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TNL CA Economic Survey 2016-17 Question Bank - Volume 1 - Complete PDF
TNL CA Economic Survey 2016-17 Question Bank - Volume 1 - Complete PDF
a. Only
1
is
true
b. Only
2
is
true
c. 1
and
2
are
true
d. All
are
true
Explanation-recently
it
has
been
observed
that
there
is
volatility
in
the
global
demand
with
significant
risks
of
global
demand,
which
has
had
an
effect
on
Indian
exports
which
came
down
by
17.6%.
Apart
from
this
there
is
also
a
slowdown
in
the
domestic
economy
2. Which
of
the
following
has
been
observed
in
the
Indian
economy
since
1980s
1. India
has
moved
from
being
anti-market
to
pro-state
2. Industrial
licensing
has
been
dismantled
3. FDI
has
been
liberalized
a. Only
1
is
correct
b. Only
2
is
correct
c. 2
and
3
are
correct
d. All
are
correct
a. Only
1
is
incorrect
b. 1
and
2
are
incorrect
c. 1
and
3
are
incorrect
d. All
are
incorrect
Correct option is b
Explanation-there
are
significant
risks
of
weaker
global
activity
with
risks
of
possible
spillovers.
Also
the
correlation
between
the
growth
rate
of
India
with
that
of
the
world
has
increased
from
0.2
(1991-2002)
to
0.42
since
then.
Explanation-
corporate
and
bank
balance
sheets
are
both
under
stress
which
on
one
side
has
made
the
corporates
to
put
on
hold
their
investments
decisions
and
on
the
other
side
the
banks
have
reduced
the
volume
of
the
loans
to
be
offloaded
and
the
cost
of
credit
has
gone
up.
a. Only
1
is
correct
b. Only
3
is
correct
c. 2
and
3
are
correct
d. All
are
correct
Explanation-RIRI
stands
for
Rational
Investor
Rating
Index
which
measures
two
factor-risk
and
growth
of
a
country-so
as
to
attract
the
investors.
The
higher
the
value
of
RIRI,
the
better
is
the
performance
of
the
country.
India
has
performed
well
in
this
case
and
stands
out
as
an
investment
proposition.
9. Unicorn
startups
refer
to
a. The
startups
in
the
ICT
sector
b. The
startups
in
the
with
the
valuation
greater
than
$1
million
c. The
startups
in
the
with
the
valuation
greater
than
$1
billion
d. None
of
the
above
a. Only
1
is
true
b. Only
2
is
true
c. Both
are
true
d. Both
are
false
11. Which
of
the
following
are
the
policy
decisions
taken
by
the
government
in
the
banking
sector
to
deal
with
the
menace
of
NPAs
1. Indradhanush
2. Pradhan
Mantri
Mudra
Yojana
3. UDAY
Yojana
Choose
the
correct
option
a. Only
1
is
correct
b. Only
3
is
correct
c. 2
and
3
are
correct
d. All
are
correct
The
correct
option
is
a.
Explanation-Government
has
announced
the
Indradhanush
framework
under
which
it
will
focus
on
7
broad
points-Appointments,
Banking
Board
Bureau,
Capitalization,
Destressing,
Empowerment,
Framework
of
accountability
and
Governance
reforms
a. Only
1
is
correct
b. Only
2
is
correct
c. Both
are
correct
d. Both
are
wrong
Explanation-if
the
dramatic
decline
in
the
oil
prices
continues
it
may
reduce
the
earnings
of
oil
exporting
countries
which
may
force
these
countries
to
curtail
the
usage
foreign
labor
which
will
have
an
impact
on
the
remittances.
13. Which
of
the
following
statements
regarding
SSM
are
true
1. Can
be
imposed
by
all
the
countries
2. Can
be
imposed
on
all
the
imports
3. Was
provided
under
Doha
round
14. The
stagnancy
in
the
exports
of
services
is
puzzling
because
1. More
of
the
services
go
to
Asian
countries
2. The
rupee
has
depreciated
in
the
last
year
against
dollar
a. Only
1
is
correct
b. Only
2
is
correct
c. Both
are
correct
d. Both
are
wrong
Explanation-out
of
the
total
exports
majority
of
the
merchandises
go
to
Asian
countries
and
service
exports
go
to
United
States.
Along
with
the
depreciation
of
rupee
the
service
exports
to
US
must
have
increased
but
over
the
period
of
time
the
service
exports
have
flattened
out.
a. Only
1
is
correct
b. 1
and
2
are
correct
c. 1
and
3
are
correct
d. All
are
correct
Explanation-the
new
CPI
series
is
with
a
base
year
of
2012.
It
can
be
dissociated
into
CPI
(urban),
CPI
(rural)
and
CPI
(combined).
WPI
since
2014
has
been
in
negative
territory
and
recently
(April
2016)
turned
positive.
The
drop
in
the
WPI
was
majorly
because
of
the
drop
of
crude
oil
prices.
16. The
increase
in
the
wages
with
implementation
of
7th
Pay
commission
may
not
have
larger
impact
on
inflation
because
1. The
7th
pay
awards
do
not
determine
the
government
demand
2. The
pay
awards
determine
only
a
small
part
of
demand
3. There
is
a
slack
in
the
private
sector
labour
market
a. Only
1
is
correct
b. Only
2
is
correct
c. 1
and
3
are
correct
d. All
are
correct
Explanation-inflation
reflects
that
there
is
excess
demand
in
the
market
compared
to
supply.
The
wage
increases
account
only
for
a
small
demand
and
it
doesnt
determine
the
government
demand
(the
government
demand
is
determined
by
the
fiscal
deficit
target).
The
rise
in
the
wages
can
spillover
and
increase
the
private
demand
but
the
private
labor
is
weak
hence
this
is
not
possible
at
this
moment.
Hence
the
wage
revision
may
not
have
a
perceptible
impact
on
inflation.
17. Through
which
of
the
following
measures
the
Twin
Balance
Sheet
Problem
can
be
contained
1. RBI
to
provide
capitalization
by
selling
off
some
of
its
assets
2. The
government
may
sell
off
the
assets
that
it
doesnt
want
to
hold
and
use
the
proceeds
for
capitalizing
the
banks
a. Only
1
b. Only
2
c. Both
can
be
used
d. Neither
can
be
used
Explanation-compared
to
other
central
banks
RBI
holds
higher
equity
share
which
can
be
liquidated
to
recapitalize
the
banks.
The
government
can
also
privatize
some
of
the
CPSE
to
capitalize
the
banks
e. Only
1
is
correct
f. Only
2
is
correct
g. 1
and
3
are
correct
h. All
are
correct
Explanation-
the
dramatic
decline
in
the
oil
prices
would
have
had
a
financial
affect
on
the
oil
exporting
countries
which
would
have
curtailed
the
use
of
foreign
labour.
But
in
case
of
India
it
as
not
yet
been
observed
hence
there
is
a
need
to
monitor
this
source
of
earning
19. Which
of
the
following
is/are
the
reason/s
for
twin
balance
sheet
problem
1. Slowdown
in
global
demand
2. Slowdown
in
the
domestic
economy
3. Drop
in
the
prices
of
crude
oil
a. Only
1
is
correct
b. 1
and
2
are
correct
c. 2
and
3
are
correct
d. All
are
correct
Explanation-because
of
the
slowdown
in
the
global
demand
the
spillover
effects,
Indias
exports
have
come
down.
India
although
is
one
of
the
largest
producers
and
exporters
of
steel
and
aluminum,
recently
the
domestic
prices
have
become
higher
than
the
imports
20. The
4Rs
in
the
Twin
Balance
Sheet
Problem
recommendations
refer
refer
to
a. Recognition,
Recapitalization,
Resolution,
Reform
b. Recognition,
Reporting,
Resolution,
Reform
c. Recognition,
Recapitalization,
Regrouping,
Reform
d. Recognition,
Recapitalization,
Result,
Reform
a. Only
1
is
correct
b. 1
and
2
are
correct
c. Only
3
is
correct
d. All
are
correct
Explanation-Bali
declaration
had
the
provision
of
public
stockholding
which
was
approved
by
WTO
in
2014.
Recently
held
Nairobi
meet
was
the
10th
Ministerial
Conference.
a. Only
1
is
correct
b. Only
2
is
correct
c. Both
are
correct
d. Both
are
wrong
Explanation-the
monetary
transmission
refers
to
the
process
wherein
the
banks
transfer
the
benefits
of
the
decreased
rate
to
the
customers.
In
the
last
year
RBI
has
reduced
cumulatively
125
bps
whereas
the
bank
lending
rates
have
been
reduced
by
50
bps.
The
gap
between
the
policy
rate
and
bank
rates
has
increased
significantly.
a. Only
1
is
correct
b. 1
and
2
are
correct
c. 2
and
3
are
correct
d. All
are
correct
Explanation-As
per
the
Fitch
Ratings
Agency,
Indias
investment
grade
is
BBB
and
it
has
performed
well
compared
to
its
peers.
The
frequency
of
occurrence
of
financial
crisis
has
increased
hence
there
is
a
need
to
take
the
spillover
risks
seriously
as
there
are
certain
vulnerabilities
existing
in
China,
Brazil
and
Saudi
Arabia.
There
is
a
slowdown
and
there
are
vulnerabilities
in
the
global
demand
hence
there
is
a
need
to
focus
on
domestic
sources
of
demand.
