROM 15th JUNE
MAINS TEST SERIES STARTING FROM 20th JUNE
 
101.     According to Graicunas law of relationships, if the number of subordinates in an organization is
8, which one of the following is the span of total relationships?
            (a) 100
            (b) 490
            (c) 1080
            (d) 2376
            ANSWER (C)
 
102.     Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
            List-I (Scholar)          List-II (Significance of Public Administration)
            (a) F. (A) Nigro          1.             Its real core consists of the basic services
            (b) H. Fayol                                2.             A great creative force with men’s welfare as its
ideal
            (c) P. Appleby            3.             No government can exist without it
            (d) (D) Waldo                            4.             Its processes are universal
                                                5.             Its chief function is to facilitate social change
            Code:
                                A              B              C              D
            (a)               1              3              4              2
            (b)               5              1              3              4
            (c)                4              5              2              1
            (d)               1              4              3              2
            ANSWER (D)
 
103.     Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
            List-I (Approach to Study        List-II (Explanation)
            of Public Administration)
            (a) Philosophical approach   1.             Uses administrative realties and acquaints the scholars
with them
            (b) Historical approach                          2.             Interprets the information to pertaining to
a administrative agencies                                                       ronologies order                 
            (c) Legal approach                   3.             Deals with formal structure, organization, power
and functions of                                                                              authorities.
            (d) Case study approach         4.             Considers all facets of administrative activities.
            Codes:
                                A              B              C              D
            (a)               1              3              4              2
            (b)               1              4              3              2
            (c)                4              3              2              1
            (d)               4              2              3              1
            ANSWER (D)
 
104.     Which one of the following is not a conceptual approach in Comparative Public Administration
as identified by Ferrel Heady?
            (a) Cybernetics approach
            (b) Modified traditional approach
            (c) Development-administration approach
            (d) General systems approach
            ANSWER (A)
 
105.     Which one of the following is not a trait of post-modern theory of Public Administration?
            (a) Critical theory
            (b) Structuration theory
            (c) Phenomenology
            (d) Meta-narrativism
            ANSWER (D)
 
106.     Which one of the following is not a characteristic of ‘Sala model’ of prismatic society?
            (a) Nepotism
            (b) Entrepreneurship
            (c) Clects
            (d) Functional diffusion
            ANSWER (B)
 
107.     What does ‘Bazar-Canteen model’ represent?
            (a) Marketization in new public management
            (b) Economic sub-system of prismatic society
            (c) Financial system of fused authority              
            (d) Economic freedom under public- private partnership
            ANSWER (B)
 
108.     Which of the following models of Fred Riggs is/are nearest in focus to Max Weber’s Traditional
Authority System?
            (a) Agraria only
            (b) Fused only
            (c) Agraria and Fused
            (d) Industria
            ANSWER (C)
 
109.     Which one of the following principles of Henri Fayol is in contrast to F. W. Taylor’s concept of
functional authority?
            (a) Discipline
            (b) Hierarchy
            (c) Departmentalization
            (d) Unity of command
            ANSWER (D)
 
110.     Identify the incorrect statement According to Ferrel Heady, the developing countries
            (a) have imitative and unindigenous bureaucracies
            (b) do not permit functional autonomy to their public services
            (c) have administrative services without administrative development
            (d) have elitist bureaucracies which are dysfunctional
            ANSWER (B)
 
111.     Which of the following are the defining features of Public Administration according to Sir Josiah
Stamp?
            1. Uniformity of rules
            2. Political accountability
            3. Lack of ethics in business practices
            4. Matrix structure of organizations    
            Select the correct answer using the code given below.
            Code:
            (a) 1, 2 and 3
            (b) 2, 3 and 4
            (c) 1 and 2 only
            (d) 3 and 4 only
            ANSWER (C)
 
112.     Which of the following concepts find prominence in public choice theory?
            1. Competition
            2. Efficiency
            3. Public Utility Maximization
            4. Marketization
            Select the correct answer using the code given below   
            Code:
            (a) 1, 2 and 4
            (b) 1 and 3
            (c) 2 and 3 only
            (d) 2, 3 and 4
            ANSWER (A)
 
113.     Which one of the following statements is         not correct?
            (a) There are two categories of “Mini Ratna Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs) in India
            (b) The Mini Ratna PSEs can have wholly owned subsidiaries
            (c) The Mini Ratna PSEs cannot raise capital from the international market
            (d) The Mini Ratna PSEs can induct non-official directors
            ANSWER (C)
 
114.     Which of the following trends are emerging in Public Sector Enterprises in India due to the
impact of liberalization?
            1. Strengthening the operational autonomy
            2. Encouraging competition with private sector
            3. Motivating competition among public enterprises themselves
            Select the correct answer using the code given below:
            Code:
            (a) 1 and 2 only
            (b) 2 and 3 only
            (c) 1 and 3 only
            (d) 1, 2 and 3
            ANSWER (D)
 
115.     On which of the following matters does the Finance Commission make recommendations to the
President of India?
            1. The distribution between Union and States of net proceeds of taxes and allocation between
the States of their respective shares of such proceeds
            2. The principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the
Consolidated Fund of India
            Select the correct answer using the code given below
            Code:
            (a) 1 only
            (b) 2 only
            (c) Both 1 and 2
            (d) Neither 1 nor 2
            ANSWER (C)
 
