KAMARAJAR HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL, NKL -19.

CHEMISTRY NEET EXAMINATION

Date: 27.11.17 Test - 3 Marks: 180
1. Set of iso electronic ions among the following is
a) Na+, Cl-, O-2 b) K+, Ca+2, F- c) Cl-, K+, S-2 d) H+, Be+2, Na+
2. The band spectrum is caused by
a) Molecules b) Atoms
c) Any substance in solid state d) Any substance in liquid state
3. Which is not an atomic orbital?
a) 2d b) 5p c) 3p d) 4d
4. The number of angular and radial nodes of 4d orbital respectively are
a) 3,1 b) 1,2 c) 3,0 d) 2,1
5. The number of radial nodes of 3s and 2p orbitals respectively are
a) 0.2 b) 2,0 c) 1,2 d) 2,1
6. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers represents the highest energy of an
atom?
a) n=3, l = 1, m =1, s=+ ½ b) n = 3, l=2, m=1, s = + ½
c) n = 4, l=0, m = 0, s = + ½ d) n =3, l = 0, m = 0, s = + ½
7. The max, number of electron that can be accommodated in all the orbitals for which
l=3 is
a) 2 b) 6 c) 10 d) 14
8. The orbital diagram in which the aufbau principle is violated is
2s 2p 2s 2p
a) b)

2s 2p 2s 2p
c) d)

9. Which one of the following pairs of ions have the same electronic configuration?
a) Cr+3, Fe+3 b) Fe+3, Mn+2 c) Fe+3, CO+3 d) Sc+3, Cr+3
10. An impossible set of four quantum number of an electron is
a) n=4, l =2, m = -2, s = + ½ b) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = + ½
c) n = 3, l = 2, m = -3, s = + ½ d) n = 5, l = 3, m = 0, s = - ½
11. Match the Column-1 with Column -II and mark the appropriate choice.
Column-I Column-II
5.29 x n2
(A) Uncertainly of an object (i)
Z

h
 (B) Bohr’s radius of an orbit (ii)
4πm

h
(C) Angular momentum (iii) of an electron
mv
h
(D) de Broglie wavelength (iv) n.
2π

A B C D
1) iii iv i i
2) ii i iv iii
3) iv iii i ii
4) i ii iv iii
12. The de Broglie wavelength of a particle of mass 1 g and velocity 100ms-1 is :
a) 6.63x 10-33 m b) 6.63x10-34 m c) 6.63 x 10-35 m d) 6.65 x10-35 m
14. The measurement of electron position is associated with an uncertainty in momentum
Which is equal to 1x10-18 g cms-1 . The uncertainty of electron velocity is :
(Mass of electron is 9x10-28 g)
a) 1x108 cms-1 b) 1x1011 cms-1 c) 1x109 cms-1 d) 1x106 cms-1
15. Which of the following ions has electronic configuration. [Ar]3d6?
a) Ni3+ b) Mn3+ c) Fe3+ d) Co3+
16. The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence electron of rubidium atom
(Z=37) 1 1 1 1
a) 5, 1, 1, + 2 b) 6, 0, 0 , + c) 5, 0, 0, + d) 5,1,0, +
2 2 2
17. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell with l = 3 and n = 4 is:
a) 14 b) 16 c) 10 d) 12
18. Which is maximum number of electrons that can be associated with the following set
of quantum numbers n = 3, l = 1 and m =-1?
a) 4 b) 2 c) 10 d) 12
19. The value of planck’s constant is 6.63x10-34 Js. The speed of light is 3x1017 nms-1.
Which value is closest to the wavelength in nanometer of a quantum of light with
frequency 6x1015 s-1?
a) 50 b) 75 c) 10 d) 25
20. Two electrons occupying the same orbitals are distinguished by
a) Principal quantumnumber b) Magnetic quantumnumber
c) Azimuthal quantumnumber d) Spin quantumnumber
21. Which of the following pairs of d-orbitals will have electron density along the axes?
a) d z2 , dxz b) dxz, dyz c) d z2 , d x2 -y2 d) dxy, d x2 -y2

