CODE

KISHORE VAIGYANIK PROTSAHAN YOJANA

PRACTICE PAPER# 2
CLASS-XII
Time : 3 Hr. Max. Marks : 100

1. The Question paper consists of two parts (both contain only multiple choice question) for 100
marks. There will be four sections in Part-I (each containing 20 questions) four sections in Part-II
(each containing 10 questions). Answer any THREE of the four sections in Part-I and any TWO of
the four sections in Part-II.
2. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner on this sheet of this booklet.

3. The composition of the question paper is given in the table below :

S No. Subject Part-I Part-II

Mathematics 20 questions - 1 mark each 10 questions - 2 mark each

1

Physics 20 questions - 1 mark each 10 questions - 2 mark each

2

Chemistry 20 questions - 1 mark each 10 questions - 2 mark each

3

Biology 20 questions - 1 mark each 10 questions - 2 mark each

4

4. The answer paper is machine readable. Do not forget to mention your paper code and Roll Number
neatly and clearly in the blank space provided in the Objective Response Sheet (ORS)/Answer
Sheet.

5. For each question, indicate your answer by filling the corresponding oval with a HB pencil only.
6. For each question there will be four choices given and only one of them is the correct answer. Fill only
one oval per question. If you mark more than one oval, it will be considered as an incorrect answer.
7. There is negative marking for wrong answers. Unanswered questions will not be evaluated and will not
be penalized as a wrong answer.

8. In Part-I each correct answer gets 1 mark and for each incorrect answer 0.25 mark will be deducted. In

Part-II each correct answer gets 2 marks and for each incorrect answer 0.5 mark will be deducted.

9. You are permitted to use a non programable calculator.

10. Candidates are permitted to carry their question paper after the examination.

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 MATHEMATICS
1. The equation z2 = z , where z is a complex number, has
(A) 4 solution (B) 2 solution
(C) no solution (D) infinitely many solutions

10
x 1 x 1
2. The coefficient of the term independent of x in the expansion of 2 / 3 is :
x x 1 x x 1/ 2
1/ 3

(A) 35 (B) 70 (C) 105 (D) 210

a a2 a3 1
b b2 b3 1
3. If no two of the real numbers a, b, c are equal and 2
= 0, then :
c c c3 1
(A) abc = 1 (B) a + b + c = 1 (C) a + b + c = 0 (D) ab + bc + ca = 0

4. If the slopes of one of the lines represented by ax2 6xy + y2 = 0 is the square of the other for some
positive value of a, then a is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 8

5. The number of distinct points common to the curves x2 + 4y2 = 1 and 4x2 + y2 = 4 is
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 4

6. An ellipse has its major axis equal to the diameter of a circle and the area of the ellipse is one-third the
area of the circle. The eccentricity of the ellipse is :

2 2 2 2 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 3 3 3

7. Two perpendicular chords AB and CD of a circle meet at P. If PA = 2, PB = 18 and PC = 4, then the

diameter of the circle is :

5 17
(A) (B) 5 17 (C) 20 (D) 10 5
2

8. The value of cos 5 + cos 10 + cos 15 + .......+ cos 355 is

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 1 (D) 71 cos 5arc

9. In a square ABCD, points P on BC and Q on CD are such that AP = 4, PQ = 3 and QA = 5. The area of
ABCD is

256 256 256

(A) (B) 16 (C) (D)
15 17 18

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10. In a triangle ABC, AD bisects A. Suppose AC = 2, BD = 2, DC = 1. The value of cos B is

6 7 8 9
(A) (B) (C) (D)
7 8 9 10

11. The sides of a triangle are 9x + 1, 6x + 2, 3x + 3, where x is a positive integer. If the area is also an integer,
the number of admissible values of x in the set {1, 2, 3........., 20} is :
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 12

f (1 h)
12. Suppose f is a real function defined on R and hlim
0
exists. Then :
h
(A) f is not continuous at 1
(B) f is not continuous at 1 but not differentiable at 1
(C) fis differentiable at 1
(D) fis differentiable at 0

13. Consider the following statements :

(I) The derivative of an odd differentiable function is always even.
(II) If f(x) is differentiable at a point x0 and g(x) is not differentiable at x0, then f(x) g(x) is not differentiable
at x0.
Which of the following is true ?
(A) I and II are both true (B) I is true and II is false
(C) I is false and II is true (D) I and II are both false

sin[ x ]
, if [ x ] 0
14. If f(x) = [ x ] . (Here [x] denotes the integer part of x.) Then xlim
0
f(x)
0, if [ x ] 0

(A) is 1 (B) is 0 (C) is sin 1 (D) does not exist

15. Let f : [0, ) R be defined by f(x) = x x + 4

x . Then the range of f is
(A) [ 1/2, ) (B) [0, ) (C) { 1/4, ) (D) R

x
t
16. Let f(x) = e (t 1)(t 2) dt .Then f(x) decreases in the interval
0

(A) ( , 2) (B) ( 2, 1) (C) (1, 2) (D) (2, )

1
17. The value of x | x |3 / 2 dx is :
1

4 4 4
(A) (B) (C) (D) 0
7 5 3

18. Let fn(x) = log log ....log(x), where log is repeated n times. Then

x f ( x)f (x)......f
1 2 1dx
10 ( x ) is equal to :

f11( x )
(A) f11(x) + c (B) c (C) 10f10(x) + c (D) 11f11(x) + c
11

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19. The least value of x12 + x22 + x32 where x1, x2, x3 are real numbers satisfying x1 + 2x2 + 3x3 = 4 is
8
(A) (B) 1 (C) 4 (D) 2
7

20. A coin is tossed until one observes a sequence of exactly three tails. The probability that the experiment
comes to an end at 7-th toss is .
7 1 1 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
128 128 32 128

PHYSICS

21. Super cooled steam suddenly freezes to water. In this process,

(A) entropy of the system (steam) decreases, but entropy of the universe increases
(B) entropy of the system as well as entropy of environment decreases
(C) entropy of the system as well as entropy of the environment increases
(D) entropy of the system increases but entropy of the environment decreases

22. Isothermal compressibility of a substance is defined as :

1 V
=
V P T
where the derivative is taken keeping T constant.
V : Volume
P : Pressure
T : Temperature
For an ideal gas, equals
(A) R (Gas constant)
(B) P
(C) P1
(D) P ( is the ratio of specific heats at constant pressure and constant volume = (Cp/ Cv)

23. Consider two cases :

(i) A point charge q at the origin
(ii) A uniformly charged solid sphere of radius R (wth its centre at the origin) and total charge q.
Given below are graphs of a property X versus distance r from the origin for the two cases. The graphs
coincide for r R.

(A) X is electric potential due to point charge/charged sphere.

(B) X is magnitude of electric field due to point charge/charged sphere
(C) X is electrostatic potential energy of point charge/charged sphere
(D) X is charge density in space.

