TM

PAPER CODE 0 1 CM2 1 3 0 8 2

CAREER INSTITUTE
Path to Success KOTA (RAJASTHAN) FORM NUMBER

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

(ACADEMIC SESSION 2013-2014)

ENTHUSIAST COURSE
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014
MAJOR TEST # 05
AIPMT (FULL Syllabus) DATE : 14 - 02 - 2014
INSTRUCTIONS (
)
1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat only.
If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination and
shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.


2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.

3
180
720
3. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.

4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.

5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.

6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.


1

7. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of Blue / Black Ball
Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.

OMR


8. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.

Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in within 2 days along with Your Form
No. & Complete Test Details.

Correction Form No.
Test Details
dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in mail
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so /

Corporate Office
CAREER INSTITUTE
SANKALP, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
Trin : +91 - 744 - 2436001 Fax : +91-744-2435003
E-Mail: info@allen.ac.in Website: www.allen.ac.in
Kota | Chandigarh | Ahmedabad

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014

 MAJOR TEST
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE 14022014

HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
1. If the pressure of an ideal gas contained in a closed 1.
0.5%

vessel is increased by 0.5%, the increase in 2K


temperature is 2K. The initial temperature of the

gas is :-
(1) 27C (2) 127C
(1) 27C (2) 127C
(3) 300C (4) 400C (3) 300C (4) 400C
2. Two blocks of masses M1 and M2 are connected 2.
M1
M2
to each other through a light spring as shown
M1 F
in figure. If we push mass M1 with force F and
a1
M2
cause acceleration a1 in right direction in mass

?
M 1 , then what will be the magnitude of
acceleration in M2 ? M1 M2
F
M1 M2
F

F F
F (1) (2)
F M2 (M1 M 2 )
(1) (2)
M2 (M1 M 2 )

(F M1a1 ) (F M1a1 )
(3) a1 (4) (3) a1 (4)
M2 M2

3. The figure circuit is equivalent to which logic 3.

:-
gate :-

A Y
A Y B
B

(1) OR gate (2) XOR gate

(1) OR gate (2) XOR gate

(3) X NOR gate (4) NOR gate (3) X NOR gate (4) NOR gate

4. While a capacitor remains connected to a 4.

battery and dielectric slab is placed between the :-
plates, then :-
(1)
(1) Potential difference between the plates is
changed (2)
(2) Charge flows from the battery to the
capacitor (3)
(3) Electric field between the plates increases
(4) Energy store in the capacitor decreases (4)

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 MAJOR TEST
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014 14022014
5. Two large parallel planes charged uniformly with 5.
surface charge density and are located as
A
shown in the figure. Which one of the following B
graphs shows the variation of electric field along

a line perpendicular to the planes as one moves
from A to B ?
:-

A B A B

E E E E

(1) (2) (1) (2)

x x x x
E E E E

(3) (4) (3) (4)

x x x x
6. For a liquid its temp. falls from 44C to 40C in 6.
44C 40C
200 sec.
time 200 sec. cooling constant 0.001 sec1. Temp.
0.001
of its surrounding will be :-
(1) 16C (2) 22C (3) 18C (4) 20C (1) 16C (2) 22C (3) 18C (4) 20C
7. Two blocks A and B have masses m and 4m 7.
A B m
4m
respectively. Each one is acted upon by a force F. F
tA tB,
If they acquire the same kinetic energy in time tA
tA/tB
and tB, then tA/tB is :
:
(1) 2 (2) 1/2 (3) 3 (4) 1/3 (1) 2 (2) 1/2 (3) 3 (4) 1/3
8. The graph of input characteristics of common 8.
emitter amplifier is :-
:-

0V 0V
0V 20V 0V 20V
IB 20V IB IB 20V IB
(1) (2) (1) (2)
VBE VBE VBE VBE

0V 0V
20V 20V 20V
20V
IB IB 0V IB IB 0V
(3) (4) (3) (4)
VBE VBE VBE VBE

9. The electric potential at a point (x, y) in the 9. x-y

(x, y)
x y plane is given by V = kxy. The field V = kxy r

intensity at a distance r from the origin varies as :-
:-
1 1 1 1
(1) r2 (2) r (3) (4) (1) r2 (2) r (3) (4)
r r2 r r2
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 MAJOR TEST
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE 14022014
10. A solenoid has an inductance of 50 mH and a 10.
50 mH
resistance of 0.025 . If it is connected to battery, 0.025 .
how long will it take for the current to reach one
half of its final equilibrium value ?
?
(1) 1.34 s (2) 1.2 s (1) 1.34 s (2) 1.2 s
(3) 6.32 s (4) 0.23 s (3) 6.32 s (4) 0.23 s
11. A square conducting loop is placed in the time 11.
dB dB
varying magnetic field ve constant .
ve
dt dt
The centre of square coincides with axis of
cylindrical region of magnetic field. The
a, b
c
directions of induced electric field at point a, b
and c.

a b a b
a b a b
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
c c
c c

a b a b a b
a b

(3) (4) (3) (4)

c c c
c

12. Two uniform rings of same thickness and same 12.

material are placed in contact as shown in figure.
O
:
Then distance of centre of mass from O is :

O
O R 2R
R 2R

5R 5R
(1) (2) R/4 (3) 3R (4) None (1) (2) R/4 (3) 3R (4)
6 6

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 MAJOR TEST
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014 14022014
13. A large cylindrical tank has a hole of area A at 13.
its bottom and water is poured into the tank
A
through a tube of cross-sectional area A ejecting

water at the speed v. Which of the following is
true ?
v
?
(1) Water level in tank keeps on rising (1)
(2) No water can be stored in the tank (2)
(3) Water level will rise to a height v2/2g and then
stop (3)
v2/2g

(4) The water level will be oscillating (4)

14. The electric flux for Gaussian surface A that 14.
A
enclose the charged particles in free space is :- :- (
q1 = 14 nC,
(given q1 = 14 nC, q2 = 78.85 nC, q3 = 56 nC) q2 = 78.85 nC, q3 = 56 nC)

Gaussian Gaussian
q3 surface A q3 surface A
q1 q1
q2 Gaussian q2 Gaussian
surface B surface B

(1) 103 Nm2 C1 (1) 103 Nm2 C1

(2) 103 CN1 m2 (2) 103 CN1 m2
(3) 6.32 103 Nm2 C1 (3) 6.32 103 Nm2 C1
(4) 6.32 103 CN1 m2 (4) 6.32 103 CN1 m2
15. A current of 5A is flowing at 220 V in the primary 15. 220
V
coil of a transformer. If the voltage produced in 5A
the secondary coil is 2200 V and 50% of power 2200 V
is lost, then the current in the secondary coil will
be :-
:-
(1) 2.5 A (2) 5 A (1) 2.5 A (2) 5 A
(3) 0.25 A (4) 0.025 A (3) 0.25 A (4) 0.025 A
16. Which of the following temperature is the highest? 16.
(1) 100 K (2) 13F (1) 100 K (2) 13F
(3) 20R (4) 23C (3) 20R (4) 23C
17. A sphere A moving with speed u1 collides directly 17. u1
A, u2
with an identical sphere B moving with speed u2
in opposite direction. If the coefficient of B
e

restitution is e and the sphere A comes to rest after
A
collision then u1/u2 is : u1/u2
:

1e 1e 1 e 1e
(1) (2) (1) (2)
1e 1e 1 e 1e

e 2e e 2e
(3) (4) (3) (4)
1 e 1e 1e 1e

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 MAJOR TEST
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE 14022014
18. A test tube of mass 2m closed with a cork of 18. 2m
m
mass m contains a drop of liquid of negligible

mass. When the test tube is heated, the liquid R

evaporates and the cork flies off under the
pressure of the gas. What must be the minimum

velocity with which the cork must be ejected
such that the test tube describes a full circle
of radius R about the pivot ? (Assuming test
R
tube as a point object)