22. Which of the following conclusions could not be derived from Rutherford’s α-particle
scattering experiement?
a) Most of the space in the atom is empty
b) The radius of the atom is about 10-10 m while that of nucleus is 10-15 m.
c) Electrons move in a circular path of fixed energy called orbits.
d) Electrons and the nucleus are held together by electrostatic forces of attraction.
23. n7 - n1 series is
a) Lyman b) Balmer c) Paschen d) Brackett
24. Which of the following statements about the electron is incorrect?
a) It is a negatively charged particle
b) The mass of electron is equal to the mass of neutron.
c) It is a basic constituent of all atoms.
d) It is a constituent of cathode rays.
25. Which of the following properties of atom could be explained correctly by Thomson
Model of atom?
a) Overall neutrality of atom b) Spectra of hydrogen
atom
c) Position of electrons, protons and neutrons in atom. d) Stability of atom
26. Two atoms are said to be isobars if.
a) they have same atomic number but different mass number
b) they have same number of electrons but different number of neutrons
c) they have same number of neutrons but different number of electrons.
d) sum of the number of protons and neutrons is same but the number of protons is
different.
27. The number of radial nodes for 3p orbital is
a) 3 b) 4 c) 2 d) 1
28. Number of angular nodes for 4d orbital is
a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1
29. Which of the following is responsible to rule out the existence of definite paths or
trajectories of electrons?
a) Pauli’s exclusion principle b) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
c) Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity d) Aufbau principle
30. The electronic configuration Cu
a) [Ar] 4s1 3d5 b) [Ar] 4s1 3d10 c) [Ar] 4s2 3d8 d) All the above
31. Orbital angular momentum depends on
a) l b) n and l c) n and m d) m and s
32. Isodiaphers are
a) 9F19, 11N23 b) 15P31, 16S32 c) 17Cl35, 17Cl37 d) 18Ar40, 19K40
33. The pair of ions having same electronic configuration is ___________
a) Cr3+, Fe3+ b) Fe2+, Mn2+ c) Fe3+, Co3+ d) Sc3+ , Cr3+
34. Match species given in Column I with the electronic configuration given in Column
II.
Column I Column II
(i) Cr (a) [Ar] 3d8 4s0
(ii) Fe2+ (b) [Ar]3d10 4s1
(iii) Ni2+ (c) [Ar]3d6 4s0
(iv) Cu (d) [Ar]3d5 4s1
(e) [Ar]3d6 4s2
i ii iii iv
1) a b c d
2) d c a b
3) c a d b
4) b c a d

35. Match the quantum numbers with the information provided by these.
Quantum number Information provided
(i) Principal quantum number (a) orientation of the orbital
(ii) Azimuthal quantum number (b) energy and size of orbital
(iii) Magnetic quantum number (c) spin of electron
(iv) Spin quantum (d) shape of the orbital
i ii iii iv
1) b a d c
2) b d a c
3) a c d b
4) a b c d
36. No two electrons in an atom can have the same set of all four quantum numbers.
a) Pauli’s Principle b) Hund’s Rule c) Aufbau Principle d) All
88
37. Find out the number of neutrons Sr
38

a) 40 b) 50 c) 20 d) 30
38. Which of the following statement is not correct about the characteristics of cathode
rays
a) They start from the cathode and move towards the anode
b) They travel in straight line in the absence of an external electrical or magnetic
field.
c) Characteristics of the cathode rays do not depend upon the material of electrodes
in
cathode ray tube
d) Characteristics of cathode rays depend upon the nature of gas present in the
cathode ray tube
14
39. Calculate the no.of protons , neutron and electrons in N3- ion
7