116.     Consider the following statements with respect to the Election Commission of India
            1. The terms of office of the Election Commissioners is the same as the Chairman of the Union
Public Service Commission.
            2. In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and/or other
Election Commissioners, the matter is referred to the President of Indi(a)
            3. Independence of the Election Commission and its insulation from executive interference is
ensured by a special provision under Article 324(5) of the Constitution of Indi(a)
            Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
            (a) 1 only
            (b) 3 only
            (c) 1 and 3
            (d) 2 and 3
            ANSWER (B)
 
117.     Which among the following countries does not have a Central Civil Service Commission charged
with the responsibility for recruitment to the higher civil service?
            (a) Canada
            (b) Great Britain
            (c) USA
            (d) France
            ANSWER (C)
 
118.     Recruitment to the higher civil services in India is based on the recommendations of which of
the following Committee/ Commission Reports?
            1. Paul Appleby
            2. Macaulay
            3. Hanumanthaiah
            4. (D) S. Kothari
            Select the correct answer using the code given below:
            Code
            (a) 1, 2 and 4
            (b) 2 and 3
            (c) 1, 3 and 4
            (d) 2 and 4 only
            ANSWER (D)
 
119.     Which one of the following statements is not correct with regard to the Comptroller and Auditor
General of India (CAG)?
            (a) The CAG has been awarded a fully independent status
            (b) The CAG can only be removed on the recommendation of the President
            (c) The salary and emoluments of the CAG are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India
            (d) The tenure of CAG is fixed for six years
            ANSWER (B)
 
120.     A Member of the UPSC may be removed on the ground of misbehavior by
            (a) both the Houses of parliament by way of impeachment
            (b) the President on the basis of enquiry by the Supreme Court
            (c) the Chairman of the UPSC
            (d) the Prime Minister on the basis of the recommendation of the Cabinet
            ANSWER (B)

