Module 4 Set A Riverside College Inc.

NAME: ______________________________________ Date: __________________________

Instructions: Select the best answer. Use the answer sheet by shading the letter of your choice.

1-3 refer to the data below

Time (sec) [C4H8] (M)
0 1.00
10 0.894
20 0.799
30 0.714
40 0.638
50 0.571
60 0.510

1. what is the value for k?

a. 0.0112s-1 b. 2.5 X 10-5 s-1 c. 0.9999s-1 d. 0.988s-1
2. what would be the concentration at 100 seconds?
a. 1.1 M b. 0.32 M c. 0.33 M d. 0.21 M
3. what is the half life?
a. 61 s b. 62 s c. 0.69 s d. 69 s
4. Neurons carry signal away from the brain and the spinal cord to the peripheral tissues:
a. afferent b. efferent c. somatic d. autonomic
5. A patient is admitted to the ER with marked hypotension and appears to be in shock. The drug of choice to treat the
condition is most probably:
a. epinephrine HCl b. nitroprusside c. dobutamine HCl d. dopamine HCl

6-10 Write: A if the 1st statement is True and the 2nd statement is False
B if the 1st statement is False and the 2nd statement is True
C if both statements are True
D if both statements are False

6. (1) Pindolol inhibits beta1 and beta2 receptors and stimulates endogenous catecholamines.
(2) Adrenergic antagonists with partial agonist activity minimize the disturbances of lipid and carbohydrate
metabolism.
7. (1) Adrenergic drugs can cause urine retention.
(2) Adrenergic drugs are given after surgery for urinary distention.
8. (1) Beta2 blockers produce vasoconstriction.
(2) Beta2 blockade results to decreased glucagon release and reduced glycogenolysis.
9. (1) MAO and COMT convert norepinephrine to inactive metabolite.
(2) Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors are anticholinergic drugs.
10. (1) Minipress® can cuase 1st dose phenomenon.
(2) Betaloc® is used in the management of hypertension in patients with pulmonary disorders.

11. Its principal mode of action is via potentiation of insulin action at an unknown intracellular locus, resulting in
decreased hepatic glucose production by both gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis.
a. Chlorpropamide d. Pioglitazone
b. Nateglinide e. None of the above
c. Biguanide
12. If 20 mg of drug are added to a container of water and result in a concentration of 0.55 mg/L, the volume of water
in the container was ___________.
a. 11.00 L b. 19.45 L c. 20.55 L d. 36.36 L
13. Which insulin preparation is ‘peakless’?
a. Novorapid b. Detemir c. Humalog d. Lantus e. NPH
14. Which of the following is not part of the mechanism of Alteplase on promoting thrombolysis?
a. By converting plasmin to plasminogen c. By promoting the degradation of fibrin by plasmin to fibrinogen
b. By increasing the effects of anticoagulation d. NOTA
15. Activity of central sympathomimetic phentermine:
a. hypnotic b. anorexogenic c. antihypertensive d. anticonvulsant
16. What is the initial manifestation of digitalis poisoning?
a. Depression of heart rate c. flushing of skin
b. gastrointestinal irritation d. visual disturbance

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17. Effect of sympathetic stimulation on the female genitalia:
a. uterine contraction b. uterine relaxation c. stimulates lactation d. none
18. Non-selective beta-antagonist that is used in the treatment of glaucoma:
a. acebutolol b. salbutamol c. timolol d. metoprolol
19. Catecholamines are synthesized from which amino acid?
a. tyrosine b. aspartate c. glutamate d tryptophan

20 - 24. Complete the analogy by choosing the appropriate term.

