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USMLE Step I Comprehensive Review - Flash Cards PDF
USMLE Step I Comprehensive Review - Flash Cards PDF
1
Name the laryngeal muscle described by the
following: • Adducts the vocal ligaments, closes the
Lateral cricoarytenoid muscles air passageway during swallowing, and allows
phonation
Opposite the second upper molar Where does the parotid (Stensen's) duct enter the
tooth oral cavity?
Third aortic arch MS CARD is my mnemonic for the From what aortic arch are the following structures
aortic arch derivatives derived? • Common and internal carotid arteries
Fifth MS CARD is my mnemonic for the aortic arch From what aortic arch are the following structures
derivatives derived? • Degenerates
2
Second MS CARD is my mnemonic for the aortic From what aortic arch are the following structures
arch derivatives derived? • Stapes artery
First MS CARD is my mnemonic for the aortic arch From what aortic arch are the following structures
derivatives derived? • Maxillary artery
3
Medial compartment of the thigh, Name the compartment of the lower extremity and
the nerve based on its movements. • Adduct the thigh
obturator nerve and flex the hip
Posterior compartment of the leg, Name the compartment of the lower extremity and
the nerve based on its movements. • Plantar flex the
tibial nerve foot, flex the toes, and invert the foot
Anterior compartment of the leg, Name the compartment of the lower extremity and
the nerve based on its movements. • Dorsiflex the
deep peroneal nerve foot, extend the toes, and invert the foot
Anterior compartment of the thigh, Name the compartment of the lower extremity and
the nerve based on its movements. • Flex the hip and
femoral nerve extend the knee
Posterior compartment of the thigh, Name the compartment of the lower extremity and
the nerve based on its movements. • Extend the hip
tibial nerve and flex the knee
4
Lateral compartment of the leg, Name the compartment of the lower extremity and
the nerve based on its movements. • Plantar flex the
superficial peroneal nerve foot and evert the foot
STARS 1. Upper Subscapularis 2. Thoracodorsal 3. What are the five branches of the posterior cord of
Axillary 4. Radial 5. Lower Subscapularis the brachial plexus?
5
Functionally they are part of the left lobe of the liver
because they receive their blood supply from the left Are the quadrate and caudate lobes of the liver
hepatic artery. Anatomically they are considered part functionally part of the left or right lobe?
of the right lobe of the liver.
LARP: Left goes Anterior and Right goes Posterior What is the anatomic positioning of the right and left
(because of the rotation of the gut; remember your gastric nerve plexus of the esophagus as they pass
embryology!) through the diaphragm?
6
What ocular muscle • Adducts the eyeball and is
Medial rectus (CN III) (LR6 SO4)3 involved in horizontal conjugate gaze?
Superior Oblique (CN IV) (LR6 What ocular muscle • Depresses and
SO4)3 abducts the eyeball?
Inferior Oblique (CN III) (LR6 What ocular muscle • Elevates and
SO4)3 abducts the eyeball?
7
What ocular muscle • Depresses and
Inferior rectus (CN III) (LR6 SO4)3
adducts the eyeball?
Constrictor pupillae and ciliary Which muscles of the eye are under
muscles parasympathetic control?
A left CN X lesion results in the uvula deviating to Which direction does the uvula deviate in a left vagus
the right. (Uvula points away from the affected side.) nerve lesion?
CN I, II, III, VI, and XII Add 1 + 1 = 2, 1 + 2 = 3, 1 + 2 Which CNs are found in the midline
+ 3 = 6, 1 + 2 + 3 + 6 = 12 of the brainstem?
8
"Lady between two Majors": latissimus dorsi, What muscles insert in or on the intertubercular
pectoralis major, and teres major groove of the humerus?
Left ventricle and auricle of left What part of the heart forms • Left
atrium border?
Tip of the left ventricle What part of the heart forms • Apex?
9
Left atrium and tip of the right
What part of the heart forms • Base?
atrium
Conus arteriosus of the right ventricle and right and What part of the heart forms •
left auricles Superior border?
Left ventricle and tip of right What part of the heart forms •
ventricle Diaphragmatic wall?
10
CN V1 carries the sensory and CN VII carries the What nerves carry the sensory and motor
motor component of the blink reflex. components of the blink reflex?
NAVEL: Femoral Nerve, Artery, Vein, Empty space, Name the components of the femoral canal, working
and Lymphatics/Lacunar ligament laterally to medially.
11
The superior mesenteric vein and the splenic vein What two veins form the portal
(after it receives the inferior mesenteric vein) join to
form the portal vein. vein?
CN II is the sensory limb and CN III is the motor What CNs are responsible for the sensor and motor
component through parasympathetic stimulation. components of the light reflex?
