NEET | 02.07.

2017

COMBINED TEST 1 (P, C, B)

COMBINED TEST 1 (P, C, B)

Time: 3 hrs
Part A (Physics)
1. A particle starts from rest and moves with an acceleration of a = {2 +| t 2|}
m/s2, the velocity of the particle at t = 4 sec is
(1) 2m/s (2) 4 m/s (3) zero (4) 12m/s
2. A car accelerates from rest with a constant acceleration on a straight road. After
gaining a velocity v1 the car moves with the same velocity for some-time. Then the
car decelerated to rest with a retardation . If the total distance covered by the car
is equal to S, the total time taken for its motion is
S v 1 1 S v v v v S v v v
+ + + + + - +
(1) v 2 (2) v (3) (4) v 2
3. A person throws vertically n balls per second with the same velocity. He throws a
ball whenever the previous one is at its highest point. The height to which the
balls rise is
(1) g/n2 (2) 2gn (3) g/2n2 (4) 2gn2
4. The graph shown illustrates velocity versus time for two cars A and B constrained
to move in a straight line. Both cars were at the same position at t = 0s. Consider
the following statements.
(1) Car A is travelling west and Car B is travelling east.
(2) Car A overtakes Car B at t = 5s.
(3) Car A overtakes Car B at t = 10s

Which of the following is correct?

(1) only statement 1 is true (2) only statement 2 is true
(3) only statement 3 is true (4) only statements 1 and 2 are true
5. A body A begins to move with initial velocity 2 m/sec and continues to move at a
constant acceleration a. t = 10 seconds after the body A begins to move a body
B departs from the same point with an initial velocity 12 m/sec and moves with
the same acceleration a. What is the maximum acceleration a at which the body B
can overtake A?
(1) 1 m/s2 (2) 2 m/s2 (3) 1/2 m/s2 (4) 3 m/s2
6. A man travelling in a car with a maximum constant speed of 20m/s watches the
friend start off at a distance 100m ahead on a motor cycle with constant
acceleration a. The maximum value of a for which the main in the car can reach
his friend is

(1) 2 m/s2 (2) 1m/s2 (3) 4 m/s2 (4) none of these

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7. The acceleration versus time graph for a particle moving along a straight line is
shown in the figure. If the particle starts from rest at t = 0, then its speed at t = 30
sec will be

(1) 20 m/sec (2) 0 m/sec (3) -40 m/sec (4) 40 m/sec

8. A body is at rest at x = 0. At t = 0, it starts moving in the positive x-direction with
a constant acceleration. At the same instant another body passes through x = 0
moving in the positive x-direction with a constant speed. The position of the first
body is given by x 1(t) after time t; and that of the second body by x 2(t) after t the
same time interval. Which of the following graphs correctly describes (x 1 x2) as a
function of time t?

9. In 1.0 sec. a particle goes from point A to point B moving in a

semicircle of radius 1.0 m. The magnitude of average velocity is :

(1) 3.14 m/sec (2) 2.0 m/sec (3) 1.0 m/sec

(4)zero
10.A ball is dropped vertically from a height d above the ground it hits the ground and
bounces up vertically to a height d/2. Neglecting subsequent motion and air
resistances, its velocity v varies with the height h above the ground as

(1) (2) (3) (4)

11.A particle starts from rest. Its acceleration (a) versus time (t) is as shown in
the figure. The maximum speed of the particle will be

(1) 110 m/s (2) 55 m/s (3) 550 m/s (4) 660 m/s
12.A small block slides without friction down an inclined plane starting from rest. Let
Sn be the distance travelled from time t = n - 1 to t = n. Then is
2n - 1 2n + 1 2n - 1 2n
(1) 2n (2) 2n - 1 (3) 2n + 1 (4) 2n + 1

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13.The velocity displacement graph of a particle moving along a straight line is

shown. The most suitable acceleration-displacement graph will
be

(1) (2) (3) (4)

14.A particle is projected vertically upwards from a point A on the ground. It takes t 1
time to reach a point B but it still continues to move up. If it takes further t 2 time
to reach the ground from point B then height of point B from the ground is
1 1 1
g ( t1 + t 2 ) 2 g ( t1 + t 2 ) 2
(1) 2 (2) g t1 t2 (3) 8 (4) 2 gt1t2
15.A particle starts moving rectilinearly at time t = 0 such that its velocity 'v' changes
with time 't' according to the equation v = t 2 t where t is in seconds and v is in
m/s. The time interval for which the particle retards is
(1) t < 1/2 (2) 1/2 < t < 1 (3) t > 1 (4) t < 1/2 and t
>1
16.An object is tossed vertically into the air with an initial velocity of 8 m/s. Using the
sign convention upwards as positive, how does the vertical component of the
acceleration ay of the object (after leaving the hand) vary during the flight of the
object?
(1) On the way up ay > 0, on the way down ay > 0
(2) On the way up ay < 0, on the way down ay > 0
(3) On the way up ay > 0, on the way down ay < 0
(4) On the way up ay < 0, on the way down ay < 0
17.The greatest acceleration or deceleration that a train may have is a. The minimum
time in which the train may reach from one station to the other separated by a
distance d is
d 2d 1 d d
2
(1) a (2) a (3) 2 a
(4) a
18.Acceleration versus velocity graph of a particle moving in a straight line starting
from rest is as shown in figure. The corresponding velocity-time graph would be