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24. One end of a cylindrical solid rod of length L and radius r is clamped in a fixed positon. The other end is
turned by an external torque resulting in a twist . The sheer modulus is given by . The twist angle is
proportional to :
(A) r1/L2 (B) r4/ L (C) L/ r4 (D) L / r4

25. A particle of charge q and mass m moves in a cirular orbit with angular momentum given by l . The ratio

of its magnetic moment to orbital angular moment l is given by

q q
(A) (B) q (C) (D) m q
m 2m

26. Thermal motion of atoms in a gas causes the spectral line emitted by the atoms to be shifted at random
towards both the red and blue. This leads to Doppler broadening of the spectral lines. If f is the frequency

f
of the spectral line and f is a measure of broadening of the line, the ratio is proportional to
f
(Proportionality constant is given to be dimensionless)

m kT 1 kT
(A) (B) (C) mkT (D)
kT m c m

27. Consider a sinusoidal traveling wave along a string, with amplitude A and wave velocity v. The power
carried by the wave is proportonal to
(A) Av2 (B) AV (C) A2v2 (D) A2 v
(The proportionality constant is not dimensionless)

28. Monochromatic light falls on a pair of slits mounted 24 cm in front of a photographic film. After exposure,
the film shows a series of bright bands spaced 0.20 cm apart. The separation between the slits is 6.0
10-3 cm. The wavelength of light is :
(A) 600 nm (B) 400 nm (C) 500 nm (D) 560 nm

29. Two clean mercury droplets when pushed into contact spontaneously coalesce to form a single droplet.
The single droplet so formed will :
(A) Be slightly warmer than the separate pair of droplets
(B) Be slightly cooler than the separate pair droplets
(C) Have the same temperature as the separate pair of droplets
(D) Be warmer or cooler depending on the size of each initial droplet.

30. The speed of a comet at perihelion (chosest to the sun) is 5.6 104 ms1, while its distance from the sun
is 9.0 1010m. At aphelion (farthest from the sun) its distance is 5.6 1012m. The comets aphelion speed
is :
(A) 1.0 km s1 (B) 900 ms1 (C) 504 ms1 (D) 5.6 104 ms 1

31. Consider two wave forms

y1 = A cos (k x t) and y2 = A cos (k x + t)
whose superposition forms a standing wave. Here x is in metres and t is in seconds. A node is found at
x = 10 m. The longest wavelength possible for this situation is
(A) 1 m (B) 40 m (C) 20 m (D) 10 cm

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32. The displacement x of a damped oscillator in one dimension is given by
x(t) = A e t sin (t + )
where x is in metres. The SI units of the constants A, , , are respectively
(A) m, s1, s1, dimensionless (B) m, s, s1, m
(C) m, s1, s, dimensionless (D) dimensionless, s1, s1, dimensionless

33. In the following reaction, a proton bombards a lithium nucleus at rest producing two -particles :
3
Li7 + 1H1 2 2He4
The total rest mass of the products is less than the total rest mass of the reactants by 0.01864 atomic
mass unit (amu). By mass-energy conversion formula, 1 amu = 931 MeV approximately. This means that
(A) The kinetic energy of the proton 17.4 MeV
(B) The total kinetic energy of two - particles is more than the kinetic energy of the proton by 17.4 Mev
(C) Each -particle has a kinetic energy of 8.7 MeV.
(D) The protons kinetic energy is 8.7 MeV more than that of each -article

34. The radius of the first (n = 1) orbit in Bohrs model of hydrogen atom is 0.53 1010 m. (Plancks constant
h = 6.63 1034 Js, mass of electorn = 9.11 103t kg). The speed of the electron in this orbit is
approximately
(A) 3.0 1010 m s1 (B) 1.4 107 m s 1 (C) 3.5 107 m s 1 (D) 2.2 107 m s 1

35. In an electric motor, two parallel wires 60 cm long are separated by a distance of 1.5 cm. The wires have
non-magnetic insulation between them. A short circuit in the motor results suddenly in a large current of
4000 A. The currents flow in opposite directions in the two wires. Then
(A) There will be a repulsive force of 128 N on each wire
(B) There will be an attractive force of 128 N on each wire
(C) There will be no force experienced by any wire, since they are insulated.
(D) There will be a force along the length of each wire, of magnitude128 N.

36. Let be the typical de Broglie wavelength associated with an He atom in helium gas at room temperature
T (20C) and pressure P(1 atomosphere).Let d be the mean separation between helium atoms under
these conditions.Then
(A) is greater than d under the given T and P.
(B) is less than d under the given T and P.
(C) is equal to d under the given T and P
(D) The ratio of to d has no relation to T or P.

37. In a plane electromagnetic wave of frequency f traveling in free space with speed c, the elctric field
magnitude E and magnetic field amplitude B are related ( In S.I. units) by

E
(A) B = fE (B) B = cE (C) B = (D) E = fB
c
38. A resistor R and a capacitor C are connected in series to a 220 V, 50 Hz a.c. source. Let VR and Vc be the
r.m.s. voltages across R and C respectively. Then

(A) VR = Vc = 220 V (B) VR Vc = 220 V (C) Vc VR = 220 V (D) VR2 VC2 = 220 V

39. Two identical point sources P and Q vibrating in phase with the same amplitude generate sinusoidal
waves on a water surface.The sources are 6.5 cm apart. Two nearest points (from P) of destructive
interference along PQ are found to be at 0.7 cm and 2.4 cm from P. The total number of points of
destructive interference on the line segment PQ is
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 5

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40. An ideal gas is subjected to an isothermal -isochoric cycle 1 2 3 4 1 as shown.

V 4 3

1 2

On the pressure - density (P-) graph, this cycle is represented by

P P 2
4

3 3

1
4 1
2

(A) (B)

P P

2 2
3 3

1
1
4
4

(C) (D)

(A) Graph (A) (B) Graph (C) (C) Graph (B) (D) Graph (D)

CHEMISTRY

41. Li metal is a better reducing agent than Na metal because -

(A) The ionization enthalpy of Li is lower than that of Na
(B) The hydration enthalpy of Li is lower than that of Na
(C) The ionization enthalpy of Li is higher than that of Na
(D) The hydration enthalpy of Li is higher than that of Na

42. One mole each of the two gases X and Y are stored separately in two cylinders at 25C at pressures 1
atm. and 2 atm, respectively. The difference in the compressibilities of the two gases. (kx ky) is
(A) 0.1 atm1 (B) 0.5 atm1 (C) 1.0 atm1 (D) 2.0 atm1

43. (S)-lactic acid is

OH OH
OH OH
(A) (B) (C) CO2H (D) CO2H
CO2H CO2H

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44. The reaction between p-methylbenzaldehyde and NaOH is an example of -
(A) Aldol condensation reaction (B) Cannizzarro reaction
(C) Disproportionation reaction (D) Hydrolysis reaction

45. A saturated solution of BaSO4 is heated from 25C to 35C and the conductance of the solution and the
solubility of BaSO4 are measured. It is found that :
(A) both conductance and solubility increase
(B) both conductance and solubility decrease
(C) conductance increases but solubility decreases
(D) conductance decreases but solubility increases.

