CHAPATER 2 EQUIPMENT, NAVIGATION, FACILITIES

INOPERATIVE EQUIPMENT

1. An approved minimum equipment list or FAA Letter of Authorization allows certain instruments or equipment
to be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft if
prescribed procedures are followed.
(MEL) and the letter of authorization constitute a supplemental type certificate for the aircraft. The approved
MEL must provide for the operation of the aircraft with the instruments and equipment in an inoperable
condition.

2. What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled
airspace under IFR?
Report the malfunction immediately to ATC
The pilot-in-command of an aircraft operating IFR in controlled airspace shall report to ATC as soon as practical
any malfunction of navigational, approach or communication equipment that occurs in flight.

3. What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace?
Notify ATC immediately.
The pilot-in-command of an aircraft operating IFR in controlled airspace shall report to ATC as soon as practical
any malfunction of navigational, approach or communication equipment that occurs in flight.

4. While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the
pilot-in-command follow?
Advise ATC immediately
The pilot-in-command of an aircraft operating IFR in controlled airspace shall report to ATC as soon as practical
any malfunction of navigational, approach or communication equipment that occurs in flight.

5. While flying in controlled airspace under IFR, the ADF fails. What action is required?
Notify ATC immediately.
The pilot-in-command of an aircraft operating IFR in controlled airspace shall report to ATC as soon as practical
any malfunction of navigational, approach or communication equipment that occurs in flight.

6. If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative, which document dictates whether the
flight may continue en route?
Certificate holder's manual.
Each certificate holder's manual must contain enroute flight, navigation, and communication procedures for the
dispatch, release or continuance of flight if any item of equipment required for the particular type of operation
becomes inoperative or unserviceable en route.

PITOT STATIC INSTRUMENTS

1. Which pressure is defined as station pressure?

Actual pressure at field elevation.
The pressure measured at a station or airport is 'station pressure' or the actual pressure at field elevation

2. What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)?

Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard.
True altitude is indicated altitude corrected for the fact that nonstandard temperatures will result in
nonstandard pressure lapse rates.
3. When setting the altimeter, pilots should disregard
effects of nonstandard atmospheric temperatures and pressures.
Pilots should disregard the effect of nonstandard atmospheric temperatures and pressures except that low
temperatures and pressures need to be considered for terrain clearance purposes.

4. If the ambient temperature is colder than standard at FL310, what is the relationship between true altitude and
pressure altitude?
True altitude is lower than 31,000 feet.
True altitude is indicated altitude corrected for the fact that nonstandard temperatures will result in
nonstandard pressure lapse rates. In warm air, you fly at a true altitude higher than indicated. In cold air, you fly
at a true altitude lower than indicated. Pressure altitude is the altitude indicated when the altimeter is set to the
standard sea level pressure (29.92" Hg). In the United States, altimeters are always set to 29.92" Hg at and
above 18,000 feet. This question assumes the difference between the pressure altitude and the indicated
altitude (local altimeter setting) is not significant enough to reverse the effects of the temperature.

5. When the temperature is -20C at 15,000 feet indicated, you know that
the altimeter is indicating higher than true altitude.
The ISA for 15,000 feet is -15C. When the temperature is colder than standard the altimeter will indicate higher
than true altitude.

6. If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at FL350, what is the density altitude compared to pressure
altitude?
Higher than pressure altitude.
Pressure altitude is the altitude indicated when the altimeter is set to the standard sea level pressure (29.92"
Hg). Density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature. A warmer than standard
temperature will result in a density altitude higher than the pressure altitude.

7. Given:
Pressure altitude 1,000 ft
True air temperature 10C
From the conditions given, the approximate density altitude is
650 feet MSL.
Using an E6B flight computer, refer to the right-hand 'Density Altitude' window. Note that the scale above the
window is labeled air temperature (C). The scale inside the window itself is labeled pressure altitude (in
thousands of feet). Rotate the disc and place the pressure altitude of 1,000 feet opposite an air temperature of
10C.
The density altitude shown in the window is 650 feet. You can also answer this using an electronic flight
computer, such as the CX-2.
8. En route at FL270, the altimeter is set correctly. On descent, a pilot fails to set the local altimeter setting of
30.57. If the field elevation is 650 feet, and the altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate upon
landing?
Sea level.
One inch of Hg pressure is equal to about 1,000 feet of altitude. In the United States, altimeters are always set to
29.92" Hg at and above 18,000 feet. If the altimeter is not reset when descending into an area with a local
altimeter setting of 30.57" Hg, an error of 650 feet will result (30.57 - 29.92 = .65 = 650 feet). If the altimeter is
set lower than the actual setting, it will read lower than the actual altitude.