a) 7,7,7 b) 7,8,10 c) 7,7,10 d) 7,8,12

40. The molecules with same atomicity and same number of electrons are called
a) isosters b) isotones c) isobars d) isotopes
41. The shape of a d-orbital is
a) double b) double dumb bell c) spherical d) none
42. Total number of orbitals associated with third shell will be
a) 2 b) 4 c) 9 c) 3
43. The number of nodal planes in a Px is
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Zero
44. The four quantum numbers of the valence electron of potassium are
a) 4,1,0 and ½ b) 4,0,1 and ½ c) 4,0,0 and + ½ d) 4,1,1 and ½
45. The maximum number of unpaired electrons with parallel spins
a) Pauli’s Principle b) Hund’s Rule c) Aufbau Principle d) All
 KAMARAJAR HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL, NKL -19.
PHYSICS NEET EXAMINATION
Date: 27.11.17 Marks: 180
1. The errors which are estimated by statistical methods are
a) systematic errors b) random errors c) theoritical errors d) gross errors
2. A physicist performs an experiment and takes 200 readings. He repeats the same
experiment and now takes 800 readings. By doing so
a) the probable error remains same b) the probable error is four times
c) the probable error is halved d) the probable error is reduced by a factor ¼
3. If Y = a+b, the maximum percentage error in the measurement of Y will be
Δa Δb Δa Δb
a) + x100 b) a+b + a+b x100
a b

Δa Δb Δa Δb
c) - x100 d) a+b - a+b x100
a b

4. If Y=a x b, the maximum percentage error in the measurement of Y will be

Δa Δb Δa Δb
a) x100 / b x100 b) a + b x100
a

Δa Δb Δa Δb
c) x100 x b x100 d) a - b x100
a
5. Out of the following the dimensionless error is
a) Systematic error b) Gross error c) Random error d) Relative error
6. The number of significant figures in 0.007 is
a) 4 b) 2 c) 3 d) 1
7. If E = energy, G = gravitational constant, I = impulse and M = mass, the dimensions of
GM2/E2 are same as that of
a) time b) mass c) length d) force
8. The physical quantity having the same dimensional formula as that of force is
a) Torque b) work c) pressure d) thrust
9. If P is the X-rays unit and Q is micron then P/Q is
a) 10-5 b) 105 c) 107 d) 10-7
10. The frequency (n) of vibration of a string is given as n = ½ √t/m , where T is tension,
and l is the length of the vibrating string, then the dimensional formula for m is
a) ML0T0 b) M1L-1T0 c) M0L0T0 d) M0L1T1
11. Which of the following is dimensionless?
ν2 ν2 νg
a) b) c) d) υ2rg
rg r r
12. 1 a.m.u is equal to
a) 1.66x10-24g b) 1.66 x 10-27 g c) 1.66 x 1024 g d) 1.66 x 1027 g
13. Modulus of Elasticity is dimensionally equivalent to
a) Stress b) Surface tension c) Strain d) Coefficient of
viscosity
14. Dimensions of solar constant are
a) [M0L0T] b) [M1L1T-2] c) [M'L-1T-2] d) [M1T-3]
15. The unitless quantity is
a) Velocity gradient b) Pressure gradient
c) Displacement gradient d) Force gradient
16. Atto is ________________
a) An instrument used to measure gradient
b) An instrument used to measure the altitude
c) 1018 d) 10-18
17. N ms-1 is the unit of
a) Pressure b) Power c) Potential d) Pressure gradient
18. Position of a body with acceleration α is given by x = Ka t . Here t is time. Find the
m n

