QUIZ RESULTS FOR : Hole's Human Anatomy and Physiology : Chapter 14 : Blood : Multiple Choice Quiz with

feedback
The correct answer for each question is indicated by a .

Please answer all questions

1
CORRECT The average amount of blood in an adult is _____ L.

A) 2
B) 3
C) 5
D) 7
Feedback: Correct Answer: The average amount of blood in an adult
is close to 5 liters; males have more than females.
2
CORRECT The percentage of blood cells in whole blood is called _____.

A) plasma
B) hematocrit
C) erythrocytes
D) serum
Feedback: Correct Answer: Hematocrit represents about 45% of the
total blood volume and is also referred to as the HCT or packed cell
volume (PCV).
3
CORRECT The buffy coat evidenced by separating blood cells is comprised of
_____.
A) erythrocytes
B) platelets
C) white cells
D) platelets and leukocytes
Feedback: Correct Answer: The buffy coat contains the white blood
cells and platelets suspended between the red blood cells and
plasma.
4
CORRECT Which blood components transport most of the gases?

A) erythrocytes
B) platelets
C) leukocytes
D) plasma
Feedback: Correct Answer: Red blood cells transport most of the
oxygen as oxyhemoglobin and about 8-25% of the carbon dioxide as
carbaminohemoglobin.
5
CORRECT Each red cell contains about _____% of its volume as the pigment
hemoglobin.
A) 5
B) 10
 C) 33
D) 66
Feedback: Correct Answer: About one-third of the volume of an
erythrocyte is hemoglobin.
6
CORRECT Which cell has no nucleus when it is mature?

A) platelet
B) neutrophil
C) erythrocyte
D) lymphocyte
Feedback: Correct Answer: The red blood cells gradually lose their
nuclei as they leave the bone marrow and are released into the
circulation.
7
CORRECT Which of these factors will increase the RBC or RCC?

A) exercise
B) dieting
C) low body temperature
D) decreased altitudes
Feedback: Correct Answer: Periods of exercise, increased body
temperature, large meals and high altitudes all can cause an increase
in red blood cell count.
8
CORRECT Damaged or old red blood cells are removed by the liver and _____.

A) kidney
B) skeletal muscle
C) bone marrow
D) spleen
Feedback: Correct Answer: Although old cells will eventually lyse in
any area, the spleen and liver contain the macrophages (RES) that
will actively destroy most of them.
9
CORRECT Which of the following does not belong with the others?

A) heme
B) globin
C) bilirubin
D) biliverdin
Feedback: Correct Answer: The term globin refers to the protein in
the hemoglobin which can readily be recycled; the heme will be
degraded to bilirubin and biliverdin which are bile pigments which
must be eliminated.
10
CORRECT Iron is stored in the liver in the form of _____.

A) hemoglobin
B) transferrin
 C) ferritin
D) bilirubin
Feedback: Correct Answer: Ferritin is the protein which contains iron
and gives the liver its color; the transferrin proteins transport iron in
the blood.
11
CORRECT Which of these is the earliest of this cell line?

A) reticulocyte
B) erythrocyte
C) erythroblast
D) hemocytoblast
Feedback: Correct Answer: The hemocytoblast is the stem or parent
cell population of the developing erythrocytes and other blood cells.
12
CORRECT Red blood cells live around _____ before they disintegrate.

A) one month
B) 120 days
C) 21 days
D) three months
Feedback: Correct Answer: Red blood cells will maintain their
integrity and live about 120 days.
13
CORRECT Which organ has a primary role in stimulating blood cell formation?

A) kidney
B) liver
C) bone marrow
D) spleen
Feedback: Correct Answer: The kidney produces the hormone
erythropoietin which stimulates bone marrow; it is also made to a
lesser extent by the liver.
14
CORRECT What is the main site of erythrocyte production in the fetus?

A) bone marrow
B) kidney
C) liver
D) spleen
Feedback: Correct Answer: The liver manufactures red blood cells in
the fetus along with the spleen and bone marrow.
15
CORRECT Which of the following is a young platelet?