20. Aminoalcohol: Edrophonium; organophosphate: _______
a. Ambenonium b. Neostigmine c. Isofluorophate
21. Physostigmine: Bronchospasm; Atropine: _______
a. Ileus b. Lacrimation c. Urination
22. Antiemetic and Alpha blocker
a. Cyclizine b. Promethazine c. Chlorpheniramine
23. Alkylamine
a. Dimetane b. Iterax c. Claritin
24. True non-sedating
a. Fexofenadine b. Levo-cetirizine c. Meclizine

25-27: Match the poison with its antidote:

25. Ethylene glycol A. Protamine sulfate
26. Organophosphates B. Benzylpenicillin
27. Heparin C. Ethanol
D. Flumazenil
E. Pralidoxime

28. A solution of a drug was freshly prepared at a concentration of 300 mg/mL. After 30 days at 25 °C, the drug
concentration in the solution was 75 mg/mL. Assuming first – order kinetics, the drug had declined to one – half of
the original concentration after ___________.
a. 0.06 days b. 12.00 days c. 15.00 days d. 20.00 days
29. Which among the following conditions is NOT an indication of benzodiazepines?
a. emesis b. insomnia c. anxiety d. convulsion e. All
30. The rate of ethanol elimination in four alcoholics undergoing detoxification was reported to be 17 to 33 mg/dL/hr.
The rate of elimination in μg/mL/hr is ___________.
a. 0.17 μg/mL/hr to 0.33 μg/mL/hr c. 17 μg/mL/hr to 33 μg/mL/hr
b. 1.70 μg/mL/hr to 3.30 μg/mL/hr d. 170 μg/mL/hr to 330 μg/mL/hr
31. In addition to its antiparkinson action, Symmetrel (amantadine) is also employed in the treatment of
a. Gout 
 d. Psychoses 

b. Hypertension e. Viral infections 

c. Bronchial asthma
32. The fixed volume of fluid (containing the drug) cleared of drug per unit time
a. chemical kinetics b. drug reabsorption c. drug clearance d. biotransformation
33. dose administered to maintain a steady state of drug in the body
a. loading dose b. bolus dose c. maintenance dose d. a & c
34. Quinidine is classified as
a. Anti-infective b. Bile acid sequestrant c. MAO-inhibitor d. anti arrhythmic
35. The following are indications for benzodiazepines EXCEPT
a. Anxiety b. seizures c. pain d. insomnia
36. In newborn infants, half-life of drugs is usually
a. Shorter b. Longer c. Same d. NOTA
37. Type of interaction that can take place during compounding:
a. Pharmacotherapeutic d. . Pharmacodynamic
b. Pharmacokinetic e. Any of the above
c. Pharmaceutical
38. Vitamin C is prone to
a. Oxidation b. Reduction c. Hyrdolysis d. NOTA
39. Drug products that contain the identical therapeutic moiety, the same dosage form with the same strength and
administered by the same route are:
a. pharmaceutical equivalents c. . bioequivalents
b. pharmaceutical alternatives d. . therapeutic equivalents
40. A condition characterized by decreased perfusion of blood to the vital organs:
a. glaucoma b. shock c. pheochromocytoma d. myasthenia gravis

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41. The time required to reach the minimum effective drug concentration in the blood is known as:
a. duration of action c. intensity of action
b. onset of action e. half-life
c. Cmax

42-43. A certain first order reaction is 45.0% complete in 65 s.

42. the rate constant is
a. 0.0091975 s-1 b. 0.0122844 s-1 c. -0.0122844 s-1 d. -0.0091975 s-1
43. determine the half life
a. 75.36s b. 56.42s c. 79.67s d. 69.31s