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C.S.E. PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION - 2005
(PRELIMINARY)
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks :300
1. Consider the following statements:
1. Shri Jagjivan Ram was appointed as the Chairman of the Central Social
Welfare Board when it was set up in 1953.
2. The National Commission for Women was set up as a national apex statutory
body in 1992.
3. The National Institute of Public Co-operation and Child Development is an
autonomous body and functions under the aegis of the Ministry of Health and
Family Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3
2. Which one among the following is associated with the, 'Report of Public
Administration' and the 'Report on Efficient Conduct of State Enterprise'?
(a) The Ayyangar Committee, 1949
(b) The Secretariat Reorganization Committee, 1947
(c) The Gorwala Report, 1951
(d) The Appleby Reports, 1953 and 1956
3. Whi~h one of the following is the correct chronological order of the
following Commissions/Committees in India during the British. Rule?
(a) The Aitchison Commission - The Tottenham Committee –
The Lee Commission - The Islington Commission
(b) The Lee Commission - The Islington Commission
The Aitchison Commission - The Tottenham Committee
(c) The Aitchison Commission -The Islington Commission
The Lee Commission - The Tottenham Committee
(d) The Lee Commission - The Tottenham Committee
The Aitchison Commission - The Islington Commission
4. Match items in the List I (Country) with those in the List II (Features of
Civil Service) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists:
List I List II
A U.S.A. 1. Tradition of administrative centralization is
undergoing change
B Great Britain 2. The office of Personnel Management is an
independent agency under the President
C France 3. 'Next Steps' programmes sought to transform
structure of management of the civil service
D Japan 4. Bureaucratic elitism is reinforced by educational
and employment system
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ABCDABCD
(a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 4 1 3 2
(c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 4 3 1 2
5. Consider the following statements in respect of the civil services in the USA?
1. All Federal posts are recruited on the basis of merit.
2. Hatch Acts prohibited partisan political activities of civil servants.
3. There are short-term political appointments and permanent career services.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 only
6. Match items in the List I (Types of Training) with those in the List II
(Features) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists:
List I List II
A Vestibule 1. It involves frequent re-assignment to training
different divisions of the organization
B. Retraining 2. It has a specific job - centred focus & includes
formal instructions
C. Circular training 3. It involves a series of introductory lectures
followed by inspection trips to the departments
and field stations to provide first-hand
knowledge
D. Induction training 4. It involves instruction in a new field of
specialization or an extensive training in the old
field of specialization
ABCDABCD
(a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 1 4 3 2
7. Who among the following gave initial impetus, evolution of organizational
development (OD)?
(a) Robert Merton (b) David Hume
(c) Kurt Lewin (d) W. D. Ross
8. In which of the following countries does rank classification prevail?
1. France 2. England 3. Canada
4. USA 5, India
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (d) 1, 2 and 5
9. Which of the following are the functions of civil services in a developing
society?
1. Deciding policies 2. Drafting legislative bills
3. Pre-audit 4. Framing departmental legislation
5. Administration adjudication
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Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
10. In accordance with the managerial grid developed by Robert Blake and Jane
Mouton, which one of the following implies the leadership style that has a
high degree of concern for people and a low degree of concern for
production?
(a) Impoverished management
(b) Country club management
(c) Team management
(d) Middle of the road management
11. In the context of Likert's system of leadership styles in management, match
items in the List I (Approach) with List II (Attributes) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
Autocratic 1. Structured decisions
Benevolent 2. Team decisions
Consultative 3. Traditional decisions
Participative 4. Friendly climate for decisions
ABCDABCD
(a) 1 3 4 2 (b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 3 1 4 2
12. Match items in the List I (Management Thinker) with those in the List II
(Concept) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I List II
A Herbert Simon 1. Job enrichment
B. F.W. Taylor 2. Contribution – satisfaction equilibrium
C. Frederick Herzberg 3. Bounded rationality
D. C. I. Barnard 4. Functional foremanship
ABCDABCD
(a) 3 1 4. 2 (b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 2 1 4 3
13. Which one of the following best describes the relationship between policies
and procedures in an organization?
(a) Policy and procedure offer equal discretion in decision making
(b) Procedures are laid down before the policies are adopted
(c) Policies are more stable than the procedures
(d) Procedures may be same for all departments within al organization while the
policies might differ
14. In a traditional autocratic system, the manager would specify both the
standards for performance and the methods for achieving them. In a
participative management system, which of the following is specified by a
manager?
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(a) Only the methods for achieving the standards performance
(b) Neither the standards of performance nor the methods for achieving them
(c) Both the standards of performance and the methods for achieving them .
(d) Only the standards of performance
15. Consider the following statements:
Contractual employment in public employment has been advocated because:
1. it is a project work of a purely temporary nature to be completed in specified
time.
2. it requires specialised skills and inputs for short duration.
3. it is a legitimate and accepted form of employment.
4. it is required for purposes of lateral entry for various positions. at senior
level.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
16. Match List I (Terms) with List II (Defined by) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
Consolidated Fund of India 1. Article 110
Money Bill 2. Article 267
Annual Financial Statement 3. Article 266
Contingency Fund of India 4. Article 265
5. Article 112
ABCDABCD
(a) 5 1 4 2 (b) 3 2 5 1
(c) 5 2 4 1 (d) 3 1 5 2
17. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution (74th Amendment) Act introduced a new part IX A in the
Constitution of India.
2. The provisions of the Constitution (74th Amendment) Act also apply to the
Scheduled Areas & Tribal Areas governed by Article 244 (1) and (2) of the
Constitution of India.
3. The Constitution (74th Amendment) Act specifies the manner and procedure
of election of the Chairperson of a Municipal Corporation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
18. When were 17 Departmental Related Standing Committees set up in India
on the recommendations of the Rule Committee of the Lok Sabha?
(a) 1964 (b) 1977
(c) 1990 (d) 1993
19. In which one of the following countries is the 'Doctrine of Co-directorship'
prevalent as a method of control over administration?
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(a) U.S.A. (b) France
(c) Switzerland (d) Germany
20. Which one of the following is the correct ascending order of the
administrative levels in a State?
(a) Secretariat - Directorate - Divisional – District