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(1) (2) (3) (4)

19.A boat having a speed of 5 km/hr. in still water, crosses a river of width 1 km along
the shortest possible path in 15 minutes. The speed of the river in Km/hr.
(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 41
2
20.A car accelerates from rest at constant rate of 2 m/s for some time. Then its
retards at a constant rate of 4 m/s 2 and comes to rest. What is the maximum
speed attained by the car if it remains in motion for 3 seconds
(1) 2 m/s (2) 3 m/s
(3) 4 m/s (4) 6 m/s
21.A particle is projected vertically upwards and it attains maximum height H. If the
ratio of times to attain height h(h < H) is 1/3, then h equals
(1) 2/3. H (2) 3/ 4. H
(3) 4/3 . H (4) 3/2. H
22.The acceleration-time graph of a particle
moving along a straight line is as shown in
figure. At what time the particle acquires its
initial velocity?
(1) 12 sec. (2) 5
sec.
(3) 8 sec. (4) 16
sec.

23.What are the speeds of two objects if they move uniformly towards each other,
they get 4m closer in each second and if they move uniformly in the same
direction with the original speeds they get 4m closer in each 10 sec ?
(1) 2.8 m/s and 1.2 m/s (2) 5.2 m/s and 4.6 m/s
(3) 3.2 m/s and 2.1 m/s (4) 2.2 m/s and 1.8 m/s
24.From the top of a tower, a stone is thrown up. It reaches the ground in 5 sec.
A second stone is thrown down with the same speed and reaches the ground in
1sec. A third stone is released from rest and reaches the ground in
(1) 3 sec. (2) 2 sec.
(3) 5 sec. (4) 2.5 sec.
25.A balloon starts rising from the ground with an acceleration of 1.25 m/s 2. After
8 seconds, a stone is released from the balloon. After releasing, the stone will
(1) cover a distance of 40 m till it strikes the ground.
(2) have a displacement of 50 m till it reaches the ground
(3) reach the ground in 4 seconds.
(4) begin to move down instantaneously
26.The frequency of vibration f of a mass m suspended from a spring of spring
constant k is given by relation of the type f=cmx ky, where c is a dimensionless
constant. The values of x and y are
(1) , (2) , (3) , - (4) ,
Planck ' s Cons tan t
?
27.What is the dimensional formula of Linear momentum

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(1) [M0L0T0] (2) [M0L0T] (3) [M0LT0] (4) [MLT-1]

ky
U=
28.What is the unit of k in the relation? y + a 2 Where U represents the potential
2

energy, y represents the displacement and a represents the maximum

displacement i.e., amplitude?
(1) ms-1 (2) ms (3) Jm (4) Js-1
29.Force F is given in terms of time t and distance x by F=a sin ct+b cos dx. Then the
a c
and
dimensions of b d are given by
(1) [MLT-2, M0L0T-1] (2) [MLT-2, M0L-1T0]
0 0 0 0 -1 -1
(3) [M L T , M L T ] (4) [M0 L1 T-1, M0L0T0]
30.The dimensional formula of current density is
(1) [M0L-2T-1Q] (2) [M0L1T1Q-1] (3) [MLT-1Q] (4) [ML-2T-1Q]
31.Which of the following pairs have same dimensional formula for both the
quantities?
(i) Kinetic energy and torque (ii) Resistance and Inductance
(iii)Youngs modulus and pressure
(1) (i) only (2) (ii) only (3) (i) and (iii) only (4) All the three

32.A new unit of length is chosen such that the speed of light in vacuum is unity. The
distance between the sun and the earth in terms of the new unit if light takes 8 min
and 20 s to cover this distance is
(1) 300 (2) 500 (3) 600 (4) 800
33.The mass of a box measured by a grocers balance is 2.3 kg. Two gold pieces of
masses 20.15 g and 20.17 g are added to the box. What is (i) the total mass of the
box and (ii) the difference in the masses of the pieces to correct significant figures?
(1) 2.34 kg, 0 g (2) 2.3 kg, 0.02 g (3) 2.34 g, 0.02 g (4) 2.3 kg, 0 g
34.A book with many printing errors contains four different formulae for the
displacement y of a particle undergoing a certain periodic motion. Rule out the
wrong formula on dimensional ground. (a=maximum displacement of the particle,
v=speed of the particle, T=time period of motion)
t a t
y = a sin 2p y= sin
(1) T (2) T a
vt t 2p t

y = a sin y = a 2 sin 2p + cos
(3) a (4) T T
g RT
v=
35.The speed of sound in a gas is given by M where the letters have usual
meanings. The dimensional formula of is
(1) [M0L0T0] (2) [MLT] (3) [MLT-2] (4) [M0L0T-1]
36.If C denotes the capacitance and L denotes the inductance, then the dimensional
formula of LC is
(1) [M0L0T2] (2) [M1L0T2] (3) [M1L1T2] (4) [M0L1T2]
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COMBINED TEST 1 (P, C, B)