(1) 5Rg (1) 5Rg

R R
(2) 2 5Rg (2) 2 5Rg
2m m 2m m

(3) 2 3Rg (3) 2 3Rg

(4) 2 4Rg (4) 2 4Rg

19. Two electric bulbs marked 40 W, 220 V and 19.

40
W, 220 V 60 W,
60 W, 220 V when connected in series, across 220 V
220 V
same voltage supply of 220 V, the effective power
P1

is P1 and when connected in parallel, the effective

P2
P1
power is P2. Then is :- P1
P2
:-
P2
(1) 0.5 (2) 0.48 (1) 0.5 (2) 0.48
(3) 0.24 (4) 0.16 (3) 0.24 (4) 0.16
20. A ray incident at an angle on a face of a 20.

transparent cube just fails to emerge from the
adjacent face. The refractive index of the material

:-
of the cube is :-

(1) 1 + sin2 (2) (1) 1 + sin2 (2) 1 sin 2

1 sin 2

(3) 1 + cos2 (4) 1 cos 2 (3) 1 + cos2 (4) 1 cos 2

21. An ideal gas A and a real gas B have their volumes 21.
A
increased from V to 2V under isothermal B V 2V
conditions. The increase in interval energy :-
:-
(1) Of A will be more than that of B (1) B
A
(2) Will be same in Both A and B (2) A
B
(3) Will be zero in A but B is increase (3) A
B
(4) Will be zero in A and B (4)

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 MAJOR TEST
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014 14022014
22. Two pendulums with identical bobs and lengths 22.
are suspended from a common support such that
in rest position the two bobs are in contact
(figure). After being displaced by 5 the bob A is
A
5
released from rest, at t = 0 subsequently it collides t = 0
elastically head-on with the other bob.

The graph showing variation in energy of T

0 t T ( )
pendulum A with time, for 0 t T (where T is A

the period of either pendulum).
ET ET ET ET

(1) (2) (1) (2)

t t t t
T 3T T T 3T T T 3T T T 3T T
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
ET ET ET ET

(3) (4) (3) (4)

t t t t
T 3T T T 3T T T 3T T T 3T T
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
23. A particle moves along a circle of radius 5 cm with 23. 5 cm
6
a period of 6 sec in the clockwise direction. At t = 0
the particle is at position A as shown in the figure. t = 0
A
The expression for the SHM of the
x-
:-
x-projection of the radius vector of the particle is :-
y y

m m
5c 5c
x x

8 8
A A

(1) x = 5 cos t (2) x = 5 sin t (1) x = 5 cos t (2) x = 5 sin t
3 8 3 8 3 8 3 8

(3) x = 5 sin t (4) x = 5 cos t (3) x = 5 sin t (4) x = 5 cos t
3 8 3 8 3 8 3 8

Key

Filling

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 MAJOR TEST
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE 14022014
24. The reading of the ideal voltmeter in the adjoining 24.
:-
diagram will be :-
A
A
10V 20
10V 20
V
V
10 4V
10 4V
B N C
B N C

(1) 4 V (2) 8 V (3) 12 V (4) 14 V (1) 4 V (2) 8 V (3) 12 V (4) 14 V

25. A fish in a lake at depth 1m sees outside world 25.
1m
through a circular aperture at the water surface, n 4

3
n of water 4 . Radius of the aperature is :-
:-
3
3 4 7 3 7 4
7 m (3) 7 m (4) m (1) m (2) m (3) m (4) m
(1) m (2) 3 7 4 7
3 7 4 7
26. Fig. shows a 20 m wide ditch with the approach 26.
20
roads at an angle of 15 with the horizontal. With 15
what minimum speed should a motor bike be
moving on the road so that it safely crosses the
(g = 10/2)
ditch? (g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) 20 m/s (2) 16 m/s (1) 20 m/s (2) 16 m/s

(3) 8 m/s (4) 4 m/s (3) 8 m/s (4) 4 m/s
27. Three identical rods, each of length L are joined 27. L
to form a rigid equilateral triangle. Its radius of
gyration about an axis passing through a corner
and perpendicular to the plane of triangle is :
L 3 L L L 3 L L
(1) (2) L (3) (4) (1) (2) L (3) (4)
2 2 2 3 2 2 2 3
28. Time period of a particle in SHM is 8 sec. At 28. 8
t = 0, it is at mean position. Ratio of the distances t = 0
travelled by it in the first and second seconds is :-
:-

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
2 2 2 1 3 2 2 2 1 3
29. In a series circuit C = 2F, L = 1mH and R = 10 . 29. LCR C
= 2F, L = 1mH
When the current in the circuit is maximum, at R = 10
that time the ratio of the energies stored in the
capacitor and the inductor will be :-
:-
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 5 (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 5
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 MAJOR TEST
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014 14022014
30. A beam of natural light falls on a system of 30.
5
5 polaroids, which are arranged in succession such
that the pass axis of each polaroid is turned
through 60 with respect to the preceding one. The 60

fraction of the incident light intensity that passes
through the system is :- :-
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
64 32 256 512 64 32 256 512
31. A particle of mass 0.1 kg is suspended from the 31. 0.1 kg
1m
end of a string of length 1 m and is allowed to
swing in a vertical plane. The speed of the mass 60


is 3 ms1 when the string makes an angle of 60

3ms1
with the vertical in lower half (g = 10 ms2). The
tension in the string at this time is :-
(g=10 2)

(1) 0.1 N (2) 1.4 N (1) 0.1 N (2) 1.4 N

(3) 0.6 N (4) 0.9 N (3) 0.6 N (4) 0.9 N
32. The satellite of mass m revolving in a circular 32. m
r
orbit of radius r around the earth has kinetic
E

energy E. Then its angular momentum will be :-
:-
E E
(1) (2) 2Emr 2 (1) (2) 2Emr 2
mr 2 mr 2
E E
(3) Emr (4) (3) Emr (4)
2mr 2 2mr 2
33. In a resonance tube experiment the first resonance 33.
10 cm
is obtained for 10 cm of air column and the second
32 cm
for 32 cm; the end correction for this apparatus is
equal to :-
:-
(1) 0.5 cm (2) 1.0 cm (1) 0.5 cm (2) 1.0 cm
(3) 1.5 cm (4) 2 cm (3) 1.5 cm (4) 2 cm
34. A current of I ampere flows in a circular arc of 34.
R
3
wire which subtends an angle of radians 3
2
2
I
at its centre, whose radius is R. The magnetic
induction B at the centre is :-
B

0 I 0 I 2 0 I 3 0 I 0 I 0 I 2 0 I 3 0 I
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
R 2R R 8R R 2R R 8R
35. Interference fringes were produced in Young's 35.
5000
double slit experiment using light of wavelength
2.5 10-3
5000 . When a film of material 2.5 10-3 cm

thick was placed over one of the slits, the fringe
pattern shifted by a distance equal to 20 fringe

20
widths. The refractive index of the material of the
film is :-
:-
(1) 1.25 (2) 1.33 (3) 1.4 (4) 1.5 (1) 1.25 (2) 1.33 (3) 1.4 (4) 1.5

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 MAJOR TEST
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE 14022014
36. A ball is thrown from the ground with a 36. 20 3 m/s
60
t
velocity of 20 3 m/s making an angle of 60 with
40
m
the horizontal. The ball will be at a height of 40 m (g = 10 m/s2) :-
from the ground after time t equal to (g=10 m/s2) :-
(1) 2 sec (2) 3 sec
(1) 2 sec (2) 3 sec (3) 2 sec (4) 3 sec
(3) 2 sec (4) 3 sec
37. The minimum phase difference between two 37.
simple harmonic oscillations :-
1 3
1 y1 = sin t + cos t
3 2 2
y1 = sin t + cos t
2 2 y2 = sin t + cos t
y2 = sin t + cos t is :-
7 7
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
12 12 6 6 12 12 6 6
38. Two organ pipes give 4 beats when sounded 38.
27C
together at 27C. Calculate the number of beats 4
127C
at 127C :- :-
(1) 3.9 beats/second (2) 4 beats/second (1) 3.9 beats/second (2) 4 beats/second
(3) 4.6 beats/second (4) 2.8 beats/second (3) 4.6 beats/second (4) 2.8 beats/second
39. The period of oscillation of a magnet in a vibration 39.
magnetometer is 2 seconds. The period of 2

oscillation of a magnet whose magnetic moment
:-
is four times that of the first magnet is :- (1) 1 sec (2) 4 sec
(1) 1 sec (2) 4 sec (3) 8 sec (4) 0.5 sec (3) 8 sec (4) 0.5 sec
40. An electron of a stationary hydrogen atom passes 40.
from the energy level five to the ground level.
The recoil velocity of hydrogen atom aquired as
a result of photon emission will be (h = Plank's
(h =
, m =
constant m = mass of hydrogen atom, R = Rydberg