(b) Directorate - Secretariat - Divisional – District
(c) Secretariat - Divisional - District – Directorate
(d) District - Divisional - Directorate - Secretariat
21. Consider the following Committees appointed in India to examine and
report on local governments:
1. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
2. Ashok Mehta Committee
3. Smt. Daya Choubey Committee
4. R.K. Khanna Committee
Which one of the following is the correct chronological sequence in which these
Committees were set up?
(a) 2 - 3 - 4 - 1 (b) 1 - 4 - 3 - 2
(c) 2 - 4 - 3 - 1 (d) 1 - 3 - 4 - 2
22. In the post-independence period the Government appointed several
committees and commissions to improve the urban local bodies. Some of
them are:
1. Rural-Urban Relationship Committee
2. Taxation Enquiry Commission
3. National Commission on Urbanization
4. Local Finance Enquiry Committee
Which one of the following is the correct chronological sequence in which the
above committees and commissions were set up?
(a) 1-2-4-3 (b) 4-3-1-2
(c) 1 - 3 - 4 - 2 (d) 4 - 2 - 1 - 3
23. When was the first municipal corporation in India at Madras set up?
(a) 1587 (b) 1687
(c) 1787 (d) 1887
24. Consider the following statements:
1. Game theory highlights the explicit role of human relationship and
interactions in decisions
2. Methods on decision making based on heuristic principles proceed along
empirical lines.
3. Dynamic nature of organizational objectives is one of the reasons for
decision making characterized by bounded rationality.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
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Directions: The following 6 (SIX) items consist of two statements: one
labelled as the 'Assertion (A)' and the other III as 'Reason (R)'. You are to
examine these two statements carefully and select the answer to these items
using the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true
25. Assertion (a): In spite of changes having taken place in the administrative
scenario, heart burning between 'generalists' and 'specialists'
continues.
Reason (R) The requirements of economic and technological development
have drastically changed the ratio-relationship between
'generalists' and 'specialists'
26. Assertion (a): H.A. Simon was the first to give a meaningful analysis of the
decision making process.
Reason (R) Classical thinkers like Fayol and Urwick did not see decisionmaking
as an all-pervasive concept. .
27. Assertion (a): McGregor's Theory Y is based on the external control of
human behaviour.
Reason (R) Theory Y is characterized by decentralization of authority.
28. Assertion (a): State Five-Year plans and annual plans have to be approved by
the Planning Commission.
Reason (R) Membership of National Development Council consists of the
Prime Minister as the Chairman, all Union Cabinet Ministers,
Chief Ministers of all States and representatives of the Union
Territories.
29. Assertion (a): The Chief Secretary of a State acts as the ex-officio Secretary
to the Council of Ministers in the State.
Reason (R) The powers and functions of Chief Secretary of a State are
.listed in the Constitution of India.
30. Assertion (a): If in a cut motion during discussion of demands for grants In
the Annual Financial Statement, the reduction demanded is
either in the form of a lump sum or omission or reduction of an
item in the demand, the motion which enables such cut is
known as 'Economy Cut'.
Reason (R) The motion in the above case represents disapproval of the
policy underlying the demand.
31. Which one among the following is not a function of the State Secretariat?
(a) To assist a Minister in the formulation of policy
(b) To act as channel of communication.
(c) To prepare drafts of the legislation to be introduced in the Legislative
Assembly
(d) To assist the legislature In secretarial work
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32. Which one of the following was recommended by the Administrative
Reforms Commission regarding Directorates?.
(a) The distinction between the Secretariat as the policy making body and the
Directorate as the executive agency should be abolished
(b) The Directors must be granted ex-officio status as Secretaries
(c) There should be liberal delegation of powers from the Secretariat to the
Directorate
(d) There should be uniformity in the powers delegated to all the Directorates
33. Consider the following statements: Lord Ripon's resolution of 1882 provided
new life to the local bodies, which were later hampered by several factors,
such as
1. hostile attitude of Lord Curzon towards local bodies.
2. obstructive tactics of the bureaucracy.
3. sudden expansion of elected non-officials.
4. reduction of official control of Deputy Commissioners.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
34. Match List I (Institutions) with List U.(Articles of Constitution) and select
the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I
A Comptroller & Auditor General of India
B. Finance Commission
C. Administrative Tribunals
D. Union Public Service Commission
list II
1. Article 315
2. Article 280
3. Article 148
4. Article 323 (A)
ABCDABCD
(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 1 4 2 3
35. Which of the following statements are correct about the post of Cabinet
Secretary?
1. He works under the direct control of Prima Minister.
2. He is usually the seniormost civil servant of the country.
3. The official warrant of precedence gives him the first place among the civil
servants.
4. He is the head of the Cabinet Secretariat.
5. This office was created in 1950.
Select the correct answer using the- codes gjven below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
36. Which one of the following government documents first suggested for having
elections of Panchayati Raj Institutions on political party basis?
(a) Report of the Administrative Reforms Commission
(b) Ashok Mehta Committee Report
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(c) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee Report
(d) Diwakar Committee Report
37. A metropolitan committee can be set up in an area having population
(a) 3 lac - 4.99 lac (b) 5 lac - 9.99 lac
(c) Up to 10 lac (d) Above 10 lac.
38. Which of the following functions are performed by a Gram Sabha?
1. All public problems are discussed.
2. Village budget and programmes are framed.
3. Beneficiaries of various government programmes are identified.
4. In order to keep a watch on the panchayats, a Vigilance Committee is
constituted.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
39. Which of the following are included in the non-tax revenue of the municipal
bodies?.
1. Toll on new bridge.s 2. Fees and fines
3. Income from enterprises 4. Octroi
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
40. Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding the finances
of urban local government?
(a) They can apply for loans from State Government, Union Government, World
Bank or other international agencies
(b) Their borrowing powers are defined in the Municipal Act
(c) Most of the urban local bodies are dependent on finances provided by the
State Government
(d) State Government charges interest on loans and decides time limit for its
repayment
41. Consider the following with reference to 73rd Constitution Amendment in
respect of Panchayati Raj
1. Direct elections of members at all levels.
2. Direct elections of chairpersons at the village level.
3. Indirect election of chairpersons at the intermediate levels and district levels.
4. Mandatory provision for holding elections.
Which of the above are the provisions of the 73rd Constitution Amendment in
respect of Panchayati Raj?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
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42. Which of the following are the common compulsory provisions of the 73rd
and 74th Constitution Amendment Act?
1. Five yearly elections
2. Reservation for backward classes