46. An ideal gas is subjected to a cyclic change as shown in the P-V diagram below :

C B

V
The step in which the gas will cool down is along
(A) AB (B) BC (C) both AB and CA (D) both BC and CA

47. The IUPAC name of

is
OH
(A) (3Z)-hept-3-en-1-ol (B) (3E)-hept-3-en-1-ol (C) (3Z)-hept-4-en-7-ol (D) (3E)-hept-4-en-7-ol

48. The Lewis acid strength of BF3, BCl3 and BBr3 follows the order.
(A) BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3 (B) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3 (C) BCl3 >BBr3 > BF3 (D) BCl3 > BF3 > BBr3

49. The total number of possible geometrical and optical isomers for [CoCl2(en)2]+ (en = 1, 2-diaminoethane)
is -
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

50. In balancing the reaction.

xH2S + 2NaNO3 + 2HCl = y S + zNO + kNaCl + 4H2O
one would get x,y, z and k, respectively, as
(A) 3,3,2 and 2 (B) 2,2,3 and 3 (C) 3,3,4 and 4 (D) 4,4,3 and 3

51. The overall order of a reaction involving two reactants, X and Y, which follows the rate expression Rate
= k [X]1/3 [Y]2/3 . Where k is the specific rate and [ ] represents concentration, is -
(A) 2/3 (B) 0 (C) 1/3 (D) 1

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52. In a Daniel cell in operation :
(A) Electrons flow externally from copper to zinc while anions flow from zinc to copper in solution.
(B) Electrons flow externally from zinc to copper while anions flow from zinc to copper in solution.
(C) Electrons flow externally from zinc to copper while anions flow from copper to zinc in solution.
(D) Electrons flow externally from coppper to zinc while anions flow from copper to zinc in solution.

53. In the pressure vs. molefraction of benzene curves/lines shown below, the total vapour pressure of an
ideal mixture of benzene and toluene will follow the curve/line.

0.5
2 1

P(bar) 3

4
0.0
molefraction (benzene) 1.0
0.0

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

54. sp3d2 hybridization explains the bonding in

(A) [FeCl4] (B) [Fe(CN)6]3 (C) [FeCl4]2 (D) [Fe(H2O)6]2+

55. The gas formed when conc. H2SO4 is added to a mixture of NaCl and MnO2, is -
(A) Cl2 (B) SO2 (C) SO3 (D) O2

56. The interatomic distance in O2+, O2 , and O22 follow the order
(A) O2+ > O2 > O22 (B) O22 > O2 > O2+ (C) O2 > O22 > O2+ (D) O2+ > O22 > O2

57. A naturally occuring polymer is

(A) Amylose (B) Polyvinylchloride (C) Teflon (D) Bakelite

58 The half-life of ammonia adsorbed on a Ni surface if the rate of desorption is 6.93 103 s1 , is -
(A) 0.01 s (B) 200 s (C) 0.05 s (D) 100 s

59. The number of facial atoms in a fcc unit shell is -

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) 8

60. The maximum amount of work produced by a heat engine operating between 200 K and 800 K if 100 J of
heat is absorbed from the hot reservoir, is -
(A) 100 J (B) 75 J (C) 50 J (D) 25 J

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 BIOLOGY
61. Embryonic stem cells are derived from,
(A) Inner cell mass of the blastocyst (B) Outer cell mass of the blastocyst
(C) Cells from morula (D) Cells from the placenta

62. The phase in which meiotic recombination occurs

(A) Diplotene (B) Zygotene (C) Pachytene (D) Diakinesis

63. SCID (Severe Combined Immuno Defficiency Syndrome) patients do not have
(A) T-lymphocytes (B) Platelets
(C) Monocytes (D) Erythrocytes

64. What is the maximum number of hydrogen bonds possible involving a water molecule ?
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

65. A strand of a nucleic acid having 60% of base A and 30% of base G is
(A) B-DNA (B) A-DNA (C) Should be an RNA (D) Single stranded

66. Tetracycline, cyclohexamide, and streptomycin inhibit :

(A) Transcription (B) Translation
(C) Splicing (D) mRNA editing

67. In the genetic code, a nonsense codon codes for

(A) An antisense amino acid (B) A sensible amino acid
(C) Does not code for any amino acid (D) Methionine

68. The dinosaurs became extinct at the end of the following period :
(A) Cambrian (B) Cretaceous (C) Ordovician (D) Silurian

69. The anticoagulant most commonly used in blood banks is :

(A) EDTA (B) Heparin (C) Sodium Citrate (D) Hirudin

70. Totipotent cell is

(A) A cell which can be differentiated into most of the cell types.
(B) A cell which can be differentiated to all cell types to form a complete organism
(C) A cell which can be differentiated into only a specific cell type
(D) A cell which does not differentiated at all

71. You have an infection of pneumococcus (a bacteria). Which part of the bacteria may be toxic to your body
and causes immunological reaction ?
(A) The outer cell wall lipoplysaccharide (B) The plasma membrane of the bacteria
(C) bacterial nucleus (D) Polysomes

72. Three nucleotides form a codon, which can code for a single amino acid. However, the same amino acid
can be coded by three different codons. These three codons are collectively called
(A) Puncture codons (B) Degenerat codons
(C) Nonsense codons (D) Termination codons

73. The reason for doctors advice for vaccination of newborns is :

(A) To increase the innate immunity of the baby
(B) To increase the acquired immunity of the baby
(C) To increase both, the innate and acquired immunity of the baby
(D) To protect the baby only against bacterial diseases

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74. If you start a bacterial culture with 100 E. coli cells and allow the culture to grow for 2 hours, approxi-
mately what would be the total number of E. coli in the culture considering E.coli has a doubling time of
20 minutes.
(A) 102 (B) 103 (C) 105 (D) 107

75. Bacterial Flagellar movement requires

(A) Energy through ATP hydrolysis
(B) Nutrient gradient
(C) Proton gradient coupled to transport
(D) Energy through GTP hydeolysis

76. Which of the following bio-molecules is responsible for the prion infectious diseases
(A) DNA (B) Protein (C) RNA (D) Lipid

77. Charles Darwins Theory of natural selection was heavily influenced by :

(A) Thomas Malthus An Essay on the Principle of Population
(B) Jean-Bapiste Lamark Philosophie Zoologique
(C) Issac Newton Principia
(D) Gregor Mendel Experiments on Plant Hybridization

78. Which one of the following chemical groups is not present in the nascent polypeptide chain of a protein ?
(A) Methine (B) Methylene (C) Amide (D) Phosphate

79. Identify the evolutionarily related proteins :

(A) Pepsin & Papain (B) Collagen & Collagenase
(C) Myoglobin & Hemoglobin (D) Lysozyme & Ribozyme

80. How many peptide linkages are present in a protein with 176 residues ?
(A) 174 (B) 175 (C) 176 (D) 177

MATHEMATICS

81. Suppose a, b, c are in arithmetic progression and a2, b2, c2 are in geometric progression. If a < b < c and
a + b + c = 3/2, the value of a is :

1 1 1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2 2 3 3 3

82. Let y = g(x) be a function whose derivative g'(x) has the following graph. Which of the following values of
g is the largest ?