R =
) :-
constant) :-
25m 24m
25m 24m (1) (2)
(1) (2) 24hR 25hR
24hR 25hR

24hR
24hR (3) (4)
(3) (4) None of these 25m
25m
41. A car moving with a velocity of 100 m/s can be 41. 100 m/s
F
stopped by the application of a constant force F 5
in a distance of 5 m. If the velocity of the car is
300 m/s
made 300 m/s, it can be stopped by this force
in :-

(1) 15m (2) 45m (3) 25.5m (4) 100m (1) 15m (2) 45m (3) 25.5m (4) 100m

Use stop, look and go method in reading the question

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 MAJOR TEST
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014 14022014
42. A fork 'A' has frequency 2% more than the 42. 'A'
2%
standard fork and B has a frequency 3% less than
B
3%
the frequency of same standard for when forks A A B
and B are sounded together produce 6 beats/sec. 6
/
A
:-
The frequency of fork A is :- (1) 116. 4 Hz (2) 120 Hz
(1) 116. 4 Hz (2) 120 Hz
(3) 122.4 Hz (4) 238.8 Hz (3) 122.4 Hz (4) 238.8 Hz
43. A point charge is surrounded symmetrically by 43. 6
6 identical charges at distance r as shown in the
figure. How much work is done by the forces of
q
electrostatic repulsion when the point charge q

:-
at the centre is removed at infinity :-
(1) Zero (1) q q
q q

(2) 6q2/40r (2) 6q2/40r

q q q q
q q a
a 2
(3) q2/40r (3) q /40r
q q q q
(4) 12q2/40r (4) 12q2/40r
44. In the circuit shown in the following figure 44.
E = 10 V, R1 = 2 ,
E = 10 V, R1 = 2 ohm, R2 = 3 ohm and R3 = 6 ohm R2 = 3
R3 = 6
L = 5
S
and L = 5 henry. The current I1 just after pressing
:-

the switch S is :-
I1 I2
I1 I2 R1 I3 R3
R1 R3 E R2 L
I3
E R2 L

10 10
10 10 (1) amp (2) amp
4 5
(1) amp (2) amp
4 5
10 10
10 10 (3) amp (4) amp
(3) amp (4) amp 12 6
12 6
45. Nucleus A converts into C after emitting two 45.
A

-
-particles and three -particles. Nucleus B C
B
converts into C after emitting one particle and
-

five -particles. If atomic numbers and mass
C
A B
numbers of A and B are Z 1 , Z 2 , A1 and A 2

Z1, Z2, A1
A2
:-
respectively then :-
(1) Z1 Z2 = 6
(1) Z1 Z2 = 6
(2) A1 A2 = 4 (2) A1 A2 = 4

(3) Both (1) and (2) are correct (3)

(1) (2)
(4) Both (1) and (2) are wrong (4)
(1) (2)
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 MAJOR TEST
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE 14022014
46. Density of CO2 at NTP would be :- 46. NTP
:-
(1) 0.0018 g ml1 (1) 0.0018 1

(2) 1.96 10-3 g ml1 (2) 1.96 10-3

1

(3) 22 g ml1 (3) 22

1

(4) 44 g ml1 (4) 44

1

47. The outer electron configuration of Gd 47. Gd (

: 64)
:-
(Atomic No. : 64) is :- 4
(1) 4f 5d 6s
4 2 7
(2) 4f 5d 6s
1 2
4 4 2 7 1 2
(1) 4f 5d 6s (2) 4f 5d 6s
3 5 2 8 0 2 3 5 2 8 0 2
(3) 4f 5d 6s (4) 4f 5d 6s (3) 4f 5d 6s (4) 4f 5d 6s
48. Metals which form [M(CN)2 ] type complex 48.
[M(CN)2 ]
during their extraction (1) Zn (2) Cu
(1) Zn (2) Cu (3) Sn (4) Au (3) Sn (4) Au
49. In the following reaction, the product 'R' is :- 49.
'R'
H2 O Hot iron CH 3 Cl H2 O Hot iron CH 3 Cl
CaC 2 P
tube
Q
AlCl3
R CaC 2 P
tube
Q
AlCl3
R
(1) benzene (2) ethylbenzene (1) (2)
(3) toluene (4) n-propylbenzene (3) (4) n-
50. Given : 50.
:
E0 1.36 V, E 0 0.74 V E0 1.36 V, E 0 0.74 V
1/ 2 Cl2 / Cl Cr3 / Cr 1/ 2 Cl2 / Cl Cr3 / Cr

E0 1.33V, E 0 1.51V E0 1.33V, E 0 1.51V

Cr2 O27 / Cr 3 MnO
4 / Mn
2
Cr2 O27 / Cr 3 MnO
4 / Mn
2

The correct order of reducing power of the (Cr, Cr3+, Mn2+

Cl)
species (Cr, Cr3+, Mn2+ and Cl) will be : :
(1) Mn2+ < Cl < Cr3+ < Cr (1) Mn < Cl < Cr3+ < Cr
2+

(2) Cr3+ < Cl < Mn2+ < Cr (2) Cr3+ < Cl < Mn2+ < Cr
(3) Cr3+ < Cl < Cr < Mn2+ (3) Cr3+ < Cl < Cr < Mn2+
(4) Mn2+ < Cr3+ < Cl < Cr (4) Mn2+ < Cr3+ < Cl < Cr
51. If 1 kg of common salt costs Rs. 7 and 1 kg of 51. 7
sugar costs Rs. 14. What would be the cost of 14
1 mole of salt and sugar :- :-
(1) Both will have the same cost (1)
(2) The cost of sugar will be half the cost of salt
(2)
(3) The cost of sugar will be more than that of
the salt (3)
(4) The cost of sugar will be twice the cost of salt (4)
52. Correct order of MP is :- 52.
(1) Fe > Cr > Mn (2) Cr < Zn > Hg (1) Fe > Cr > Mn (2) Cr < Zn > Hg
(3) Cr > W > Fe (4) W > Cr > Mn (3) Cr > W > Fe (4) W > Cr > Mn
53. If 500 ml of a gas A at 1000 torr and 1000 ml 53. A, 500 ml
1000 torr
of gas B at 800 torr are placed in a 2L container, B 1000 ml 800 torr
then final pressure will be :- 2L
(1) 100 torr (2) 650 torr (1) 100 torr (2) 650 torr
(3) 1800 torr (4) 2400 torr (3) 1800 torr (4) 2400 torr

Take it Easy and Make it Easy

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 MAJOR TEST
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014 14022014
54. What will be the product in the following 54.
reaction?
CH2
CH2 NBS

NBS

Br
Br CH2
CH2 CH2
CH2
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
Br
Br

CH2Br CH3 CH2Br CH3

(3) (4) (3) (4)

Br Br

55. The rate constant of a zero order reaction 55.

is 2.0 102 mol L1 s1. If the concentration of 2.0 102 mol L1 s1
the reactant after 25 seconds is 0.5 M. What is the
25 0.5 M
?
initial concentration ?
(1) 0.5 M (2) 12.5 M (1) 0.5 M (2) 12.5 M
(3) l.0 M (4) 1.25 M (3) l.0 M (4) 1.25 M
56. An aqueous solution of KCl freezes at 0.186C. 56. KCl
0.186C