Ciliary ganglion producing a tonic What ocular ganglion is affected if the pupil on the
affected side sluggishly responds to light with normal
pupil accommodation?
Vertebra prominens (C7 in 70% of cases, C6 in 20%, What is the name for the most
T1 in 10%) prominent spinous process?
12
SITS—Subscapularis, Infraspinatus, Teres minor, What muscles make up the rotator
Supraspinatus cuff?
They are preganglionic sympathetic axons. They are What is the function of white rami
white because they are myelinated. communicantes?
13
What muscle or muscles are innervated by the
Serratus anterior following nerves? • Long thoracic nerve
14
What abdominal muscle runs horizontally,
Transverse abdominis contributes to the posterior rectus sheath, and
contributes to form the conjoint tendon?
The sensory limb is via CN IX, and the motor limb is Which CNs act as the sensory and motor components
from CN X. of the gag reflex?
15
At what point does the axillary artery become the
When it crosses the teres major brachial artery?
Left CN XII lesion would result in the tongue What direction would the tongue protrude in a left
pointing to the left (points at the affected side). CN XII lesion?
C4 (the upper border of the thyroid At what vertebral level does the common carotid
cartilage) artery bifurcate?
False. Females are more likely to develop femoral True or false? Males are more likely to develop
hernias then males (remember Female's Femoral). femoral hernias than females.
Anterior compartment (it's the blood supply to the In what compartment of the thigh is the profundus
posterior compartment) femoris artery found?
16
The cupola of the lung is posterior to the subclavian
Where is the cupola of the lung in relation to the
artery and vein. It is the reason one must be cautious
subclavian artery and vein?
when performing subclavian venipuncture.
It both begins and ends at T4 At what vertebral levels does the aortic arch begin
(sternal angle [of Louis]). and end?
17
What artery travels with the following veins? •
Posterior interventricular artery Middle cardiac vein
IVC Remember: 1 at T8, 2 at T10, What structure or structures cross the diaphragm at
and 3 at T12 • T8 level?
Esophagus and esophageal nerve plexus (CN X) What structure or structures cross the diaphragm at
Remember: 1 at T8, 2 at T10, and 3 at T12 • T10 level?
18
Aorta, azygos vein, and thoracic duct Remember: 1 at What structure or structures cross the diaphragm at
T8, 2 at T10, and 3 at T12 • T12 level?
19
1. Lateral pectoral 2. Lateral head of the median 3. What are the three branches of the lateral cord of the
Musculocutaneus brachial plexus?
There are no valves and no smooth muscle in the What is the major difference between the veins in the
walls of the veins in the face. face and the veins in the rest of the body?
Clavicle, acromion, and glenoid fossa of the scapula Name the bony articulations of the following sites. Be
and the humerus specific. • Shoulder
Humerus with ulna (major) and Name the bony articulations of the following sites. Be
radius (minor) specific. • Elbow
20
Cricothyroid muscle; all other laryngeal muscles are What is the only laryngeal muscle innervated by the
innervated by the recurrent laryngeal nerve. external laryngeal nerve?
Esophagus, SVC, vagus nerve, azygos vein, thoracic What seven structures are found in more than one
duct, thymus, and phrenic nerve mediastinum?
There are 10 bronchopulmonary segments on the How many bronchopulmonary segments are on the
right and 8 on the left. right lung? Left lung?
Palatoglossus muscle is innervated by CN X; all other What is the only tongue muscle
tongue muscles are innervated by CN XII. innervated by CN X?
21
What abdominal muscle runs in a posteroinferior
direction, splits to contribute to the rectus sheath,
Internal abdominal oblique contributes to the formation of the conjoint tendon,
and in men gives rise to the middle spermatic fascia
and the cremasteric muscle of the spermatic cord?
Inferior pancreaticoduodenal, middle colic, right What are the five branches of the superior
colic, ileocolic, and 10 to 15 intestinal arteries mesenteric artery?
S2, S3, S4—keeps the pee-pee off the What spinal nerves contribute to the pelvic
splanchnic (parasympathetic) nerves that innervate
floor! the detrusor muscle of the urinary bladder?
Axillary nerve and posterior What nerve and artery could be affected in a humeral
humeral artery neck fracture?
22
Indirect hernia passes in the inguinal canal; a direct What type of hernia is described as passing through
hernia passes directly through Hesselbach's triangle. the deep lateral ring of the inguinal canal?
1. Posterior auricular vein 2. Posterior division of the What two vessels come together to form the external
retromandibular vein jugular vein?