2
1

1 2 3 4 5
1
2
3
4

(A) g(2) (B) g(3) (C) g(4) (D) g(5)

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83. Let ABCDEFGHI be a regular nanogon (9-sided polygon). If AB = x, AC = y, AD = z, then x, y, z are
related by
(A) z2 = x2 + xy + y2 (B) z = x + y (C) y2 = xz (D) 2y = x + z

84. If A is a 10 10 matrix with entries from the set {0, 1, 2, 3} and if AAT is of the form :

0 * * *

* 0 * *
* * 0 *



* * * 0
the number of such matrices A is :
(A) (43)10 (B) (42)10 (C) 410 (D) 1

85. In an ellipse, O is the centre, AB is the major axis and CD is the minor axis. Suppose the focus between
A and O is the ortho-centre of the triangle ACD. The eccentricity of the ellipes is
1 5 2 3
(A) (B)
2 2

5 2
(C) (D) not uniquely determinable
2

86. The integral [ x ]e x dx equals :
0

e e2 1 1
(A) (B) 2 (C) 1 (D)
e 1 e 1 e e 1

/2 /2
87. What is the value of cos1003 xdx cos1004 xdx ?
0 0

(A) (B) (C) (D)
2006 2007 2008 2009

88. Let f(x) and g(x) be real polynomials of degree 4 and 3 respectively with leading coefficients 4 and 3
respectively. Then
x
lim g( x ) e f ( t ) f ( x ) dt is
x 0

3 4
(A) 0 (B) (C) (D)
16 13
dy
89. The equation of the curve through the origin satisfying the differential equation = sin(x + y) + cos(x + y)
dx

(x y)
(A) log 1 tan =y (B) log |1 + tan(x + y)| = x
2

(x y)
(C) log 1 tan =x (D) log |1 + tan(x + y)| = y
2

90. Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} and f : A A be a bijection. What is the probability that f o f = id, i.e., f is its own
inverse ?
19 13 1 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
180 48 720 16

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 PHYSICS
91. Two stars of masses M1 and M2 form a binary system. The distance between the centres of the stars is
d. The orbital period is given by
2d3
(A)
G(M1 M2 )

2d3 / 2
(B)
G(M1 M2 )

2d3 / 2 M1 M2
(C) , where is the reduced mass = M M
G 1 2

2 d 3
(D)
G

92. A particle is stuck on the rim of a wheel of radius 50 cm. The wheel is rotating with an angular acceleration
of 20 rad s2. If at an instant the angular speed of the wheel is 10 rad s1, the total linear acceleration of the
particle is :
(A) 10 m s2 (B) 50 m s2 (C) 51 m s2 (D) 60 m s2

93. A beam of 30 keV electrons strikes different targets in different experiments. The lowest wave length cut
-off of the continuous spectrem of X-rays generated by beam for any target is
(A) 1.0 10 10 m (B) 3.0 10 10 m
(C) 4.14 10 11 m (D) dependent on the nature of the target

94. A bat flying towards a wall with a speed 9.0 m s1 emits ultrasound of frequency 90 kHz. (Speed of
ultrasonic waves is 340 ms1) The frequency of ultrasound received by the bat after reflection from the wall
is :
(A) 90 kHz (B) 94.9 kHz (C) 85.4 kHz (D) 99 kHz

95. A cylindrical glass vessel of height 18 cm and diameter 8 cm is 4 mm thick. It is covered with a1 mm thick
copper lid (Thermal conductivity of copper is 400 W K1m1) In a cold environment the water in the vessel
has got frozen into 0C ice. It is then immersed into a tank of 15C water. (Density of ice is 0.92 103 kgm3 and
latent heat of fusion of water is 333 x 103 J kg1) The time taken for the ice to melt completely is
(A) 9.2 s (B) 46 s (C) 18.4 s (D) 136 s

96. An upright cylinder of large base area is filled with water up to height H. Water is flowing out through holes
(1, 2 and 3) of equal diameter on the side of the cylinder at heights H/4, H/2 and 3H/4 respectively. Let x1,
x2 and x3 be the respective horizonatal distance covered by the water flowing out of the holes before hitting
the ground. Then
(A) x3 > x2 > x1 (B) x3 < x2 < x1 (C) x2 > x1 = x3 (D) x2 > x1 > x3

97. Ocean tides on the Earth are caused by the gravitational effects of the Moon (for lunar tides) as well as
the Sun (for solar tides). If the diameter of the earth were to increase by 20%, then
(A) Lunar tides would be strengthened but soalr tides would be weakened
(B) Lunar tides would be weakened but solar tides would be strengthened
(C) Both lunar and solar tides would be strengthened with lunar tides strengthening more than solar tides
(D) Both lunar and solar tides would be weakened with lunar tides weakening more than solar tides.

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98. The wavelength of radiation emitted by a hydrogen atom when it de-excites from its first excited state to
ground state (n = 2 to n = 1) is 121.7 nm. For the analogous transition in a positronium atom (bound state
of electron and its antiparticle called positron) the wave length of radiation will be approximately
(A) 243.4 (B) 121.7 (C) 60.85 (D) 0.53

99. The objective lens of a telescope has a diameter of 12.2 cm. The angular resolution of the telescope at the
wavelength of 500 nm is
(A) 2 10 x rad (B) 1.22 10 7 rad (C) 4 10 5 rad (D) 5 10 6 rad

100. A conducting rod of length 80 cm rotates with its one end fixed at the centre of a circular metallic ring and
the other end in contact with the ring. The angular frequency of the rod is 300 s1. There is a uniform and
constant magnetic field of 1.0T parallel to the axis of rotation. The emf developed between the centre and
the ring is :
(A) 48 V (B) 192 V (C) 36 V (D) 96 V

CHEMISTRY
101. The numbers of lone pairs of electrons in XeF2 and XeF4 respectively, are -
(A) 3 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 2 and 2 (D) 3 and 2

102. When 4 moles of N2 gas reacts with 16 moles of H2 gas in 10 lit vessel, 4 moles of ammonia gas is
produced in the equilibrium mixture.
The equilibrium constant Kc for this reaction in mol2 lit2 is -
(A) 0.4 (B) 0.2 (C) 0.8 (D) 1.6

103. The freezing point of pure benzene is 5.5 C. When 2.9 g of butane is dissolved in 200g of benzene, the
freezing point of benzene decreases to 4C. To lower the freezing point of benzene by another 1.5C, the
amount of butane that has to be added to mixture is -
(A) 5.8 g (B) 2.9 g (C) 1.5 g (D) 8.7 g

104. X and Y in the following reactions, respectively are

SO3H
O MgBr
(i)
cat
X Y
+
(ii) H3O

OH Q
(A) X = Q Y=

OH Q
(B) X = Q Y=

OH Q
(C) X = Q Y=
OH

OH Q

(D) X = Q Y= Q = Phenyl group

O

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105. The configuration at C-2 and C-5 in the following compound, respectively, are
OH