Given that Kb (H2O) = 0.512 K Kg mole1 and
Kf (H2O) = 1.86 K kg mole1. The elevation in [
Kb (H2O) = 0.512 K Kg mole1
b.p. of this solution is :- Kf (H2O) = 1.86 K kg mole1 ]
(1) 0.0585 K (2) 0.0512 K (1) 0.0585 K (2) 0.0512 K
(3) 1.864 K (4) 0.0265 K (3) 1.864 K (4) 0.0265 K
57. Match List I with List II and select the correct 57. I
II
answer using the codes given below the lists :
List I (species) List II (Type of bonds) I () II (
)
A. (SiH3)3N i. 3 centre-2-electronbond A. (SiH3)3N i. 3c-2e
B. BF3 ii. sp3-hybridization B. BF3 ii. sp3-
C. SiO2 iii.p - p bond C. SiO2 iii. p - p
D. B2H6 iv. p - d bond D. B2H6 iv. p - d
A B C D A B C D
(1) iv iii i ii (1) iv iii i ii
(2) ii iii iv i (2) ii iii iv i
(3) i ii iii iv (3) i ii iii iv
(4) iv iii ii i (4) iv iii ii i
58. Which of the following affects the adsorption of 58.
gas on the surface of solid?
(1) Critical temperature (1)
(2) Pressure of gas (2)
(3) Temperature (3)
(4) All of these (4)
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 MAJOR TEST
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59. Most stable carbocation among the following is:- 59.
:-

CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3

(1) (2) (1) (2)

CH3 CH3

(3) (4) All are equally stable (3) (4) All are equally stable

60. The activation energy for a reaction which doubles 60.

298 K
the rate when the temperature is raised from 308 K
298 K to 308 K is :-
(1) 29.5 kJ mol1 (2) 39.2 kJ mol1 (1) 29.5 kJ mol1 (2) 39.2 kJ mol1
(3) 52.9 kJ mol 1 (4) 69.2 kJ mol1 (3) 52.9 kJ mol1 (4) 69.2 kJ mol1
61. Which pair of solutions will be considered as 61.
:-
ideal :- (1) n
+ n
(1) n Hexane + n heptane
(2)
+ CS2
(2) Acetone + CS2
(3) CHCl3 + acetone (3) CHCl3 +
(4) water + HNO3 (4) + HNO3
62. The wrong statement about fullerene is 62.
(1) It has 5-membered carbon ring (1) 5
(2) If has 6-membered carbon ring (2) 6
(3) It has sp2 hybridization (3) sp2
(4) It has no. of 5-membered ring more than (4) 56
6-membered ring
63. Which of the following represents correctly, the 63.
variation of degree of adorption against

temperature, for physical adsorption :
adsorption

adsorption
Degree of

Degree of
adsorption

adsorption
Degree of

Degree of

(1) (2)
(1) (2)
T T
T T
adsorption

adsorption
adsorption

adsorption

Degree of

Degree of
Degree of

Degree of

(3) (4) (3) (4)

T T T T

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 MAJOR TEST
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014 14022014
64. Which of the following compounds will not 64.
cis-trans
exhibit cis-trans isomerism ?
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
Cl
Cl
(3) (4)
(3) (4)

65. Given : 65.

:
o
E Cu2 / Cu 0.34V E oCu2 / Cu 0.34V
E oCu2 / Cu 0.15V E oCu2 / Cu 0.15V
Standard electrode potential for the half cell
Cu +/Cu
Cu+/Cu is :-
:-
(1) 0.38 V (2) 0.53 V (1) 0.38 V (2) 0.53 V
(3) 0.49 V (4) 0.19 V (3) 0.49 V (4) 0.19 V
66. All the orbitals corresponding to (n + l) = x can 66. (n + l) = x
18
accomodate 18 electrons. The value of x would be x
:-
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 2 (4) 3 (1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 2 (4) 3
67. Water is said to be permanently hard when it 67.
contains (1) Mg Ca
(1) Chlorides and sulphates of Mg and Ca:
(2) Na K
(2) Bicarbonates of Na and K
(3) Carbonates of Na and K (3) Na K
(4) Phosphates of Na and K (4) Na K
68. The enthalpy of vapourisation of liquid diethyl ether 68.
(C2H5)2O
(C2H5)2O is 26 kJ mol1 at its boiling point 35C. The 26 kJ mol
1
35C
value of entropy of condensation of ether is :-
:-
(1) 84.42 JK1mol1 (2) 42.21 JK1 mol1 (1) 84.42 JK1mol1 (2) 42.21 JK1 mol1
1
(3) 84.42 JK mol 1
(4) 42.21 JK1 mol1 (3) 84.42 JK1mol1 (4) 42.21 JK1 mol1
69. Which one of the following molecules has 69. S
S-configuration ?
COOH COOH
COOH COOH
(1) HO CH3 (2) H OH
(1) HO CH (2) H OH
3
H CH2COOH
H CH2COOH
COOH CHO COOH CHO
(3) HO Br (4) HO CH2OH (3) HO Br (4) HO CH2OH
CH2COOH Br CH2COOH Br
Br Br

70. aq. KOH

major product is :- 70. aq. KOH

DMF

:-
DMF

Cl Cl
OH Br OH OH OH Br OH OH

(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)

Cl OH Cl OH Cl OH Cl OH

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 MAJOR TEST
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71. Sodium carbonate is manufactured by Solvay 71.
process, the products that are recycled are
(1) CO2 and NH3 (2) CO2 and NH4Cl (1) CO2
NH3 (2) CO2
NH4Cl
(3) NaCl and CaO (4) CaCl2 and CaO (3) NaCl
CaO (4) CaCl2
CaO
72. If one assumes linear structure instead of bent 72.
structure for water, then which one of the :-
following property can not be explained :-
(1) H-
(1) The formation of intermolecular hydrogen
bond in water (2)
(2) The high boiling point of water
(3) Solubility of polar compound in water (3)
(4) Ability of water to form co-ordinate covalent
bond (4)
73. Match the conditions and the temperature for the 73. 1 atm H2O(s)
'fusion' process of H2O(s) at 1 atm pressure
Condition Temperature
(1) Spontaneous (p) 273 K (1) (p) 273 K
(2) At equilibrium (q) 260 K (2) (q) 260 K
(3) Non-spontaneous (r) 280 K (3) (r) 280 K
(1) (1 r), (2 p), (3 q) (1) (1 r), (2 p), (3 q)
(2) (1 q), (2 p), (3 r) (2) (1 q), (2 p), (3 r)
(3) (1 r), (2 q), (3 p) (3) (1 r), (2 q), (3 p)
(4) (1 p), (2 q), (3 r) (4) (1 p), (2 q), (3 r)
74. Which one is the correct structure of pencillin : 74.
H H
O H H H O H H H
(1) R C N N (1) R C N N

N COOH N COOH
O O
H H

O H H H O H H H
S S
(2) R C N (2) R C N
N COOH N COOH
O O
H H

O H H H O H H H
S S
(3) R C N (3) R C N
N C O R N C O R
O O
O O

O H H H O H H H
S S
(4) R C N (4) R C N
N C OH N C OH
O O
O O

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75. m-chloro benzaldehyde is treated with 50% KOH 75. m-chloro benzaldehyde 50% KOH
then product(s) are :- :-

COO CH2OH COO CH2OH

(1) + (1) +

OH OH OH OH

COO CH2OH COO CH2OH

(2) + (2) +

Cl Cl Cl Cl

OH OH OH OH
CHCH CHCH
(3) (3)

Cl Cl Cl Cl

OH OH OH OH
CHCH CHCH
(4) (4)

OH OH OH OH

76. Which of the following metal has stable 76.

carbonates? (1) Na (2) Mg
(1) Na (2) Mg (3) Al (4) Si (3) Al (4) Si
77. The formula of sodium nitroprusside is 77.
:-
(1) Na4[Fe(CN)5NO2] (1) Na4[Fe(CN)5NO2]
(2) Na2[Fe(CN)5NO+] (2) Na2[Fe(CN)5NO+]
(3) NaFe(Fe(CN)6] (3) NaFe(Fe(CN)6]
(4) Na2[Fe(CN)6NO2] (4) Na2[Fe(CN)6NO2]
78. Which substance is serving as a reducing agent 78. 14H+ + Cr2O72 + 3Ni 2Cr+3 + 7H2O + 3Ni2+
in the following reaction,
14H+ + Cr2O72 + 3Ni 2Cr+3 + 7H2O + 3Ni2+
(1) H2O (2) Ni (1) H2O (2) Ni
(3) H+ (4) Cr2O72 (3) H+ (4) Cr2O2
7