The pulmonary vein, which carries oxygenated blood What is the only vein in the body
from the lung to the left atrium. with a high O2 content?
The left gastric, splenic, and What are the three branches of the
common hepatic arteries celiac trunk?
23
The tensor veli palatine is innervated by the
What is the only muscle of the soft palate that is
mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve; all
innervated by CN V3?
others are innervated by CN X.
Argyll Robertson What is the term for pupils that react normally to
accommodation but have bilateral loss of
pupils constriction in response to light?
24
What nerve supplies general sensation to the
Lingual nerve of CN V3 anterior two-thirds of the tongue?
Camper's fascia; Scarpa's fascia is devoid of fat. What is the name of the superficial subcutaneous
(Remember campers are fat.) fascia of the abdomen containing fat?
25
1. Tinea coli 2. Haustra 3. Epiploic What are the three anatomic characteristics that
differentiate the large bowel from the small bowel
appendages and the rectum?
Musculophrenic and superior At the level of rib 6, the internal thoracic artery
epigastric arteries divides into what two arteries?
26
Name the compartment of the mediastinum
Middle associated with the following thoracic structures: •
Heart and pericardium
27
Name the compartment of the mediastinum
Superior associated with the following thoracic structures: •
Trachea
28
Name the compartment of the mediastinum
Posterior associated with the following thoracic structures: •
Splanchnic nerves
29
Name the compartment of the mediastinum
Middle associated with the following thoracic structures: •
Pulmonary artery and veins
The left is a branch of the aortic arch, while the right The left subclavian artery is a branch
is a branch of the brachiocephalic trunk. of what artery?
30
1. Masseter 2. Temporalis 3. Medial pterygoid 4. What are the four muscles of
Lateral pterygoid mastication?
Left colic, superior rectal, and What are the three branches of the inferior
sigmoidal arteries mesenteric artery?
Caput medusa, internal hemorrhoids, esophageal What are five clinical signs of portal
varices, retroperitoneal varices, and splenomegaly HTN?
31
1. Iliocostalis 2. Longissimus 3. Spinalis ("I Love What three muscles constitute the
Science" muscles) erector spinae?
Radial nerve and the profunda What nerve and artery could be affected in a
brachii artery midshaft humeral fracture?
32
C3, C4, and C5 keep the diaphragm Ventral rami of what cervical nerves constitute the
alive! phrenic nerve?
Middle meningeal Name the structure that enters or exits the following
foramina: • Foramen spinosum
artery
33
CN V2 Name the structure that enters or exits the following
foramina: • Foramen rotundum
Internal carotid artery and Name the structure that enters or exits the following
sympathetic plexus foramina: • Carotid canal
34
CN XII Name the structure that enters or exits the following
foramina: • Hypoglossal canal
35
Motor aspect What component of the corneal reflex is lost in a CN
VII deficit?
A right CN V lesion results in weakened muscles of A motor lesion to the right CN V results in deviation
mastication, and the jaw deviates to the right. of the jaw to which side?
Ulnar and radial arteries (ulnar is What two arteries join to form the superficial and
the main supplier) deep palmar arches of the hand?
L4 to S3 (L2 to L4, thigh; L4 to S3, What segments of the lumbosacral plexus form the
leg) following nerves? • Tibial nerve
36
L4 to S3 (L2 to L4, thigh; L4 to S3, What segments of the lumbosacral plexus form the
leg) following nerves? • Common peroneal nerve
L2 to L4 (L2 to L4, thigh; L4 to S3, What segments of the lumbosacral plexus form the
leg) following nerves? • Femoral nerve
L2 to L4 (L2 to L4, thigh; L4 to S3, What segments of the lumbosacral plexus form the
leg) following nerves? • Obturator nerve
Left: stomach, spleen, and left kidney; right: liver, What three structures are in contact with the left
duodenum, and right kidney colic flexure? With the right colic flexure?
37
Stylopharyngeus muscle is innervated by CN IX; all What is the only pharyngeal muscle
other pharyngeal muscles are innervated by CN X. not innervated by CN X?
The right and left pulmonary arteries, the only What vessels carry deoxygenated blood into the
arteries that carry deoxygenated blood lungs from the right ventricle?
38
What muscle laterally rotates the
Popliteus femur to unlock the knee?
1. Dorsal scapular 2. Suprascapular 3. Long thoracic What four branches of the brachial plexus arise prior
4. Nerve to subclavius to the first rib?
39
Common peroneal What lower extremity nerve is described by the
following motor loss? • Loss of eversion; inversion,
nerve dorsiflexion, and plantarflexion of the foot
40
What lower extremity nerve is described by the
Obturator nerve following motor loss? • Loss of adduction of the thigh
The right gonadal vein drains into the inferior vena What vessel does the right gonadal
cava directly, and the left gonadal vein drains into
the left renal vein. vein drain into?