2 5

OH
(A) 2R and 5R (B) 2S and 5S (C) 2R and 5S (D) 2S and 5R

106. The cell potential of an electrochemical cell with the cell reaction
Zn + 2Ag+ (0.0001M) Zn2+ (0.1 M) + 2Ag, is
(A) 1.25 V (B) 1.35 V (C) 1.45 V (D) 1.55 V
Given that the standard cell potential is 1.56 V

107. Methyl chloride reacts with X at high temperature in the presence of a catalyst Y to give Me2SiCl2 as one
of the products. The compound can also be formed by reaction of silicon tetrachloride with an organome-
tallic reagent, Z.
X, Y, and Z respectively,are
(A) Si, Cu, MeMgBr (B) SiO2, Cu, Me2Zn (C) Si, Ni, MeMgBr (D) SiO2, Fe, Me2Zn

108. A chemical reaction takes place at 625 K with an activation energy barrier, E/R = 500 K. A catalyst when
used in the reaction reduces the activation energy barrier to 400 K. The temperature at which the rate
constant with and without the catalyst will be same is -
(A) 300 K (B) 400 K (C) 500 K (D) 600 K

109. A divalent transition metal ion with valence electron configuration 3d8 forms a complex with cyanide ion.
The correct identity of the metal ion, the complex and its geometry, respectively, are
(A) Fe2+, [Fe(CN)6]4 , and octahedral
(B) Ni2+, [Ni (CN)4]2 and tetrahedral
(C) Fe2+, [Fe(CN)6]3 and octahedral
(D) Ni2+, [Ni(CN)4]2 and square planar

110. The number of and particles to be emitted by 238U92 to give 206Pb82 , respectively, are -
(A) 8 and 6 (B) 4 and 3 (C) 6 and 8 (D) 3 and 4

BIOLOGY

111. In a double-stranded DNA coding for a protein, in principle, how many codon reading frames are possible?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 6

112. Which of the following is advantage of meiotic recombination in diploids ?

(A) Helps in maintaining chromosome length
(B) Ensures chromosome segregation
(C) Helps chromosomes to attach to the spindle microtubules
(D) Ensures new combinations of genetic traits

113. Plants obtain their nitrogen supply through bacteria of the soil because :
(A) Nitrogen is absent in the air and present in the soil
(B) Plants do not have a mechanism to absorb gaseous Nitrogen
(C) Bacteria are Nitrogen rich
(D) Getting nitrogen is a side-effect of a bacterial infection

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114. The number of genes in man (Homo sapiens) is X-fold more than in a fly (Drosophila melanogaster). The
value of X is
(A) 2 (B) 10 (C) 250 (D) 10000

115. You are supposed to mix a 3000 bp DNA fragment and a 600 bp DNA fragment in 1 : 5 molar ratio. If you
take 100 ng of the 3000 bp fragment how much of the 600 bp fragment do you require to get desired ratio
(A) 10 ng (B) 100 ng (C) 500 ng (D) 2500 ng

116. An enzyme that cleaves DNA recognizes an 8 base-pair unique DNA sequence. The probable number of
times this enzyme will cleave a 70 kilobase pair random DNA sequence is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

117. Mendels law of independent assortment when interpreted in a modern context indicates :
(A) Alleles are present on the same chromosome, but they assort independently due to recombination
(B) Alleles are present on independent chromosomes and these separate and assort independently
(C) Alleles are present on independent chromosomes and they can be sorted during meiosis.
(D) Alleles are present on the same chromosome and their combination is dependen

118. Fat absorption in the microvilli is by :

(A) Endocytosis
(B) Simple diffusion through the plasma membrane
(C) Facilitated diffusion
(D) Active transport

119. During the process of photosynthesis

(A) Glucose is synthesized during the dark reaction and ATP during the light reaction
(B) Glucose and ATP are produced during light and dark reaction
(C) Glucose and ATP are produced during the dark reaction
(D) Glucose is synthesized during the light reaction and ATP during the dark reaction

120. Identify the protein with more than one polypeptide chain.
(A) Myoglobin (B) Trypsin (C) Immunoglobulin (D) Lysozyme

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 HINTS & SOLUTIONS (PRACTICE PAPER-2)

ANSWER KEY
Que s. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. A D A D C C B C C B B C A D B
Que s. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. C A A D A D C B D C D A C B B
Que s. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. C A B D B D C D A D D B B B A
Que s. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. B A A C A D C B D A B A D B B
Que s. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. A C A A D B C B C B A C B B C
Que s. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. B A B C B B A A D D D C C C A
Que s. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105
Ans. B A C B A C D B D D D C B A A
Que s. 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans. B A A D A D D B A C A B D A C

PART-I (1 Mark)
MATHEMATICS

1. The equation z2 = z , where z is a complex number, has

(A*) 4 solution (B) 2 solution
(C) no solution (D) infinitely many solutions
Sol. z = a + ib

z = a ib
It is given : z2 = z
(a + ib)2 = a ib
a2 b2 + i 2ab = a ib
a2 b2 = a and 2ab = b
2ab + b = 0
b(2a + 1) = 0

1
b = 0 or a =
2
When b = 0, a2 b2 = a
a2 0 = a
a (a 1) = 0
So, a = 0, or a = 1
2
1 1 1
When a = , b2 =
2 2 2
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 1 1
b2 =
4 2

1 1 3
b2 = + =
4 2 4

3
b=
2
z = 0 + 0i or 1 + 0i
1 3 1 3
z= +i. or i
2 2 2 2
There will be four solutions possible.

10
x 1 x 1
2. 2/3
x x 1 x x 1/ 2
1/ 3

10
( x1/ 3 1)( x 2 / 3 x1 / 3 1) ( x1/ 2 1)( x1/ 2 1)

( x 2 / 3 x1/ 3 1) x1/ 2 ( x1/ 2 1)

1/ 3 10
(x 1) (1 x 1 / 2 )
1/ 3 10
x x 1 / 2
General Term Tr + 1 = ( 1)r 10 Cr (x1/3)10 r (x-1/2)r
10 r r
= ( 1)r 10 Cr x

3 2

10 r r
For the independent term =0
3 2
10 r r

3 2
20 2r = 3r
5r = 20
r = 4.
10!
So, independent term = ( 1)4 10 C4 = 4!6! = 210.

a a2 a3 1
b b2 b3 1
3. =0
c c2 c3 1

a a2 a3 a a2 1
2 3 2
b b b b b 1
2 3
+ 2
=0
c c c c c 1

1 a a2 a a2 1
1 b b2 b b2 1
abc 1 =0
1 c c2 c c2 1
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 1 a a2 a 1 a2
2
1 b b b 1 b2
abc +1 =0
1 c c2 c 1 c2

1 a a2 1 a a2
2
1 b b 1 b b2
abc 1 =0
1 c c2 1 c c2

1 a a2
1 b b2
(abc 1) = 0
1 c c2

abc = 1.