79. Which one of the following does not exhibit. The 79.
phenomenon of mutarotation : [mutarotation]
:
(1) () fructose (2) (+) lactose (1) () (2) (+)
(3) (+) glucose (4) (+) sucrose (3) (+) (4) (+)

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80. Match the column 80.
Column-I Column-II
-I
-II
(A) CH3COCH3 (i) Reduces tollen's (A) CH3COCH3 (i)
reagent
(B) HCHO (ii) Give iodo form
test (B) HCHO (ii)
(C) CH3COOH (iii) Gives CO2 with (C) CH3COOH (iii) NaHCO3
NaHCO3 CO2
(D) CH3CH2NHCH3 (iv) Gives yellow oily (D) CH3CH2NHCH3 (iv) HNO2
liquid with HNO2
Correct match are :-
:-
(1) A ii, B iii, C iv, D i (1) A ii, B iii, C iv, Di
(2) A ii, B iii, C i , D iv (2) A ii, B iii, Ci, D iv
(3) A ii, B i, C iii, D iv (3) A ii, B i, C iii, D iv
(4) A i, B ii, C iii, D iv (4) A i, B ii, C iii, D iv
81. Which of the hydrogen halides forms salts like 81.
KHX2
KHX2 (where X is a halogen atom)?
(X =
)
(1) HF (2) HCl (1) HF (2) HCl
(3) HI (4) HBr (3) HI (4) HBr
82. Which of the following compound has different 82.
geometry from other? (1) [Ni(CN)4]2 (2) [Cu(CN)4]3
(1) [Ni(CN)4]2 (2) [Cu(CN)4]3
(3) [Ni(CO)4] (4) (NiCl4)2 (3) [Ni(CO)4] (4) (NiCl4)2

N N N N
83. acetic acid was titrated with NaOH. When 83. NaOH
10 10 10 10
25%, 50% and 75% of titration is over then the pH pH
25%,
of the solution will be [Ka = 105] :- 50% 75%
[Ka = 105] :-
(1) 5 log 3, 5, 5 + log 3 (1) 5 log 3, 5, 5 + log 3
(2) 5 + log 3, 4, 5 log 3 (2) 5 + log 3, 4, 5 log 3
(3) 5 log 1/3, 5, 5 log 3 (3) 5 log 1/3, 5, 5 log 3
(4) 5 log 1/3, 4, 5 + log 1/3 (4) 5 log 1/3, 4, 5 + log 1/3
84. Which of the following is not correctly matched : 84. :
H O H O
(1)Nylone 6 N (CH2)5 C n (1)
6 N (CH 2)5 C n

H H O O H H O O
(2) Nylone6,6N (CH2)6 N C(CH2)4Cn (2)
6,6 N (CH2)6 N C(CH2)4Cn

O O O O
(3) Terylene OCH2CH2OC C (3)
OCH 2CH 2OC C
n n

(4) PHBV OCHCH 2COCHCH2CO (4) PHBV OCHCH 2COCHCH2CO

n n
CH3 O CH2CH3 O CH3 O CH2CH3 O

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85. In which reaction 1 amine is not obtained :- 85.
1
:-
(1) CH3CNH 2 (i) LiAlH 4
(1) CH3CNH 2
(i) LiAlH 4

(ii) H (ii) H
O O
(2) CH3CHCH3+NH 3 (2) CH3CHCH3+NH 3
OH OH
H 2 / Ni H 2 / Ni
(3) CH3CN
(3) CH3CN


H3O
(4) CH3CN H3O
(4) CH3CN
86. Following statements regarding the periodic 86.
trends of chemical reactivity of the alkali metals
and the halogens are given. Which of these
statements gives the correct picture ? (1)
(1) Chemical reactivity increases with increase in
atomic number down the group in both the
alkali metals and halogens (2)
(2) In alkali metals the reactivity increases but in
the halogens it decreases with increase in
atomic number down the group
(3)
(3) The reactivity decreases in the alkali metals

but increases in the halogens with increase in
atomic number down the group

(4) In both the alkali metals and the halogens the (4)
chemical reactivity decreases with increases
in atomic number down the group
87. In which of the following pairs both members 87.
show reducing property but not oxidising property
(1) H3PO2, H2S (2) PH3, H2S (1) H3PO2, H2S (2) PH3, H2S
(3) H2S, H2O2 (4) SO2, Na2S2O3 (3) H2S, H2O2 (4) SO2, Na2S2O3
88. Calculate the pH of a solution necessary to just 88. Mg(OH)2
begin the precipitation of Mg(OH)2 when pH [Mg2+] = 0.001 M
[Mg2+]= 0.001 M. (Ksp for Mg(OH)2=1.2 1011) (Mg(OH)2 Ksp = 1.2 1011)
(1) 11 (2) 10 (3) 9 (4) 8 (1) 11 (2) 10 (3) 9 (4) 8
89. In a face centred cubic lattice, atoms of A 89. A
form the corner points and atoms of B
B
form the face centred points. If two atoms A
of A are missing from the corner points,

:
the formula of the ionic compound is :
(1) AB2 (2) AB3 (3) AB4 (4) A2B5 (1) AB2 (2) AB3 (3) AB4 (4) A2B5
90. Which does not react with NaOH ? 90.
NaOH
?

OH OH
O 2N NO2 O 2N NO2

(1) (2) C2H5OH (1) (2) C2H5OH

NO2 NO2
OH OH
(3) (4) CH3COOH (3) (4) CH3COOH

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91. Scientific nomenclature of plant is 91. Rosa indica L
Rosa indica L. The letter 'L' means that 'L'
:-
(1) The name was derived from Latin (1)
(2) It is a long variety of plant (2)
(3) The name was coined by Linnaeus (3)
(4) The plant is found in London (4)
92. Segmentation of body is not represented in : 92.
(1) Cray fish (2) Frog (1) (2)
(3) Grasshopper (4) Starfish (3) (4)
93. Zygomorphic flowers are found in :- 93.
:-
(1) Fabaceae (2) Solanaceae (1) (2)
(3) Liliaceae (4) All of these (3) (4)
94. Which of the following events can changed 94.
frequency of genes and alleles in future generation
:-
(1) Mutation (2) Gene recombination (1) (2)
(3) Gene flow (4) All of the above (3) (4)
95. Transport proteins, of a layer of root, are control 95.
points where a plant adjusts the quantity and types
of solutes that reach the xylem. In this statement
term 'a layer' denotes which of the following?
(1) Endodermis of root (1)
(2) Cortex of root (2)
(3) Epidermis of root (3)
(4) Pericycle of root (4)
96. The structural and functional unit of liver is 96.
(1) Hepatic lobule (2) Kupffer cells (1) (2)
(3) Hepatic cord (4) Sinusoids (3) (4)
97. Natural methods of contraception work on 97.
principle of :- :-
(1) Avoiding chances of ovum and sperm meeting (1)
(2) Avoiding chances of implantation (2)
(3) Make physical barrier (3)
(4) To cut fallopian tube (4)
98. The labelled ABC respectively represent :- 98.
ABC :-
A A

B B

C C

(1) Scutellum, Epiblast, Coleorhiza

(1) , ,
(2) Epiblast, Scutellum, Coleorhiza
(2) , ,
(3) Scutellum, Epiblast, Shoot apex
(3) , ,
(4) Coleoptile, Epiblast, Shoot apex
(4) , ,
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99. Which of the following symbol is used for five 99. 5-

unaffected offspring?
(1) 5 (2) 5 (3) (4) 5 (1) 5 (2) 5 (3) (4) 5
100. Which of the following is not immunodeficiency 100.
:-
disorder :- (1) (2)
(1) AIDS (2) Multiple sclerosis
(3) S.C.I.D (4) None of these (3) (4)
101. Which option creats the difference between 101.