9. During an en route descent in a fixed-thrust and fixed-pitch attitude configuration, both the ram air input and
drain hole of the pitot system become completely blocked by ice. What airspeed indication can be expected?
Decrease in indicated airspeed.
If both the ram air input and the drain hole are blocked, the pressure trapped in the pitot line cannot change
and the airspeed indicator may react as an altimeter. The airspeed will not change in level flight even when
 actual airspeed is varied by large power changes. During a climb the airspeed indication will increase. During a
descent the airspeed indication will decrease

10. What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice?
The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter.
If both the ram air input and the drain hole are blocked, the pressure trapped in the pitot line cannot change
and the airspeed indicator may react as an altimeter. The airspeed will not change in level flight even when
actual airspeed is varied by large power changes. During a climb the airspeed indication will increase. During a
descent the airspeed indication will decrease.

11. If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice, what airspeed indication can be
expected?
No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power
changes are made.
If both the ram air input and the drain hole are blocked, the pressure trapped in the pitot line cannot change
and the airspeed indicator may react as an altimeter. The airspeed will not change in level flight even when
actual airspeed is varied by large power changes. During a climb the airspeed indication will increase. During a
descent the airspeed indication will decrease.

12. How will the airspeed indicator react if the ram air input to the pitot head is blocked by ice, but the drain hole
and static port are not?
Indication will drop to zero.
If the pitot tube becomes blocked but pressure is not trapped in the pitot lines, the indicated airspeed will drop
to zero since the pitot pressure will be approximately equal to the static pressure.

SAFETY OF FLIGHT EQUIPMENT

1. Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining
possible causes of accidents or incidents.
Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders is used to assist in determining the cause of
accidents or occurrences in connection with investigation under NTSB Part 830. The Administrator does not use
the cockpit voice recorder record in any civil penalty or certificate action.

2. For what purpose may cockpit voice recorders and flight data recorders NOT be used?
Determining any certificate action, or civil penalty, arising out of an accident or
occurrence.
Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders is used to assist in determining the cause of
accidents or occurrences in connection with investigation under NTSB Part 830. The Administrator does not use
the cockpit voice recorder record in any civil penalty or certificate action.

3. How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept, in the event of an accident or occurrence
resulting in terminating the flight?
60 days.
In the event of an accident or occurrence requiring immediate notification to NTSB Part 830, and that results in
the termination of a flight, any operator who has installed approved flight recorders and approved cockpit voice
recorders shall keep the recorded information for at least 60 days.

4. Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS II, resolution advisory (RA) is expected to
notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable.
Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS II RA shall notify ATC of that deviation as
soon as practicable and expeditiously return to the current ATC clearance when the traffic conflict is resolved.
5. TCAS I provides
proximity warning.
TCAS I provides proximity warning only, to assist the pilot in the visual acquisition of intruder aircraft.
No recommended avoidance maneuvers are provided nor authorized as a result of a TCAS I warning.

6. TCAS II provides
traffic and resolution advisories.
TCAS II provides traffic advisories (TAs) and resolution advisories (RAs).

7. With no traffic identified by TCAS, you

must continually scan for other traffic in visual conditions.
Traffic data systems are designed to enhance "see and avoid" capabilities. Do not use traffic data
systems as a substitute for visual scanning and acquisition of surrounding traffic.

8. Each pilot, who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory, is expected to notify
ATC and
expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory, after
the conflict is resolved.
Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS II RA shall notify ATC of that
deviation as soon as practicable and expeditiously return to the current ATC clearance when the traffic
conflict is resolved.

9. With no traffic identified by TCAS when in 10 miles of visibility, you

must continually scan for other traffic.
TCAS does not alter or diminish the pilot's basic authority and responsibility to ensure safe flight. Since
TCAS does not respond to aircraft that are not transponder-equipped or aircraft with a transponder
failure, TCAS alone does not ensure safe separation in every case.

10. If an air carrier airplane's airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the
proposed route of flight, an airplane may be dispatched only
in day VFR conditions.
No person may dispatch an airplane under IFR or night VFR conditions when current weather reports
indicate that thunderstorms, or other potentially hazardous weather conditions that can be detected
with airborne weather radar, may reasonably be expected along the route to be flown, unless the
weather radar is in satisfactory operating condition.

11. An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch, if
the flight will be
conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en
route.
No person may dispatch an airplane under IFR or night VFR conditions when current weather reports
indicate that thunderstorms, or other potentially hazardous weather conditions that can be detected
with airborne weather radar, may reasonably be expected along the route to be flown, unless the
weather radar is in satisfactory operating condition.

12. What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne
weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate
possible thunderstorms?
 Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in
the operations manual for such an event.
No person may dispatch an airplane under IFR or night VFR conditions when current weather reports
indicate that thunderstorms, or other potentially hazardous weather conditions that can be detected
with airborne weather radar, may reasonably be expected along the route to be flown, unless the
weather radar is in satisfactory operating condition. If the airborne radar becomes inoperative en
route, the airplane must be operated in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures
specified in the operations manual for such an event.

13. Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation
alerting system?
All turbine powered airplanes.
No person may operate a turbine-powered airplane unless it is equipped with a ground proximity
warning/glide slope deviation alerting system.

14. Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large pressurized
airplane with four reciprocating engines
may all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes.
When a cockpit voice recorder is required on an airplane, it must be operated continuously from the
start of the use of the checklist (before starting engines for the purpose of flight), to completion of the
final checklist at the termination of flight. Information recorded more than 30 minutes earlier may be
erased or otherwise obliterated.

15. Which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature?
Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased.
When a cockpit voice recorder is required on an airplane, it must be operated continuously from the
start of the use of the checklist (before starting engines for the purpose of flight), to completion of the
final checklist at the termination of flight. Information recorded more than 30 minutes earlier may be
erased or otherwise obliterated.

16. A cockpit voice recorder must be operated

from the start of the before starting engine checklist to completion of final
checklist upon termination of flight.
When a cockpit voice recorder is required on an airplane, it must be operated continuously from the
start of the use of the checklist (before starting engines for the purpose of flight), to completion of the
final checklist at the termination of flight. Information recorded more than 30 minutes earlier may be
erased or otherwise obliterated.

For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system,

a total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing
may be erased.
A total of 1 hour of recorded data may be erased for the purpose of testing a flight recorder or flight
recorder system. Any erasure must be of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing.

COMUNICATIONS
1. ATC asks you to follow the B737 3 NM ahead of you on the approach path. ATC is responsible to ensure
traffic separation only.
A pilot's acceptance of instructions to follow another aircraft or provide visual separation from it is an
acknowledgment that the pilot will maneuver the aircraft as necessary to avoid the other aircraft or to maintain
 in-trail separation. In operations conducted behind heavy jet aircraft, it is also an acknowledgment that the pilot
accepts the responsibility for wake turbulence separation.

2. The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Services Data Link (FISDL) is designed to provide data
on a common frequency to flight crews from
17,000 feet MSL down to 5,000 feet AGL.
Aeronautical weather and operational information may be displayed in the cockpit through the use of FISDL, and
is designed to provide coverage throughout the continental U.S. from 5,000 feet AGL to 17,500 feet MSL, except
in those areas where this is unfeasible due to mountainous terrain.

3. The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides the following
products:
METARS, SIGMETS, PIREP'S, and AIRMETS.
FAA FISDL provides, free of charge, the following basic products: METARs, SPECIs, TAFs and their amendments,
SIGMETs, Convective SIGMETs, AIRMETs, PIREPs and, AWWs issued by the FAA or NWS.

4. The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) products, such as ground radar
precipitation maps,
are not appropriate for finding a path through a weather hazard area.
FISDL products, such as ground-based radar precipitation maps, are not appropriate for use in tactical severe
weather avoidance, such as negotiating a path through a weather hazard area (an area where a pilot cannot
reliably divert around hazardous weather, such as a broken line of thunderstorms). FISDL supports strategic
weather decision making such as route selection to avoid a weather hazard area in its entirety. The misuse of
information beyond its applicability may place the pilot and his/her aircraft in great jeopardy. In addition, FISDL
should never be used in lieu of an individual preflight weather and flight planning briefing.

5. Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal
conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight?
Appropriate dispatch office.
Each domestic and flag air carrier must show that a two-way air/ground radio communications system is
available at points that will ensure reliable and rapid communications, under normal operating conditions over
the entire route (either direct or via approved point to point circuits) between each airplane and the appropriate
dispatch office, and between each airplane and the appropriate air traffic control unit.

6. When should transponders be operated on the ground during taxiing?

All the time when at an airport with ASDE-X.
If operating at an airport with Airport Surface Detection Equipment - Model X (ASDE-X), transponders should be
transmitting "on" with altitude reporting continuously while moving on the airport surface if so equipped.

7. If you notice ATC is unusually quiet and one of your VHF transmit lights is illuminated, then you should suspect
your VHF transmitter is keyed and you probably have a stuck microphone.
If radio communications are unusually quiet, suspect radio problems or a stuck microphone, and then contact
ATC and look for light gun signals.

8. When taxiing on an airport with ASDE-X, you should

operate the transponder with altitude reporting all of the time during
taxiing
If operating at an airport with Airport Surface Detection Equipment - Model X (ASDE-X), transponders should be
transmitting "on" with altitude reporting continuously while moving on the airport surface if so equipped.

9. Below FL180, en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on

122.0 MHZ
Enroute weather can be obtained on 122.0 MHz.
APPROACH LIGHITING

1. The higher glide slope of the three-bar VASI is intended for use by

high cockpit aircraft.