41
What two muscles do you test to see whether CN XI
Trapezius and sternocleidomastoid is intact?
CN IX and X What two CNs are responsible for the carotid body
and sinus reflexes?
T4 vertebral level posteriorly and anteriorly at the At what vertebral level does the
sternal angle (angle of Louis). trachea bifurcate?
Long thoracic nerve. To avoid confusing long Damage to what nerve will give you
thoracic nerve and lateral thoracic artery: long has
an n for nerve; lateral has an a for artery. winged scapula?
42
What portion of the intervertebral disk is a remnant
Nucleus pulposus of the notochord?
Four Ms and a U 1. Median 2. Medial antebrachial 3. What are the five branches of the median cord of the
Medial pectoral 4. Medial brachial cutaneus 5. Ulnar brachial plexus?
43
Glossopharyngeal What CN is associated with the sensory innervation
of • Oropharynx?
nerve
44
What attaches the cusps of the valves to the papillary
Chordae tendineae muscles in the heart?
45
The Palmar interosseus ADducts, whereas the Dorsal What muscles in the hand adduct
interosseus ABducts (PAD and DAB) the fingers?
1. Temporal 2. Zygomatic 3. Buccal 4. Mandibular 5. What are the five terminal branches
Cervical (Two Zebras Bit My Clavicle.) of the facial nerve?
46
What structure of the knee is described thus? •
Lateral collateral ligament Prevents adduction
47
First pharyngeal groove; all others From what pharyngeal groove is the external
degenerate. auditory meatus derived?
48
What embryonic structure forms the adult male
Urogenital folds structure? • Ventral part of the penis
49
Cleft palate What results when the palatine prominences fail to
fuse with the other side?
The zygote divides mitotically; only germ cells divide Does the zygote divide mitotically or
meiotically. meiotically?
50
Third week During what embryonic week does the
intraembryonic coelom form?
51
Name the primary vesicle the following structures
Proencephalon are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or
rhombencephalon). • Diencephalon
52
Name the primary vesicle the following structures
Rhombencephalon are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or
rhombencephalon). • Pons
53
Name the primary vesicle the following structures
Proencephalon are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or
rhombencephalon). • Third ventricle
54
None; they are not formed until a How many oogonia are present at
girl reaches puberty. birth?
Transposition of the great vessels arises from a What right-to-left shunt occurs when the aorta opens
failure of the aorticopulmonary septum to grow in a into the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk
spiral. opens into the left ventricle?
55
Ligamentum What are the adult remnants of the following
structures? • Ductus arteriosus
arteriosum
SHIP: Shifting of the aorta, Hypertrophy of the right What is the tetrad of tetralogy of
ventricle, Interventricular septal defect, Pulmonary
stenosis Fallot?
56
What CN is associated with the •
CN V First pharyngeal arch?
57
What CN is associated with the •
CN X Sixth pharyngeal arch?
Hirschsprung's disease (colonic What disease results in a failure of neural crest cells
to migrate to the myenteric plexus of the sigmoid
gangliosus) colon and rectum?
The notochord What embryonic structure, around day 19, tells the
ectoderm above it to differentiate into neural tissue?
Cryptorchidism; normally the testes descend into the What is the term for failure of the testes to descend
scrotum within 3 months of birth. into the scrotum?
58
Membranous septal defects are interventricular; a
Is a membranous septal defect more commonly
persistent patent ovale results in an interatrial septal
interventricular or interatrial?
defect.
The second pharyngeal pouch and What pharyngeal pouch and groove persist when a
groove pharyngeal fistula is formed?
hCG can be detected in the blood by day 8 and in the How early can a pregnancy be detected by hCG
urine by day 10. assays in the blood? In urine?
First M PITS for pharyngeal pouch From what pharyngeal pouch is the following
derivatives structure derived? • Middle ear
Fourth M PITS for pharyngeal From what pharyngeal pouch is the following
structure derived? • Superior parathyroid gland and
pouch derivatives ultimobranchial body of the thyroid
59
Third M PITS for pharyngeal pouch From what pharyngeal pouch is the following
structure derived? • Inferior parathyroid gland and
derivatives thymus
Second M PITS for pharyngeal From what pharyngeal pouch is the following
pouch derivatives structure derived? • Palatine tonsil
60
What disorder is associated with jaundice, white
Extrahepatic biliary atresia stools, and dark urine due to biliary duct occlusion
secondary to incomplete recanalization?