Gram and Gram bacteria ?
(1) Cell membrane constition (1)
(2) Rings of flagella (2)
(3) Unit of RNA (3) RNA
(4) Function of flagella (4)
102. Animals with radial symmetry are usually :- 102.
:-
(1) Diploblastic & Organ system (1)
(2) Triploblastic & Organ system (2)
(3) Diploblastic & tissue level (3)
(4) Triploblastic & tissue level (4)
103. Which type of ovary is found in Liliaceae ? 103.
?
(1) Superior & monocarpellary (1)
(2) Superior & tricarpellary (2)
(3) Inferior & monocarpellary (3)
(4) Inferior & bicarpellary (4)
104. First invertebrate, during evolution originated 104.
before how many year :-
:-
(1) 300 million years (2) 100 million years (1) 300 million years (2) 100 million years
(3) 500 million years (4) 200 million years (3) 500 million years (4) 200 million years

105. 105.

Above diagram shows which of the following

techniques and what is its significance? Choose
the correct option from the following :- (1)
(1) Nutrient solution culture which is used for
rapid biological nitrogen fixation (2)
(2) Transamination which is used to synthesise

different types of amino acids
(3) Hydroponics which is used to study the (3)
mechanism of water absorption by plants
(4) Nutrient solution culture which was used to (4)
identify the essential elements for plants and
to discover their deficiency symptoms.
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106. Identify a, b, c, and d in the given diagram :- 106.
a, b, c, d
:-
b a b
a

d c d
c

a b c d
a b c d
(1) CO2 O2
(1) Inspired Air Expired Air CO2 O2

(2) Inspired Air Expired Air O2 CO2 (2) O2 CO2

(3) Expired Air Inspired Air O2 CO2 (3)

O2 CO2

(4) Expired Air Inspired Air CO2 O2 (4)

CO2 O2

107. Intensely lactating mother do not generally 107.

conceive due to the :-
:-
(1) Suppression of gonadotropins (1)
(2) Hypersecretion of gonadotropins (2)
(3) Suppression of gametic transport (3)
(4) Suppression of fertilisation (4)
108. In which type of ovule, embryosac becomes horse 108.
shoe shape ?
?
(1) Orthotropous (1)
(2) Amphitropous (2)
(3) Anatropous (3)
(4) Circinotropous (4)
109. If blood group of mother is A and father is B then 109.
A B
ratio of blood group of offspring A : AB : B : O
A : AB : B : O
will be?
(1) 2 : 0 : 2 : 0 (1) 2:0:2:0
(2) 0 : 0 : 4 : 0 (2) 0:0:4:0
(3) 4 : 4 : 4 : 4 (3) 4:4:4:4
(4) All of these (4)
110. A person is suffering from pain abdomen due to 110.
peptic ulcer. Which of the following technique is
best for detection of peptic ulcer ?
:-
(1) Ultrasound (2) Biopsy (1) (2)
(3) M.R.I (4) Endoscopy (3) M.R.I (4)

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 MAJOR TEST
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Animalia
Fungi Protista

111. Plantae 111.

monera

For above given cladogram select out the correct

one :- :-
(1) Animalia directly arose from monera (1)
(2) Fungi are the ancestor of Animalia (2)
(3) Plantae and protista arose from Monera directly (3)
(4) Plantae, fungi and Animalia arose from protista (4)
112. Siphoning type of mouth part is found in 112.
(1) Periplaneta (2) Butterflies (1)
(2)
(3) Musca (4) Mosquitoes (3) (4)
113. What is common in cockroach and earthworm 113.
(1) Both are hermaphrodite (1)
(2) Closed type of blood vascular system (2)
(3) External fertilisation (3)
(4) Ventral nerve cord (4)
114. During evolution which organism deposits and 114.
convert into present days coal :- :-
(1) Angiosperms (2) Dicotyledons (1) (2)
(3) Bryophyte (4) Pteridophytes (3) (4)
115. Which of the following is a free living aerobic 115.
nitrogen fixing microbe ?
(1) Pseudomonas (2) Azotobacter (1) (2)
(3) Rhodospirillum (4) Thiobacillus (3) (4)
116. When right ventricle of human heart contract then 116.
blood pumped into :-
:-
(1) All parts of body (2) Lungs (1)
(2)
(3) Pulmonary veins (4) Systernic aorta (3)
(4)
117. Find out correct statement :- 117.
:-
(1) MTP is legalised in some condition in our (1)
MTP

country
(2) ART - Associated reproductive technique (2) ART - Associated reproductive technique
(3) PID - Pectoral inflammatory disease (3) PID - Pectoral inflammatory disease
(4) All of above (4)
118. In flowering plants, anthesis means :- 118.
:-
(1) Growth of pollen tube inside the carpel (1)
(2) Dehiscence of anther (2)
(3) Opening of floral bud (3)
(4) Emergence of anther (4)

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119. Morgan and his group found that when genes were 119.
grouped on the same chromosome, some genes
were very tightly linked and showed -
-
(1) Very low recombination (1)
(2) Higher recombination (2)
(3) No recombination (3)
(4) 100% parental combination (4) 100%
120. Which one of the following cannot be treated as 120.
quantitative feature of a community ? ?
(1) Biomass (1)
(2) Species diversity (2)
(3) Frequency of species (3)
(4) Niche (4)
121. Which one of the following pair is wrongly 121.
matched, while the remaining three are correct
(1) Nitrosomonas : Nitrifying and chemo- (1)
:
lithotrophic bacteria.
(2) Rhodospirillum : Nitrogen fixation (2) :
bacteria and Photo-organotrophs bacteria.
(3) E.coli : used in genetic engineering and (3)
:
pollution indicating bacteria
(4) Pseudomonas : responsible for food (4)
:
poisoning and purity of Ganga water.
122. Select the correct statement : 122.
(1) All annelid have setae (1)
(2) All molluscan have internal shell (2)
(3) All echinoderm have water vascular system (3)
(4) All arthropods have antenna (4)
(Antenna)
123. Which of the following cell does not have nucleus: 123.
:-
(1) Erythrocytes of many mammals (1)
(2) Bacteria (2)
(3) Sieve tube cells of vascular plants (3)
(4) All of the above (4)
124. Select the incorrect statements :- 124. :-
(A) The essence of Darwinian theory of evolution (A)
is natural selection
(B) Evolution is a directed process in the sense (B)
of determinism
(C) The geological history of earth is not related (C)
with the biological history of earth
(D) During evolution the rate of appearance of (D)
new forms is linked to the life cycle
(1) A and B (2) B and C (1) A B (2) B
C
(3) A and D (4) B and D (3) A D (4) B
D

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 MAJOR TEST
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014 14022014
125. In Calvin cycle for the fixation of 5molecules of 125.
CO2 5
CO2, how many ATP and NADPH are required
in reduction step?
(1) 18 ATP and 12 NADPH (1) 18
12
(2) 15 ATP and 10 NADPH (2) 15
10
(3) 10 ATP and 10 NADPH (3) 10 10
(4) 3 ATP and 2 NADPH (4) 3 2
126. Residual air mostly occurs is :- 126.
:-
(1) Alveoli, Alveolar sac, Alveolar duct. (1)
,
,
(2) Primary and secondary bronchus. (2)
(3) Secondary & tertiary bronchus. (3)
(4) Terminal & respiratory bronchus. (4)
127. In which method, couples avoid from coitus from 127. 10 17
day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle
(1) Periodic abstinence (1) Periodic abstinence
(2) Lactation amenorrhea (2) Lactation amenorrhea
(3) Sterilisation (3) Sterilisation
(4) All the above (4) All the above
128. In genetic engineering Agrobacterium and 128.
retrovirus are used as a vector for cloning gene
in plant and animal because -
-
(1) They are easily available (1)
(2)
(2) They are pathogen
(3)
(3) They have ability to transform normal cell into
a tumour and cancerous cell (4)
(4) They infect all plant and animal cell
129. Which statement is not true for Drosophila 129.

melanogaster? (1) 2
(1) They complete their life cycle about two weeks
(2) Single mating produce large number of (2)
progeny flies
(3) It has few hereditary variation that can be seen (3)
with high power microscope
(4) It has clear differentiation of the sex (4)
130. The functional aspect of an ecosystem that 130.
initiates food chain is :- :-
(1) Respiration (1)
(2) Photosynthesis
(2)
(3) Transfer of energy from one trophic level to
(3)
the next
(4) Decomposition (4)

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 MAJOR TEST
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE 14022014
131. Read the following statements 131.
(A) Virus are obligate intracellular parasites (A)
(B) Virus contain genetic material RNA and DNA (B)
DNA RNA
both
(C) Protein coat of virus is known as capsid (C)
(D) It can be grown in culture media but can not (D)
be crystallized
Which of the above statements are correct
(1) A and B only (2) B and C only (1) A B (2) B C
(3) B and D only (4) A and C only (3) B D (4) A C
132. Identify incorrect statement with regard to 132.