TnL
CA
ES
Question
Bank
-
Chapter
2
-
The
Chakravyuha
Challenge
2) Consider the following statements with regards to Indian economy since 1980s
2.
poor
end
up
paying
higher
prices
for
goods
and
services
if
the
sick
companies
are
not
allowed
to
exit
1. Opportunity
cost
2. Fiscal
cost
3. Economic
cost
4. Political
cost
1. firms averaging 40 years were 5 times larger (in terms of employment) than new ones in India
7)
Consider
the
following
statements
with
regards
to
DRTs
1. set up under Recovery of Debts Due to Banks &Financial Institutions Act 1993
3. The government recently has announced that it would be setting up 5 more DRTs
8)
Which
of
the
following
represents
the
difference
between
central
sector
scheme
and
centrally
sponsored
scheme
a) Central
sector
schemes
are
more
in
number
compared
to
centrally
sponsored
schemes
b) In
the
former
75%
contribution
is
from
the
centre
whereas
it
is
100%
in
the
latter
c) Both
are
one
and
the
same
d) The
former
is
implemented
by
its
own
machinery
whereas
the
latter
is
implemented
by
state
machinery
9) The imports of fertilizers has been canalized. Here the word canalization means
a) The
company
has
suffered
huge
loss
in
the
present
financial
year
b) The
accumulated
losses
of
the
company
to
be
equal
to
or
more
than
its
networth
c) The
accumulated
losses
of
the
company
to
be
equal
to
or
more
than
its
market
capitalization
d) None
of
the
above
11) SICA 1985 was the result of the recommendations of the following committee
a) T
Tiwari
committee
b) Narasimhan
committee
c) Alagh
Committee
d) Rangarajan
Committee
12)
Consider
the
following
statements
in
the
background
of
impending
exit
1-the smart cards were utilized for paying MGNREGA wages in Telangana
2-the smartcards were able to reduce payment delays, reduce leakages, increased wages etc
3-the cost of implementation of the smartcard project was more than the benefits obtained
14)
The
demand
of
the
present
situation
is
that
the
PPP
(Perpetrator
Pays
Principle)
must
be
applied
in
a
careful
manner
because
15)
Consider
the
following
statements
regarding
Insolvency
and
Bankruptcy
code
2015
16)
To
overcome
the
problems
of
strong
and
weak
institutions
the
government
is
taking
following
measure/s
a) Only
2
is
correct
b) 1
and
2
are
correct
c) 2
and
3
are
correct
d) All
are
correct
17) Which committee was set up by GoI to recommend regarding revitalizing PPP
a) Rangarajan
Committee
b) TSR
Subramaniam
committee
c) Parekh
committee
d) Kelkar
committee
TnL
CA
ES
Question
Bank
-
Chapter
2
-
The
Chakravyuha
Challenge
-
Solutions
1) Correct
option
is
b.
Explanation-
A
market
economy
requires
unrestricted
entry
of
new
firms,
new
ideas,
and
new
technologies
so
that
the
forces
of
competition
can
guide
capital
and
labor
resources
to
their
most
productive
and
dynamic
uses.
But
it
also
requires
exit
so
that
resources
are
forced
or
enticed
away
from
inefficient
and
unsustainable
uses.
2)
Correct
option
is
c.
Explanation-
Since
the
early
1980s,
the
Indian
economy
has
made
remarkable
progress
in
increasing
entry:
industrial
licensing
has
been
dismantled,
public
sector
monopolies
have
been
diluted,
some
public
sector
assets
have
been
privatized,
foreign
direct
investment
has
been
considerably
liberalized,
a
process
that
has
been
accelerated
under
this
government,
and
trade
barriers
have
been
reduced.
3)
Correct
option
is
b.
Explanation-the
sick
pay
indirect
taxes
which
are
used
to
subsidize
the
sick
companies
and
since
these
sick
companies
are
still
existing
they
lead
to
supply
of
substandard
goods
and
services
whose
prices
would
have
come
down
as
a
result
of
competition
if
these
companies
were
allowed
to
exit.
4)
Correct
option
is
d.
Explanation-the
impeded
exit
leads
to
creation
of
three
costs-fiscal,
economic
and
political
5)Correct
option
is
b.
Explanation-the
size
of
companies
averaging
40
years
was
2.5
times
the
new
ones.
The
exit
problem
is
not
only
restricted
to
the
public
sector
and
in
fact
has
become
the
major
problem
in
the
private
sector
6)
Correct
option
is
C
Explanation-the
subsidies
that
are
provided
to
the
sick
firms
can
be
of
two
types-implicit
and
explicit.
The
bailout
provided
by
the
government
is
a
type
of
explicit
subsidy.
The
loans
given
by
the
banks
are
a
type
of
implicit
subsidy.
Since
the
bank
has
given
the
loans
and
the
company
is
has
turned
sick,
the
banks
may
become
cautious
and
in
order
to
prevent
further
accumulation
of
NPA
may
hike
the
interest
rates.
7)
Correct
option
is
a
Explanation-DRTs
have
following
features
a)
Have
been
set
up
under
The
Recovery
of
Debt
Due
to
Banks
and
Financial
Institutions
Act
1993
b)
In
principle
both
the
borrower
and
lenders
can
approach
DRTs
c)
GoI
has
recently
announced
that
it
would
be
setting
up
DRTs
at
6
cities-Bangalore,
Chandigarh,
Dehradun,
Siliguri
and
Hyderabad
8)Correct
option
is
d
Central
Sector
Schemes
are
different
(and
less
in
number)
than
Centrally
Sponsored
Schemes.The
major
difference
is
that
the
former
is
funded
entirely
by
the
Central
government
and
implemented
byits
machinery,
whereas
the
latter
is
based
on
subjects
in
the
State
List,
and
is
majorly
funded
by
the
Centralgovernment
but
implemented
by
the
states.
9)correct
option
is
b.
Explanaion-only
three
companies-STC,
MMTC
and
IPL
are
allowed
to
import
fertilizers
into
India.
10)
correct
option
is
b
Explanation-Criterias
to
be
declared
as
sick
company
are
a) The
accumulated
losses
to
be
more
than
the
networth
b) The
company
must
have
a
factory
license
c) Company
should
have
completed
at
least
5
years
after
having
been
incorporated
under
companies
act
of
1956
d) The
company
must
have
had
at
least
50
workers
on
any
of
the
working
days
in
the
preceding
year
11)
Correct
option
is
a
Explanation-because
of
the
increase
in
the
industrial
sickness
in
the
country,
the
then
government
appointed
T
Tiwari
committee,
whose
recommendations
have
led
to
formulation
of
SICA
1985
12)
correct
option
is
c
Explanation-In
India
over
the
period
of
time
there
have
been
certain
institutions
which
are
becoming
weak
because
of
various
reasons
(eg-DRT)
and
on
the
other
hand
we
have
institutions
which
are
growing
strong,
now
because
of
these
strong
institutions
the
managers
have
a
fear
that
writing
off
the
loans
may
bring
them
under
the
scanner
of
strong
institutions
which
is
leading
to
ever
greening
of
the
loans
13)
correct
option
is
c
Explanation-in
order
to
reduce
leakages,
root
out
ghost
cards,
decrease
time
delays,
biometric
smart
cards
were
used
in
the
state
of
Andhra
Pradesh.
It
achieved
all
the
objectives.
The
return
was
seven
times
the
cost
of
implementation.
90%
of
the
beneficiaries
also
preferred
the
smart
cards.
14)
correct
answer
is
c
Explanation-the
PPP
although
stipulates
that
the
promoters
gambit
has
not
paid
off
it
is
them
who
have
to
suffer
the
consequences.
Having
said
so
it
is
also
imperative
that
there
is
a
need
to
revive
the
growth
and
also
the
fact
that
the
majority
of
the
private
capital
expenditure
comes
from
top
10
companies
which
also
had
taken
the
risk,
there
is
a
need
to
apply
PPP
with
certain
trade
offs
15)
correct
option
is
d
Explanation-the
creditors/borrower
can
either
approach
DRT
(individuals)
or
NCLT
(companies).
If
the
IR
is
not
over
in
180
days
then
an
extension
of
90
days
can
be
provided.
During
the
process
of
IR,
the
borrower
is
immune
from
creditors
claims
and
lawsuits
16)
correct
answer
is
b
Explanation-the
parliament
in
May
2016
has
passed
the
Insolvency
and
Bankruptcy
bill
2015
which
will
strengthen
DRT/NCLT
and
on
the
other
hand
to
mitigate
the
negative
impact
of
strong
institutions
the
government
is
mulling
amending
PCA
which
can
differentiate
cases
of
graft
from
those
which
are
genuine
errors
in
the
decision
making
17)
correct
answer
is
d
TnL
CA
ES
Question
Bank
-
Chapter
3
-
Spreading
JAM
a) Only
1
is
correct
b) Only
3
is
correct
c) 1
and
2
are
correct
d) All
are
correct
3) The
beneficiary
identification
database
which
existed
before
Aadhaar
suffer
from
following
drawbacks
a) Administrative
discretion
b) Political
discretion
c) Beneficiary
discretion
a) Only
I
is
correct
b) Only
2
is
correct
c) 1
and
2
are
correct
d) 1
and
3
are
correct
4) Consider
the
following
regarding
Aadhaar
1. 210
million
cards
were
created
in
2015
2. It
suffers
from
drawback
i.e
human
discretion
is
allowed
3. It
uses
iris
scans
and
fingerprints
a) Only
1
is
incorrect
b) 1
and
3
are
incorrect
c) Only
2
is
incorrect
d) All
are
incorrect
Correct answer is d
Explanation-
there
are
4
states
which
have
lower
than
50%
Aadhaar
penetration-Nagaland
(48.9%),
Mizoram
(38%),
Meghalaya
(2.9%)
and
Assam
(2.4%)
6) Consider
the
statements
a) The
banking
penetration
is
on
an
average
38%
b) Only
3
states
have
a
banking
penetration
greater
than
75%
c) The
state
of
chattisgarh
has
the
maximum
banking
penetration
a) Only
1
is
correct
b) 1
and
2
are
correct
c) Only
3
is
correct
d) All
are
correct
Te correct option is c
Te correct option is c
Explanation-
Aadhaar
has
covered
75%
of
the
total
population
and
955
of
the
adult
population.