They are all formed by the fifth All primary oocytes in females are
month of fetal life. formed by what age?
61
From what embryonic structure are the following
Sinus venosus structures derived? • The sinus venarum, coronary
sinus, and the oblique vein of the left atrium
62
True. The thyroid gland, the lungs, and the
True or false? The thyroid gland is an embryologic
pharyngeal pouches are foregut derivatives that are
foregut derivative.
not a component of the gastrointestinal system.
Phallus, urogenital folds, and What embryonic structure forms the following adult
labioscrotal swellings structures? • External genitalia
63
Urachus What embryonic structure forms the following adult
structures? • Median umbilical ligament
Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis due to hypertrophy of Projectile nonbilious vomiting and a small knot at
the muscularis externa, resulting in a narrowed the right costal margin (olive sign) are hallmarks of
pyloric outlet what embryonic disorder?
64
Third week; they are derived from Blood and its vessels form during
the wall of the yolk sac. what embryonic week?
65
What embryonic structure forms the adult female
Labioscrotal swelling structures? • Labia majora
The gut rotates clockwise around the superior What direction does the primitive gut rotate? What is
mesenteric artery. its axis of rotation?
66
Testicular feminization syndrome What syndrome occurs when a 46XY fetus develops
(Dude looks like a lady!) testes and female external genitalia?
67
What remains patent in a hydrocele of
A patent processus vaginalis the testis, allowing peritoneal fluid to
form into a cyst?
True. The laryngotracheal (respiratory) diverticulum is divided True or false? The respiratory system is
from the foregut by the tracheoesophageal septum. derived from the ventral wall of the
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------- foregut.
68
Sacrococcygeal What tumor is derived from primitive streak
remnants and often contains bone, hair, or other
teratoma tissue types?
The primitive streak grows caudal to What is the direction of growth for the primitive
rostral. streak, caudal to rostral or rostral to caudal?
69
During what embryonic week do
Third week somites begin to form?
Week four, and they remain In men, at what embryonic week do the primordial
dormant there until puberty. germ cells migrate to the indifferent gonad?
70
They are in the grey matter of the Where are the preganglionic neuron cell bodies, the
CNS. CNS or the PNS?
CN VII, IX, and X; taste and general sensation for Which three CNs send sensory information to the
the tongue is sent to the solitary nucleus. solitary nucleus?
71
What syndrome is associated with the following
brainstem lesions? • Occlusion of the PICA, resulting
Lateral medullary (Wallenberg's) in ipsilateral limb ataxia, ipsilateral facial pain and
temperature loss, contralateral pain and body
syndrome temperature loss, ipsilateral Horner's syndrome, and
ipsilateral paralysis of the vocal cords, palate droop,
dysphagia, nystagmus, vomiting, and vertigo
72
What CNs are affected if there is a lesion in •
CN VI, VII, and VIII Pontomedullary junction?
73
What component of the trigeminal nuclei • Forms
Mesencephalic nucleus the sensory component of the jaw jerk reflex?
74
The granule cell is the only excitatory neuron in the
cerebellar cortex, and it uses glutamate as its
What is the only excitatory neuron in the cerebellar
neurotransmitter. All the other cells in the
cortex, and what is its neurotransmitter?
cerebellum are inhibitory neurons, and they use
GABA as their neurotransmitter.
75
Lower extremity and lower trunk information travels
What tract carries unconscious proprioceptive
in the dorsal spinocerebellar tract. The upper trunk
information from the Golgi tendon organs and
and extremity information travels in the
muscle spindles to the cerebellum, helping monitor
cuneocerebellar tract. (Cuneocerebellar and
and modulate muscle movements?
fasciculus cuneatus both apply to upper extremities.)
76
What component of the inner ear • Contains
endolymph and gravity receptors monitoring linear
Utricle and saccule acceleration and deceleration of the head, noting
changes in head position?
77
What disease is a cavitation of the spinal cord
Syringomyelia causing bilateral loss of pain and temperature at the
level of the lesion?
White rami are preganglionic fibers, whereas grey Are white rami preganglionic or
rami are postganglionic fibers. postganglionic fibers?
Posterior hypothalamic zones; lesions here result in What area of the hypothalamus is responsible for
poikilothermy (environmental control of one's body recognizing a decrease in body temperature and
temperature). mediates the response to conserve heat?
78
What preganglionic sympathetic fibers are
Lumbar splanchnics responsible for innervating the smooth muscle and
glands of the pelvis and the hindgut?
CN X (Remember, the vagus nerve supplies the What CN carries preganglionic parasympathetic
parasympathetic information from the tip of the fibers that innervate the viscera of the neck, thorax,
pharynx to the end of the midgut and all between.) foregut, and midgut?