A) progranulocyte
B) basophilic band cell
C) monoblast
D) megakaryoblast
 Feedback: Correct Answer: The megakaryoblast becomes the
megakaryocyte which differentiates and fragments into the mature
thrombocytes or platelets.
16
CORRECT Which of these did not develop from a myeloblast?

A) basophil
B) monocyte
C) eosinophil
D) neutrophil
Feedback: Correct Answer: The myeloblast gives rise to the
granulocytes while the monocyte arises from the monoblast which is
agranular.
17
CORRECT Which of the following is least essential for erythrocyte
development?
A) vitamin B12
B) vitamin B6
C) folic acid
D) gastric intrinsic factor
Feedback:
Correct Answer: Vitamin B6 is pyridoxine and is more important for
epithelial and nerve function.

18
CORRECT Which of the following is an agranulocyte?

A) neutrophil
B) monocyte
C) basophil
D) eosinophil
Feedback: Correct Answer: The cells called agranulocytes do not have
the typical granules found in cells such as neutrophils; they are the
monocytes and lymphocytes.
19
CORRECT Which condition is characterized by an abnormal increase in red
blood cell count?
A) polycythemia
B) anemia
C) leukemia
D) porphyria
Feedback: Correct Answer: Polycythemia occurs for several reasons,
some related to environmental factors and others due to genetic or
autoimmune factors.
20
CORRECT Which condition is caused by a deficiency of vitamin B12?

A) aplastic anemia
B) pernicious anemia
 C) hemolytic anemia
D) hemorrhagic anemia
Feedback: Correct Answer: Pernicious anemia is fatal and involves a
severe drop in RBC counts.
21
CORRECT Which cells are also called polymorphonuclear leukocytes?

A) monocytes
B) basophils
C) lymphocytes
D) neutrophils
Feedback: Correct Answer: Mature neutrophils have a complex
nucleus that appears to have many segments to it.
22
CORRECT Which cells are the rarest leukocytes?

A) monocytes
B) basophils
C) eosinophils
D) lymphocytes
Feedback: Correct Answer: Under normal conditions, eosinophils
account for around 1-3% of the differential white cell count and
basophils less than 1%.
23
CORRECT Which white blood cells are the most common?

A) leukocytes
B) monocytes
C) neutrophils
D) lymphocytes
Feedback: Correct Answer: Neutrophils account for around 54-62%
of the white cell count; leukocyte is a general term for any white
blood cell.
24
CORRECT Which leukocytes are the largest in the peripheral blood?

A) monocytes
B) lymphocytes
C) basophils
D) neutrophils
Feedback: Correct Answer: Although immature cells are usually
larger than mature cells, the monocyte is the largest of the
circulating, peripheral leukocytes.
25
CORRECT Which leukocyte does not have phagocytic properties?

A) monocyte
B) lymphocyte
C) neutrophil
 D) eosinophil
Feedback: Correct Answer: Most leukocytes, especially the
neutrophil, are phagocytic but the lymphocyte does not have
phagocytic abilities but functions to secrete chemicals such as
antibodies.
26
CORRECT The condition called _____ is evidenced by a DIFF over 10,000 per
cubic mm of whole blood.
A) leukemia
B) polycythemia
C) leukocytosis
D) leukopenia
Feedback: Correct Answer: Leukocytosis is a higher than normal
differential white blood cell count but leukemic cells are abnormal
cancer cells; a deficiency of white cells is called leukopenia.
27
CORRECT Which of the following is a probable cause of leukocytosis?

A) mumps
B) chickenpox
C) influenza
D) appendicitis
Feedback: Correct Answer: Most infections and some inflammations
will elevate the white cell count but there are exceptions such as
salmonella food poisoning or measles that exhibit lower counts.
28
CORRECT The condition called _____ explains how a white blood cell could be
found in the urine.
A) phagocytosis
B) diapedesis
C) ameboid movement
D) infection
Feedback: Correct Answer: The ability to move through narrow
openings and leave the circulation is diapedesis; the movement is
ameboid and may be in response to an inflammation or infection.
29
CORRECT The _____ cells are actively involved with allergies.