4. ax2 6xy + y2 = 0
2h
m1 + m2 =
b
6
m1 + m2 =
1
a
m 1m 2 =
b
a
m 1m 2 = =a
1
Given : m2 = m12
m 12 + m 1 6 = 0
(m1 + 3) (m1 2) = 0
m1 = 3 and m1 = 2
and m 1m 2 = a
m1 m12 = a
m 13 = a
a is positive, so a = (2)3 = 8.
5. x2 + 4y2 =1 ....(i)
2 2
4x + y = 4
y2 = 4 4x2
put in (i)
x2 + 4(4 4x2) = 1
x2 + 16 16x2 = 1
16 1 = 15x2
15 = 15x2
x2 = 1
x=1
y2 = 4 4x2
= 4 4(1)
y2 = 0
y=0
(1, 0) and ( 1, 0) are two common point. www.examrace.com
6. Diameter = major axis = 2a
radius = a b
a x
2 2
(0, b) y= a
Area of circle = a2
x2 y2 ( a, 0) (0, 0) (a, 0)
Let the equation of the ellipse be 1.
a2 b2
b
y= a2 x 2
a (0, b)

1 2 a b
Area of ellipse = a = 4 a 2 x 2 dx
3 0 a
a
b x 1 x
=4 a 2 x 2 a 2 sin 1
a 2 2 a 0

2
1 2 b a
a = 4
3 a 4

b 1

a 3

2 2
b 1 8 2 2
e= 1 = 1 = = .
a 3 9 3

PA PB 18 2 B
7. PD = = =9
PC 4
N
1 18 O
BN = AB = 10 4 P 9
2 C 2 D
M
1 13 A
MC = CD =
2 2
PM = MC PC
13 5
= 4=
2 2
5
ON = PM =
2
In ONB
2
5 25 425 5 17
OB = 10 2 = 100 = =
2 4 4 2

5 17
Diameter = 2 OB = 2 = 5 17 cm.
2
8. cos 175 = cos (180 5) = cos 5
cos 185 = cos (180 + 5) = cos 5
cos 355 = cos(360 5) = cos 5
cos 5 + cos 10 + cos 15 + ......+ cos 355
= cos5 + cos 10 + .....+ cos 85 + cos 90 + cos(180 85) + cos (180 80)
+ .......+ cos (180 5) + cos 180 + cos (180 + 5) + cos(180+ 10)
+ .......+ cos (180 + 85) + cos 270 + cos(360 85) + ......+ cos(360 5)
= cos 5 + cos 10 + .......+ cos 85 + 0 cos 85 cos 80 .......... cos 5 1
cos 5 cos 10 cos 85 + 0 + cos 85 + cos 80 + ...........+ cos 5 www.examrace.com
=1
9. By AA similarity
y Q a y C
QCP ~ PBA D
3 ax
ay ax 3
= = 5 P
x a 4
4 x
ax 3
= A a B
a 4

a
x=
4

ay 3
=
x 4

ay 3
=
a/4 4

13a
y=
16
In PAB
42 = x2 + a2
2
a
16 = + a2
4

17a 2
16 =
16

16 16 256
a2 = =
17 17

256
Area of square ABCD = a2 = .
17

10. By Angle bisector theorem A

x 2
4

2
x=

= x=4
2 1
B C
3 2 4 2 22 9 16 4 21 7 2 D 1
cos B = = = = .
23 4 24 24 8

18 x 6
11. s= = 9x + 3
2

s= (9 x 3)( 2)(3 x 1)( 6 x )

= 6 (3 x 1)( 3 x 1)( x )

= 6(3x + 1) x
x is a perfect square, so in 1 to 20, 4 perfect square i.e. possible values are {1, 4, 9, 16}.
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 f (1 h)
12. f(1) = 0 as lim exists.
h0 h
f (1 h) f (1)
lim f (1) exists.
h 0 h
So, f is differentiable at 1.

13. Statement I is true that the derivative of an odd differentiable function is always even and statement II is
also true that If f(x) is differentiable at a point x0 and g(x) is not differentiable at x0, then f(x) g(x) is not
differentiable at x0.

14. x 0, 0 x 1
1, 1 x 0

sin( 1)
sin1, 1 x 0
f(x) = 1
0, 0 x 1

lim f ( x ) sin1
x 0

and xlim
0
f (x) 0

lim f ( x ) does not exists.

x 0

15. x x > 0 for all x > 1.

and x + 4 x > 0 for all x < 0
So, range of f is [0, ).
x
t
16. f(x) = e (t 1)(t 2) dt
0

f(x) = ex(x 1)(x 2)

For decreasing
f(x) < 0
ex(x 1)(x 2) < 0
(x 1)(x 2) < 0 [ ex > 0]
x (1, 2).

1
17. x | x |3 / 2 dx
1

0 1
= x( x )3 / 2 dx + x( x )3 / 2 dx
1 0

0 1
= x 5 / 2 ( 1)3 / 2 dx + x 5 / 2 dx
1 0

0 1
x7 / 2 x7 / 2
= ( 1) 3/2 +
7 / 2 1 7 / 2 0

2 2
= ( 1)3/2 [0 ( 1)7/2] + [1 0]
7 7

2 2 2 2 4 www.examrace.com
= ( 1)5 + = + = .
7 7 7 7 7
18. x f ( x)f (x)......f
1 2 10 ( x ) 1 dx
Let f11(x) = t
dx
x f1( x )f2 ( x )......f10 ( x ) = dt

1.dt =t+C
= f11(x) + C.
19. Applying AM and GM condition :
x1 2x 2 3 x 3
6 x1x 2 x 3 1 / 3
3

4
6 x1x 2 x 3 1/ 3
3
Cubing both sides
64
6 x1x 2 x 3
27

32
x1x 2 x 3
81

2 2 2
x1 x 2 x 3 2 2 2 1/ 3
Now also
3
x1 x 2 x 3
2 2 2 2/3
x1 x 2 x 3 32

3 81

1/ 3
2 2
210 2

x1 + x2 + x3 3
38

1/ 3
2 2 2
38 2
x1 + x2 + x3
9 9

24
x 12 + x 22 + x 32 0 .6
9
x 12 + x 22 + x 32 1 . 6
So, according options least value is 2.