37.Consider a new system of units in which c (speed of light in vaccum), h (Planks

constant) and G (gravitational constant) are taken as fundamental units. Which of
the following would correctly represent mass in this new system?
hc Gc hG
(1) G (2) h (3) (4) hGc
c
38. A rectangular beam which is supported at its two ends and loaded in the middle
Wl 3
g=
with weight W sags by an amount such that 4Yd 3 where l, d and Y represent
length, depth and elasticity respectively. Guess the unknown factor using
dimensional considerations.
(1) Breadth (2) (breadth)2 (3) (breadth)3 (4) mass
39.The dimensional formula of self-inductance is
(1) [MLT-2] (2) [ML2T-1A-2] (3) [ML2T-2A-2] (4) [ML2T-2A-1]
40.If time T, acceleration A and force F are regarded as base units, then the
dimensional formula of work is
(1) [FA] (2) FAT (3) [FAT2] (4) [FA2T]
a m .b n
x= ,
41.Statement 1: If c p .d q then the percentage error in the measurement of x,
x a b c d
= m + n + p + q .
x a b c d
Statement 2: The above is true for all values of a, b, c and d.
(1) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false.
(2) Statement 1 is false, statement 2 is true.
(3) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true and statement 2 is a correct
explanation for statement 1.
(4) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true but statement 2 is not a correct
explanation for statement 1.
42.Suppose a quantity y can be dimensionally represented in terms of M, L and T, that
is [y]=[Ma Lb Tc] then M
(1) May be represented in terms of L, T and y is a = 0.
(2) May be represented in terms of L, T and y is a 0.
(3) Can always be dimensionally represented in terms of L, T and y.
(4) Can never be dimensionally represented in terms of L, T and y.
43.In the equation X=3 YZ2, X and Z have dimensions of capacitance and magnetic
induction respectively. In MKS system, the dimensional formula of Y is
(1) [M-3 L-2 T-2 Q-4] (2) [ML-2] (3) [M-3L-2Q4T8] (4) [M-3L-2Q4T4]
x
y = A sin w - k
,
44.The equation of a wave is given by v where w is the angular
velocity and v is the linear velocity. The dimensional formula of k is
(1) [LT] (2) [T] (3) [T-1] (4) [T2]

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COMBINED TEST 1 (P, C, B)

45.The velocity v of water waves may depend on their wavelength (), the density of
water () and the acceleration due to gravity (g). The method of dimensions given
the relation between these quantities as
(1) v2 -1 -1 (2) v2 g (3) v2 g (4) g-1 3

Part B (Chemistry)
46. Photoelectric effect is maximum in
(1) Cs (2) Na (3) K (4) Li
47. The metallic luster exhibited by sodium is explained by
(1) Diffusion of sodium ions (2) Oscillation of loose electrons
(3) Excitation of free electrons (4) Existence of body centred cubic
lattice
48. Aqueous NaCl solution is electrolysed using platinum electrodes. What is the
product formed at cathode?
(1) Na (2) H2 (3) Cl2 (4) O2
49. The by-product of Solvay ammonia process is
(1) Carbon dioxide (2) ammonia (3) calcium chloride (4) calcium carbonate
50. The correct order of solubility of the sulphates of alkaline earth metals in water
is
(1) Be > Ca > Mg > Ba > Sr (2) Mg > Be > Ba > Ca > Sr
(3) Be > Mg > Ca > Sr > Ba (4) Mg > Ca > Ba > Be > Sr
51. The following compounds have been arranged in order of their
increasing thermal stabilities. Identify the correct order. K 2CO3 (I), MgCO3 (II),
CaCO3 (III), BeCO3 (IV)
(1) I < II < III < IV (2) IV < II < III < I (3) IV < II < I < III (4) II < IV < III < I
52. Which of the following is only acidic in nature?
(1) Be (OH)2 (2) Mg (OH)2 (3) B (OH)3 (4) Al (OH)3
53. Gypsum on heating to 390 K gives
(1) CaSO4.2H2O (2) CaSO4 (3) CaSO4. H2O (4) SO3 and CaO

54. The active constituent of bleaching powder is

(1) Ca(OCl)2 (2) Ca(OCl)Cl (3) Ca(ClO2)2 (4) Ca(ClO2)Cl
55. A solid compound X on heating gives CO2 gas and a residue.
The residue mixed with water forms Y. On passing an excess of CO 2 through Y in
water, a clear solution, Z, is reformed. The compound X is
(1) K2CO3 (2) Ca(HCO3)2 (3) CaCO3 (4) Na2CO3
56. Based on lattice energy and other considerations which one of
the following alkali metal chlorides is expected to have the highest melting point?
(1) KCl (2) RbCl (3) LiCl (4) NaCl
57. The alkali halide that is soluble in pyridine is
(1) NaCl (2) LiCl (3) KCl (4) CsI
58. Property of the alkaline earth metals that increase with their atomic number.
(1) Electro negativity (2) solubility of their
hydroxides in water
(3) solubility of their sulphates is water (4) ionization energy
59. Statement 1: Li resembles Mg in its chemical properties.
Statement 2: Li2+ has same size has Mg2+.