A) eosinophil
B) erythrocyte
C) monocyte
D) neutrophil
Feedback: Correct Answer: Eosinophils release chemicals from their
granules such as histamines that cause the symptoms seen in certain
allergic reactions.
30
CORRECT The _____ cells are the usual sources of heparin.

A) eosinophil
 B) basophil
C) lymphocyte
D) monocyte
Feedback: Correct Answer: The basophils and tissue mast cells are
sources of the anti-coagulant heparin.
31
CORRECT Which cells release antibodies into the circulation?

A) monocytes
B) neutrophils
C) lymphocytes
D) basophils
Feedback: Correct Answer: The B-lymphocytes will respond to a
foreign antigen by producing chemical antibodies which are intended
to inactive the invader.
32
CORRECT What is the most common cancerous condition in children?

A) myeloid leukemia
B) lymphoid leukemia
C) acute lymphoid leukemia
D) chronic lymphoid leukemia
Feedback: Correct Answer: Acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL) can occur
at any age but is most common in children.
33
CORRECT Myeloid leukemia can be evidenced by an increase in _____.

A) lymphocytes
B) monocytes
C) neutrophils
D) platelets
Feedback: Correct Answer: Myeloid leukemia involves the
granulocytes such as the neutrophil, basophil or eosinophil.
34
CORRECT Megakaryocytes will differentiate into _____.

A) monocytes
B) lymphocytes
C) platelets
D) eosinophils
Feedback: Correct Answer: Platelets or thrombocytes are produced
by the fragmentation of stem bone marrow cells called
megakaryocytes.
35
CORRECT What is a normal platelet count?

A) 1 million per cubic cc

B) 200,000 per cubic mm
C) 1 million per cubic mm
 D) 10,000 per cubic mm
Feedback: Correct Answer: Platelet counts range from 130,000 to
360,000 per cubic mm of blood.
36
CORRECT Which components of whole blood account for clotting?

A) erythrocytes
B) eosinophils
C) platelets
D) neutrophils
Feedback: Correct Answer: The platelets release chemicals (factors)
that can initiate the clotting of blood.
37
CORRECT Which components are the source of serotonin which causes smooth
muscle cells to contract?
A) platelets
B) lymphocytes
C) monocytes
D) basophils
Feedback: Correct Answer: The platelets also play many roles in
several other reactions, such as inflammation or blood pressure
regulation, by releasing vasoactive compounds such as serotonin
which is a neurotransmitter substance.
38
CORRECT What is the most common component in the plasma?

A) sodium chloride
B) water
C) protein
D) platelets
Feedback: Correct Answer: Water accounts for 92% of the plasma.
39
CORRECT How much of the plasma is protein?

A) 10%
B) 7%
C) 25%
D) 92%
Feedback: Correct Answer: Proteins comprise about 7% of the total
plasma volume.
40
CORRECT Which is the most abundant of the plasma proteins?

A) alpha globulin
B) beta globulin
C) albumin
D) fibrinogen
Feedback: Correct Answer: Albumin is about 3.5-5.5g per 100 ml of
 plasma and is the most common protein; the globulins represent
around 2.5-3.5 g.
41
CORRECT What is the most significant factor that helps maintain blood
osmotic pressure?
A) electrolytes
B) albumin
C) fibrinogen
D) globulins
Feedback: Correct Answer: Although the majority of the osmotic
molecules are the electrolytes and proteins, only the proteins are not
free to cross capillary membranes and therefore exert a constant
osmotic pressure; albumin is the most common blood protein.
42
CORRECT Which molecules are the sources of most antibodies?

A) alpha globulin
B) beta globulin
C) albumin
D) gamma globulin
Feedback: Correct Answer: The gamma globulins will be the
precursors to the functional antibodies synthesized by the
lymphocytes for defense.
43
CORRECT Which protein functions in coagulation?

A) fibrinogen
B) albumin
C) gamma globulin
D) alpha globulin
Feedback: Correct Answer: The protein fibrinogen (and
prothrombin), is always present in the blood and can become
activated during blood clot formation.
44
CORRECT Which organ has the greatest role in synthesizing most blood
nutrients?
A) intestine
B) liver
C) stomach
D) skeletal muscle
Feedback: Correct Answer: The liver is the most actively metabolic
organ in the body and synthesizes most of the blood proteins and
nutrients from simple compounds such as glucose and amino acids.
45
CORRECT Which of these is mainly comprised of triglycerides?