The
banking
coverage
on
an
average
in
India
is
46%
and
to
improve
the
penetration
RBI
has
issued
23
new
licenses.
8) To
improve
banking
penetration
RBI
has
issued
23
banking
license
of
which
there
are
a) 2
universal
banks,
11
payment
banks,
and
10
small
banks
b) 2
universal
banks,
10
payment
banks,
and
11
small
banks
c) 2
universal
banks,
12
payment
banks,
and
09
small
banks
d) 2
universal
banks,
09
payment
banks,
and
12
small
banks
9)
Consider
the
following
statements
a) Only
27%
of
villages
have
bank
within
5
kms
b) The
unbanked
in
comparison
with
unidentified
are
more
likely
to
constrain
the
spread
of
JAM.
c) IDFC
and
Bandhan
are
the
two
financial
institutions
granted
universal
bank
licenses
a) Only
1
is
correct
b) 1
and
3
are
correct
c) 2
and
3
are
correct
d) All
are
correct
Explanation-
the
Aadhaar
coverage
has
crossed
75%
of
the
total
population
whereas
the
banking
penetration
on
an
average
is
46%
hence
the
exclusion
caused
by
unbanked
will
contain
the
implementation
of
JAM.
RBI
has
issued
23
new
banking
licenses
of
which
Bandhan
and
IDFC
have
been
issued
licenses
for
universal
banks.
a) Only
1
is
correct
b) 1
and
3
are
correct
c) 2
and
3
are
correct
d) All
are
correct
a) Only
1
is
correct
b) 1
and
2
are
correct
c) 2
and
3
are
correct
d) All
are
correct
13) Consider
the
following
regarding
PAHAL
scheme
1) For
availing
PAHAL,
Aadhaar
is
mandatory
2) Cylinders
provided
to
households
enjoy
universal
subsidy
3) Introduction
of
PAHAL
has
led
to
spike
of
black
market
prices
of
cylinders
a) Only
1
is
correct
b) 1
and
2
are
correct
c) 2
and
3
are
correct
d) All
are
correct
15) Following
which
are
useful
in
reducing
leakages
1. BAPU
2. PAHAL
3. New
MGNREGS
system
a) Only
1
is
correct
b) 1
and
2
are
correct
c) 1
and
3
are
correct
d) All
are
correct
a) 1
is
correct
b) 2
is
correct
c) Both
are
correct
d) Both
are
incorrect
Correct answer is c
Correct answer is a
18) In
how
many
states
the
Aadhaar
penetration
is
lesser
than
50%?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
Correct answer is a
20) Which
of
the
following
are
examples
of
a
direct
subsidy
1) PAHAL
2) Fertilizers
3) Food
grains
under
NFSA
a) Only
1
is
correct
b)
2
and
3
are
correct
c) 1
and
3
are
correct
d) All
are
correct
TnL
CA
ES
Question
Bank
-
Chapter
4
-
Agriculture
1.
Consider
the
following
statements
regarding
Indian
agriculture
1. Is
pulse
centric
2. Highly
mechanized
3. The
wheat
production
in
India
is
higher
than
that
of
America
a. Only
2
is
correct
b. Only
3
is
correct
c. 1
and
3
are
correct
d. All
are
correct
Explanation-In
case
of
Indian
agriculture
it
is
cereal
centric
and
that
has
led
to
over
use
of
fertilizers,
water
and
is
input
intensive.
The
usage
of
human
labor
is
very
high
and
hence
is
not
highly
mechanized.
In
2013-14
the
wheat
production
was
60%
higher
than
that
of
America.
2.
Following
which
is
a
proof
of
existence
of
exit
problem
in
Agriculture
1. Agriculture
is
cereal
centric
2. Fertilizer
subsidy
is
universal
Explanation-to
promote
the
agriculture
production
the
government
has
brought
in
policies
which
have
promoted
higher
production
of
cereals
which
are
input
intensive.
The
fertilizer
subsidy
is
also
given
universally
without
any
discrimination
of
a
large/small/marginal
farmer
hence
such
policies
put
together
have
led
to
externalities
and
the
well-off
also
getting
benefits
3.
Pink
revolution
refers
to
a. meat
b. potato
c. oil
seeds
d. fruits
Explanation-After
Green
and
White
revolutions
India
has
seen
the
rise
of
Pink
revolution
which
refers
to
technological
revolutions
in
the
meat
processing
4.
Consider
the
following
statements
1. the
average
wheat
production
of
India
is
lower
than
the
world
average
2. only
three
states-Punjab,
Haryana
and
Madhya
Pradesh
have
much
higher
yields
compared
to
the
world
average
Explanation-the
average
production
of
wheat
for
the
world
is
3257
kg/hectare
whereas
for
India
it
is
3075
kg/ha.
Only
two
states
Punjab
and
Haryana
(4500
kg/ha)
have
average
yield
higher
than
the
world
average
5.
Consider
the
following
statements
1. The
central
problem
of
Indian
agriculture
is
availability
of
fertilizers
2. The
average
of
production
of
wheat
and
Rice
in
India
are
lower
than
the
average
production
in
China
3. All
the
Indian
states
have
a
lower
average
yields
of
paddy
compared
to
the
world
average
a. Only
1
is
correct
b. Only
3
is
correct
c. 2
and
3
are
correct
d. All
are
correct
comparison
Wheat
39%
less
paddy
46%
less
The average production of paddy is India is lesser than the average of the world.
a. Only
2
is
correct
b. Only
3
is
correct
c. 1
and
3
are
correct
d. All
are
correct
Explanation-India
is
one
of
the
largest
producers
and
consumers
of
Pulses
in
the
world
but
has
lower
yields
compared
to
countries
like
Brazil,
Nigeria,
and
Myanmar
etc.
because
of
various
reasons
the
demand
crosses
over
more
than
supply
as
a
result
of
which
the
prices
spike,
India
is
forced
to
import
pulses
mainly
yellow/green
peas
(matar)
from
Canada
and
Russia,
chana
from
Australia,
lentils
(masoor)
from
Canada,
urad
and
moong
(green
gram)
from
Myanmar,
and
tur
from
Myanmar,
Tanzania,
Mozambique
and
Malawi.
The
average
production
in
India
is
much
lower
than
the
worlds
average.
7.
Consider
the
following
statements
regarding
pulses
1. Most
of
the
land
dedicated
to
production
of
pulses
is
unirrigated
2. Government
does
not
provide
MSP
for
pulses
3. Most
of
the
production
of
pulses
come
from
irrigated
land
a. Only
2
is
correct
b. Only
3
is
correct
c. 1
and
3
are
correct
d. All
are
correct
8.
Consider
the
following
statements
regarding
MSP
1. Was
introduced
in
1966-67
2. MSP
is
decided
by
CACP
3. MSP
is
announce
at
the
beginning
of
Kharif
season
only
a. Only
2
is
correct
b. Only
3
is
correct
c. 1
and
3
are
correct
d. All
are
correct
Explanation-
MSP
stands
for
Minimum
Support
Price.
It
was
announced
in
the
year
1966-67
for
the
first
time
for
wheat
so
as
prevent
the
distress
sales
by
farmers.
Today
it
is
the
price
at
which
the
government
will
the
produce
from
the
farmers
irrespective
of
the
market
price.
It
is
usually
announced
twice
a
year-beginning
of
Kharif
and
rabi
season.
The
recommendation
of
MSP
is
given
by
CACP
(Commission
for
Agricultural
Costs
and
Prices)
and
the
decision
is
taken
by
CCEA
9.
The
social
returns
of
the
pulses
are
1. It
uses
lesser
water
and
fertilizer
2. It
helps
in
keeping
the
soil
well
aerated
and
porous
3. Replenish
the
soil
a. Only
2
is
correct
b. Only
3
is
correct
c. 1
and
3
are
correct
d. All
are
correct
Explanation-The
social
costs
of
producing
pulses
are
higher
compared
to
the
private
returns
as
they
naturally
fix
nitrogen,
keep
the
soil
porous
and
well
aerated;
and
use
less
water
and
fertilizers
compared
to
the
cereals.
10.
Which
of
the
following
is/are
components
of
Rainbow
revolution
1. Round
revolution
2. Yellow
Revolution
3. Silver
revolution
a. Only
2
is
correct
b. Only
3
is
correct
c. 1
and
3
are
correct
d. All
are
correct
a. Only
1
is
correct
b. Only
3
is
correct
c. 2
and
3
are
correct
d. All
are
correct
Explanation-
in
case
of
India
only
around
one
third
of
the
land
under
cultivation
is
irrigated.
Although
post
independence
the
government
has
invested
in
canal
and
tube
irrigation,
water
has
been
deployed
via
flood
irrigation
which
is
extremely
inefficient
use
of
water.
The
government
in
order
to
increase
the
coverage
and
to
promote
efficient
usage
has
introduced
PMKSY
(Pradhan
Mantri
Krishi
Sinchayee
Yojana)
12.
In
order
to
increase
coverage
under
irrigation
and
promote
the
efficient
use
of
water,
government
should
1. New
irrigation
technologies
must
be
given
infrastructure
lending
status
2. Both
centre
and
state
must
increase
public
spending
on
flood
irrigation
3. The
ongoing
schemes
must
be
consolidated
into
AIBP
a. Only
2
is
correct
b. Only
3
is
correct
c. 1
and
3
are
correct
d. All
are
correct
13.
What
is
Fertigation
a. Increase
in
the
irrigation
coverage
b. Provide
irrigation
to
fertile
land
c. Introducing
fertilizer
directly
into
the
crops
irrigation
system
d. None
of
the
above
14.
The
term
exporting
water
refers
to
a. The
government
selling
water
to
neighboring
countries
b. The
water
that
is
stuck
up
underground
between
to
rocks
c. Water
that
is
embedded
within
the
exports
d. None
of
the
above
15.