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COMBINED TEST 1 (P, C, B)

(1) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is correct

explanation for statement 1.
(2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is NOT a correct
explanation for statement 1.
(3) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is False.
(4) Statement 1 is False, Statement 2 is True.
60. Statement 1: K2CO3 cannot be prepared by Solvay process.
Statement 2: KHCO3 being fairly soluble does not precipitate out in carbonation
tower.
(1) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is correct
explanation for statement 1.
(2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is NOT a correct
explanation for statement 1.
(3) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is False.
(4) Statement 1 is False, Statement 2 is True.
61. In a face centered cubic arrangement of A and B atoms, where A atoms are
at the corners of the unit cell and B atoms at the face-centers, one of the A atoms
is missing from one corner in each unit cell. What is the simplest formula of the
compound?
(1) AB (2) A3B4 (3)AB2 (4)A7B24
62. Suppose a is the axial length of the body centered cubic unit cell, then the
distance between nearest neighbours is
a a 2 3
a a
(1) 2 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 2
63. Lithium crystallizes in a body-centered cubic lattice of unit cell length 352
pm. The distance between nearest neighbours is
(1) 150 pm (2) 609 pm (3) 305 pm (4) 197 pm

64. A compound of A and B crystallizes in a cubic lattice in which A atoms

occupy the lattice points at the corners of a cube and two atoms of B occupy the
corners of each of the cube faces. What is the formula of this compound?
(1) AB3 (2) AB4 (3) AB2 (4) AB6
65. The two principal types of stacking of closest-packed layers in metallic
structures are called
(1) Body centered cubic packing and hexagonal close packing
(2) Square based cubic packing and cubic close packing
(3) Hexagonal close packing and cubic close packing
(4) Cubic close packing and body centered cubic packing
66. In cubic close packing, what fraction of the total volume is occupied by the
atoms?
(1) 52.4 % (2) 74.0 % (3) 47.6 % (4) 68 %
67. Packing fraction (fraction of volume occupied)
(1) Depends on the radius of the spheres
(2) Depends only on the nature of packing
(3) Depends both on the radius of the sphere and the nature of the packing
(4) Is independent of the nature of the packing
68. In a compound oxide ions have hexagonal close packing arrangement and
cations M occupy two-third octahedral voids. The formula of the compound is
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(1) M3O (2) M3O2 (3) M2O3 (4) M3O4

69. An element (Molar mass=60 g mol -1) crystallizes in a f.c.c. with a unit cell
length of 400 pm. The density of an element (in g cm -3) is
(1) 6.25 (2) 3.13 (3) 12.5 (4) 1.56
70. If the radii of A+ and B- are 95 pm and 181 pm respectively, then the
coordination number of A+ will be
(1) 12 (2) 8 (3) 6 (4) 4
71. Which of the following defects lowers the density of solids?
(1) Schottky defect (2) Frenkel defect (3) F-center (4) Interstitial defect
72. Solids in which the dipoles may align themselves in an ordered manner, so
that there is a net dipole moment, exhibit
(1) Pyro-electricity (2) Piezo-electricity (3) Ferro-electricity (4) Anti-ferro-electricity
73. NaCl is doped with 10-5 mol % SrCl2, calculate the number of cation vacancies?
(1) 6.02 x 1016 (2) 105 (3) 6.02 x 1023 (4)
18
6.02 x 10
74. Each of the following compound is paramagnetic EXCEPT?
(1) TiO (2) VO2 (3) V2O5 (4) CuO
75. The forces which hold the constituents of molecular crystals are
(1) Strong chemical bonds (2) Electrostatic forces
(3) Metallic bonds (4) Van der Waals type
76. If concentrations are measured in moles per liter and time in minutes. The
units for the rate of a third order reaction are
(1) mol L-1 min-1 (2) mol-2 L2 min-1 (3) mol2 L-2 min-1 (4) mol-1 L min-1
77. The relation which correlates the rate with different reactant and the
product in the reaction N2(g)+3H2(g) 2NH3(g) is
d [ N2 ] 3d [ H 2 ] 2d [ NH 3 ] d [ N2 ] 1 d [ H2 ] 1 d [ NH 3 ]
- =- =+ - =- =+
(1) dt dt dt (2) dt 3 dt 2 dt
3d [ N 2 ] d [ H2 ] 2d [ NH 3 ] d [ N2 ] 1 d [ H 2 ] 1 2d [ NH 3 ]
- =+ =+ - = =-
(3) dt dt dt (4) dt 3 dt 2 dt
78. For a zero order reaction
(1) Reaction rate is double when the initial concentration is doubled
(2) The time for half change is half the time taken for completion of the reaction
(3) The time for half change is independent of the initial concentration
(4) The time for completion of reaction is independent of the initial concentration
79. The reaction A(g)+2B(g) C(g)+D(g) is an elementary process. In an
experiment, the initial partial pressures of A and B are P A=0.60 atm and PB=0.80
atm. When PC=0.20 atm, the rate of the reaction, relative to the initial rate is
(1) 1/24 (2) 1/16 (3) (4) 1/6
80. For the reaction A+B C, the following results were obtained for kinetic
runs at the same temperature:

What is the overall order of the reaction?