Three-bar VASI installations provide two visual glidepaths. The lower glidepath is provided by the near and middle bars
and is normally set at 3 while the upper glidepath, provided by the middle and far bars is normally 1/4 higher. This
higher glidepath is intended for use only by high cockpit aircraft to provide a sufficient threshold crossing height.

2. What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI?

A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft.
Three-bar VASI installations provide two visual glidepaths. The lower glidepath is provided by the near and middle bars
and is normally set at 3 while the upper glidepath, provided by the middle and far bars is normally 1/4 higher. This
higher glidepath is intended for use only by high cockpit aircraft to provide a sufficient threshold crossing height.

3. What does the Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of?
Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway; red and white.
The Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) uses light units similar to the VASI but are installed in a single row of either
two- or four-light units.

4. What are the indications of the pulsating VASI?

High - pulsing white, on glidepath - steady white, slightly below glide slope
steady red, low - pulsing red.
Pulsating visual approach slope indicators normally consist of a single light unit projecting a two-color visual approach
path into the final approach area of the runway upon which the indicator is installed. The below glidepath indication is
normally pulsating red, and the above glidepath indication is normally pulsating white. The on glidepath indication for
one type of system is a steady white light, while for another type system the on glidepath indication consists of an
alternating red and white.

5. A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeper-than-normal VASI glide slope angle
may result in
increased landing rollout.
Although normal VASI glidepath angle are 3, angles at some locations may be as high as 4.5 to give proper obstacle
clearance. Pilots of high performance aircraft are cautioned that use of VASI angles in excess of 3.5 may cause an
increase in runway length required for landing and rollout.

6. What are the indications of Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)?

High - white, on glidepath - red and white; low - red.
The Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) uses light units similar to the VASI but are installed in a single row of either
two or four light units:
High: 4 white lights
Slightly high: 1 red, 3 white lights
On glide path: 2 red, 2 white lights
Slightly low: 1 white, 3 red lights
 7. What does the pulsating VASI consist of?
One-light projector, pulsing white when above glide slope or red when more than
slightly below glide slope, steady white when on glide slope, steady red for
slightly below glide path. One-light projector, pulsing white when above glide
slope or red when more than slightly below glide slope, steady white when on
glide slope, steady red for slightly below glide path.
Pulsating visual approach slope indicators normally consist of a single light unit projecting a two-color visual approach
path into the final approach area of the runway upon which the indicator is installed. The below glidepath indication is
normally pulsating red, and the above glidepath indication is normally pulsating white. The on glidepath indication for
one type of system is a steady white light, while for another type system, the on glidepath indication consists of an
alternating red and white.

8. Lights which indicate the runway is occupied are

flashing PAPIs.
The standalone final approach runway occupancy signal (FAROS) is a fully automated system that provides runway
occupancy status to pilots on final approach to indicate whether it may be unsafe to land. When an aircraft or vehicle is
detected on the runway, the precision approach path indictor (PAPI) light fixtures flash as a signal to indicate the runway
is occupied and that it may be unsafe to land.

9. A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered aircraft on a runway served by a VASI shall

maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is
necessary for a safe landing.
An airplane approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI), shall maintain an
altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.

NAVIGATION EQUIPMENT

What would be the identification when a VORTAC is undergoing routine maintenance and is considered unreliable?
The identifier would be removed.
During periods of routine or emergency maintenance, coded identification (or code and voice, where applicable) is
removed from certain FAA NAVAIDs. During periods of maintenance, VHF ranges may radiate a T-E-S-T code.
Which indication may be received when a VOR is undergoing maintenance and is considered unreliable?
Coded identification T-E-S-T.
During periods of routine or emergency maintenance, coded identification (or code and voice, where applicable) is
removed from certain FAA NAVAIDs. During periods of maintenance, VHF ranges may radiate a T-E-S-T code.
What is the maximum permissible variation between the two bearing indicators on a dual VOR system when checking
one VOR against the other?
4 on the ground and in flight.
If a dual system VOR (units independent of each other except for the antenna) is installed in the aircraft, the person
checking the equipment may check one system against the other. The maximum permissible variation between the two
indicated bearings is 4.
During a VOT check of the VOR equipment, the course deviation indicator centers on 356 with the TO/FROM reading
FROM. This VOR equipment may
be used during IFR flights, since the error is within limits.
With the course deviation indicator (CDI) centered, the omni-bearing selector should read 0 (4) with the TO/FROM
indicator showing FROM or 180 (4) with the TO/FROM indicator showing TO.
If an airborne checkpoint is used to check the VOR system for IFR operations, the maximum bearing error permissible is
plus or minus 6.

If neither a VOT nor a designated ground checkpoint is available, a pilot may use a designated airborne checkpoint for
the VOR check. The maximum permissible bearing error is 6

Which entry shall be recorded by the person performing a VOR operational check?