Which
of
the
following
represents
the
water
deficiency
in
India
1. India
exports
rice,
cotton,
sugar
and
soyabean
2. The
government
subsidises
electricity
for
agriculture
Explanation-rice,
cotton,
sugar
and
soya
bean
are
water
intensive
and
contain
embedded
water.
Since
Indian
exports
these,
Indian
is
exporting
water.
The
government
subsidizes
the
electricity
used
for
agriculture
which
has
not
only
provided
a
benefit
to
the
farmers
but
also
has
promoted
excessive
usage
of
water.
As
a
result
of
which
Indian
water
table
is
dropping
by
0.3
meters
per
year.
16.
The
following
are
the
features
of
an
efficient
drip
irrigation
system
1. No
change
in
the
usage
of
fertilizer
2. Reduces
usage
of
water
and
also
amount
of
water
lost
due
to
evaporation
3. Provides
higher
yields
compared
to
traditional
methods
a. Only
1
is
correct
b. 2
and
3
are
correct
c. 1
and
3
are
correct
d. All
are
correct
Explanation-
In
case
of
traditional
methods
like
flood
irrigation
the
whole
field
is
flooded
with
water
whereas
in
case
of
micro-irrigation
methods
such
as
drip
irrigation,
water
is
directly
dropped
near
the
roots
by
laying
down
the
lines
as
a
result
of
which
the
usage
of
water
comes
down,
loss
of
water
due
to
evaporation
comes
down,
fertilizer
usage
can
be
reduced
by
using
fertigation
process
(Introducing
fertilizer
directly
into
the
crops
irrigation
system)
and
provides
higher
yields
compared
to
the
traditional
methods
of
irrigation.
17.
There
is
a
need
to
promote
the
production
of
other
crops
especially
pulses
because
1. Indian
agriculture
has
become
cereal
centric
2. The
dietary
patterns
are
evolving
3. The
social
returns
of
pulses
is
higher
than
cereals
a. Only
2
is
correct
b. Only
3
is
correct
c. 1
and
3
are
correct
d. All
are
correct
Explanation-over
the
period
of
time
Indian
agriculture
has
become
more
cereal
centric
i.e.
there
is
more
production
of
cereals
such
as
rice
and
wheat
compared
to
production
of
pulses.
One
of
the
outcomes
of
this
is
there
are
periodic
spikes
of
price
of
pulses.
The
dietary
patterns
of
people
are
also
changing.
In
case
of
pulses
the
social
returns
are
higher
than
cereals
because
pulses
they
need
lesser
water,
lesser
fertilizers,
fix
nitrogen
etc
18.
The
key
bottlenecks
in
adoption
of
micro
irrigation
is/are
1. Availability
of
technology
2. High
cost
of
purchase
3. Skills
required
for
maintenance
Explanation-
In
the
implementation
of
micro-irrigation
methods,
the
bottlenecks
are
high
cost
of
initial
purchase
and
the
skills
required
for
maintenance,
but
the
reduction
in
consumption
of
power,
fertilizer
and
water
along
with
increased
yield
can
compensate
for
the
initial
high
cost
19.
Consider
the
following
statements
1. Wheat
production
in
India
is
greater
than
that
of
America
2. Milk
production
in
India
is
greater
than
that
of
America
Explanation-although
India
was
suffering
food
scarcity
in
1960s,
post
green
revolution
we
have
not
achieved
self
sufficiency.
In
2013-14
wheat
production
in
India
was
60%
higher
and
milk
production
was
50%
higher
than
America.
20.
Consider
the
following
statements
regarding
MSP
1. CCEA
announces
MSP
for
23
crops
on
the
recommendation
of
CACP
(excluding
sugar)
2. In
case
of
sugar
the
government
announces
FRP
3. The
state
governments
can
add
some
bonus
to
FRP
and
announce
SAP
Explanation-
CACP
(Commission
for
Agricultural
Costs
and
Prices)
recommends
(the
recommendations
are
not
binding)
MSP
for
23
crops
(excluding
sugar)
and
CCEA
(Cabinet
Committee
on
Economic
Affairs)
takes
a
decision
on
the
prices.
In
case
of
sugar
the
government
announces
FRP
(Fair
and
Remunerative
Prices)
to
which
the
states
can
add
some
bonus
and
announce
SAP
(State
Administered
Price).
TnL
CA
ES
Question
Bank
-
Chapter
5
-
Mother
&
Child
1. Consider
the
following
statements
on
Neo-natal
mortality
1. It
is
the
number
of
children
who
die
in
the
first
15
days
per
1000
live
children
born
2. In
case
of
India
out
of
all
the
children
that
die,
70%
die
in
the
first
month
a. Only
1
is
correct
b. Only
2
is
correct
c. Both
are
correct
d. Both
are
wrong
Explanation-the
neonatal
mortality
is
the
number
of
children
that
die
within
the
first
28
days
out
of
1000
children
born
live.
In
case
of
India
which
has
one
of
the
high
neo-natal
mortality
rates,
70%
of
the
deaths
amongst
the
children
happen
in
the
first
month
only.
a. Only
1
is
correct
b. Only
2
is
correct
c. Both
are
correct
d. Both
are
wrong
Explanation-As
per
the
recommendation
of
Who,
during
pregnancy
women
are
supposed
to
gain
weight
in
the
range
of
12.5
kg
to
18
kgs
but
in
case
of
Indian
women
they
gain
only
on
an
average
7
kgs
and
women
who
begin
pregnancy
thin
and
do
not
gain
weight
are
more
likely
to
give
birth
to
underweight
children,
who
die
in
the
first
few
days
of
life
3. Which
of
the
following
are
entitlements
under
NFSA
2013
1. Cash
entitlement
of
Rs
5000
for
pregnant
women
2. Beneficiaries
of
Antyodaya
Yojana
will
be
covered
under
NFSA
3. 75%
of
the
total
population
will
be
covered
a. Only
2
is
true
b. 2
and
3
are
true
c. Only
1
is
true
d. All
are
true
a. Only
2
is
true
b. 2
and
are
true
c. Only
1
is
true
d. All
are
true
Explanation-In
south
Asia
India
has
the
highest
%age
of
population
that
defecates
in
the
open
(61%).
Some
of
this
population
has
the
working
toilets
but
since
these
people
reject
the
model
of
these
toilets
(the
pits
of
these
toilets
have
to
emptied
after
few
years)
they
defecate
in
the
open.
6. Environmental
enteropathy
1. Reduces
absorbing
capacity
of
intestine
of
children
2. Is
also
known
as
tropical
enteropathy
3. It
may
lead
to
growth
stunting
and
malnutrition
a. Only
2
is
true
b. 2
and
3
are
true
c. Only
1
is
true
d. All
are
true
a. Caused
by
constant
exposure
of
children
to
their
own
or
other
peoples
fecal
bacteria
b. Also
referred
to
as
Tropical
Enteropathy
or
Environmental
Enteric
Dysfunction
(EED)
c. It
affects
the
absorbing
capacity
of
intestine
and
may
lead
to
malnutrition
and
stunting
7. The
open
defecation
problem
is
more
dangerous
in
India
because
1. India
has
high
population
density
2. India
has
high
rural
population
3. It
causes
diseases
such
as
diarrhea
and
environmental
enteropathy
a. Only
2
is
true
b. 2
and
3
are
true
c. Only
1
is
true
d. All
are
true
Explanation-since
India
has
got
very
high
rural
population
and
high
population
density,
open
defecation
in
high
percentage
will
lead
to
more
children
getting
sick.
As
open
defecation
spreads
germs
into
environment
and
causes
diseases
such
as
diarrhea
and
environmental
enteropathy.
a. Only
2
is
true
b. 1
and
2
are
true
c. Only
3
is
true
d. All
are
true
a. Only
1
is
correct
b. Only
2
is
correct
c. Both
are
correct
d. Both
are
wrong
Explanation-
as
per
the
SDG
target
open
defecation
as
to
be
ended
by
2030.
In
case
of
India
historically
the
rate
of
decline
has
been
close
to
1%
per
year
and
if
the
SDG
goal
has
to
be
achieved
then
the
rate
must
be
tripled
a. Only
1
is
correct
b. Only
2
is
correct
c. Both
are
correct
d. Both
are
wrong
Explanation-
In
south
Asia
India
has
the
highest
%age
of
population
that
defecates
in
the
open
(61%).
Some
of
this
population
has
the
working
toilets
but
since
these
people
reject
the
model
of
these
toilets
(the
pits
of
these
toilets
have
to
emptied
after
few
years)
they
defecate
in
the
open.
11. Consider
the
following
statements
1. As
per
MDG
goals,
the
MMR
was
to
be
reduced
by
50%
by
2015
2. As
per
SDG
goals,
MMR
to
be
reduced
to
less
than
70
per
1000
live
births
a. Only
1
is
correct
b. Only
2
is
correct
c. Both
are
correct
d. Both
are
wrong
Explanation-
in
case
of
MDG,
goal
5
was
to
reduce
MMR
by
three
quarters
and
in
case
of
SDG,
MMR
to
be
reduced
to
less
than
70
per
1,00,000
live
births.
a. Only
2
is
true
b. 1
and
2
are
true
c. Only
3
is
true
d. All
are
true
a. Only
2
b. 1
and
2
c. Only
3
d. All
the
three
Explanation-
ICDS
(Integrated
Child
Development
Scheme)-pregnant
and
lactating
mothers
should
receive
600
calories
of
food
with
18-20
grams
of
protein
NFSA
(National
Food
Security
Act)-
Pregnant
women
and
lactating
mothers
to
get
a
maternity
benefit
of
Rs
6000
JSY
(Janani
Suraksha
Yojana)-
cash
entitlements
are
given
so
as
to
promote
institutional
delivery
and
reduce
maternal
and
infant
mortality.