3. Reservation for women 4. Nagar Panchayats
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
43. Which one of the following provisions has been left to the will of the State
Governments in the 73'd Constitution Amendment Act?
(a) Providing reservation to the Backward Classes
(b) All posts at all levels to be filled by direct elections
(c) Reservation. of seats for SC/ST in proportion to their population
(d) Reservation up to 1/3 seats for women in panchayats
44. 'Good Governance' and 'Participating Civil Society for Development' were
stressed in World Bank Report of
(a) 1992 (b) 1997
(c) 2000 (d) 2003
45. Which one of the following is not upheld by New Public Administration?
(a) Value based approach (b) Dogmas of efficiency and economy
(c) Social equity in service delivery (d) Relevant research
46. Which one of the following is mainly discussed in "The Next Society" by
Peter Drucker?
(a) Demographics' (b) New economy
(c) Knowledge society (d) Information techno-society
47. Consider the following statements:
Coordination in an organisation is necessary to
1. stop growing tendency towards empire building.
2. avoid conflicts or overlapping in the work of the employees.
3. concentrate on one aspect of work.
4. achieve the goals of an organisation effectively.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
48. Consider the following statements:
1. Estimates of expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India are
not submitted to the vote of the Parliament and there can be no discussion on
the same in either House of the Parliament.
2. Vote of credit is a grant approved by the Parliament in advance of the
detailed examination of various demands presented to it.
3. Token grants do not involve additional expenditure.
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Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 only
(c) 2 only (d) 2 and 3
49. Match List I (Management Expert) with List II (Major Area) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below:
List I List II
A. Philip Kotler 1. Organizational change
B. Robert C Merton 2. Business process re-engineering
C. Michael Hammer 3. Derivative pricing formula
D. Peter M. Senge 4. Marketing Management
ABCDABCD
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4. 3 2 1
(c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 4 2 3 1
50. Consider the following statements:
1. There are 25 state cadres in all for the all-India services.
2. The Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions is the cadrecontrolling
authority for all the three all-India services.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
51. Consider the following statements:
1. If the Rajya Sabha has declared by resolution supported by not less than twothirds
of the members present and voting that it is necessary or expedient in
the national interest to do so, Parliament may by law provide for the creation
of one or more all-India services.
2. Article 311 of the Constitution of India deals with the dismissal or removal of
a person who is a member of a civil service' of the Union or an all-India
service or a civil service of a State or holds a civil post under the Union or a
State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
52. Which of the following organizations are under the administrative control of
the Department of Personnel and Training, the Ministry of Personnel,
Public Grievances and Pensions, Government of India?
1. Central Vigilance Commission 2. Central Administrative Tribunal
3. Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration
4. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy
5. Union Public Service Commission
6. Public Enterprises Selection Board
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 3, 4 and 5 (b) 5 and 6
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6 (d) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6
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53. Match List I (Institute) with List II (Location) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists:
List I
A Vaikunth Mehta National Institute of
Cooperative Management
B. Institute of Applied Manpower Research
C. National Institute of Rural Development
D. Defence Institute of Work Studies
List II
1. Hyderabad
2. Pune
3. Mussoorie
4. Kanpur
5. Delhi
ABCDABCD
(a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 2 5 1 3
(c) 3 5 1 2 (d) 2 1 4 3
54. Who among the following studied the impact of computers on the
hierarchical pyramid of an organization?
(a) John Rawls (b) John Pfiffner
(c) Elton Mayo (d) David Rusk
55. Consider the following statements:
1. The universal design theory of organization emphasizes on informal structure
of organization
2. The situational design theory of organization views an organization as a
closed system.
3. The traditional approach favours a rigid hierarchical structure of
organization.
4. The system approach favours a flexible participative structure of
organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 3 only (b) 1,2 and 4
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
56. Which one of the following is not the characteristic of Max Weber's model of
bureaucracy?
(a) Offices are arranged in the form of a hierarchy
(b) All organizational members are to be selected on the basis of technical
qualifications
(c) Control in the bureaucratic organization is based on personally applied rules
(d) Officials pursue their careers within the organization
57. Consider the following stages:
1. Politics - administration dichotomy
2. The humanistic challenge
3. Search for universal principles
4. New Public Administration
5. Focus on inter-disciplinary studies
6. Paradigm shifts
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the above stages of
historical evolution of Public Administration as a discipline?
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(a) 1 - 3 - 2 - 5 - 4 - 6 (b) 4 - 2 - 3 - 1 - 6 - 5
(c) 1 - 2 - 3 - 5 - 4 - 6 (d) 4 - 3 - 5 - 1 - 6 - 2
58. Which one of the following statements is correct about the difference
between supervision and span of control?
(a) Supervision is directing and guiding the subordinates, while span of control is
the exercise of authority
(b) Supervision is directing and guiding the subordinates, while span of control
relates to the number of subordinates being directed
(c) Supervision relates to the number of subordinates being directed, while span
of control is directing and guiding the subordinates
(d) Supervisioin is the exercise of authority while span of control is taking
punitive action against the underperforming employees.
59. Which one of the following is not the characteristic of the classical approach
of Public Administration?
(a) Acceptance of politics - administration dichotomy
(b) The search for principles of administration through scientific analysis .
(c) An emphasis on the centralization of executive activities
(d) Focus on informal and socio-emotional aspects of organizations
60. Consider the following statements about the behavioural approach:
1. It is-concerned with the scientific study of human behaviour
2. It was started by Chester Barnard and later on developed by Herbert Simon.
3. "Its literature is mostly descriptive and not perspective.
4. It stresses on informal relations and communication patterns.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
61. Which one of the following is not correct about system approach?
(a) A system is more than sum of its parts
(b) A system can be considered to be either closed or open
(c) Boundaries in a system are not rigid, impenetrable, or closed
(d) If a system is to achieve dynamic equilibrium, it must not have interactions
with its environment
62. Consider the following statements in respect of bureaucratic form of
organizational design:
1. The primary strength of the bureaucracy lies in its ability to perform nonstandardized
activities in a highly efficient manner.