20. 12 3 4 5 6 7
at each position two posibility i.e. either H or T
So total posible outcomes = 27
As we want three tails is sequence and it happened at 7th turn. So at position 5, 6, 7 we have tails and
position 4 must have head otherwise our requirement is fullfilled at position 6.
So, the position 1, 2, 3 can have anything i.e. H/T = 23
To get tail at 1, 2,3 position we have only one probability.
So, total favourable cases = 23 1 = 7
7 7
required probability = = . www.examrace.com
27 128
 PHYSICS
22. PV = nRT
PdV + VdP = 0
1 dv 1

V dP P
= P1 (Answer is C)

1
23. E for point charge
r2
Force solid sphere
1
Inside the sphere E r and out side the sphere E
r2

L
24. =
r 4
L
So, =
r 4

25. Angular momentum, = mvr

Magnetic moment, = IA = nqr2 = qr 2
2
v 2 vqr
= 2r qr 2

vqr q
or (Answer is C)
2mvr 2m

2 2 1/ 2
26.
kT
=
ML T = [M0L0T0]
1 1/ 2
c m 2T M
Which dimensionally ratisfies
f 1 kT
= (Answer is D)
f c m
1
27. Average power, <P> = vA2w2
2
Av2 (Answer is A)

d 0.2 6 103
28. Wave length, = = 0.5 104 m
D 24
= 5 105 cm
= 500 nm (Answer is B)
29. (B)

30. By angular momentum conservation

m1v1r1 = m2v2r2 ( m1 = m2 )

5.6 10 4 9 1010
So, v2 = = 900 m/s (Answer is B)
5.6 1012 www.examrace.com
31. y = y1 + y2
= 2A cos (2Kx) cos(2cost)
x = 0, y = 0
20m (Ans. C)
32. A m (some as x)

1
sec1
t

1
sec1
t
= angle(dimensionless) (Answer is A)

33. KE = 0.01864 931 = 17.4 Mev

KEf KEi = 17.4 Mev
As proton is at rest (B) option is correct

mv 2 kq1q2
34. 2
r r

kq1q2
v=
mr

9 10 9
v = 1.6 1019
9.11 10 31 0.53 10 10
v = 2.24 106 m/s (Answer is D)

I
35. F
F

0 1 2
F=
2d

4 10 7 4000 4000 60 10 2
F=
2 1.5 10 2
F = 128N repulsion (Answer is B)

37. (C)

38. Phase different between VR and VC is 90

so, VR2 VC2 = 220 (Answer is D)

39. Distance between to consecutive destructive interference is 1.7cm, so total number of points of
destructive interference on the line PQ is 4. (Answer is A)

40. (D)

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 CHEMISTRY

41. The ionization energy or enthalpy of Na is greater than that of Li but the hydration enthalpy of Li is higher
than that of Na. Difference between ionization enthalpy of both is less than difference between their
hydration enthalpy so overall oxidation potential of Li is greater than Na. Therefore Li metal is a better
reducing agent than Na metal.

1
42. Compressibility K =
P
1 1
Kx Ky =
1 2
= 0.5 atm1

OH

43.
CO2H

44.

conc. NaOH
2CH3 CHO CH3 CH2OH + CH3 COOH

Cannizzarro reaction

45. On heating solution becomes unsaturated

solubility and conductance both are increase.

46. According to graph, segment BC represents isobaric process. It means pressure is constant so accord-
ing to Charles law V T [on constant pressure]
From B to C volume decreases so temperature will also decreases.

H H
6 4 3 1

47.
7 5
2 OH

when same groups present in same side of the double bond then geometrical isomer is known as
Z isomer.

48. Due to back donation electron defficiency of [B] almost neutral.

+ +
/////////////////////////

+
Cl Cl Cl
Cl Cl
49. en Co en en Co Co en

Cl
en en
cis/d
trans

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50. xH2S + 2NaNO3 +2HCl yS + zNO + k NaCl + 4H2O
Put the following value of variables in above equation
x = 3, y = 3, z = 2, k = 2
3H2S + 2NaNO3 + 2HCl 3S + 2NO + 2NaCl + 4H2O

51. R = k [X]1/3 [Y]2/3

1 2
order of reaction = + =1
3 3
52. Because Zn has higher oxidation potential than Cu. so Zn loses its electrons at an anode and convert in
Zn2+ ions and come into the solution. These electrons flow externally from zinc to Cu by wire.

53. Because ideal mixture of benzene and toluene follows Raoults law
according to Raoults law
Pmix = PA + PB

Pmix = XAPA + XBPB

Pmix = XAPA + (1 XA) PB

Pmix = XA(PA PB) + PB

This is a linear equation, by comparing with y = mx + c

y = Pmix
x = XA
m = PA PB
c = PB
according to above data graph will be like following -

PB
Pmix

PA

XA = 0 XA XA = 1
molefraction (benzene )

54. sp3d2 hybridization explains the bonding of complex which has C.N. (co-ordination number) 6 so answer
may be either [Fe(CN)6]3 or [Fe(H2O)6]2+. But H2O is a weak ligand and CN is a strong ligand.
Because weak ligand form an outer orbital complex with metal ion and this is possible when sp3d2
hybridization takes place.

55. 2NaCl + H2SO4 Na2SO4 + 2HCl

MnO2 + 4HCl MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2

1
56. Bond order = [N Na]
2 b

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 1
B.O. of O2+ = [10 5] = 2.5 Nb = no. of electron present in BMO
2
1
B.O. of O2 = [10 7] = 1.5 Na = no. of electron present in ABMO
2
1
B.O. of O22 = [10 8] = 1
2
1
Inter atomic distance
B.O
order of inter atomic distance ; O22 > O2 > O2+

57. amylose [it is a part of starch]

0.693
58 t1/ 2 =
K
0.693
t/12 =
6.93 10 3
t1/2 = 100 s
59. Because unit cell has six faces and every facial atom is a part of two unit cell. It means only half part of
one facial atom belongs to one unit cell.
1
so, total no. of facial atoms in fcc unit cell = 6 =3
2

T1 T2 W
60. = =
T1 Q1

800 200 W

800 100
W = 75 J
PART-II (2 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
81. a=A d
b=A
c=A+d
3
a + b + c = 3A =
2
1
A= =b
2
3
a+b+c=
2
3 3 1
a+c= b= =1 ....(i)
2 2 2
b2 = a 2c 2
2
1
= ac
2

1
When ac =
4
1 www.examrace.com
c= ...(ii)
4a
 From (i) & (ii)
1
a+ =1
4a
4a2 4a + 1 = 0
(2a 1)2 = 0
2a 1 = 0
1
a=
2
By this we get
a=b=c
But a < b < c, so we take
1
When ac =
4
1
c= ....(iii)
4a
from (i) & (iii)

1
a =1
4a
4a2 4a 1 = 0

4 16 16
a=
8

44 2 1 2
= =
8 2
as b > a

1 2
a=
2

82. g(x) is changing its slope from positive to negative as it passes through g(2). So, g(2) is largest.

92
83. B = 180 = 140 D
9

180 140 x
1=2= = 20 z
2
3
3 = 140 2 = 120 C
2
y
In ACD x
1
A
x B
y 2 x 2 z2
cos 120 =
2xy

1 y 2 x 2 z2
=
2 2xy

xy = y2 + x2 z2
z2 = x 2 + y2 + xy www.examrace.com
 0 * * *

* 0 * *
* * 0 *
84. AA =
T

* * * 0
As the diagonal element of resulting matrix are zero.
multiplication R1 of A and C1 of AT (i.e. = R1 of A) = 0
It is possible only when all element in R1 of A is zero
In the same way we can say that element of all 10 rown of A is zero so for the above condition we can
formm only 1 matrix i.e. A = null matrix.