TnL
CA
ES
Question
Bank
-
Chapter
6
-
Bounties
for
The
Well
Off
1. What
is
the
expenditure
incurred
by
the
government
in
subsidizing
various
goods
and
services
a. 5%
of
GDP
b. 4.2%
of
GDP
c. 5.1%
of
GDP
d. 4.5%
of
GDP
a. Only
1
is
true
b. Only
2
is
true
c. Both
are
true
d. Both
are
false
3. Monetary
policy
transmission
refers
to
a. RBI
not
reducing
CRR
and
SLR
on
regular
basis
b. Government
of
India
not
reducing
the
tax
rates
c. Banks
passing
the
benefits
of
policy
rate
reduction
to
the
consumers
d. None
of
the
above
Explanation-In
case
of
monetary
policy,
RBI
has
been
reducing
the
key
policy
rates
in
the
last
one
and
half
year
but
this
reduction
has
not
been
transferred
to
the
end
customers
by
the
banks
4. Consider
the
following
statements
on
small
saving
schemes
1. Were
introduced
so
as
to
mobilize
savings
by
encouraging
small
earners
2. All
the
small
saving
schemes
fetch
approximately
same
rate
of
returns
3. All
the
small
saving
schemes
are
exempted
from
taxation
as
they
are
for
small
earners
a. Only
1
is
true
b. Only
2
and
3
are
true
c. Only
1
and
3
are
true
d. All
are
true
Explanation-the
small
saving
schemes
were
introduced
so
as
to
mobilize
savings
by
giving
small
earners
returns
which
are
above
the
market
rates.
Various
SSS
fetch
varying
returns
as
they
are
treated
differently
for
the
purpose
of
taxation.
5. The
government
has
recently
taken
the
following
decisions
regarding
small
saving
schemes
1. Slashed
returns
on
schemes
like
KVP
and
RD
by
0.5%
2. Linked
all
the
rates
to
CPI
a. Only
1
is
true
b. Only
2
is
true
c. Both
are
true
d. Both
are
false
a. Only
1
is
true
b. Only
2
is
true
c. Both
are
true
d. Both
are
false
Explanation-
the
policy
rates
(repo)
is
reduced
by
RBI
but
this
reduction
in
not
being
transferred
efficiently
to
the
consumers
as
the
banks
are
suffering
from
lower
mobilization
of
deposits,
high
NPAs
and
higher
rate
of
interest
on
small
saving
schemes.
a. Only
1
is
true
b. Only
2
is
true
c. Both
are
true
d. Both
are
false
Explanation-
Explanation-PPF
falls
under
EEE
category-the
contribution,
the
interest
accruals
and
the
withdrawals
are
exempted
from
taxation
hence
the
effective/real
rate
of
returns
would
be
16%.
9. The
monetary
transmission
is
inefficient
in
India
because
1. Twin
Balance
Sheet
Problem
2. rate
of
returns
on
SSS
(Small
Saving
Schemes)
a. Only
1
is
true
b. Only
2
is
true
c. Both
are
true
d. Both
are
false
Explanation-
The
twin
balance
sheet
refers
to
stress
on
balance
sheet
of
corporate
houses
as
well
as
on
the
banks.
The
profitability
of
the
corporates
is
down
because
of
gloomy
external
demand
and
slowdown
in
the
domestic
economy
hence
the
NPAs
are
on
the
rise
which
is
leading
to
banks
reducing
the
volume
of
loans
given
and
also
increasing
the
cost
of
capital.
The
real
rate
of
returns
on
small
saving
schemes
are
higher
compared
to
the
returns
on
bank
deposits,
hence
it
would
be
working
against
the
banks
if
they
further
reduce
the
interest
rates.
10. ______
section
of
IT
Act
of
1961
allows
for
deductions
from
gross
income
for
various
saving
schemes
a. 80G
b. 80C
c. 80H
d. None
of
the
above
Explanation-
Section 80C- deductions from gross income for various saving schemes
11. Consider
the
following
statements
regarding
tax
free
bonds
1. They
are
treated
as
EET
for
tax
purposes
2. Per
annum
the
maximum
limit
of
investment
is
Rs
1,50,000
3. The
real
rate
of
returns
is
lower
than
that
of
PPFs
a. Only
3
is
true
b. Only
2
and
3
are
true
c. Only
1
and
3
are
true
d. All
are
true
Explanation-the
tax
free
bonds
do
not
have
any
maximum
limit
of
investment,
are
taxed-TET
and
the
real
rate
of
returns
is
lower
than
that
of
PPFs
a. Only
1
is
true
b. Only
2
and
3
are
true
c. Only
1
and
3
are
true
d. All
are
true
13. Consider
the
following
statements
1. Subsidy
leads
to
mis-allocation
of
resources
2. Government
cross-subsidizes
in
case
of
electricity
and
train
fares
a. Only
1
is
true
b. Only
2
is
true
c. Both
are
true
d. Both
are
false
The
government
has
various
tariff
rates
in
case
of
electricity
and
railway.
In
such
cases
it
overcharges
one
segment
and
subsidizes
the
other
heavily
hence
provides
cross-subsidization
a. Only
1
is
true
b. Only
2
is
true
c. Both
are
true
d. Both
are
false
Explanation-The
higher
rate
of
returns
on
SSS
is
an
incentive
for
the
investors
to
save
and
invest
more
but
the
higher
rate
may
also
act
as
an
disincentive
as
the
returns
are
higher,
the
future
financial
obligations
could
be
taken
care
of.
a. Only
1
is
true
b. Only
2
is
true
c. Both
are
true
d. Both
are
false
Explanation-
The
SSS
must
be
treated
as
EET
(practice
is
catching
up
globally)
because
a. The
investor
has
higher
ability
to
pay
b. If
taxed
at
the
withdrawal
it
will
promote
more
savings
and
penalize
dis-savings
c. It
promotes
future
consumption
d. If
taxed
at
the
beginning
it
will
be
penalizing
savings
e. There
is
no
uncertainty
in
the
tax
treatment
for
the
SSS
16. Consider
the
following
regarding
PAHAL
1. It
is
a
form
of
direct
subsidy
2. AADHAAR
is
mandatory
3. The
government
has
decided
not
to
give
LPG
subsidy
to
households
having
an
annual
income
greater
than
5
lakh
rupees
a. Only
1
is
true
b. Only
2
and
3
are
true
c. Only
1
and
3
are
true
d. All
are
true
Explanation-AADHAAR
number
is
not
mandatory
for
availing
LPG
subsidy,
it
is
a
form
of
direct
subsidy
and
the
government
has
decided
not
to
give
this
subsidy
to
those
houses
with
annual
income
greater
than
10
lakh
rupees
17. Which
of
the
following
committee
was
set
up
by
government
to
recommend
regarding
rates
for
GST
a. Subramanian
committee
b. Kelkar
committee
c. Mudgal
committee
d. Rangarajan
committee
19. Consider
the
following
statements
1. Gold
is
a
strong
demerit
good
2. Education
and
health
are
other
two
examples
of
demerit
goods
a. Only
1
is
true
b. Only
2
is
true
c. Both
are
true
d. Both
are
false
Explanation-as
per
one
of
the
classification
for
goods,
there
are
two
types-merit
and
demerit.
Consumption
of
merit
goods
is
good
for
the
society
whereas
the
consumption
of
non-merit
goods
does
not
contribute
to
the
welfare
of
the
society.
Hence
gold
is
a
non-merit
good
whereas;
education
and
health
are
merit
goods
20. In
order
to
rationalize
subsidy
spending,
the
government
has
implemented
1.
DBT
in
LPG
2. DBT
in
Kerosene
3. Rationalizing
tax
exemptions
to
corporate
sector
a. Only
1
is
true
b. Only
2
and
3
are
true
c. Only
1
and
3
are
true
d. All
are
true
TnL
CA
ES
Question
Bank
-
Chapter
7
-
Fiscal
Capacity
a. Only
1
b. Only
2
and
3
c. Only
1
and
3
d. All
the
three
Explanation-tax
is
an
obligation
of
every
Indian
citizen.
It
is
the
link
that
binds
the
citizen
with
the
government
and
creates
an
accountability
framework.GST
is
a
type
of
indirect
tax
and
it
is
the
corporate
tax
which
has
been
contributing
the
highest
out
of
the
total
taxes
collected.
a. Only
1
b. Only
2
c. Both
d. None
of
the
two
Explanation-currently
it
is
Central
Board
of
Direct
Taxes
and
Central
Board
of
Excise
and
Customs
that
formulate
the
policy
but
the
government
has
proposed
TPC
and
TPRU
to
take
over
these
functions.
3. The
property
tax
1. Is
a
direct
tax
2. Taxed
differently
at
all
the
three
levels
of
government
3. Would
limit
property
speculation
a. Only
2
is
correct
b. Only
2
and
3
are
correct
c. Only
1
and
3
are
correct
d. All
the
three
are
correct
a. Is
a
direct
tax
b. Is
taxed
differently
at
all
the
three
levels
of
government
c. Could
turn
out
to
be
the
important
source
of
revenue
for
the
local
bodies
(if
reformed)
d. Usually
collected
at
municipalities
e. Higher
property
tax
may
lead
to
end
of
property
price
speculation
f. Is
important
because
it
is
levied
on
an
immovable
good
4. Fiscal
capacity
refers
to
1. Expenditure
2. revenue
a. Only
1
b. Only
2
c. Both
d. None
Explanation-strictly
under
economics
the
fiscal
capacity
refers
to
ability
of
a
group
or
institution
is
its
ability
to
generate
income/revenues.
5. What
are
the
determinants
of
fiscal
capacity
1. Monetary
policy
2. Disinvestment
policy
3. Taxation
policy
a. Only
2
b. Only
2
and
3
c. Only
1
and
3
d. All
Explanation-
fiscal
capacity
refers
to
ability
of
a
group
or
institution
is
its
ability
to
generate
income/revenues
so
the
government
uses
taxation
policy
and
disinvestment
policy
in
the
budget
to
raise
the
revenues.