2. In bureaucracy, there is little need for innovative and experienced decision
makers below the level of senior executives;
3. The pervasiveness of rules and regulations substitutes for managerial
discretion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
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63. Which one of the following is not an essential feature of supervision?
(a) Development of agreed work standards between supervisor and subordinates
(b) Developing report forms for subordinates
(c) Resolving conflicts and misunderstanding among subordinates
(d) Fault finding and punishing subordinates
64. Which one of the following generalisations can be drawn from
decentralisation of powers?
(a) 'Planning from below' is a good illustration of this phenomenon
(b) Jurisdictional lines are to be identified
(c) Decisions will affect overall policies
(d) Local officers will report to more than one central agency
65. Match List I (Theory of Motivation) with List II (Premise) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below:
List I
A. Theory X
B. Theory Y
C. Two Factor theory of F. Herzberg
List II
1. Self-direction and self-control
2. Motivation is a product of anticipated worth of a goal and chances of
achieving that goal
3. Reliance on extemal control of human behaviour
4. Job enrichment instead of job enlargement as a motivation strategy
ABCABC
(a) 2 1 4 (b) 3 4 1
(c) 2 4 1 (d) 3 1 4
66. Who was analysed leadership in termsof circular response?
(a) C.I.Barnard (b) Mooney
(c) M.P. Follett (d) Millet
67. Which of the following specific incentives for the satisfaction of an
individual have been identified by C.I. Barnard?
1. Material inducements
2. Personal non-material opportunities
3. Desirable physical conditions of work
4. Ideal benefactions ,
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 ,
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
68. Which of the following concepts are associated with M.P. Follet?
1. Functional authority 2. 'Bottom-up' authority
3. Conflict and integration 4. 'Power over' and 'Power with'
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
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(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4
69. Which of the following concepts are associated with C.I. Barnard? I~
1. Contribution - Satisfaction Equilibrium
2. Zone of Acceptance
3. Strategic Factors in Decision Making
4. Acceptance theory of Authority
5. Organisation as Cooperative System
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 5
70. Which of the following are associated with Simon?
1. He equated administration with decision-making.
2. He did not stress upon decision-making as an alternative to the structural
approach.
3. He proposed a new concept of administration based up on logical positivism.
4. He distinguished between programmed & non-programme decisions.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) .1,2 and 3 (b) 1,3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
71. Which of the following factors are labelled as job dissatisfiers by F.
Herzberg?
1. Salary 2. Supervision
3. Responsibility 4. Work itself
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
72. Who among the following writers concluded that 'people preferred jobs that
offered opportunities for recognition, achievement and responsibility'?
(a) A. Maslow (b) D. McGregor
(c) F. Herzberg (d) Rensis Likert
73. Consider the following statements:
1. Functional classification was recnlT1mended by the Fifth Central Pay
Commission.
2. Position classification results in uniform treatment for promotions.
3. For recruitment to the existing three All-India Services, the Union Public
Service Commission is involved only with the recruitment through open
competition examinations.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
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74. Consider the following statements in respect of the Contingency Theory of
Leadership:
1. In extreme unfavourable or extreme favourable situations, a human relation
oriented leader is more effective.
2. In a moderately unfavourable or moderately favourable situation, a taskoriented
leader is more effective.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
75. Who among the following revised the Human Relations approach of Prof. E.
Mayo into a New Human Relations model of management?
(a) Fritz Roethlisberger (b) Rensis Likert
(c) James MacGregor (d) Mary Parker Follet
76. For every 'principle' of administration, there is a Counterprinciple, thus
rendering the whole idea of principles moot. Which one of the following
brought the above point of view?
(a) The Science of Public Administration by R. Dahl
(b) Administrative Behaviour by H. Simon
(c) Ventures in Public Policy by Y. Dror
(d) Administrative State by D. Waldo
77. Consider the following statements: According to Ferrel Heady, both
Comparative Public Administration and International Administration are
similar because
1. both avoid concentration on the administrative system of one single nation.
2. both disregard any administrative system as 'Ideal'.
3. both have a similar framework for analysis:
4. both believe in gradual convergence for mutual benefit.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
78. Which of the following are the motivating concerns which Comparative
Public Administration addresses as an intellectual enterprise?
1. The search for theory.
2. The urge for practical application.
3. The incidental contribution to the broader field of comparative politics.
4. The comparative analysis of ongoing problems of public administration.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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79. Which one of the following statements is acceptable to the protagonists of
New Public Administration?
Rationality as a value
(a) leads to efficient performance
{b) causes flexibility problem in prioritisation
(c) is mere common sense
(d) is rooted in morality
80. Consider the following statements:
'The crisis of identity' in Public Administration in the seventies was
accentuated by
1. the demise of Wilsonian dichotomy
2. the protests made by post-behaviouralists .
3. the growth of Comparative Public Administration
4. the expansion of private administration and market debate Which of the
statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
81. Which one of the following is a clear and distinct line of authority among the
positions in organisations?
(a) Organisational design (b) Chain of command
(c) Hierarchy (d) Departmentalisation
82. Task achievement and excellence of performance in accomplishing a task
are emphasized sometimes at the expense of obedience to one's superior.
Which one of the following has the above as a principal feature?
(a) Closed model organisation
(b) Open model organisation
(c) Bureaucratic organisation
(d) The newer tradition organisation
83. Which one of the following is not correct in relation to the meaning of
delegation?
(a) Entrustment of responsibility to another for performance (b)Entrustment of
powers and rights; or authority, to be exercised
(c) Creation of an obligation, or accountability, on the part of the person
accepting the delegation to perform in terms of the standards established
(d) Shifting of workload without transferring corresponding authority to make a
decision
84. Which of the following are provided for by the Constitution (74th
Amendment) Act in respect of planning of urban and rural local
governments?
1. Constitution of the District Planning Committee
2. Not less than 2/3'd of the District Planning Committee should be elected by,
from amongst, the elected members of district panchayats and municipalities.
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3. All other details regarding the composition of the District Planning
Committee are left to the State Legislatures.