44. Drug of choice in the treatment of phaeochromocytoma:

a. phentolamine b. phenoxybenzamine c. propranolol d. physostigmine
45. B1 selective drug, except:
a. Metoprolol b. Timolol c. Esmolol d. Atenolol
46. If a patient is taking omeprazole, he is most probably having a/an
a. Eye infection b. eating disorder c. respiratory disease d. Gastric ulcer
47. velocity of a chemical reaction/ PK process
a. rate b. order c. both d. neither
48. When a patient is a chronic/ heavy smoker, drug dose should be:
a. Increased b. Decreased c. Withheld d. No effect
49. Which of the following is a short acting benzodiazepine
a. Diazepam b. triazolam c. buspirone d. flurazepam
50. Combination of two or more drugs resulting to enhanced effect:
a. Stimulation b. Synergism c. Metabolism d. Antagonism
51. The function of bile and bile salts is/are to:
a. solubilize drug molecules after a meal d. emulsify fatty or oily substances in the GIT
b. dissolve inorganic salts e. all of the above
c. adsorb toxins and metabolites
52. In general, the form of the drug that can be absorbed:
a. ionized b. unionized c. bound-form d. complexed form
53. The way in which the concentration of drug or reactants influences the rate of a chemical reaction or process
a. rate b. order c. both d. neither
54. Drug of choice for motion sickness
a. Atropine b. Scopolamine c. Neostigmine d. Bethanechol
55. Enzyme induction causes the following except:
a. Accelerated Metabolism b. Increased elimination c. Slower excretion d. NOTA
56. Drug interaction that is likely but not clinically proven
a. Established b. Probable c. Possible d. Suspected
57. A type of pharmacodynamic interaction in which the interacting drugs have opposing action.
a. Antagonism b. Synergism c. Potentiation d. None of the above
58. Which of the following improves cardiac output in heart failure by increasing the ventricular filling time?
.a. Digoxin d. Carvedilol
b. Dobutamine e. Milrinone
c. Sodium nitroprusside
59. Is the hyphotetical volume of distribution in mL of the unmetabolized drug which is cleared per unit time by any
pathway of drug removal:
a. diffusion layer d. clinical pharmacokinetics
b. diurnal variation e. none of the above
c. clearance
60. Ultra – short – acting B1 selective adrenoceptor antagonist and the structure contains an ester linkage
a. Labetalol b. Carvedilol c. Esmolol d. Nadolol
61. The AUC represents:
a. biologic half-life of the drug d. amount of drug that is cleared by the liver
b. the ionized form of the drug e. amount of drug absorbed
c. rate of drug absorbed
62. In acidic urine, acidic drugs are:
a. Ionized b. Shorter half-life c. Reabsorbed d. Excreted
63. biliary recycling is also known as
a. first pass effect b. biotransformation c. metabolism d. enetrohepatic recirculation
64. Which of the following medications is a blood platelet adhesion inhibitor?
a. vitamin K b. vitamin B12 c. dipyridamole d. streptokinase e. All
65. Insomnia due to withdrawal of benzodiazepines is a
a. Type A ADR b. Type B ADR c. Type E ADR d. NOTA