(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
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81. A first order reaction is 40 percent complete in 20 minutes. The time

required for the reaction to be 50 percent complete will be
(1) 10 minutes (2) 5 minutes (3) 27 minutes (4)
40 minutes
82. A first order reaction in aqueous solution was too fast to be detected by
procedure that could have followed a reaction having a half-life of a least 2.0 x 10 -9
s. What is the minimum value of the rate constant for the reaction?
(1) 0.693 s-1 (2) 6.93 x 108 s-1 (3) 3.5 x 108 s-1 (4) 3.5 x 109 s
83. A plot of log10k versus 1/T is a straight line with slope equals to
EaEa
-
(1) Ea x R (2) Ea x 2.303 x R (3) 2.303R
(4) 2.303R
84. The activation energy for the forward reaction A+B C+D+38 kJ is 20 kJ.
The activation energy for this same reaction in the reverse direction will be
(1) 20 kJ (2) 38 kJ (3) 58 kJ (4) 18 kJ
85. For a first order reaction, the pre-exponential factor in the Arrhenius
equation k=Ae-Ea/RT will have the units of
(1) mol L-1 s-1 (2) s-1 (3) mol-1 L s-1 (4) mol-2 L2 s-1
86. Which of the following statements regarding catalyst is TRUE?
(1) A catalyst can initiate a reaction
(2) A catalyst catalyse the reaction by altering the reaction mechanism
(3) A catalyst increases the average kinetic energy of reacting molecules
(4) A catalyst increases the frequency of collisions of reacting species
87. The rate of reaction can be increased in general by all the following factors
except:
(1) By increasing the temperature (2) Using a suitable catalyst
(3) By an increase in activation energy (4) increasing the concentration of reactant
88. A hypothetical reaction A2+B2 2AB follows the mechanism as given below
A2 A+A (fast) A+B2 AB+B (slow) A+B AB (fast)
The order of the over all reaction is
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 1.5 (4) 0
89. Which curve represents zero order reaction?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

90. In a zero order reaction for every 100 rise of temperature, the rate is
doubled. If the temperature is increased from 10 0 C to 1000C, the rate of the
reaction will become
(1) 256 times (2) 512 times (3) 64 times (4) 128
times
Part C (Biology)
91. Dental formula of rabbit is
1023 3023 1023 2023
(1) 1023 (2) 3023 (3) 2023 (4) 1023
92. The hardest substance of vertebrate body is
(1) Keratin (2) Enamel (3) Dentine (4) Chondrin

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93. One common secretion of the salivary and Brunners glands that
plays a role in growth, repair and regeneration is -
(1) Enterogastrone (2) Urogastrone (3) Neurotensin (4) Somatostatin
94. Digestive enzymes are
(1) Hydrolase (2) Oxido-reductase (3) Transferase (4)
None of these
95. In mammals the teeth are
(i) of different type (ii) Embedded in the cup-like socket of the jaw
bones
(iii) Only two set, present throughout life
These conditions are referred as
(1) Heterodont, Thecodont and diphyodont (2) Thecodont, heterodont and
diphyodont
(3) Diphyodont, thecodont and heterodont (4) Heterodont, diphyodont and
thecodont
96. The function of tongue is to
(1) Help in the act of swallowing (2) Help in mixing saliva with the
food
(3) Help in speaking (4) All the above
97. Taste buds for bitter taste are found on tongue at
(1) Tip (2) On basal surface (3) Posterior part (4) Lateral
sides
98. In rabbit, the digestion of cellulose takes place in
(1) Colon (2) lleum (3) Caecum (4) Rectum
99. The length of the alimentary canal is more in herbivorous animals than the
carnivorous because
(1) Herbivorous diet contains more fat to digest
(2) Herbivorous diet contains more proteins to digest
(3) Herbivorous diet contains more carbohydrates particularly cellulose which
takes more time to digest
(4) Herbivorous diet contains more vitamins to digest
100. Brunners glands secrete
(1) Alkaline mucus (2) Acidic mucus (3) Neutral mucus (4) Water
101. Pulp cavity of teeth is lined by
(1) Odontoblast (2) Chondroblast (3) Osteoblast (4) Amyloblast
102. In the wall of alimentary canal which are/is true sequence from outer to
inner
(1) Serosa, longitudinal muscle, mucosa, sub mucosa
(2) Mucosa, serosa, long muscle
(3) Serosa, long muscle, circular muscle, sub-mucosa, mucosa
(4) Serosa, long muscle, sub-mucosa, mucosa
103. HCl is secreted by
(1) Zymogen cells (2) Oxyntic cells (3) Kupffer cells (4) Mucous cells
104. Chief cells or Zymogen cells secrete the enzymes of the gastric juice,
are found in the
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(1) Isthmus of the gland (2) Neck of the tubular gland