Coelenterata :- (1)
(1) Sea anemone is a polyp (2)
(2) Jelly fish is free swimming Coelenterate
(3)
(3) Meandrina exhibit two basic body forms
called polyp and medusa

(4) Digestion is both extracellular and (4)
intracellular
133. The ribosomes of chloroplasts are :- 133.
:-
(1) Smaller than the prokaryotic ribosomes (1)
(2) Larger than the mitochondrial ribosomes (2)
(3) Similar to the cytoplasmic ribosomes of
(3)
Eukaryotic
(4) Smaller than the ribosomes attached on other
surface of ER (4) ER
134. Select the correct statement ? 134. ?
(1) Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt (1)
and get selected by nature.
(2) Natural selection and genetic variation are
(2)
two main key point of darwinian theory of

evolution.
(3) Adaptive ability is always inherited (3)
(4) Placental wolf and Tasmanian wolf are (4)
example of homology.
135. Which of the following is correct regarding 135.
electron transport system of respiration ?
(1) NADH are directly oxidised by complex IV (1) NADH IV
(2) Complex V is a mobile electron carrier
(3) Complex IV cause the reduction of molecular (2) V
oxygen (3)
IV,
(4) Complex II contain two copper centres (4) II
136. Exchange of bicarbonates & chloride ions 136.
between RBC & plasma is called :- :-
(1) Bohr's effect (2) Haldane effect (1) (2)
(3) Chloride shift (4) Root effect (3) (4)

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 MAJOR TEST
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014 14022014
137. Which of the following statements is incorrect ? 137.
(1) First movement of foetus and appearance of (1)
hair on head are usually observed during the
fourth month of pregnancy.
(2) 22th
(2) On 22th day of Menstrual cycle, the level of

progesterone is maximum.
(3) The signals for parturition originate from fully (3)
developed foetus and placenta
(4) None of these (4)
138. Which of the following technique is used for 138.
DNA
separation and isolation of DNA fragments -
-
(1) RFLP (1) RFLP
(2) Gel electrophoresis (2)
(3) PCR - technique (3) PCR -
(4) Cloning (4)
139. In which of the following sex is determined by 139.
female individual?
(1) Human (2) Drosophila (1) (2)
(3) Birds (4) Grass-hopper (3) (4)
140. Favourable physiological response to changing in 140.
environment is called :- :-
(1) Preadaptation (1)
(2) Ecotyping (2)
(3) Formation of ecophenes (3)
(4) Acclimatisation (4)
141. Red algae differ from the green algae and brown 141.
:-
algae in having :- (1)
'a'
(1) Chlorophyll 'a'
(2)
(2) Haemoglobin with in their cells
(3) Aquatic nature (3)
(4) Show post complex fertilization development (4)
142. Most of the stem elongation in grass is due 142.
to :-
?
(1) Lateral meristem (1)
(2) Secondary meristem (2)
(3) Intercalary meristem (3)
(4) Apical meristem (4)
143. Detoxification of drugs are function of :- 143. :-
(1) Lysosome (2) ER (1) (2) ER
(3) Golgi body (4) Chloroplast (3) (4)
144. In mRNA AUG is starting codon and there are 144. mRNA AUG
three termination codons. Which of the following
mRNA
mRNA can be translated completely :-
(1) AUG CGC GGG UUU UAA CCC (1) AUG CGC GGG UUU UAA CCC
(2) AUG CCC AAA UAG CGA UUU (2) AUG CCC AAA UAG CGA UUU
(3) CCC GAC UCG AUG GUC GGG (3) CCC GAC UCG AUG GUC GGG
(4) AUG CGC AAA AUG CCU GUC (4) AUG CGC AAA AUG CCU GUC
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 MAJOR TEST
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE 14022014
145. Which of the following applications of auxins is 145.
widely used for plant propagation ?
(1) Selective killing of weeds to prepare weed free (1)
lawns
(2) Initiation of rooting in stem cuttings (2)
(3) Promotion of flowering in pineapple (3)
(4) Induction of parthenocarpy (4)
146. Which of the following statement is false :- 146.
(1) Aqueous humor leak out by canal of schlemm (1)
into blood capillaries and again reach upto

their veins.
(2) A transparent, biconvex lens is present just (2)
after iris.
(3) Iris divides vitreous chamber into two parts, (3)
anterior chamber and posterior chamber.

(4) Aqueous humor and vitreous humor both the
fluids are secreted by the glands of ciliary (4)
body.
147. Given below are four statements (a-d) regarding 147.
assisted reproductive technologies:-
(a) ZIFT - The zygote or early embryo (with upto (a) -
32 blastomere) transferred into the fallopian (32 )
tube

(b) A. I. - A sperm is directly injected into the
(b) A. I. -
fallopian tube to form an embryo in the
laboratory
(c) IUI - The semen collected either from the
husband or healthy donor is artificially (c) -
introduced either into the vagina or into the
uterus
(d) GIFT - Transfer of zygote collected from a (d) -
donor into the fallopian tube of another female

who cannot produce one but can provide

suitable environment for fertilisation and
development

How many of the above statements are correct :-
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) 3 (4) 4
148. Which of the following is used to deliver desirable 148.
gene into animal cell -
-
(1) Normal retrovirus (1)
(2) Disarmed retrovirus (2)
(3) Agrobacterium (3)
(4) E. coli (4)
Time Management is Life Management
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 MAJOR TEST
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014 14022014
149. Which of the following is not observed in a 149.
monohybrid cross :- (1) F2-
(1) Recessive parental trait is expressed

without any blending in the F2-generation.
(2) Recessive parental trait is expressed (2) F1-
without any blending in the F1-generation.
(3) Dominance also explains the proportion of
(3)
F2-
3 : 1
3 : 1 obtained at the F2
(4) Genotype ratio is 1 : 2 : 1 (4)
1 : 2 : 1
150. If age-sex structure gives a steeper pyramid, it 150.
steeper
means :-
:-
(1) It is a rapidly growing population (1)
(2) It is on the verge of extinction (2)
(3) It is a stable population (3)
(4) Both 2 and 3 (4) 2 3
151. Meiosis occurs in Club Moss, when :- 151.
:-
(1) Gametes are formed (1)
(2) Prothallus is formed (2)
(3) Sex organs are formed (3)
(4) Spores are formed (4)
152. Vascular cambium and cork cambium of root are 152.
examples of ?
?
(1) Apical meristems (1)
(2) Primary lateral meristems (2)
(3) Secondary lateral meristems (3)
(4) Primary meristems (4)
153. How many of the given statement are correct: 153.
(a) Cells are metabolically inactive in quiescent (a)
stage
(b) Sister chromatid separate during anaphase I (b)
of meiosis
(d) Growth of multicellular organism is due to (c)
mitosis
(d) Anaphase stage is characterised by centromere (d)
split
(e) During telophase chromosome at loose their (e)
identity as discrete element
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) One (1) (2) (3) (4)
154. In prokaryotic protein synthesis, which elongation 154.
factor is unstable at high temperature :
:
(1) EFTu (2) IFTu (1) EFTu (2) IFTu
(3) RFTu (4) EFTs (3) RFTu (4) EFTs
155. The essential chemical components of many 155.
coenzymes are :-
(1) Tertiary proteins (2) Phospholipids (1) (2)
(3) Organic acids (4) Vitamins (3) (4)