dimension of m and an
a) m=1, n=1 b) m=1, n=2 c) m=2, n=1 d) m = 2, n =2
19. The heat produced in a long wire is characterized by resistance, current and time for
which the current passes. If the errors in measuring these quantities are respectively
1% 2% and 1% then total error in calculating the energy produced is
a) 4% b) 6% c) (4/3)% d) 8%
20. Which one of the following represents the correct dimensions of the coefficient of
viscosity?
a) [ML-1T2] b) [MLT-1] c) [ML1T-1] d) [ML-2T-2]
21. Stefan’s constant has the unit as
a) J s-1 m-2 K4 b) Kg s-3 K4 c) W m-2 K-4 d) Nms-2 K-4
22. The ratio between pico and giga is
a) 1021 b) 10-21 c) 1014 d) 108
23. 1 micron = _______nanometer
a) 10-6 b) 10-10 c) 103 d) 10-3
24. Which of the following has smallest value?
a) peta b) femto c) kilo d) hector
25. If m is the mass of drop of a liquid of radius ‘r’ then mg has the same dimensions of
: πr
a) Surface tension b) Tension c) Young’s Modulus d) Coefficient of
viscosity
26. The intensity of a wave is defined as the energy transmitted per unit area per second.
Which of the following represents the dimensional formula for the intensity of the
wave?
a) [ML0T-2] b) [ML0T-3] c) [ML0T-1] d) [ ML4T]
a
27. P + (V-b) = RT is Van der Waal’s equation where symbols have their usual
2
V
meaning and a, b are constants. The dimensions formula for constant α is
a) [ML-1T2] b) [ML-3T-1] c) [ML4T-2] d) [ML5T-2]
28. One shake is equal to
a) 108 s b) 10-9 s c) 10-10 s d) 109 s
29. A pair of physical quantities having the same dimensional formula are
a) Force and Work b) Work and energy c) Force and Torque d) Work and
Power
30. Dimensions of C x R (Capacity x Resistance) is
a) frequency b) energy c) time period d) current
31. The dimensional formula for Magnetic induction is
a) [MT-1 A-1] b) [MT-2A-1] c) [MLA-1] d) [MT-2 a]

μ0
32. What are the units of
4π
-1 2
a) NA m b) NA-2 c) Nm2C2 d) unitless
Permeability
33. will have the dimensional formula of :
Permittivity

a) [M0L0T0A0] b) [M2L2T4A2] c) [M2L4T-6A-4] d) [ M-2L-4T6A4]

34. Siemen is the S.I unit of
a) Electrical conductance b) Electrical conductivity
c) Potential difference d) Inductance
35. If length and breadth of a plate are (40 ± 0.2) cm and (30± 0.1)cm, the absolute error
in measurement of area is
a) 10cm2 b) 8cm2 c) 9cm2 d) 7cm2
36. If L1 = (2.02±0.01) m and L2 = (1.02±0.01)m then L1 + 2L2 is (in m)(4.0±0.04)s. The
velocity of the body is
a) (5.0±0.4)ms-1 b) (5.0±0.2) ms-1 c) (5.0±0.6)ms-1 d) (5.0±0.1)ms-1
37. The dimensions of L/RCV are L = self inductance, V = voltage, R = resistance, C =
capacitance
a) charge b) charge -1 c) current d) current-1
38. The number of significant figures in 6.023x1023 mole-1 is
a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 23
39. With due regard to significant figures, the value of (46,7 - 10.04) is
a) 36.7 b) 36.00 c) 36.66 d) 30.6
40. The dimensional formula for the product of two physical quantities P and Q[ML2T-2].
The dimensional formula of P is [MT-2]. Then P and Q respectively are (2001 M)
Q

a) Force and velocity b) Momentum and displacement

c) Force and displacement d) Work and velocity energy
41. The physical quantity which has the dimensional formula as that of is
mass x length
a) Force b) Power c) Pressure d) Acceleration
42. A small steel ball of radius r is allowed to fall under gravity through a column of a
viscous liquid of coefficient of viscosity η. After sometime the velocity of ball attains
a constant value known as terminal velocity, νT. The terminal velocity depends on (i)
the mass of the ball m (ii) n (iii) r (iv) acceleration due to gravity g. Which of the
following relations is dimensionally correct?
mg ηr mgr
a) νT α b) νT α c) νT α ηrmg d)νT α
ηr mg η