(3) Base of the tubular region (4) All the above
105. The mucosal lining of the oesophagus of mammals is made up of

(1) Simple columnar epithelium (2) Stratified cuboidal epithelium

(3) Simple cuboidal epithelium (4) Stratified columnar epithelium
106. Which one of the following is the correct pairing of the site of action and the
substrate of rennin
(1) Stomach-Casein (2) Stomach-Fat
(3) Small intestine-Protein (4) Mouth-Starch
107. Acid secretion in stomach is stimulated by
(1) Gastrin (2) Histamine (3) Vagal discharge (4) All of these
108. Narrower distal end of stomach is called
(1) Cardiac (2) Duodenum (3) Pharynx (4) Pylorus
109. Pylorus is situated at the junction of
(1) Oesophagus and stomach (2) Stomach and duodenum
(3) Duodenum and ileum (4) Ileum and rectum
110. Stomach in vertebrates is the main site for digestion of
(1) Proteins (2) Carbohydrates (3) Fats (4) Nucleic acids
111. Both the crown and root of a tooth is covered by a layer of bony hard
substance called
(1) Enamel (2) Dentine (3) Bony socket (4) Cementum
112. Valve of kerkrings is another name for
(1) Plicae circulares(2) Plicae semilunares (3) Plicae valvulates (4) All of the
these
113. Pepsinogen is secreted by
(1) Chief cells (2) Parietal cells (3) Gastric glands (4) Intestinal cells
114. Intestinal villi are mainly concerned with
(1) Assimilation (2) Secretion (3) Ultrafilteration (4) Absorption
115. Distinct microvilli are present on all of the following except
(1) Cells lining the proximal convoluted tubules of the kidney
(2) Follicular cells of the thyroid gland
(3) Absorptive cells of the intestinal epithelium
(4) Mucous cells of the salivary glands
116. Crypt of Lieberkuhn is example for
(1)Simple tubular gland (2) Coiled tubular gland
(3) Compound alveolar gland (4) Compound tubular gland

117. Peyers patches are found on the ileum in

(1) Fishes (2) Reptiles (3) Birds (4) Mammals
118. Peyers patches contain
(1) Mucous (2) Sebum (3) Lymphocytes (4) Red blood cells
119. The muscular contraction in the alimentary canal is known as
(1) Systole (2) Diastole (3) Peristalsis (4) Metachronal

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120. Intestinal villi are more numerous and larger in posterior part of small
intestine than in anterior part because-
(1) Digestion is faster in posterior part (2) Blood supply is poor in posterior
part
(3) There is more digested food in posterior part
(4) Blood supply is rich in posterior part
121. Lacteals are central lymph vessels which are found in
(1) Liver (2) Pancreas (3) Villi (4) Spleen
122. A good source of lipase is
(1) Saliva (2) Pancreatic juice (3) Bile (4) Gastric juice
123. Fat digeston is facilitated by
(1) Bile juice (2) Pancreatic juice (3) Gastric juice (4) None of these
124. Liver sinusoids are lined by
(1) Parenchymal cells (2) Endothelial cells (3) Kupffer cells (4) Goblet
cells
125. In horses, rabbits hares, the cellulose gets digested in the
(1) Caecum (2) Stomach (3) Appendix (4) Rumen
126. Pancreatic juice contains
(1) Trypsin, lipase, maltase (2) Pepsin, tryspin, maltase
(3) Trypsin, chymotrypsin, amylase, lipase (4) Trypsin, pepsin, amylase
127. Enzyme released from kidney is
(1) Rennin (2) Uricase (3) Pepsin (4) None of these
128. Liver in our body stores
(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin D (3) Vitamin B12 (4) All of
these
129. pH of gastric juice is -
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8
130. In pancreas, pancreatic juice and hormones are secreted by
(1) same cells (2) Different cells
(3) Same cells at different times (4) None of these
131. Which of the following is the chracteristic of mammalian liver is -
(1) Kupffers cells and leucocytes (2) Leucocytes and canaliculae
(3) Glissons capsules and kupffer cells (4) Glissons capsules and leucocytes

132. Rennin acts on milk proteins and converts

(1) Caseinogen into casein (2) Casein into paracasein
(3) Caseinogen into paracasein (4) Paracasein into caseinogen
133. Succus entericus is the name given to
(1) Junction between ileum and large intestine (2) Intestinal juice
(3) Swelling in the gut (4) Appendix
134. Islets of Langerhans are present in
(1) Pancreas (2) Ileum (3) Oesophagus (4) Stomach
135. The number of salivary glands in man is -
(1) Two pairs (2) Three pairs (3) Four pairs (4) Five
pairs
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COMBINED TEST 1 (P, C, B)