(0, b) C

E
(0, 0)

85. ( a, 0) A (ae, 0) O B
F
D (0, b)

(i) As line DE and AC are so product of there slope = 1.

b 0 b
=1
0 ae a
b b
=1
ae a
2
b
e=
a
(ii) and line CF and AD are also
b0 b 0
=1
0 ae 0a
b b
=1
ae a
2
b
e=
a
(iii) and line AO is to CD
00 2b
1
0a 0
2
b
From (i) & (ii) case e =
a
But in (iii) case e cannot be determined. So, we can not determined uniquely.

1 2 3
86. [ x ]e x dx = 0e
x
dx + (1) e x dx + 2e
x
dx + ......
0 0 1 2

2 x 3
= 0 + e x + 2e + .........
1 2
= (e2 e1) 2(e3 e2) 3(e4 e3) .........
= e1 + e 2 + e3 ............
1
1 1 1 e 1
= + + + .......... S = = . www.examrace.com
e1 e2 e3 1 e 1
1
e
 /2 /2
87. cos1003 xdx cos1004 xdx
0 0

(1002 1000 998 .....2) (1003 1001 .....1)

=
2 1003 1001 ....... 1 1004 1002 ....... 2

=
2 1004

=
2008

x
88. lim g( x ) e f ( t ) f ( x ) dt
x 0

x
g( x ) e f ( t ) dt
= 0
lim f(x)
x e
x
g' ( x ) e f ( t ) g( x )e f ( x )
= 0
lim
x f ' ( x )e f ( x )

g( x )
= lim 0
x f ' (x)

3 x 3 .....
= lim 0
x 16 x 3 ....
3
= .
16
dy
89. = sin(x + y) + cos(x + y)
dx
let x + y = u
Differentiating wrt x
dy du
1+ =
dx dx
dy du
= 1
dx dx
dy
= sin(x + y) + cos(x + y)
dx
du
1 = sinu + cosu
dx
du
= sinu + cosu + 1
dx
du
dx
sin u cos u 1
Integrating both sides
du
sin u cos u 1 dx
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 du
dx

2 tan u / 2 1 tan 2 u / 2
2
2
1
1 tan u / 2 1 tan u / 2

sec 2 (u / 2)du
2 tan u / 2 1 tan 2
dx

u / 2 1 tan 2 u / 2

sec 2 (u / 2)du
dx
2 tan u / 2 2

sec 2 (u / 2)du
dx
2(tan u / 2 1)

Put 1+ tanu/2 = t
(1/2)sec2u/2du = dt

dt
dx
t

log |t| = x + c
log |1+ tanu/2| = x + c

(x y)
log 1 tan =x+c
2

It passes through origin.

log1 = 0 + c
c = 0.

(x y)
So, log 1 tan = x.
2

90. Total mappings of bijection is 6 !.

for self inverse

6! 4! 6 C 4 6
2! 2! 2! 3! + C2 1
2! 2! 2! + = 76
4 going to their own value
2 pairing 2 going to their own value

76 19
P= = .
720 180

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 PHYSICS

d
91. M1 M2
r1 r2

M1r1 = M2r2 and r1 + r2 = d

M2 d
so r1 = M M ........(i)
1 2

2r1
T = v ........(ii)
1

Here

GM1M2 M1v12
=
d2 r1

GM2r1
or v1 =
d

From (ii)
2r1d
T= GM2r1

2d r1
T=
GM2

2d M2d
T= M1 M2
GM2

2d3 / 2
T= (Answer is B)
G(M1 M2 )

92. a = r = 20 0.5 = 10 m/s2

93. For min

hc
min = K.E.

hc
min =
K.E.

6.6 10 34 3 10 8
min = 30 10 3 1.6 10 19 = 4.14 1011 m

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 V V0 340 9
94. App. frequency, N = V V N 340 9 90
S
N = 94.9 kHz

18 (3.96 )2 0.92
95. Mass of water, m = kg
10 3
m = 18102 (3.96)2 104 0.92 103
KA (1 2 ) t mL f
mLf = t = KA ( )
1 2

18(3.96)2 0.92 333 103 10 3

t= t = 9.2 s (Answer is A)
103 400 (3.96)2 15

96. Range, R = 2 (H h) h
(i) h = H/4

HH 3
X1 = 2 H
44

3
X1 = H
2
(ii) h = H/2
X2 = H
(iii) h = 3H/4
3 X2
X3 = H
2
X1= x3
X2 > X1 = X3 (Answer is C)

CHEMISTRY

101. Xe contains 8 electrons in its outermost shell or valence shell. In XeF2, Xe uses 2 electrons for bonds so
it contains 3 lp. In XeF4., Xe uses 4 electrons for bonds, so it contains 2 lp.

102. N2 + 3H2 2NH3

initial moles 4 16 0
at equilibrium

[according to question ammonia gas is produced = 4 mol]

2 = 4
put the value of = 2
42 16 3 2 22
moles at 2 10 4
equilibrium
concentration 2 10 4
at equil brium V V V

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 [NH3 ]2
KC =
[N2 ][H2 ]3

2
4

V
= 2 10 3

V V

42
= V2
2 10 3
8
= (10)2 ( V = 10L]
10 3
= 0.8 mol2 lit2

Kw 0
103. Depression in freezing point TF = m W
0
In given two cases m0, W and K are constants
so TF w0
( TF )1 ( w 0 )1
( TF )2 = ( w 0 )2

5.5 4 2.9
=
5.5 2.5 2.9 x
1.5 2.9
=
3 2.9 x
x = 2.9 g

I OH
II ' III '
2 5
2R and 5R
105. III II
OH
I '

106. Zn + 2Ag+ (0.0001M) Zn2+ (0.1M) + 2Ag

by nernst equation

0.059 [ Zn2 ][ Ag]2

Ecell = E log10
n [ Ag ]2 [ Zn]
[Ag] = [Zn] = 1

0.059 [ Zn2 ]
Ecell = E log10
2 [ Ag ]2

0.059 (0.1)
Ecell = 1.56 log10
2 ( 0 .0001)2
Ecell = 1.56 0.2065

Ecell 1.35 V

Cu(Y)
107. 2CH3Cl + Si (CH3)2SiCl2
(X)
SiCl4 + 2CH3MgBr (CH3)2SiCl2 + 2Mg(Br)Cl www.examrace.com
(Z)
108. according to Arrhenius theory
E

K = Ae RT

according to question K is same in both cases, so

E1 E2
RT1 = RT2

E1 and T1 are activation energy and temp. in absence of catalyst

500 400
= E2 and T2 are activation energy and temp. in presence of catalyst
625 T2

T2 = 600K

109. 28
Ni [Ar]3d84s24p0

Ni2+ [Ar]3d8 4s0 4p0

[Ar]
because CN is a strong ligand w.r.t. Ni2+ ion, so pairing of electrons takes place.

[Ar]
dsp2 hybridization

[Ar]
2
dsp hybridized Unhybridized
orbitals orbitals

In dsp2 hybridization geometry of complex is square planar.

238 206
110. 92 U 82 Pb x 24He y 01e
by balancing of mass no.
238 = 206 + 4x + 0y
x=8
by balancing of nuclear charge
92 = 82 + 2x 1y
92 = 82 + 2 8 y
y=6

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