6. GST
will
have
a
limited
impact
on
broadening
the
citizens
participation
because
1. The
rates
of
GST
is
very
less
2. GST
is
a
direct
tax
3. The
common
doesnt
consider
the
tax
paid
as
a
direct
contribution
to
the
government
a. Only
2
b. Only
3
c. Only
2
and
3
d. All
Explanation-
It
has
been
observed
that
only
the
payment
of
direct
taxes
pinches
a
common
man
and
he
doesnt
consider
the
indirect
taxes
as
his
direct
contribution
to
the
government
so
the
implementation
of
GST
is
not
going
to
receive
increased
participation
of
common
man
a. Only
1
is
true
b. Only
2
is
true
c. Both
are
true
d. Both
are
false
The
correct
option
is
a
Explanation-
around
85%
of
the
economy
is
outside
the
tax
net
in
India
and
roughly
5.5%
of
earning
individuals
are
under
the
tax
net.
9. Although
compared
to
other
countries
Indias
fiscal
capacity
is
under
performing,
there
is
no
need
of
panic
because
1. The
western
countries
have
much
longer
period
of
political
evaluation
2. The
economies
in
the
developed
countries
have
expanded
because
of
wars
a. Only
1
b. Only
2
c. Both
d. None
are
true
Explanation-the
western
countries
have
had
a
very
long
period
of
political
evaluation
and
have
gone
through
the
most
difficult
economic
scenarios
(great
depression
of
1930s)
and
their
economies
have
expanded
as
a
result
of
two
world
wars
so
in
comparison
India
would
not
be
performing
that
badly
a. Only
1
b. Only
1
and3
c. Only
2
and
3
d. All
11. Which
of
the
following
is
going
to
reduce
the
fiscal
capacity
of
a
country
1. Missing
taxpayers
2. Exiting
of
the
taxpayers
3. Well
directed
subsidy
a. Only
1
b. Only
1
and3
c. Only
1
and
2
d. All
Explanation-
The
revenues
reduce
when
the
increase
in
the
income
tax
exemption
limit
leads
to
more
number
of
income
earners
getting
exempted
from
paying
tax
(missing
taxpayers)
and
the
tax
payers
who
believe
that
their
taxes
are
not
being
well
utilized
may
exit
by
not
using
any
of
the
services
provided
by
the
government
and
not
paying
any
taxes.
In
case
of
well
directed
subsidies,
the
fiscal
capacity
will
increase
as
the
subsidy
burden
is
reduced.
a. Only
1
is
true
b. Only
2
is
true
c. Both
are
true
d. Both
are
false
Explanation-TPRU-
a. Carry-out
studies
on
various
topics
of
fiscal
and
tax
policies
referred
to
it
by
CBDT
and
CBEC
and
will
provide
independent
analysis
on
such
topics
b. Will
also
prepare
and
disseminate
policy
papers
and
background
papers
on
various
tax
policy
issues
c. Will
assist
Tax
Policy
Council
chaired
by
FM
in
taking
appropriate
tax
policy
decisions
d. Liaise
with
State
Commercial
Tax
Departments.
13. What
should
have
been
the
ideal
taxpayer
to
voter
turnout
ratio
for
India
a. 5.5%
b. 4%
c. 7.9%
d. 23%
a. Only
2
is
correct
b. Only
2
and
3
are
correct
c. Only
1
and
3
are
correct
d. All
the
three
are
correct
Explanation-TPC
(Tax
Policy
Council)-Will
be
headed
by
Finance
Minister.
The
Tax
Policy
Council
will
look
at
all
the
research
findings
coming
from
Tax
Policy
Research
(TPRU)
Unit
and
suggest
broad
policy
measures
for
taxation.
The
Council
will
be
advisory
in
nature,
which
will
help
the
Government
in
identifying
key
policy
decisions
for
taxation.
15. TPC
and
TPRU
are
the
recommendations
of
a. TARC
b. ARC
c. FSLRC
d. None
of
the
above
Explanation-Tax
Policy
Council
and
Tax
Policy
Research
Unit
are
the
recommendations
of
Tax
Administrative
Reforms
Commission
16. _________
recently
recommended
changes
to
provisions
of
IT
act
of
1961
a. Easwar
committee
b. Kelkar
committee
c. Subramanian
committee
d. Rangarajan
committee
17. The
government
has
taken
following
measure/s
in
the
field
of
taxation
1. e-filing
of
IT
2. e-Sahyog
3. TPC
and
TPRU
a. Only
1
b. Only
2
and
3
c. Only
1
and
3
d. All
the
three
TnL
CA
ES
Question
Bank
-
Chapter
8
-
India
&
Trade
2. Which
member
country
of
WTO
has
not
signed
even
one
PTA
1.
Sudan
2. Mongolia
3. Vietnam
4. Laos
Explanation-
Partial
Scope
Arrangement- allows for trade between countries on a small number of
goods.
Free
Trade
Agreement-is a preferential agreement wherein members will reduce tariffs on
trade amongst themselves whereas for rest of the world they will impose their own tariffs
Customs
Union-is
a
free
trade
agreement
where
members apply a Common External Tariff
schedule to imports from other countries
Common
Market- is a customs union where movement of factors of production is
relatively free amongst member countries
Economic
Union-is
a
common
market
where
member countries co-ordinate on their macro-
economic and exchange rate policies
Explanation-
Explanation-
Economic
Union-is
a
common
market
where
member countries co-ordinate on their macro-
economic and exchange rate policies
6. India
has
signed
which
of
the
following
FTAs
1. SAFTA
2. ASEAN
3. MERCOSUR
a. Only
1
b. 1
and
3
c. Only
2
d. All
Explanation-
India
has
signed
FTA
in
services
and
investments
with
ASEAN
(Association
of
South-
East
Asian
Nations)
in
2010.
SAFTA
stands
for
South
Asian
Free
Trade
Area
which
was
concluded
in
2004
between
Afghanistan,
Bangladesh,
Pakistan,
India,
Sri
Lanka,
Bhutan,
Nepal
and
Maldives.
India-MERCOSUR
PTA
was
signed
in
2004
7. A
Customs
Union
refers
to
1. Is a preferential agreement wherein members will reduce tariffs on trade amongst
themselves whereas for rest of the world they will impose their own tariffs
2. Is
a
FTA
where
members apply a Common External Tariff schedule to imports from
other countries
3. Is
a
customs
union
where
movement
of
factors
of
production
is
relatively
free
amongst
the
member
countries
4. Is
a
common
market
where
member
countries
co-ordinate
their
macroeconomic
and
exchange
rate
policies
Explanation-
Customs
Union-is
a
free
trade
agreement
where
members apply a Common External Tariff
schedule to imports from other countries
8. The
increased
exports
will
lead
to
__________
of
Indian
currency
1. Depreciation
2. Appreciation
3. Both
are
independent
of
each
other
4. Devaluation
9. Consider
the
following
statements
on
SAFTA
(South
Asia
Free
Trade
Agreement)
1. It
replaced
SAPTA
2. Consists
of
seven
member
countries
of
SAARC
3. India
and
Pakistan
are
both
the
members
a. Only
1
is
true
b.
2
and
3
is
true
c. 1
and
3
are
true
d. All
are
true
a. Only
1
b. 1
and
3
c. Only
2
d. All
Explanation-
India
has
signed
FTAs
with
Sri-Lanka
(1998),
Afghanistan
(2003),
Malaysia
(2011),
Korea
(2009)
etc.
The
FTAs
between
India
and
China
are
at
various
stages
of
negotiations.
11. The
higher
inflow
of
FDI
into
India
will
lead
to
_________
of
Indian
currency
1. Depreciation
2. Appreciation
3. Both
are
independent
of
each
other
4. Devaluation
Explanation-
The
supply
of
foreign
currencies
increases
thereby
increasing
the
demand
for
Indian
rupees
and
thus
appreciating
its
value.
12. The
impact
of
TPP
on
India
could
be
1. The
exports
will
increase
rapidly
2. Will
contribute
2%
to
GDP
a. Only
1
is
true
b. Only
2
is
true
c. Both
are
false
d. Bothe
are
true
Explanation-one
of
the
main
objectives
of
TPP
is
to
reduce/eliminate
all
trade
and
non-trade
barriers
once
this
happens
the
countries
such
as
India
may
start
diverting
their
exports
to
these
countries
hence
it
is
expected
that
there
will
be
a
marginal
increase
exports
and
the
overall
effect
would
be
-0.2%
on
the
GDP.
a. Only
1
is
true
b. 1
and
3
are
true
c. Only
2
is
true
d. All
are
true
Explanation-TPP
has
12
members-Canada,
US,
Mexico,
Peru,
Chile,
New
Zealand,
Australia,
Singapore,
Brunei,
Malaysia,
Vietnam
and
Japan.
a. Only
1
is
true
b. 1
and
3
are
true
c. 2
and
3
are
true
d. All
are
true
16. The
evaluation
of
Indias
FTA
shows
that
1. There
has
been
no
visible
increase
in
the
trade
with
implementation
of
FTAs
2. It
takes
a
very
long
time
for
FTAs
to
show
the
effects
on
the
trade
3. The
increase
in
the
trade
has
been
more
on
import
side
compared
to
the
export
side
a. Only
3
is
true
b. 1
and
3
are
true
c. 2
and
3
are
true
d. All
are
true
Explanation-the
FTAs
have
increased
the
trade
with
FTA
countries
in
a
perceptible
manner.
The
effect
has
begun
in
the
first
year
and
thereafter
has
been
increasing
in
the
coming
years.
The
increase
in
the
imports
has
been
greater
than
the
exports
as
India
has
had
higher
tariff
reductions.
TnL
CA
ES
Question
Bank
-
Chapter
9
-
The
Fertilizer
Sector
1. Which
of
the
following
are
the
provisions
under
New
Urea
Policy
2015
1. It
aims
to
increase
domestic
production
of
all
the
fertilizers
2.