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66. Which of the following is NOT a beta blocker?
a. Therabloc b. Neobloc c. Calcibloc d. Inderal
67. Drug combined with leucovorin in cancer treatment
a. Bleomycin b. Doxorubicin c. Methrotrexate d. 5-FU
68. What drug/s is/are best indicated for generalized tonic clonic seizures?
a. valproic acid b. phenytoin c. diazepam d. A and B e. All
69. The most life-threatening effect of morphine poisoning is _
a. cardiovascular collapse b. respiratory depression c. renal collapse d. spinal cord paralysis
70. The effects of the poison seen at the site of contact is termed as
a. Acute toxicity b. local toxicity c. systemic toxicity d. remote toxicity
71. What is the specific antidote for silver poisoning?
a. Ammonia b. universal antidote c. saline solution d. sodium
72. The initial degradation of a drug by liver enzymes after oral administration of a drug is known as:
a. enzymatic degradation d. Fick’s degradation
b. first-pass effect e. relative bioavailability
c. enterohepatic recirculation
73. What is considered to be the most dominant Phase 1 metabolic reaction?
a. oxidation d. hydrolysis
b. reduction e. glucuronidation
c. deamination
74. Which may be prescribed for an osteoporotic patient
a. Calcium carbonate b. pyridoxine c. mefenamic acid d. ascorbic acid
75. An anxiolytic drug that is a 5-HT1A agonist
a. Buspirone b. triazolam c. Alprazolam d. benzodiazepine
76. What is a systemic antidote for poisoning with methamphetamine hydrochloride?
a. Chlorpromazine b. diazepam c. potassium chloride d. naloxone
77. The cell membrane is capable of forming vesicles which may engulf drug substances outside the cell membrane to
transport the drug (via the engulfed drug) into the compartment:
a. ion-pair d. pinocytosis
b. passive diffusion e. active transport
c. convective transport
78. Which of the following is NOT an extravascular route?
I. oral II. Rectal III. Intramuscular IV. Subcutaneous V. intravenous
a. I only b. III to V c. V only d. I and II
79. A group of iron-containing isoenzymes that activate molecular oxygen to a form capable of interacting with organic
substrates:
a. cyclooxygenase b. cytochrome c. lipoxygenase d. dehydrogenase
80. As to the nature of the intravenous route, the best form of the drug is:
a. suspension b. solution c. granule d. emulsion e. powder
81. The purpose of enterically-coating tablets is to:
a. protect the GI mucosa from the irritant drug d. A & B
b. protect the drug from the action of GI fluids e. all of the above
c. protect the excipients from degradation
82. In general, various oral dosage forms can be ranked in which of the following expected order of bioavailability from
fastest to slowest:
a. aqueous solution, suspension, powder, capsule, tablet, coated tablet
b. aqueous solution, capsule, tablet, powder, coated tablet, suspension
c. capsule, tablet, coated tablet, powder, suspension, aqueous solution
d. suspension, aqueous solution, powder, capsule, tablet, coated tablet
83. . (1) generation: non-sedating: ___ (2) (3)__ generation:sedating: (4)____
a. 2nd: Claritin ; 1st: cetirizine c. 2nd: desloratadine; 1st: diphenhydramine
st nd
b. 1 : loratadine; 2 : cetirizine d. 1st: cetirizine; 2nd: loratadine
84. It is known as the poison of kings and king of poisons.
a. Arsenic b. Antimony c. Aluminum d. Magnesium
85. Patients taking MAO inhibitors should avoid the following except
a. Cheese b. Red wine c. Oatmeal d. Raisins
86. Cimetidine, ketoconazole and allopurinol share a common pharmacokinetic property that predisposes patients
taking other drugs concomitantly with any of these agents to toxicity. What is this property?
a. inhibition of tubular secretion c. increased systemic absorption
b. enzyme induction d. enzyme inhibition
87. Drugs causing leucopenia except:
a. Dipyrone b. Imipramine c. Phenylbutazone d. phenylpropanolamine
88. Select the odd one out:
a. Neomycin b. Amikacin c. Kanamycin d. Gentamicin

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89. Most vestibulotoxic aminoglycoside
a. Streptomycin b. Neomycin c. Tobramycin d. Amikacin
90. Which is not accurate about azithromycin
a. Permits once – daily dosing
b. Inactivates CYP 450 enzymes
c. Has elimination half – life of 3 days
d. Has addition of a methylated nitrogen into the lactone ring
91. This drug given in combination with aminoglycoside or cephalosporin is used to treat penetrating wounds of the
abdomen and gut.
a. Chloramphenicol b. Linezolid c. Clindamycin d. Azithromycin

92-94 Match the Brand name of Drug to its Generic name:

92. Berodual A. Oxytropium
93. Akineton B. Biperiden
94. Combivent C. Ipratropium + Fenoterol
D. Benzatropine
E. Ipratropium + Salbutamol

95-97 Match the drug with its mechanism of action

95. Nicotinic acid A. Decrease synthesis of VLDL and LDL
96. Gemfibrozil B. Interrupt enterohepatic recycling of bile acids
97. Simvastatin C. Inhibits HMG-CoA Reductase
D. Increase LPL activity and TG hydrolysis
E. Inhibit cholesterol absorption using NPC1L1

98-100 Match the Drug to its Adverse/ Side Effect: (choices may be used once or not at all)
98. Neostigmine A. Respiratory paralysis
99. Hecamylamine B. Hypotension
100. Levo-tubocurarine C. Emesi
D. Myosi
E. Seizure