A) HDL
B) LDL
C) VLDL
 D) chylomicron
Feedback: Correct Answer: The chylomicrons are comprised mainly of
triglyceride lipids with some protein.
46
CORRECT Which of these has the highest proportion of protein?

A) chylomicron
B) VLDL
C) LDL
D) HDL
Feedback: Correct Answer: The high density lipoproteins (HDL)
contain high concentrations of protein and lesser amounts of lipid.
47
CORRECT Which lipoprotein has the highest percentage of cholesterol?

A) VLDL
B) LDL
C) HDL
D) chylomicron
Feedback: Correct Answer: The low density lipoproteins transport
most of the cholesterol to places of deposition such as the walls of
coronary arteries.
48
CORRECT During protein catabolism, _____ is produced as an end product by
the liver.
A) urea
B) uric acid
C) creatine
D) creatinine
Feedback: Correct Answer: Urea is produced by the liver in an
attempt to detoxify the amino fragments left over from protein
metabolism; this functions to prevent pH alterations.
49
CORRECT Which factor promotes the appearance of the platelet plug?

A) collagen
B) serotonin
C) fibrinogen
D) vasodilation
Feedback: Correct Answer: Platelets are adhesive and will be
attracted to collagen fibers with a strong affinity; vasodilation will
lessen the chance for platelets to form a plug.
50
CORRECT Which mineral is essential for coagulation to occur?
2+
A) Mg
2+
B) Ca
+
C) Na
 2+
D) Fe
Feedback: Correct Answer: Calcium is a cofactor for several enzymes
involved with clotting.
51
CORRECT Which chemical initiates the extrinsic phase of clotting?

A) fibrin
B) fibrinogen
C) thromboplastin
D) prothrombin
Feedback: Correct Answer: Thromboplastin is released from injured
cells and complexes with calcium to begin the first clotting cascade
reactions.
52
CORRECT Which of the following is not always present in the blood?

A) prothrombin
B) fibrinogen
C) calcium
D) thrombin
Feedback: Correct Answer: Thrombin arises from the first steps of
clotting and requires a prothrombin activator and calcium to become
active.
53
CORRECT What converts fibrinogen to fibrin?

A) prothrombin
B) thrombin
C) calcium
D) thromboplastin
Feedback: Correct Answer: Thrombin acts as an enzyme to cleave
fibrinogen into active fibrin molecules.
54
CORRECT Which is the last molecule to appear in a clotting reaction?

A) fibrinogen
B) fibrin
C) thrombin
D) prothrombin
Feedback: Correct Answer: Fibrin is the active molecule that forms
the network of fibrin threads in the clot that will entrap cells forming
a blood clot.
55
CORRECT Which of these can dissolve a blood clot?

A) heparin
B) plasminogen
C) plasmin
D) PDGF
 Feedback: Correct Answer: Plasminogen is converted to its active
form plasmin which dissolves clots; heparin can prevent a clot from
forming but cannot dissolve it; PDGF is platelet-derived growth
factor.
56
CORRECT Which of these is a procoagulant?

A) heparin
B) antithrombin
C) vitamin K
D) prostacyclin
Feedback: Correct Answer: Vitamin K is necessary for the synthesis
of prothrombin, the others are anti-coagulants.
57
CORRECT Which is the rarest ABO blood type?

A) A
B) B
C) AB
D) O
Feedback: Correct Answer: The chance of receiving both antigen
genes would express the least common type AB; O is the most
common.
58
CORRECT Who is at risk for developing a fatal Rh incompatibility?

A) any Rh+ fetus

B) second Rh- fetus of Rh+ mother
C) second Rh+ fetus of Rh- mother
D) Rh- mother
Feedback: Correct Answer: The Rh antibodies are only produced
following prior exposure, and an Rh-mother will not produce
antibodies to her Rh+ fetus unless blood is mixed; during labor when
blood is mixed, the mother will produce antibodies and will develop a
response to any subsequent Rh+ fetuses, causing possible
Erythroblastosis fetalis.