43. The magnitude of force is 100 N. What will be its value if the units of mass and time
are doubled and that of length is halved?
a) 25 b) 100 c) 200 d) 400
44. If the units of length and force are increased by four times the unit of energy will be
increased by
a) 16% b) 1600% c) 1500% d) 400%
45. The equation which is dimensionally correct among the following is
a) v = u +at2 b) s = ut + at2 c) s = ut + at2 d) t = s + av
 KAMARAJAR HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL, NKL -19.
ZOOLOGY NEET EXAMINATION
Animal Kingdom
Date: 27.11.17 Marks:
180
1. The canal system is found in following animal phyla
a) Mollusca b) Protozoa c) Coelenterata d) Porifera
2. the following animal phyla exihibit tissue grade organisation
NCERT
a) Coelenterata b) aschelminthes c) platyhelminthes d) porifera
3. Planaria is a turbellarian and it possesses high capacity of --------------- NCERT
a) metamorphosis b) regeneration
c) alternation of generation d) bioluminescence
4. Which one of the following groups of animals exlusive habitat and reproduction?
NCERT
a) Cnidaria b) Porifera c) Protozoa d) Ctenophora
5. In which one of the following, the genus name, its two characters and its phylum are
not
correctly matched, whereas the remaining three are correct?
NCERT
a) Pila (i) Body segmented (ii) Mouth with radula Mollusca
b) Asterias (i) Spiny skinned (ii) Water vascular system Echinodermata
c) Sycon (i) Pore bearing (ii) Canal system Porifera
d) Periplaneta (i) Jointed appendages (ii) Chitinous exoskeleton Arthropoda
6. The animals with bilateral symmetry in young stage, and radial pentamerous symmetry
in the adult stage, belong to the phylum.
NCERT
a) annelida b) mollusca c) cnidaria d) echinodermata
7. Which of the following statements is incorrect with regard to bilateral symmetry?
a) Body can be divided into two equal halves by a single plane only.
NCERT
b) The organisms that show bilateral symmetry have paired body organs that occur
on the two sides of a central axis.
c) It is found in all invertebrates and few vertebrates
d) Spider and crab show bilateral symmetry.
8. Diploblastic and triploblastic are terms that describe
a) the number of invaginations during embryonic development
b) the number of heads during embryonic development
c) the number of germinal layers during embryonic development
d) the number of cell types during development.
9. The figures below show the types of coelom. Identify them and select the correct group
of organisms which possess them. NCERT

A B C
10. Study carefully
a. Annelids Ascheminthes Platyhelminthes the given flowchart
b. Molluscs Arthropods Platyhelminthes and fill in the
c. Echinoderms Aschelminthes Annelids blanks (a), (b), (c),
(d) and (E).
d. Echinoderms Arthropods Platyhelminthes

A B C D E
a Cellular level Bilateral Radial Pseudo-coelomates Coelomates
symmetry symmetry
b Cellular level Radial symmetry Bilateral Coelomates Pseudo-
symmetry coelomates
c Cellular level Bilateral Radial Coelomates Pseudo-
symmetry symmetry coelomates
d Cellular level Radial symmetry Bilateral Pseudo-coelomates Coelomates
symmentry
11. Select the correct matching of animals. their symmetry organisation and coelom type
Animals Symmetry Organisation Coelom type
a. Ctenophores Radial Diploblastic Pseudocoelomates
b. Echinoderms Bilateral Triploblastic Coelomates
c. Platyhelminthes Bilateral Triploblastic Acoelomates
d. Annelids Biradial Diploblastic Coelomates
12. Match the animal names listed under Column-I with the zoological names given
under
Column-II select the correct option from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
Common name Zoological name
A. Starfish (i) Sepia
B. Jellyfish (ii) Astropecten
C. devilfish (iii) Aurelia
D. Cuttlefish (iv) Octopus
(v) Hippocampus
a) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i) b) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(v)
b) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii) d) A-(v), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
13. Which of the following option / options is / are not a correct match of animal and its
habitat? NCERT
a) Hydra vulgaris - sea water
b) Adamsia - freshwater
c) Obelia - sea water
d) Physalia - sea water
a) a,b b) b,c c) c,a d) a,d
14. Which of the following have porous body and are diploblastic? NCERT
a) Aurelia and Obelia b) Adamsia and Euplectella
c) Leucosolenia and Spongilla d) Sycon and Hydra
15. Which of the following is a characteristic features of Coelenterates? NCERT
a) Tissue level of organization b) Presence of stinging cells
c) Gastravascular cavity d) All the above
16. The figures (A-D) show animals. Select the correct option with respect to a common
characteristic of two of these animals. NCERT