136. The blood returning to the heart from lungs via pulmonary vein has more
(1) RBC per ml of blood (2) Haemoglobin per ml of blood
(3) Oxygen per ml of blood (4) Nutrient per ml of blood
137. The nerve like modified muscle in the right auricle is know as
(1) Lymph node (2) Atrio-ventricular node
(3) Pacemaker (4) Bulbus arteriosus
138. The first heart sound is
(1) 'Lubb' sound at the end of systole (2) Dup' sound at the end of systole
(3) 'Lubb' sound at the beginning of systole (4) 'Dup' sound at the beginning of
systole
139. In the heart of mammals the bicuspid valve is situated between
(1) Left auricle and left ventricle (2) Post caval and right caval
(3) Right auricle and left auricle (4) Right ventricle and pulmonary aorta
140. The heart of a healthy man beats normally per minute
(1) 60-70 times (2) 70-80 times (3) 80-90 times (4) 85-95 times
141. Since it is the sinu-auricular node which initiates the impulses in the heart
of mammal is called
(1) Cholinergic (2) jodrenergic (3) Neurogenic (4) Myogenic
142. Which valve is present between the left atrium and the ventricle
(1) Tricuspid (2) Mitral (3) Aortic (4) Pulmonary
143. Epinephrine is secreted by
(1) Adrenal medulla and increases the heart rate
(2) Adrenal medulla and decreases the heart rate
(3) Adrenal cortex and increases the heart rate
(4) Adrenal cortex and decreases the heart rate
144. Heart beat can be initiated by
(1) Sinu-auricular node (2) Atrio-ventricular node
(3) Sodium ion (4) Purkinje's fibres
145. Innervation of heart in the intact animals is primarily meant for
(1) Initiation of heart beat (2) Regulation of heart beat
(3) Release of acetylcholine only (4) Release of adrenalin only
146. Purkinje's fibres are special types of
(1) Muscle fibres located in heart
(2) Nerve fibres located in cerebrum
(3) Connective tissue fibres joining one bone to another bone
(4) Sensory fibres extending from retina into optic nerve
147. The pericardium and the pericardial fluid help in
(1) Protecting the heart from friction, shocks and keeps it moist
(2) Pumping the blood
(3) Receiving the blood from various parts of the body
(4) None of these
148. For reaching left side of heart, blood must pass through
(1) Liver (2) Kidneys (3) Lungs (4) Brain

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COMBINED TEST 1 (P, C, B)

149. Which one of the statement is correct with reference to the circulation of
blood in a mammal
(1) Left auricle receives oxygenated blood from the lungs
(2) Pulmonary artery returns oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left auricle
(3) Pulmonary vein carries venous blood from right auricle to lungs
(4) Venous blood is returned to the left auricle
150. The typical Lubb-Dup sounds heard in the heart beat of a healthy person
are due to
(1) Closing of the tricuspid and bicuspid valve (2) Blood flow through
the aorta
(3) Closing of the tricuspid and semilunar valves (4) Closing of the semilunar
valves
151. During ventricular diastole
(1) The auricles relax (2) The heart contracts
(3) The heart pumps blood (4) The ventricles relax
152. Valve that guards the right auriculoventricular aperture is ?
(1) Coronary valve (2) Tricuspid valve (3) Bicuspid valve (4) Semilunar valve
153. Heart beats are accelerated by
(1) Cranial nerves and acetylcholine (2) Sympathetic nerves and
acetylcholine
(3) Cranial nerves and adrenaline (4) Sympathetic nerves and
epinephrine
154. Left shift of oxyhaemoglobin curve is noticed under
(1) Normal temperature and pH (2) Low temperature and high pH
(3) Low pH and high temperature (4) Low pH and low temperature
155. The duration of cardiac cycle is
(1) 0.8 sec (2) 0.8 m sec (3) 0.08 sec (4) 0.008 sec
156. When the heart beat increases the condition is called
(1) Bradycardia (2) Tachy cardia (3) Leucopenia (4) Cardiac arrest
157. Blood vessel which brings deoxygenated blood from the heart muscle is
(1) Coronary artery (2) Coronary vein (3) Pulmonary artery (4)
Pulmonary vein
158. Which one is the correct route through which pulse making impulse travels
in the heart
(1) SA node Purkinje fibres Bundle of His AV node Heart muscles
(2) AV node SA node Purkinje fibres Bundle of His Heart muscles
(3) AV node Bundle of His SA node Purkinje fibres Heart muscles
(4) SA node AV node Bundle of His Purkinje fibres Heart muscles
159. Purkinje fibre is found in
(1) Conduction system of heart (2) Brain
(3) Nephrons of kidneys (4) Sensation of skin
160. Which of the following statements is false
(1) Blood from the right side of the heart is carried to the lungs by the pulmonary
artery
(2) The term pleura refers the double layered covering of the kidney
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COMBINED TEST 1 (P, C, B)

