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CA1 Quiz#10 May Endocrine, Metabolism, Mathematics/Statistics and Computer
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1. The most potent scientific tool for evaluating medical treatment is:

a. A longitudinal prospective study of deliberate intervention with historical controls

b. A longitudinal prospective study of deliberate intervention with concurrent controls
c. A longitudinal retrospective study with concurrent case controls
d. A longitudinal retrospective study with historical controls
e. A cross-sectional prospective study without controls

2. Variance is the:
a. Statistical average
b. Average deviation
c. Average squared distance
d. Square root of the average deviation
e. Square of the standard error

3. The mean 3 standard deviation encompasses what percentage of the sample population?
a. 50
b. 68
c. 75
d. 95
e. 99

4. The most versatile approach for handling comparisons of means between more than two
groups or between several measurements in the same group is called a/an:
a. Paired t-test
b. Chi-square test
c. Interval data testing
d. Analysis of variance (ANOVA)
e. Unpaired t-test

5. Systematic differences between the patients receiving each intervention are called:
a. Selection bias
b. Performance bias
c. Attrition bias
d. Detection bias
e. Experimenter bias

6. In dichotomous data testing:

a. The results are often presented as odds ratios.
b. The chi-square test cannot be used to analyze contingence tables with more than two
rows and two columns.
c. The Fishers exact test and the chi-square test allow comparison of the success rates
between two sampled populations of a procedure.
d. The chi-square test is computationally more complex than Fishers exact test.
e. Assumptions of sample size and response rate are achieved by this test.
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CA1 Quiz#10 May Endocrine, Metabolism, Mathematics/Statistics and Computer
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7. The probability of a type II error increases with all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Small value
b. Large sample size
c. Small difference between experimental conditions
d. Larger variability in populations being compared
e. Decreasing the number of subjects

8. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

a. A confidence interval describes how likely it is that the population parameter is
estimated by any particular sample statistic such as the mean.
b. The standard error (SE) is used to describe the dispersion of the sample.
c. Sample size planning cannot be used as a mechanism for increasing statistical power.
d. Studies using historical controls obtain the same results as studies with concurrent
controls if appropriate strata are selected.
e. When describing the precision with which the population center is known, the
standard deviation (SD) should be used.

9. A calculation that requires the knowledge of the study size and standard deviation.
a. Mode
b. F ratio
c. P value
d. Power
e. Standard Error

10. Test Statistics on means where there are more than two groups.
a. Mode
b. F ratio
c. P value
d. Power
e. Standard Error

11. Which of the following increases ionized serum calcium?

a. Elevated serum albumin
b. Alkalosis
c. Acute hypomagnesemia
d. Hypoparathyroidism
e. Acute hyperphosphatemia

12. Regarding glucocorticoid physiology, which of the following statements if FALSE?

a. Cortisol is the most potent endogenous glucocorticoid.
b. Cortisol is the most potent regulator of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).
c. The anti-inflammatory actions of cortisol relate to its effect in stabilizing lysosomes
and promoting capillary integrity.
d. Glucocorticoids facilitate free water clearance and stimulate hematopoiesis.
e. Cortisol increases the killing potential of macrophages and monocytes.
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13. Which of the following statements regarding insulin is TRUE?

a. The normal adult pancreas produces 200 to 300 U/day of insulin.
b. The half-life of human insulin is 90 minutes.
c. Hepatic dysfunction increases circulating insulin levels.
d. Vagal stimulation decreases circulating insulin levels.
e. adrenergic stimulation increases circulating insulin levels.

14. Regarding thyroid metabolism and function, which of the statements below is FALSE?
a. Triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4) are attached to the thyroglobulin protein and
stored as colloid.
b. Approximately 80% of T3 is produced by the extrathyroidal deiodination of T4.
c. Most of the effects of thyroid hormones are mediated by the more potent and less
protein-bound T3.
d. The half-life of T3 is approximately 14 days.
e. The degree to which T3 and T4 are protein bound in the circulation is the major factor
influencing their activity and degradation.

15. Which of the following statements regarding hypoparathyrodism is FALSE?

a. The clinical features of hypoparathyroidism result from hypocalcemia.
b. The cardiovascular manifestations are shortened QU interval and pericardial effusion.
c. Neuronal irritability may cause seizure and muscle tetany.
d. The Trousseau sign and the Chvostek sign are positive.
e. Acute hypoparathyroidism may manifest as stridor or apnea.

16. Which of the following statements regarding mineralocorticoid physiology is TRUE?

a. Angiotensin I is he most potent vasoconstrictor produced in the body.
b. Angiotensin II directly stimulates the adrenal medulla to produce aldosterone.
c. The renin-angiotensin system is the bodys most important protector of volume status.
d. Angiotensin I is altered enzymatically by converting enzyme primarily in the liver.
e. Renin is the most potent mineralocorticoid produced by the adrenal gland.

17. Hypoaldosteronism:
a. May be defined as failure to increase aldosterone production in response to
adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).
b. Rarely occurs in patients with mild renal failure and long-standing diabetes mellitus.
c. Commonly presents with life-threatening hypokalemia and hypotension.
d. May be treated adequately with furosemide alone in patients with congestive heart
failure.
e. Respiratory acidosis in frequently an early sign.
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18. Concerning the anterior pituitary, which of the following is FALSE?
a. About 20% to 30% of acromegalic patients are difficult to intubate.
b. An unusually small epiglottis in a patient with acromegaly makes them more prone to
aspiration.
c. Impotence in men and secondary amenorrhea is women are early manifestations of
panhypopituitarism.
d. Sheehans syndrome occurs after postpartum hemorrhagic shock.
e. Vasopressin is secreted by the posterior pituitary.

19. Which of the following statements regarding the posterior pituitary is FALSE?
a. It is composed of terminal nerve endings that extend from the ventral hypothalamus.
b. It secretes vasopressin.
c. It secretes antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
d. It secretes oxytocin.
e. It secretes growth hormone.

20. Which of the following statements regarding vasopressin is TRUE?

a. It promotes the reabsorption of sodium from the thick ascending limb of the loop of
Henle.
b. Serum levels decrease with increasing osmolality.
c. It functions to relax vascular smooth muscle.
d. It may increase circulating von Willebrand factor.
e. It is released by the anterior pituitary.