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 MAJOR TEST
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE 14022014
156. The hormone which controls the sexual behaviour 156.
and inhibits sexual irritation and also inhibits
development of genitalia and their functions is
related to which gland :-
(1) Thyroid (2) Pineal gland (1) (2)
(3) Pancreas (4) None of the above (3) (4)
157. Which of the following is the best breeding 157.
method for animals that are below average in
productivity?
?
(1) Cross-breeding (2) Out-crossing (1) (2)
(3) Inbreeding (4) All the above (3) (4)
158. Find out type of disorder in following pedigree- 158.
-

(1) Autosomal recessive (1)

(2) Autosomal dominant (2)
(3) X-linked recessive (3) X-
(4) Maternal disorder (4)
159. Which of the following is not a depressant :- 159.
:-
(a) Morphine (b) Cocaine (a) (b)
(c) Methadone (d) L.S.D (c) (d) L.S.D
(e) Smack (e)
(1) b, c, d, e (2) b, c, d (1) b, c, d, e (2) b, c, d
(3) b, d only (4) All of these (3) b, d (4)
160. Which of the following statements is false ? 160.
?
(1) Ecotype differs from each other, on the basis (1)
of morphological and physiological characters
(2) In hydrosere, the colonisation by land plants is
(2)
usually progresses from margins towards centre

(3) Low amount of nutrient in rain forests is stored
in the tall vegetation, where the nutrient (3)
storage in soil is higher
(4) Vertical stratification leads to increase in
number of species, also efficient use of (4)
resources of a habitat by different type of
plants
161. Silkworm differ from prawn, scorpion in 161.
(
),
having :-
:-
(1) Chitinous exoskeleton (1)
(2) Biramous appendages (2)
(3) Three pair legs (3)
(4) Jointed appendages (4)

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 MAJOR TEST
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014 14022014
162. Hanstein has proposed 162.
:-
(1) Histogen theory (1)
(2) Tunica-corpus theory (2)
(3) Mentle-core theory (3)
(4) Histogenic layer theory (4)
163. Identify A, B and C in the figure : 163.
A,B C

A A
B B

C C

A B C A B C
(1) Thylakoid Granum Inner membrane (1) Thylakoid Granum Inner membrane
(2) Thylakoid Granum Stroma lamellae (2) Thylakoid Granum Stroma lamellae
(3) Granum Thylakoid Outer membrane (3) Granum Thylakoid Outer membrane
(4) Thylakoid Stroma Stromas (4) Thylakoid Stroma Stromas
lamellae lamellae
164. In protein synthesis first amino acid in 164.
polypeptide chain is normally methionine. But if
methionine is not required in polypeptide chain
it is separated from polypeptide chain by :
(1) ATP (1) ATP
(2) Peptidase enzyme (2)
(3) Amino peptidase enzyme (3)
(4) Peptidyal transferase enzyme (4)
165. In the following figure identify A, B, C and D 165.
A, B, C
D
A C A C

B D B D

A B C D A B C D
(1) HCO
3
H2O H2O Urea (1) HCO3 H2O
(2) HCO
3
Urea H2O H2O (2) HCO3 H2O H2O
(3) H2O Glucose Urea H2O (3) H2O H2O
(4) Urea HCO3 NaCl H2O (4) HCO3 NaCl H2O
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 MAJOR TEST
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE 14022014
166. Read the following statements (A-D) 166.
(A-D)
(A) The reflex pathway comprises at least one (A)
afferent neuron and one effferent neuron
appropriately arranged in a series.
(B) The medulla of the brain is connected to the (B)
spinal cord. (C)
(C) Cerebellum has very convoluted surface in
order to provide the additional space for many
more neurons. (D)
(D) The layer of cells which covers the cerebral
hemisphere is called cerebral cortex and is
thrown into prominent folds.

How many of the above statements are true :-
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 1 (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 1
167. Nutritive layer of microsporangium is known as- 167.
:-
(1) Middle layer (2) Endothecium (1) (2)
(3) Tapetum (4) Epidermis (3) (4)
168. If a recombinant DNA bearing gene for 168.
DNA
amphicillin resistance is tansferred in to E. coli

cells and the host cells are spread on agar plates
containing amphicillin, then -
-
(1) both transformed and untransformed recipient (1)
cell will die
(2) both transformed and untransformed cells will (2)
grow
(3) Transformed recipient cell will grow and (3)
untransformed recipient cells will die
(4) Transformed recipient cell will die and (4)
untransformed recipient cells will grow
169. 169.

What is correct about = A :- A

:-
(a) Endocrine gland (a)
(b) Lymphoid organ (b)
(c) It is a part of M.A.L.T (c) M.A.L.T
(d) Maturation of T. lymphocyte and B lymphocytes (d) T-
B -
(1) a, b, d (2) b, c, d (1) a, b, d (2) b, c, d
(3) a, b, only (4) a, b, c, d (3) a, b, (4) a, b, c, d
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 MAJOR TEST
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014 14022014

170. 170.

Who plays the role of transducers in this food

chain ?
(1) Plants (2) Frog (3) Snake (4) Peacock (1) (2) (3) (4)
171. One of the combination is not matching. Identify 171.
(1) Chelone Development direct (1)
(2) Petromyzon Craniate (2)
(3) Balanoglossus Hemichordate (3)
(4) Ascaris Monoecious (4)
172. Often umbellate clusters inflorescence is found 172.
:-
in:- (1) (2)
(1) Fabaceae (2) Solanaceae
(3) Liliaceae (4) All of these (3) (4)
173. Which characters of maize plant provide resistant 173.
'
'
of 'Maize stem borer' pest :-
:-
(1) High Aspartic acid (1)
(2) High nitrogen content (2)
(3) High sugar content (3)
(4) Low carbon content (4)
174. Okazaki fragments are : 174.
:
(1) Segments of DNA capable of translation (1) DNA
(2)Segment of DNA which undergo
(2) DNA
recombination
(3)
(3) Segment of chain of nucleotides formed
during transcription
(4) Segment of chain of nucleotides formed (4)
DNA
during replication of DNA

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 MAJOR TEST
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE 14022014
175. Identify the correct match 175.
(1) PCT - 30 to 40% reabsorption (1) PCT - 30 40%
(2) Henle's loop - counter current mechanism (2)
(3) DCT - NH 4 reabsorption (3) DCT - NH 4
(4) Collecting duct - Glucose (4)
176. ______ is another specialised proced to form an 176. ______
embryo in the laboratory in which a sperm is
directly injected into the ovum.
(1) GIFT (2) ICSI (3) IUI (4) ART (1) GIFT (2) ICSI (3) IUI (4) ART
177. Pollen grain are well preserved as fossils because 177.
of the presence of :-
:-
(1) Vegetative cell (2) Germinative cell (1) (2)
(3) Sporopollenin (4) Pectin (3) (4)
178. Regulation of lac-operon by repressor is referred 178.
to as - -
(1) negative control (2) positive control (1) (2)
(3) both (1) and (2) (4) feed back regulation (3) (1) (2) (4)
179. After maturation the lymphocytes migrate 179.
____
:-
to ____:- (1) (2)
(1) Thymus (2) Lymph nodes
(3) Spleen (4) (2) & (3) both (3) (4) (2) (3)
180. Which one of the following regarding ecological 180.
pyramid is not correct ?
(1) In most ecosystems, the pyramid of number (1)
and biomass are upright
(2) In tree-dominanted ecosystem the pyramid of
(2)
number is inverted.

(3) The pyramid of energy expresses mainly the
rate of food production (3)

(4) In deep water ecosystem, the pyramid of (4)
biomass is upright.

Your moral duty

is to prove that is

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /

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