The
government
of
India
to
announce
MSP
for
urea
3. Gas
pooling
policy
a. Only
1
is
correct
b. 2
and
3
are
correct
c. Only
3
is
correct
d. All
are
correct
3. Gas
pooling
policy
for
urea
production
refers
to
a. All
the
urea
producers
will
get
the
gas
from
the
same
supplier
b. All
the
urea
producers
will
get
the
gas
at
the
same
rate
c. All
the
urea
producers
will
get
same
type
of
gas
d. None
of
the
above
Explanation-Previously
the
producers
of
gas
were
to
make
their
own
arrangements
regarding
buying
the
gas
for
producing
the
urea
but
since
the
announcement
of
gas
pooling
policy,
all
the
producers
of
urea
will
get
the
gas
at
the
same
price,
which
will
promote
competition
and
also
reduce
the
prices
a. Only
1
is
correct
b. 2
and
3
are
correct
c. Only
3
is
correct
d. All
are
correct
6. The
new
urea
policy
is
applicable
for
the
period
1. 2015-16
to
2018-19
2. 2015-16
to
2020-21
3. 2014-15
to
2019-20
4. 2014-15
to
2022-23
Explanation-New
Urea
Policy
was
announced
by
the
government
in
2015
and
will
be
applicable
for
a
period
of
4
years
(from
2015-16
to
2018-19)
7. Which
of
the
following
fertilizer
consumes
the
highest
subsidy
allocated
for
fertilizers
a. Urea
b. DAP
c.
MOP
d. None
of
the
above
Explanation-of the total subsidy given to fertilizers in 2015-16, urea accounted for 70% of it
a. Only
1
is
correct
b. 2
and
3
are
correct
c. Only
3
is
correct
d. All
are
correct
a. Only
1
is
correct
b. 2
and
3
are
correct
c. Only
3
is
correct
d. All
are
correct
a. Only
1
is
correct
b. 1
and
3
are
correct
c. Only
3
is
correct
d. All
are
correct
Hence
of
the
total
subsidy
given
to
it,
only
about
35%
reaches
the
intended
beneficiaries
(small
and
marginal
farmers)
11. Which
of
the
following
fertilizers
is
not
produced
in
India
a. Urea
b. MOP
c. DAP
d. None
of
the
above
The
correct
option
is
b
Explanation-as
there
are
no
viable
sources
for
production
of
MOP,
the
whole
demand
for
this
is
met
through
the
imports
12. Which
of
the
following
is
allowed
to
import
Urea
1. MMTC
2. IPL
3. STC
4. NABARD
a. 1
and
2
b. 1
and
3
c. 1,2
and
3
d. All
the
four
Explanation-the
import
of
urea
is
canalized-only
three
agencies
are
allowed
to
import
the
urea-
STC
(State
Trading
Corporation),
MMTC
(Metals
and
Minerals
Trading
Corporation)
and
IPL
(India
Potash
Limited).
a. Only
1
is
correct
b. Only
2
is
correct
c. Both
are
correct
d. Both
are
wrong
Explanation-Urea
is
subsidized
heavily
which
makes
it
much
more
cheap
compared
to
MOP
and
DAP.
Although
we
import
it,
there
is
always
higher
demand
compared
to
supply
because
of
black
marketing,
diversion,
smuggling
etc
14. Consider
the
following
statements
regarding
MOP
and
DAP
1. Subsidy
given
is
based
on
the
cost
of
production
2. Imports
of
MOP
and
DAP
are
controlled
by
the
government
a. Only
1
is
correct
b. Only
2
is
correct
c. Both
are
correct
d. Both
are
wrong
a.
The
imports
are
not
controlled
b.
Government
gives
subsidy
based
on
the
amount(per
kg)
of
nutrients
used
(NBS)
c.
The
prices
have
been
deregulated
d.
Hence
the
subsidy
given
does
not
vary
with
the
market
prices
e.
Government
role
is
limited
to
paying
subsidy
to
the
importers/importers
15. Consider
the
following
statements
on
Nutrient
based
subsidy
1. Was
introduced
in
2012
2. Subsidy
paid
to
the
urea
producers
based
on
cost
of
production
3. If
the
fertilizer
is
coated
with
neem
then
extra
subsidy
is
given
16. Consider
the
following
statements
on
the
subsidy
given
to
urea
1. Government
fixes
the
MRP
at
which
urea
is
sold
to
farmers
2. The
subsidy
is
given
to
the
domestic
manufacturers
based
on
amount
of
nutrients
that
they
have
used
3. Imports
are
canalized
a. Only
1
is
correct
b. 1
and
3
are
correct
c. Only
2
is
correct
d. All
are
correct
a. Only
1
is
correct
b. 1
and
3
are
correct
c. Only
2
is
correct
d. All
are
correct
Explanation-
The
government
provides
high
subsidy
as
a
result
of
which
it
is
much
cheaper
than
MOP
and
DAP.
But
the
urea
used
only
for
agriculture
purposes
is
subsidized
hence
there
is
an
incentive
to
divert
the
subsidized
urea
into
black
market.
Only
3
agencies
are
given
the
permission
to
import
urea
and
any
miscalculation
in
the
requirement
may
lead
to
shortage
of
supply
and
diversion
into
black
market
18. As
per
the
experts
what
is
the
ratio
in
which
N,
P
and
K
should
be
used
a. 2:4:1
b. 4:2:1
c. 1:2:4
d. 1:4:2
Explanation-china
overuses
fertilizers
more
than
India.
Most
states
use
almost
twice
more
nitrogen
as
compared
to
phosphorous
than
is
recommended.
In
case
of
nitrogen
used
is
100%
more
than
potash.
a. Only
1
is
correct
b. 1
and
3
are
correct
c. Only
3
is
correct
d. All
are
correct
Explanation-
with
Decanalisation
there
would
be
more
importers
which
will
lead
to
better
estimation
of
demand
in
the
market.
It
will
also
lead
to
increased
imports
thereby
stabilizing
the
prices.
Since
the
supply
is
better
estimated
and
imports
are
allowed
more
freely
it
would
lead
to
reduced
black
marketing.
21. Following
which
measures
should
be
taken
to
increase
the
efficiency
of
urea
subsidy
1. Shifting
to
NBS
2. Deregulating
the
market
3. Neem
coating
a. Only
1
is
correct
b. 1
and
3
are
correct
c. Only
3
is
correct
d. All
are
correct
Explanation-
The
government
has
to
shift
to
NBS
and
deregulate
the
market
so
that
the
domestic
manufacturers
become
more
efficient
and
it
would
act
as
an
incentive
for
achieving
efficiency
as
they
will
be
allowed
to
fix
the
price.
It
will
also
lead
to
reduction
of
prices
thereby
also
reducing
the
black
marketing.
The
neem
coating
has
been
successful
in
reducing
the
diversion
of
subsidized
fertilizer
for
non-agricultural
purposes.
TnL
CA
ES
Question
Bank
-
Chapter
10
-
The
Labour
Markets
a. Only
1
b. 1
and
2
c. 2
and
3
d. All
the
three
Explanation-The
working
population
will
keep
on
increasing
till
2035-40
in
case
of
India
and
this
population
will
give
boost
to
economic
growth.
Explanation-If
India
wants
to
take
the
advantage
of
demographic
dividend
(in
favor
of
India
till
2035-40)
then
it
has
to
provide
good
jobs
(are
safe,
pay
well
and
encourage
skill
development)
4. The
biggest
constraint
in
hiring
a
regular
employee
today
is
a. Hiring
laws
b. Dismissal
norms
c. Bonus
act
d. None
of
the
above
The
biggest
stumbling
block
in
hiring
more
formal
employees
has
been
the
dismissal
norms
under
the
Industrial
Disputes
Act
(IDA)
5. In
which
Industry
(under
formal
sector)
the
maximum
number
of
good
jobs
been
created?
a. Manufacturing
b. Services
c. Exports
d. None
of
the
above
Explanation-The
manufacturing
industries
have
led
to
creation
of
more
than
50%
of
good
jobs
under
the
formal
sector
a. Only
1
is
true
b. Only
2
is
true
c. Both
are
true
d. Both
are
false
Explanation-
the
jobs
in
the
informal
sector
do
not
pay
well,
are
not
secure.
Although
the
maximum
number
of
jobs
have
been
created
they
are
not
good
jobs.
In
case
of
establishments
more
than
90%
of
these
were
set
up
in
informal
sector.
7. The
dismissal
norms
for
the
formal
sector
have
been
provided
under_______
a. The
Industrial
Disputes
Act
1947
b. Payment
of
Minimum
Wages
Act
1948
c. Payment
of
Bonuses
Act
1965
d. Companies
Act
2013
a. Only
1
b. 1
and
2
c. 2
and
3
d. All
the
three
a. Was
created
by
The
Employees
Provident
Funds
&
Miscellaneous
Provisions
Act,
1952,
b. Is
a
fund
to
which
most
workers
must
involuntarily
contribute
at
least
12
per
cent
of
their
basic
salary
c. For
all
employees
earning
lesser
than
Rs
15000,
it
is
mandatory
d. The
money
goes
into
an
account
managed
by
the
Employees
Provident
Fund
Organization
(EPFO)
and
is
meant
to
provide
a
lump
sum
benefit
to
workers
upon
retirement.
e. Employers
must
also
contribute
12
per
cent
of
their
employees
basic
although
about
70
per
cent
of
the
employers
contribution
goes
into
the
Pension
Scheme
(EPS)
while
about
30
per
cent
goes
into
the
EPF.