79
Climbing fibers;, they are monosynaptic input on
Purkinje cells. Mossy fibers, also excitatory, are What excitatory fibers arise from the inferior olivary
axons of all other sources and synapse on granule nuclei on the contralateral side of the body?
cells.
Meningomyelocele All except occulta cause Name the form of spina bifida. • Meninges and spinal
elevated-fetoprotein levels. cord project through a vertebral defect
Meningocele All except occulta cause Name the form of spina bifida. • Meninges project
elevated-fetoprotein levels. through a vertebral defect
Myeloschisis All except occulta cause Name the form of spina bifida. • An open neural tube
elevated-fetoprotein levels. lying on the surface of the back
80
Occulta All except occulta cause elevated-fetoprotein Name the form of spina bifida. • Defect in the
levels. vertebral arch
81
Ventral anterior Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and
output. • Input from globus pallidus and substantia
nucleus nigra; output to primary motor cortex
82
What do UMNs
They innervate LMNs.
innervate?
Superior colliculus (Remember S for Superior and Sight). The Which of the colliculi help direct the
inferior colliculus processes auditory information from both ears. movement of both eyes in a gaze?
83
Eight pairs through seven cervical vertebrae. How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with
Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves. • Cervical vertebrae?
Twelve pairs through twelve thoracic vertebrae. How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with
Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves. • Thoracic vertebrae?
Five pairs through five lumbar vertebrae. Totaling 31 How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with
pairs of spinal nerves. • Lumbar vertebrae?
Five pairs through five sacral vertebrae. Totaling 31 How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with
pairs of spinal nerves. • Sacral vertebrae?
One pair with three to five coccygeal vertebrae. How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with
Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves. • Coccygeal vertebrae?
84
What are the three sites where CSF can leave the
Two Lateral foramina of Luschka and 1 Medial
ventricles and enter the subarachnoid space? (Name
foramen of Monroe (L for Lateral and M for Medial)
the lateral and the medial foramina.)
CN V, VI, VII, and VIII What CNs arise from • The pons?
Transcortical apraxia; Wernicke's area of the left What disconnect syndrome results from a lesion in
hemisphere cannot communicate with the right the corpus callosum secondary to an infarct in the
primary motor cortex because of the lesion in the anterior cerebral artery, so that the person can
corpus callosum. comprehend the command but not execute it?
85
False. Water readily diffuses across the blood-brain
True or false? Glucose readily diffuses across the
barrier, but glucose requires carrier-mediated
blood-brain barrier.
transport.
Golgi tendon organs are stimulated by Ib afferent What encapsulated group of nerve endings seen at
neurons in response to an increase in force or the muscle-tendon junction responds to an increase
tension. The inverse muscle reflex protects muscle in tension generated in that muscle? (This is
from being torn; it limits the tension on the muscle. dropping a box that is too heavy to carry.)
Huntington's chorea; patients have chorea, athetoid What chromosome 4, AD disorder is a degeneration
movements, progressive dementia, and behavioral of GABA neurons in the striatum of the indirect
problems. pathway of the basal ganglia?
86
Poliomyelitis; it is a bilateral LMN What is the name of bilateral flaccid paralysis,
hyporeflexia, and hypotonia due to a viral infection
lesion. of the ventral horn of the spinal cord?
Frontal lobe syndrome (lesion in the What syndrome causes inability to concentrate, easy
distractibility, apathy, and regression to an infantile
prefrontal cortex) suckling or grasping reflex?
87
What cells lining the ventricles have cilia on their
Ependymal cells luminal surface to move CSF?
88
True. Muscle spindles are modified skeletal muscle True or false? Intrafusal fibers form
fibers. They are the sensory component of the stretch
reflexes. muscle spindles.
89
Area 4 What Brodmann area is associated with • Primary
motor cortex?
90
What Brodmann area is associated with • Wernicke's
Area 22 and occasionally 39 and 40 area?
91
In a topographical arrangement of the cerebellar
Flocculonodular lobe (one of my favorite words in all
homunculus map, what area or lobe • Controls
of medicine!)
balance and eye movements?
Microglia (Microglia and mesoderm What glial cell is derived from mesoderm and acts as
both begin with M) a scavenger, cleaning up cellular debris after injury?
92
Supraoptic nuclei; lesions here result in diabetes What hypothalamic nucleus is responsible for the
insipidus. production of ADH?
Ventromedial nucleus; lesions here What nucleus of the hypothalamus is the satiety
result in obesity. center, regulating food intake?
What cell's axons are the only ones that leave the
The Purkinje cell cerebellar cortex?
