The Brachistochrone

What is the shape of a wire in a uniform gravitational field, such that a bead will
slide down the wire
from A to B, with no friction, in the least time?

1. Excerpt from Classical Mechanics 3e Goldstein, Poole, and Safko

1
If y ismeasureddownfromtheinitialpointofrelease,theenergyoftheparticlecanbewrittenas 2
mv 2 = mgy whichmeansthat v= 2gy
If y is measured down from the initial point of release, the energy of the particle

1 2
can be written as mv = mgy which means that v = 2gy
2

2 1+y 2
Thetimeoftransitbecomes t 12 = 1 dx whichcanbeintegratedtoyield
2gy

[ ]
y x + y(2a y)
= 1 cos
a a

which is sketched below for the first cycle ( 0 x 2a ) and part of the second cycle.
Catenary solution to the brachistochrone problem
showing positions on the curve for the three cases:

x 2 << y 2, x 2 = y 2, and x 2 >> y 2
2

x2
A power-series expansion of the solution for the case y << a gives y = a
2

2. Another approach goes as follows:

Since T = xx == X0
( )1+y 2 1/2
2gy
dx wecanset f(y, y ) =

1+y 2
y
where T = BA f(y, y )dx

Thecondition T = 0 givestheEulerLagrangeequation
f
y
=
d
dx ( ) f
y

df f f y f y f
Since = + + and =0 because f(y, y ) hasnoexplicit xdependence
dx x y x y x x
df f y f y f f
Wehave = + = y + y
dx y x y x y y

=y f +y f
y y
d f f
= y + y
dx y y

( ) =
d
dx
y
f
y

or
d
dx ( )
f y
f
y

f
=0 [BeltramiIdentity]

f y =C (aconstant)
y
1+y 2 y y 2 1+y 2

f f
Since f = then
= y
= = C
y y
y y ( 1 + y 2 ) y y ( 1 + y 2 )
1 y
Thisinturnmeansthat y(1 + y 2) =
C2
=A or x=
Ay
dy
 x=

y
Ay
dy [ let y=
A
2
(1 cos) ]
A 1 cos
= 2

1 + cos
sin d

A ( 1 cos ) ( 1 cos )
= 2

A

( 1 + cos ) ( 1 cos )
sin d

= 2
(1 cos) d
A
= 2
( sin)
A A
Hence x = 2
( sin) and y= 2
(1 cos)
which is the equation of a cycloid.
1+y 2

1 A

2
Itfollowsthat t = 1 dx =
2g y 2g

3. Letsuse T =
( )
2 1+y
1 2gy
2 1/2
dx orequivelently 2g T = 1
( )
2 1+y
y
2 1/2
dx

toshowthat 2g T = A where istheanglethroughwhichthe'wheel'rotates

A A
Using x = 2
( sin) and y= 2
(1 cos)
x A y A
weget
= 2
(1 cos) and
= 2
sin
dy y x sin 1+y 2 4
Thismeansthat y = dx
=

= 1 cos
andtherefore y
=
A ( 1 cos ) 2
dx
Since dx = d
d = a(1 cos)d

( ) ( )
1/2
1+y 2 2 1 A A

2
then 2g T = 1 y
dx = 0 1 cos 2
(1 cos)d = A andhence T=
A 2g

Also note that the period for the bead to slide from = 0 to = is the same as that for the
A
simple pendulum of length
2
Compare this method with that given by Eric Poisson in his 'Advanced Mechanics' notes.
In particular note how he uses a different expression for ds

4. Here is a third way which looks promising:

Set the x-axis pointing vertically down ( with g
) and the y-axis pointing to the right as
indicated from this graph which I copied from
Thornton's Classical Dynamics text.

( )
2 1/2
x=X 1+y
T = x = 0 2gx
dx

1+y 2

B
Using f(y, y ) = and T = A f(x, y )dx
y

Thecondition T = 0
dx
d
( ) f
y
=
f
y

f ( x , y ) f
y
=0 = someconstant
y
f y 1 y 2 1
Because then,followingThornton,ifyousetthisconstantto youget = 2a
y x(1+y 2) 2a x(1+y 2)
x 2a x
andconsequently y =
2a x
dx = x(2a x) 2aarcsin
x
(again:James&James,formula#183)
 Thornton, in his Classical Dynamics of Particles and Systems 5e does the following:

Integrate y=

x
2a x
dx bysetting x = a 1 c ( )

1 c
Thisyields y = a dc whichisIDENTICALtotheabove.
1 + c

Thorntonstatesthatthisgivesyou (
y = a + s ) whichistheshapeofaCYCLOID
ax
whichcanbewrittenas y = aarccos
a
+ 2ax x2
a
Thissomehowimpliesthatthetimeoftransitisgivenby T=
g

Iwilladdthatthisresultisindependentofstartingpoint.
which explain why the BRACHISTOCHRONE is also known as the TAUTOCHRONE ( cf RED Math Doodles p174, 190 )
I understand the TAUTOCHRONE part from the point of view of the simple pendulum which has
constant period REGARDLESS of its amplitude.
However, I need to continue my exploration of this problem, and later the pendulum ( TAUTOCHRONE
) for amplitudes larger than 5
I have notes in some booklets which I did some 37 years ago - where I comfortably did these
calculuation!

5. Using the graph at the top of the page, where y points down along with g and x
points to the right.

2 2 1+y 2
T = 1 f(y, y )dx = 1 dx
y

2
T = 0 = 1 f(y, y )dx = 1
2
[ f
y
y +
f
y
y dx
]
2 f
1
y
y dx = 1
2 f
y
() dy
dx
dx (nowuse dx dx =
dy dy
dx
dx = dy)

= 1
2 f
y
dy = y
f
y
2
| 1 1 yd
2 f
y
2
= 1 y dx
d
( )
f
y

whichgivestheEulerLagrangeEquation y
f
=
d
dx ( )
f
y

whichinturnyieldstheODE 2yy + y 2 + 1 = 0
dp
ThisODEdoesnotcontain x sowedothestandardsubstitution y = p, y = dy
p (Butkov,"MathematicalPhysics",page559)
dp 2 d ( p2 + 1 ) dy
= + =0 or ln1 + p 2 + lny = c
p2 + 1 p2 + 1 y
y
whichmeansthat

k
y(1 + y 2) = k hence dx =
ky
dy

If y = 2
(1 cos) then x = 2k sin 2 d ( = 2)
2
= k 2sin d (nowuse 2sin 2 = 1 cos)
k k
= k (1 cos)d 2 = 2
(1 cos)d = 2
( sin)
1 1
x= 2
k( sin) and y= 2
k(1 cos)

1 1+y 2 k

2
Thismeansthat t= 1 dx = 2g

2g y