4. Constitution of the Metropolitan Planning Committee. Select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1,2and3 (b) 2and4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
85. Which one of the following is the main cause of the scalar system?
(a) Unity of command (b) Hierarchy
(c) Delegation (d) Coordination
86. Which one of the following statements illustrates the principle of span of
control?.
(a) The levels of management connote no inherent superiority and inferiority
(b) Automation, mechanisation and specialisation have brought about a sea
change in decision making
(c) The old concept of one single superior for each personis seldom found
(d) The ever increasing role of administration has focused attention on unity in
the administrative process
87. Match Ust I (Type of Delegation) with List II (Explanation) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I
A Specific delegation
B. Accrued delegation
C. Unwritten delegation
D. Sideward delegation
List II
1. Subordinate can delegate his authority to his immediate superiors
2, Authority is delegated on the basis of custom or usage
3. A person delegates authority to another who is also in the same rank in the
organisation
4. Orders, instructions or directions are delegated to a particular person
ABCDABCD
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 4 3 2 1
88. Consider the following statements:
1. The Estimates Committee of Parliament lacks the expert assistance of the
Comptroller & Auditor General of India which is available to the Public
Accounts Committee of Parliament.
2. All the Ministries / Departments of the Union Government are not taken up
for examination every year by the Estimates Committee, but only a few of
them are selected for this purpose. Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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89. Consider the following statements:
1. The Comptroller & Auditor General or India / the Chairman & the Members
of the Union Public Service Commission are appointed by the President if
India by warrant under his hand and seal and shall be removed from his
office in like manner & on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
2. A Judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from his office on grounds of
proved misbehaviour or incapacity after an address by each House of
Parliament is supported by a majority of total membership of that House.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
90. Consider the following statements:
1. Since 1989, the responsibility for evaluation and processing of proposals
relating to the capital restructuring of various public sector undertakings of
the Union Government is entrusted to the Controller General of Accounts.
2. The Institute of Government Accounts and Finance is situated in Pune.
3. The Expenditure Reforms Committee which completed its term in
September, 2001 was set up under the Chairmanship of YV Reddy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 only
91. Consider the following statements:
1. The Central Government took the historical step of separating accounts from
the audit function in respect of various ministries and departments under the
Central Government in 1980.
2. Ashoka Chanda was the first Comptroller and Auditor General of India. .
3. Even after the separation of accounts function from the audit function, the
Comptroller and Auditor General of India certifies the Union Government
Finance Accounts and Appropriation Accounts prepared by the Controller
General of Accounts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
92. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Committee Subject
(a) L.M. Singhvi Committee, 1986 Constitutional Status for
Panchayati Raj
(b) Santhanam Committee, 1964 Prevention of corruption
(c) Satish Chandra Committee, 1988 Civil Services Examination, Union Public
Service Commission
(d) Gore Committee, 1974 Parliamentary control over public
expenditure
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93. Which among the following are the features of participative management?
1. Overlapping structures
2. Cross-functional linkages
3. Multi-directional communication
4. Effective man-to-man relationship
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c.) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4
94. Consider the following statements:
1. Auxiliary agencies have no execution or operative responsibilities.
2. Staff agencies are attached to the line agencies at different levels in the
hierarchy.
3. Line agencies provide channels of communication. Which of the statements
given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
95. Consider the following statements:
The purpose of judicial control over administration is
1. to control the policy and expenditure of the government
2. to ensure the lagality of officials' acts and thereby to safeguard the rights of
the citizens.
3. to bring all officials under the control of the people.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
96. With regard to judicial control over administration what does 'malfeasance'
stand for?
(a) Error of procedure (b) Abuse of authority
(c) Error of fact (d) Error of law
97. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Management by exception: The concept of minimum intervention by
exception in operation, and then only when fall/
rise in performance exceeds acceptable
variations in results
(b) Management by objectives: A technique used in planning and controlling
(c) Managerial development: Formal programmes of training structured to
improve managerial skills
(d) Managerial grid: Also called project management
98. Which of the following are intrinsically linked with administrative
accountability?
1. Hierarchy 2. Span of control
3. Unity of command 4. 4. Orders
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
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(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
99. Which one of the following is not a system of efficiency rating in the U.S.A.?
(a) Production record system (b) Graphic rating scale system
(c) Personality inventory system (d) Personnel appraisal system
100. Which one of the following is not correct in respect of the French Civil
Service?
(a) Civil Service comprises a large number of corps
(b) France upholds a vertical classification of Civil Service
(c) ENA does recruitment for the Civil Service
(d) Promotion is time-bound and based on seniority
101. Which among the following recommended the introduction of performance
budget in India?
(a) Estimates Committee
(b) Appleby Report
(c) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(d) Administrative Reforms Commission
102. Which of the following is/are the provisions of Article 18 of the Constitution
of India which pertains to the Right to Equality to the citizens of India?
(a) No title, not being military or academic distinction, shall be conferred by the
State
(b) No citizen of India shall accept any title from any foreign State
(c) No person holding any office of profit or trust under the State, shall without
the consent of the President, accept any present, emolument or office of any
kind from or under any foreign State
(d) All of the above three
103. Which one of the following is not included in deficit financing in India?
(a) Withdrawal of past accumulated cash balance
(b) Borrowing from the Central bank
(c) Issue of new currency
(d) Borrowing from the people
104. Match List I (Grants) with List II (Explanation) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
A Vote on account 1. To make any grant in advance in respect of
estimated expenditure for a part of financial year
pending the completion of the procedure
prescribed in Article 113
B. Excess grant 2. To make a grant for meeting an unexpected
demand upon resources of India
C. Exceptional grant 3. To take approval for money spent during a
financial year in excess of amount granted for the
service