93
Pelvic splanchnics (They all begin What splanchnic carries preganglionic
parasympathetic fibers that innervate the hindgut
with P.) and the pelvic viscera?
Nystagmus is named by the fast component, which is Is nystagmus defined by the fast or
the corrective attempt made by the cerebral cortex in
response to the initial slow phase. slow component?
Left eye anopsia (left nasal and Name the ocular lesion; be specific. • Left optic nerve
temporal hemianopsia) lesion
94
Bitemporal heteronymous Name the ocular lesion; be specific. • Optic chiasm
hemianopsia lesion
Dysmetria; this is seen in a What is the name for inability to stop a movement at
finger-to-nose test. the intended target?
95
Preoptic area of the hypothalamus; if the lesion If a lesion occurs before the onset of puberty and
occurs after puberty, amenorrhea or impotence will arrests sexual development, what area of the
be seen. hypothalamus is affected?
96
What ganglion supplies the postganglionic
Ciliary ganglion parasympathetic fibers to the ciliary muscles of the
eye?
Spinothalamic tract (anterolateral In what tract does pain, temperature, and crude
touch sensory information ascend to the postcentral
system) gyrus of the parietal lobe?
97
They innervate skeletal muscle.
What do LMNs
innervate?
The fasciculus gracilis (Graceful), which lies closest What tract carries the ipsilateral dorsal column
to the midline of the spinal cord. fibers from the lower limbs in the spinal cord?
False. CSF is a clear isotonic solution with lower True or false? CSF is a clear, hypertonic solution with
concentrations of K+ and HCO3-. It does have higher higher concentrations of K + and HCO3-, than the
concentrations of Cl- and Mg2+. serum.
98
Both What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer
motor, sensory, or both) • Ventral rami?
Ipsilateral loss at and below the level Describe the loss for each of the following in a
hemisection of the spinal cord. (Brown–Sáequard
of the lesion syndrome) • Dorsal column tract?
99
Ipsilateral loss below the level of the Describe the loss for each of the following in a
hemisection of the spinal cord. (Brown–Sáequard
lesion syndrome) • Corticospinal tract?
100
Initiate and manage gross skeletal What is the function of the basal
muscle movement control ganglia?
The basilar artery is formed at the pontomedullary What artery is formed by the union of the two
junction. vertebral arteries?
D1 receptor; inhibition of the direct pathway occurs Which dopamine receptor excites the direct pathway
through the D2 receptors. of the basal ganglia?
101
What fissure of the cerebral cortex separates the
Lateral fissure (fissure of Sylvius) frontal and temporal lobes rostrally and partially
separates the parietal and temporal lobes?
The conus medullaris terminates at the level of the In an adult, where does the spinal cord terminate
second lumbar vertebra. and what is it called?
Amygdala; it helps imprint an What area of the limbic system is responsible for
emotional response in memory. attaching emotional significance to a stimulus?
102
Intention tremor; it is a sign of cerebellar lesions. A
What is the name of the tremor that occurs during
tremor at rest (i.e., pill rolling) is seen in basal
movements and is absent while the person is at rest?
ganglia lesions.
Prefrontal cortex; it is in front of the What frontal lobe cortex is associated with
organizing and planning the intellectual and
premotor area. emotional aspect of behavior?
The substantia nigra is the largest nucleus in the What is the largest nucleus in the
midbrain. It contains melanin and uses GABA and
dopamine as its neurotransmitters. midbrain?
103
Where is the lesion that produces these symptoms
when a patient is asked to look to the left? • Right eye
Right medial longitudinal fasciculus can't look left, left eye nystagmus, and convergence is
intact
Left abducens nucleus or right Where is the lesion that produces these symptoms
when a patient is asked to look to the left? Neither
cerebral cortex eye can look left with a slow drift to the right
104
Direct pathway; a good example is In what pathway of the basal ganglia do lesions result
in an underactive cortex with hypokinetic, slow, or
Parkinson's disease. absent spontaneous movement?
105
What part of the ANS (i.e., PNS or CNS) controls the
Parasympathetic constriction of the pupil in response to light?
106
Hypermyelination of the corpus striatum and the What causes slow writhing
thalamus (seen in cerebral palsy) movements (athetosis)?
Ciliary ganglion. (These fibers are carried in CN III. What is the name of the postganglionic
Remember it like this:-ili-in ciliary ganglion looks parasympathetic ganglion that innervates • The
like the III of CN III.) papillary sphincter and ciliary muscle of the eye?
The otic ganglion. (These fibers are carried in CN IX. What is the name of the postganglionic
Remember it like this: the -oti-is in both otic parasympathetic ganglion that innervates • The
ganglion and parotid gland.) parotid gland?