(3) Pancreas is both an exocrine and endocrine gland

(4) Scurvy is caused by the deficiency of vitamin C
161. The chamber of human heart, which has thickest wal
(1) Right atrium (2) Left atrium (3) Right ventricle (4) Left ventricle
162. The cardiac pacemaker in a patient fails to function normally. The doctors
find that an artificial pace maker is to be grafted in him. It is likely that it will be
grafted at the site of
(1) Sinuatrial node (2) Atrioventricular node
(3) Atrioventricular bundle (4) Purkinje system
163. The wall of heart is made up of
(1) Epicardium (2) Myocardium (3) Endocardium (4) All of the above
164. Which of the following is different from others in absence of muscular coat
(1) Veins (2) Arteries (3) Capillaries (4) Arterioles
165. The post-caval vein collects blood from
(1) Hind limbs (2)Hind limbs and organs of the body
cavity
(3) Body cavity organs (4) Renal organs
166. Inter-auricular septum in the embryonic stages has a/an
(1) Foramen ovale (2) Fenestra ovalis (3) Fenestra rotunda (4) lnter-auricular
aperture
167. Bundle of His is a network of
(1) Nerve fibres found throughout the heart
(2) Muscle fibres distributed throughout the heart walls
(3) Muscle fibres found only in the ventricle wall
(4) Nerve fibres distributed in ventricles
168. In rabbit oxygenated blood flows from
(1) Left auricle to left ventricle during auricular systole
(2) Right auricle to right ventricle during ventricular systole
(3) Right ventricle to aorta during w;ntricular systole
(4) Pulmonary vein to left auricle during auricular systole
169. Below normal heart beat is called
(1) Bradycardia (2) Tachycardia (3) Hyperpiesis (4) All of these
170. The blood vascular system of mammals is known as double vascular system
because
(1) A group of veins carry oxygenated and other group conduct deoxygenated
blood
(2) Oxygenated blood runs from heart to different organs by one set of veins
while deoxygenated blood runs from heart to lung by another set
(3) the two different systems never meet
(4) All of the above
171. Which one of the following is a matching pair
(1) Lubb - sharp closure of AV valves at the beginning of ventricular systole
(2) Dup - sudden opening of semilunar valves at the beginning of ventricular
diastole
(3) Pulsation of the radial artery-valves in the blood vessels
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COMBINED TEST 1 (P, C, B)

(4) Initiation of the heart beat Purkinje fibres

172. Mammals are said to have a "double circulatory system". This means
(1) That the blood vessels are paired
(2) That there are two types of blood vessels attached to every organ; an artery
and a vein
(3) That there are two system; one from the heart to the lungs and back to the
heart and other to and from rest of the body
(4) That the blood circulates twice as quickly
173. An open circulatory system occurs in
(1) Man (2) Reptiles (3) Animal (4) Insects
174. If blood cells are eliminated from the blood, the liquid left is
(1) Serum (2) Plasma (3) Lymph (4) Synovial fluid
175. Match the blood vessels of human heart listed under column-I with the
functions given under Column-II; Choose the answer which given the correct
combination of the alphabets of the two columns

(1) A = t, B = p, C = r, D = q (2) A = t, B = r, C = p, D = s
(3) A = s, B = t, C = r, D = p (4) A = t,
176. Which one of the following is not related to the clotting of blood
(1) Fibrin (2) fibrinogen (3) Ca++ (4) Na+ of the
plasma
177. Pace maker of the heart is
(1) S.A node (2) A.V. node (3) A.V. septum (4) I.A
septum
178. Blood returns from lungs to heart through
(1) Right auricle (2) Right ventircle (3) Left ventricle (4) Left
auricle
179. Covering of heart is called
(1) Pericardium (2) Peritoneum (3) Perineurium (4) Periostium
180. Chordae tendinae are found in
(1) Ventricle of heart (2) Atria of heart (3) Joints (4) Ventricle of
brain

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COMBINED TEST 1 (P, C, B)

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COMBINED TEST 1 (P, C, B)

ANSWER KEY 02.07.2017

PART A (PHYSICS)
Q.No 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans 2 1
Q.No 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans 2 3 2 4 2 4 4 4 2 3
Q.No 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans 3 3 4 3 3 4 3 3 3 1
Q.No 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans 3 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 3 3
Q.No 41 42 43 44 45
Ans 1 2 4 2 2
PART B (CHEMISTRY)
Q.No 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55
Ans 1 2 2 3 3 2 3 3 2 3
Q.No 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
Ans 4 2 2 3 1 4 4 3 4 3
Q.No 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans 2 2 3 1 3 1 2 1 3 4
Q.No 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
Ans 1 2 2 4 2 3 3 3 3 2
Q.No 86 87 88 89 90
Ans 2 3 3 3 2
PART C (BIOLOGY)
Q.No 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans 4 2 4 1 1 4 3 3 3 1
Q.No 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans 1 3 2 3 2 1 4 4 2 1
Q.No 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans 2 1 2 4 4 1 4 3 3 3
Q.No 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 128 130
Ans 3 2 1 3 1 3 1 4 1 2
Q.No 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans 3 2 2 1 2 3 3 3 1 2
Q.No 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Ans 4 2 1 1 2 1 1 3 1 3
Q.No 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans 4 2 4 2 1 2 2 4 1 2
Q.No 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Ans 4 1 4 3 2 1 3 1 1 4
Q.No 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans 1 3 4 2 2 4 1 4 1 1

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