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D. Supplementary 4. To take approval if the amount grantauthorized by
law for the current year is found insufficient
ABCDABCD
(a) 1 3 2 4 (b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 1 4 2 3 (d) 2 3 1 4
105. Consider the following statements in respect of the National Personnel
Authority of Japan:
1. The National Personnel Authority of Japan was created by the National
Public Service Law.
2. It is responsible for education and training of the public servants.
3. President and Commissioners of the National Personnel Authority of Japan
are "appointed by the Cabinet.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 only (d) 1 and 3
106. Which of the following statements is not correct in respect of civil service in
Japan?
(a) Political activism is totally absent in the Japanese bureaucratic tradition.
(b) The lateral movement between ministries in the Japanese civil service is
limited.
(c) There is dominance of law background graduates in the Japanese civil
service.
(d) The National Personnel Authority has all the non-elective and non-political
appointments, excluding specified posts under its control.
107. Consider the following statements in respect of the civil service in France:
1. The French Civil Service is dominated by the law experts.
2. Ecole National de Administration conducts competitive examination for entry
into the Government service.
3. Ecole National de Administration is not responsible for providing training to
the civil servants.
4. French civil servants are in enjoyment of political rights to a far greater
extent, as compared to those of other countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
108. Under which provision does the Governor of a State constitute a State
Finance Commission to review the financial position of Panchayats?
(a) Under the discretionary powers of the Governor
(b) By a resolution passed in the Legislative Assembly
(c) In accordance with the Article 2431 of the Constitution of India
(d) In accordance with a resolution passed in the Rajya Sabha
109. Article 143 of the Constitution of India deals with the Governor for each
State. By which Amendment Act, has it been provided that the same person
can be appointed Governor for more than one State?
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(a) Fifth (b) Seventh
(c) Ninth (d) Eleventh
110. In which one of the following methods of training, is a particular topic
chosen and specific groups are assigned the task of making an in-depth
'study of that subject under the guidance of an expert faculty?
(a) Case study method (b) Critical incident method
(c) Sensitivity method (d) Syndicate method
111. Which of the following Commissions I Reports recommended setting up of
Indian Institute of Public Administration?
(a) Union Public Service Commission
(b) Planning Commission
(c) A.D. Gorwala Report (d) Paul H. Appleby Report
112. Match items in the List I (Commission/Report) with those in List II
(Recommendation) and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the lists: .
List I List II
A Aitchison Commission 1. Increase of emoluments for the members
of the Civil Services in order to dissuade
the European Civil Servants from
returning home
B. Islington Commission 2. Proposed classification of all the services
into Imperial provincial and subordinate
services
C. Montague Chelmsford Report 3. Holding of simultaneous examinations in
India and England for ICS
D. Lee 4. To associate Indians with Commission
administration in every branch
ABCDABCD
(a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 2 1 3 4
113. Which one of the following does not come in the ambit of recommendations
by the Finance Commission?
(a) The distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and States
(b) The principles to be followed by the Centre while giving grants-in-aid to the
States out of .the Consolidated Fund of India
(c) The amount of money to be allocated to States from the Public Account of
India
(d) Any other matter referred to the Commission by the President in the interest
of sound finance
114. Consider the following statements in respect of the Prime Ministar's
Secretariate :
1. It enjoys the status of a Department of the Government of India under
allocation of business rules
2. It has a few attached and subordinate offices under it.
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3. It came into existence immediately after independence replacing the
Secretary to the Governor General.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 only (d) 1 and 3
115. Consider the following statements in respect of the Central Secretariat in
India:
1. It assists the Council of Ministers in the fulfilment of its responsibilities and
duties.
2. It is based on the belief that policy-making must be separated from policy
execution.
3. Secretarial system in India is similar both to the British and the Swedish
systems.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
116. Which are the functions of the attached offices to a ministry?
1. Providing execution direction required in the implementation of policies.
2. Serving as a repository of technical information.
3. Advising the concerned ministry on technical aspects of policies.
4. Detailed execution of the policies of the government.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
117. Match List I (Concept) with List II (Propunder) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
A. Daily balance chart 1. F.W. Taylor
B. Science of motion study 2. Emerson
C. Efficiency System 3. Gilberth
D. Shop floor activities 4. H.L.Gantt
ABCDABCD
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 4 2 3 1
118. What is the purpose of issue of Mandamus?
(a) Directing an official for the performance of a duty
(b) Release of an illegally detained person
(c) Transferring of a case from an inferior court to a court of higher jurisdiction
(d) Calling upon one to show as to by what authority he holds or claims a
franchise or office
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119. Which of the following opportunities is provided by the Appropriation Bill
to the legislature?
(a) To discuss the policy and other matters related to the expenditure of various
ministries
(b) To change amount of demands of various ministries
(c) To reallocate the grants of various ministries
(d) To vary the amount of expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of
India
120. Consider the following statements:
1. There is provision under an Article of the Constitution of India, that
Parliament may by law provide for adjudication of disputes relating to waters
of inter-state rivers or river valleys.
2. Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985 has been amended by the Centre to
empower States to abolish the State Administrative Tribunals, if they so
desire.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (a)
7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (c)
13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (d)
19. (a) 20. (d) 21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (d)
25. (b) 26. (b) 47. (d) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (b)
37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (a) 41. (d) 42. (d)
43. (a) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (b)
49. (d) 50. (d) 51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (b) 54. (b)
55. (d) 56. (c) 57. (a) 58. (b) 59. (d) 60. (c)
61. (d) 62. (d) 63. (d) 64. (a) 65. (d) 66. (c)
67. (d) 68. (d) 69. (b). 70. (b) 71. (a) 72. (c)
73. (b) 74. (d) 75. (b) 76. (b) 77. (c) 78. (d)
79. (d) 80. (c) 81. (c) 82. (b) 83. (d) 84. (c)
85. (a) 86. (b) 87. (b) 88. (c) 89. (b) 90. (b)
91. (d) 92. (d) 93. (b) 94. (c) 95. (b) 96. (b)
97. (d) 98. (b) 99. (d) 100. (d) 101. (d) 102. (d)
103.(d) 104. (a) 1 05.(d) 106. (a) 107. (c) 108. (c)
109. (b) 110. (d) 111. (d) 112. (d) 113. (c) 114. (d)
115. (d) 116. (d) 117. (b) 118. (a) 119. (a) 120. (c)