a) A and D respire mainly through body wall b) B and C show radial symmetry
c) A and B have cnidoblasts for self-defence d) C and D have a true coelom
17. Which of the following statements are incorrect? NCERT
i) Parapodia are lateral appendages in arthropods used for swimming.
ii) Radula in moluscs are structures involved in excretion.
iii) Aschelminthes are dioecious.
iv) Echinoderm adults show radial symmetry.
v) Ctenophorans are diploblastic
a) (i) and (ii) b) (i) and (iii) c) (i), (iv) and (v) d) (iii) and (v)
18. the following animals shows cellular level organization
a) Porifera b) coelenterate c) platyhelminthes d) mollusca
19. Match the following and select the correct option from the codes given
below.NCERT
Column-I Column-II
A. Physalia (i) Sea anemone
B. Meandrina (ii) Brain coral
C. Gorgonia (iii) Sea fan
D. Adamsia (iv) Portuguese man-of-war
a) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv) b) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
c) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i) d) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
20. Identify the figures A, B and C and select the correct option.
NCERT

A B C
a. Sycon Euspongia Spongilla
b. Euspongia Spongilla Sycon
c. Spongilla Sycon Euspongia
d. Euspongia Sycon Spongilla

21. The type of symmetry in the given animals is NCERT

A B
a. Bilateral Asymmetrical
b. Bilateral Bilateral
c. Radial Bilateral
d. Radial Radial
22. Stinging capsules (nematocysts) are found in NCERT
a) wasp and honeybee b) scorpion and cobra
c) sea pen and sea fan d) cactus and Venus fly trap
23. The characters given below are shown by NCERT
(i) Extracellular and intracellular digestion
(ii) Exclusively marine, radially symmetrical, diploblastic, tissue level of
organization
(iii) Bisexual, fertilization external and indirect development
(iv) No asexual reproduction. Presence of comb plates
a) Cnidaria b) Porifera c) Ctenophora d) Rotifers
24. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given
below.
NCERT
Column-I Column-II
a. Hirudin (i) Hydra
b. Canal system (ii) Echinodermata
c. Nematocysts (iii) Leech
d. Feather star (iv) Sponges
e. Insects (v) Termites
a. A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i), E-(v) b. A-(v), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii), E-(ii)
c. A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii), E-(v) d. A-(ii), B-(i), c-(iv), D-(v), E-(iii)
25. Identify the figures A,B,C and D and select the correct option. NCERT