9. The
benefit
of
contract
labour
are
1. It
is
cheaper
to
hire
them
2. They
do
not
form
a
part
of
formal
labour
hence
the
size
of
the
firm
essentially
remains
unchanged
3. Since
company
has
outsourced
hiring
of
contract
labour,
it
did
not
worry
about
regulations,
labour
inspections
of
the
contract
laborers
a. Only
1
b. 1
and
2
c. 2
and
3
d. All
the
three
Explanation-
It
has
been
observed
that
hiring
contract
labour
is
14%
more
expensive
than
the
formal
labor,
but
hiring
contract
labour
has
two
advantages
a. The
size
of
the
firm
remains
same
so
it
continues
to
enjoy
same
benefits/exemptions
b. Since
the
function
has
been
outsourced,
the
management
and
regulations
of
these
workers
is
the
concern
of
the
contract
labour
firm
10. In
relation
to
contract
labour
and
the
firms,
consider
the
following
statements
1. In
India
hiring
of
contract
labour
has
increased
in
the
last
decade
2. The
same
has
been
observed
fir
the
world
also
3. Hiring
contract
labour
has
not
added
to
productivity
a. Only
1
b. Only
1
and
2
c. Only
2
and
3
d. All
the
three
11. Which
of
the
following
state
has
introduced
labour
reforms
a. Punjab
b. Uttar
Pradesh
c. Maharashtra
d. Rajasthan
a. Only
1
b. Only
1
and
2
c. Only
2
and
3
d. All
the
three
13. Consider
the
following
statements
1. Apparel
industry
is
an
employment
intensive
industry
2. Fertilizer
manufacturing
industry
is
an
employment
intensive
industry
a. Only
1
is
true
b. Only
2
is
true
c. Both
are
true
d. Both
are
false
Explanation-
a. The
apparel
industry
is
labour
intensive
as
30%
of
the
costs
are
in
the
form
of
wages
b. In
case
of
fertilizer
manufacturing
industry,
75-80%
of
the
production
costs
are
due
to
energy,
hence
it
is
not
employment
intensive
14. India
should
have
been
a
leader
in
apparel
industry
because
1. It
is
capital
intensive
2. It
is
labour
intensive
3. Only
a
fraction
of
the
costs
are
consumed
by
capital
intensive
inputs
a. Only
1
b. Only
1
and
2
c. Only
2
and
3
d. All
the
three
Explanation-apparel
industry
is
labour
intensive
wherein
25
to
30%
of
the
costs
are
in
the
form
of
wages
and
only
about
2-3%
of
the
costs
are
consumed
by
capital
intensive
inputs
like
power.
Hence
India
should
have
been
a
leader
as
both
favor
India
15. India
has
ceded
global
market
share
in
apparel
industry
to
following
countries
1. Bhutan
2. Vietnam
3. Bangladesh
a. Only
1
b. Only
1
and
2
c. Only
2
and
3
d. All
the
three
a. Only
1
is
true
b. Only
2
is
true
c. Both
are
true
d. Both
are
false
The
correct
option
is
a
a. Only
1
is
true
b. Only
2
is
true
c. Both
are
true
d. Both
are
false
a. Only
1
b. Only
1
and
2
c. Only
2
and
3
d. All
the
three
Explanation-
The
women
participation
in
work
is
limited
because
there
are
no
good
jobs
available
near
their
houses
but
this
apparel
firms
relocation
would
favor
the
participation
of
women,
will
also
be
commercially
viable
to
manufacturers
and
contribute
to
growth.
Hence
is
a
win-win-win
model.
19. The
firms
hire
contract
labour
because
a. It
is
cheaper
to
hire
them
b. They
exhibit
more
loyalty
towards
the
company
c. Slowness
of
labour
reforms
d. None
of
the
above
Explanation-Because
of
slowness
in
labour
reforms
especially
the
dismissal
laws
of
IDA,
the
firms
are
forced
to
hire
contract
labour
e. Only
1
is
true
f. Only
2
is
true
g. Both
are
true
h. Both
are
false
Explanation-it
is
14%
more
costly
to
hire
a
contract
labour.
Since
the
contract
labour
doesnt
owe
any
loyalty
to
the
employer,
he
doesnt
have
any
incentive
in
training/skilling
them.
a. Only
1
is
true
b. Only
2
is
true
c. Both
are
true
d. Both
are
false
Explanation-If
women
participate
in
equal
numbers
as
that
of
men,
then
the
GDP
growth
will
be
more
by
1.4%.
There
is
also
a
correlation
between
paid
employment
of
women
and
host
of
positive
outcomes
such
as
greater
investment
in
childrens
education
and
health
22. Presently
EPF
for
calculation
of
taxes
is
treated
as
_____
a. EEE
b. EET
c. TET
d. TTE
Explanation-The
contribution,
interest
accrued
and
withdrawals
all
are
exempt
for
taxation
purposes
hence
EPFs
tax
treatment
is
EEE
a. Only
1
is
true
b. Only
2
is
true
c. Both
are
true
d. Both
are
false
Explanation-in
case
of
EPF,
the
employer
incurs
three
costs-12%
contribution,
administrative
charge
of
0.85%
of
employees
salary
and
service
tax
of
about
3.54%.
EPFO
has
recently
introduced
various
new
initiatives-has
introduced
Universal
account
Numbers
for
all
employees
that
are
portable
between
employers,
has
reduced
transaction
costs.
TnL
CA
ES
Question
Bank
-
Chapter
11
-
One
India
&
Power
Sector
a. Only
1
is
true
b. Only
2
is
true
c. Both
are
true
d. Both
are
false
Explanation-
Open
access
policy
was
introduced
in
the
Electricity
Act
of
2003.
It
allows
the
consumers
having
a
requirement
of
more
than
1
MW
to
purchase
it
directly
from
power
exchanges.
a. Only
1
is
true
b. Only
2
is
true
c. Both
are
true
d. Both
are
false
Explanation-The
renewable
energy
targets
has
been
revised
from
32
GW
to
175
GW
by
2022
of
which
the
respective
components
are
solar
(100
GW)
+
Wind
(60
GW)
+
Biomass
and
others
(10GW)
+
small
hydro
projects
(5
GW)
Explanation-Peak
level
deficit
refers
to
the
shortfall
in
the
demand
and
supply
of
power
during
the
peak
levels
such
as
summer.
7. The
correct
breakup
of
renewable
energy
targets
is
a. solar
(120
GW)
+
Wind
(40
GW)
+
Biomass
and
others
(10GW)
+
small
hydro
projects
(5
GW)
b. solar
(100
GW)
+
Wind
(50
GW)
+
Biomass
and
others
(20GW)
+
small
hydro
projects
(5
GW)
c. solar
(80
GW)
+
Wind
(60
GW)
+
Biomass
and
others
(20GW)
+
small
hydro
projects
(15
GW)
d. solar
(100
GW)
+
Wind
(60
GW)
+
Biomass
and
others
(10GW)
+
small
hydro
projects
(5
GW)
8. recently
the
government
has
introduced
a
scheme
to
revitalize
the
distribution
companies
which
is_________
a. UJALA
b. UNNATI
c. UDAY
d. DDUGJY
Explanation-
The
government
of
India
has
launched
UJALA
(Ujjwal
Discom
Assurance
Yojana)
to
solve
the
debt
problem
of
Discoms
a. Only
1
is
true
b. Only
2
is
true
c. Only
2
and
3
d. All
are
true
a. Only
1
is
true
b. Only
2
is
true
c. Only
2
and
3
d. All
are
true
Explanation-the government of India has introduced following schemes in the power sector
a. Only
1
is
true
b. Only
2
is
true
c. Only
2
and
3
d. All
are
true
a. Only
1
is
true
b. Only
2
is
true
c. Both
are
true
d. Both
are
false
Explanation-Powergrid
was
set
up
in
1989
and
its
main
function
has
been
transmission.
(Electricity
supply
chain
involves
three
activities-generation,
transmission
and
distribution)
a. Only
1
is
true
b. Only
2
is
true
c. Both
are
true
d. Both
are
false
a. Only
1
is
true
b. Only
2
is
true
c. Only
2
and
3
d. All
are
true
a. States
shall
take
over
75
per
cent
of
discom
debt
outstanding
as
of
September
2015.
b. Reduction
of
Aggregate
Technical
&
Commercial
(AT&C)
losses
to
15
per
cent
by
2018-
19.
c. Reduction
in
difference
between
average
cost
of
supply
and
average
revenue
realized
(ARR)
by
2018-19
d. Increased
supply
of
domestic
coal
to
substitute
for
imported
coal.
e. States
shall
take
over
future
losses
of
discoms
in
a
phased
manner.
f. Banks/FIs
not
to
advance
short
term
debt
to
discoms
for
financing
losses.
g. States
shall
be
compensated
in
the
form
of-priority
funding
under
DDUGJY,IPDS
etc;
they
shall
also
get
additional
coal
at
notified
prices
etc
15. As
per
UDAY,
AT&C
losses
must
be
brought
down
to
a. 15%
by
2018-19
b. 17%
by
2020-21
c. 15%
by
2022-23
d. 13%
by
2018-19
a. Only
1
is
true
b. Only
2
is
true
c. Both
are
true
d. Both
are
false
1. DELP-Domestic
Efficient
Lighting
Programme
under
which
LED
bulbs
are
distributed
to
households
to
replace
all
the
incandescent
bulbs.
Recently
it
was
renamed
as
UJALA
(Unnat
Jyoti
by
Affordable
LEDs
for
All)
2. SLNP-Street
Ligthing
National
Progrmme,
wherein
street
lights
will
be
replaced
with
LEDs
For
the
implementation
of
this
scheme,
the
government
has
set
up
EESL
(Energy
Efficiency
Services
Limited).
17. As
per
the
budget
the
target
year
for
electrifying
all
the
villages
is
a. 2018
b. 2019
c. 2020
d. 2022
18. As
per
the
National
Tariff
policy
the
deadline
for
ensuring
24*7
electricity
to
all
is
a. 2019-20
b. 2020-21
c. 2021-22
d. 2022-23