a) A-Liver fluke ; B-Male roundworm ; C-Hirudinaria; D-Nereis

b) A-Liver fluke ; B-Female roundworm ; C-Hirudinaria; D-Nereis
c) A-Liver fluke ; B-Male roundworm ; C-Nereis; D-Hirudinaria
d) A-Liver fluke ; B-Female roundworm ; C-Nereis; D-Hirudinaria
26. Given below are the statements regarding Aschelminthes.
(i) They are bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic
(ii) They are dioecious
(iii) All are plants or animals parasites.
(iv) Complete gut with muscular pharynx
Select the option that has both the correct statements,
a) (i), (ii) & (iii) b) (i) , (iii) ,(iv) c) (ii) , (iii), (iv) d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
27. Which of the following is commonly called “Pearl oyster”?
a) Limulus b) Dentalium c) Pinctada d) Aurelia
28. Which of the following are correct?
(i) Sponges: Cellular level of organization with loose cell aggregation
(ii) Cnidaria : Tissue level of organization
(iii) Platyhelminthes: Organ level of organization
(iv) Annelids, Arthropods, Molluscs, Echinoderms and Chordates: Organ system
level of organization.
a) All are correct b) (ii) and (iv) only c) (ii) and (iii) only d) (i) and (ii) only
29. Match the columns and select the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
Animals Locomotory organ
A. Neries (i) Parapadea
B. Hydra (ii) Comb plates
C. Ctenoplana (iii) Tentacles
D. Astereas (iv) Tubefeet
a) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv) b) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)
c) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(iv) d) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
30. Sycon belongs to a group of animals, which are best described as
a) unicellular or acellular
b) multicellular without any tissue organization
c) multicellular with a gastrovascular system
d) multicellular having tissue organization, but no body cavity
31. In which of the following animal nerve cell is present but brains is absent?
a) sponge b) Earthworm c) Cockroach d) hydra
32. spiny skinned dermis found in following phylum
a) echinodermata b) ctenophora c) mollusca d) porifera
33. An animal consists terminal mouth & ventral genital pore and flat body with bilateral
symmetry it belong to -------------------
a) Annelida b) Aschelminthes c) platyhelminthes d) Arthropoda
34. The common feature between coclenterata & ctenophore
a) Organisatian b) cnidoajtes c) Bodywall d) Reproduction
35. In psuedocoelomates the body cavity derived from ----------------
a) mesoderm b) blastocoels c) Ectoderm d) Endoderm
36. The Characteristic feature of ctenophore is
a) Presence of eight combplates for locomotion (swimming)
b) Absence of nematocysts ( cnidoldasts)
c) presence of lasso cells on the tentaches for capturing food.
d) All of the above
37. The closed type circulation found in all except.
a) Annelida b) cephalopoda c) Vertebrata d) Tunicata
38. Fragmentation process in poriferans (sponges) belongs to -----------
a) Sexual reproduction b) asexual reproduction c) Digestion d) Budding
39. Coral polyps belongs to the phylum.
a) porifera b) mollusca c) Echinodermata d)
Coelenterata
40. The following are all hermaphrodites except --------------------
a) Earthworm b) Leech c) Taenia d) Asscaris
41. The psuedometamerism in tapeworm is caused by ------------------
a) Segmentation b) proglatids c) Body wall d)
psuedocoelom
42. Solenocytes are the main execratory strictures in
a) Echinodrmates b) Platyhelminthes c) Annelids d) Mollucs
43. The higher complex level of organisation is present in -----------
a) porifera b) platyhelminthes c) coelenterate d) Annelida
44. The following animals consists radial symmetry.
a) sponges, hydra, crabs b) coelenterates, ctenophores,
echinoderms
c) Annelids, Arthropids d) Chordater, Platyhelminthes, Nematodes
45. The following is basic feature is common for all animals without Exception.
a) Presence of nervous system b) nutrition c) Locomotion d)
multicellulanity
10. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of coelenterates ?
a) Tissue level of organization b) Presence of stingihg cells
c) Extracellular & Intracellular Digestion d) Both A & B
11. Identify the figures A, B and C and select the correct option.

12. The type of symmetry in the given animals is

A B
a. Bilateral Asymmetrical
b. Bilateral Bilateral
c. Radial Bilateral
d. Radial Radial
13. Stinging capsules (nematocysts) are found in
a) wasp and honeybee b) scorpion and cobra
c) sea pen and sea fan d) cactus and Venus fly trap
14. The characters given below are shown by
i) Extracellular and intracellular digestion
ii)Exclusively marine, radially symmetrical, diploblastic, tissue level of organization
iii) Bisexual, fertilization external and indirect development
iv) No asexual reproduction. Presence of comb plates.
a) Cnidaria b) Porifera c) Ctenophora d) Rotifers
15. Given below are three statements regarding Aschel minthes.
i) They are bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic
ii) They are dioecious.
iii) All are plants or animals parasites
Select the option that ahs both the correct statements,
a) (i) and (ii) b. (i) and (iii) c. (ii) and (iii) d) None of these
16. Which of the following