107
What is the name of the postganglionic
Pterygopalatine ganglion (I remember this as the
parasympathetic ganglion that innervates • The
only ganglion left.)
lacrimal gland and oral and nasal mucosa?
Anterior limb of the internal capsule is supplied by What limb of the internal capsule is not supplied by
the anterior cerebral artery. the middle cerebral artery?
108
Dorsal spinocerebellar tract; the accessory cuneate
Clarke's nucleus is the second ascending sensory
nucleus is the second nucleus for the cuneocerebellar
neuron of which spinocerebellar tract?
tract.
In the ventral horn of the spinal cord. UMN cell Where are the LMN cell bodies of
bodies are in the precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe. the corticospinal tract?
109
What nucleus, found in the intermediate zone of the
Clarke's nucleus spinal cord, sends unconscious proprioception to the
cerebellum?
110
What part of the inner ear contains the gravity
Saccule and utricle receptors for changes in the position of the head?
Nucleus ambiguus, resulting in the uvula deviating A unilateral lesion in what nucleus will produce
away from the side of the lesion. ipsilateral paralysis of the soft palate?
111
True. They are the sensory True or false? Neurons in the dorsal horn participate
component of a spinal reflex. in reflexes.
Light regulates the activity of the pineal gland via the Does light or darkness regulate the
retinal–suprachiasmatic– pineal pathway. pineal gland?
112
Is the pH of CSF acidotic, alkalotic,
The pH of CSF is 7.33, acidotic.
or neutral?
Rods What cells of the retina see in black and white and
are used for night vision?
113
Name the muscle type based on these descriptions: •
Continuous involuntary contraction, uninuclear
Mitochondria-linked disorders are always inherited Who is responsible for passing on mitochondrial
from the mother. DNA genetic disorders?
Dendrites receive information, whereas axons send What part of a neuron receives
information. information?
114
What type of collagen is associated with the
Type IV collagen basement membrane?
Transitional epithelium. The distal portion of the What is the epithelial lining of the prostatic portion
penile urethra is composed of stratified epithelium. of the urethra?
True. (They are quite a busy bunch True or false? The following are functions of
hepatocytes: protein production, bile secretion,
of cells!) detoxification, conjugation, and lipid storage.
115
What substance found in eosinophils is toxic to
Major basic protein parasitic worms?
Theca cells secrete estrogen. After fertilization the After fertilization, what cells of the corpus luteum •
theca cells form from the theca interna. Secrete estrogen?
Malpighian layer (made up of the stratum basale and On what layer of the epidermis does
stratum spinosum) all mitosis occur?
116
What ribosomal subunit binds first
The small subunit (40S) binds first.
to the mRNA strand?
Nucleolus. Ribosomal assembly also takes place in What organelle is responsible for
the nucleolus. ribosomal RNA synthesis?
117
APocrinE glands (APES is my memory aid) Axilla,
Areola, and Anus all begin with A. APES are hairy
What sweat gland type is associated with odor
(associated with hair follicles). They smell (odor
production and hair follicles and is found in the
production), and if confronted by an APE, your
axilla?
Adrenergic nervous system would be firing
(innervation).
118
Match the chromosome and haploid number with
119
The inner cortex (paracortex) contains the T cells, so What area of the lymph node is considered the
it is considered the thymic-dependent area. thymic-dependent area?
120
1. Phosphorylation of mannose (lysosomes only) 2.
Removal of mannose residues 3. Formation of What are the four posttranslational modifications
glycosylate proteins 4. Phosphorylation of sulfate done by the Golgi apparatus?
amino acids
Stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium, What is the epithelial cell lining the
which has cilia that beat toward the oropharynx. nasopharynx?
1. Nails 2. Hair 3. Sweat glands (both apocrine and What are the three epidermal
sebaceous) derivatives?
Stereocilia What are the long microvilli in the inner ear and
male reproductive tract called?
121
Leydig cells produce testosterone. LH stimulates What cell of the male reproductive system produces
Leydig cells. (Both start with L.) testosterone?
In the PNS, myelin is produced by Schwann cells, in Myelin is produced by which cells in
the CNS by oligodendrocytes. the PNS? In the CNS?
Langerhans cells (found in the What cell type of the epidermis functions as
stratum spinosum) antigen-presenting cells?
B cells are mainly found in the peripheral white pulp What cell type is found in the peripheral white pulp
and germinal centers in the spleen. of the spleen?
122
What encapsulated lymphoid organ is characterized
Thymus gland. (Thymus gland is essential for T cell
by presence of Hassall's corpuscles, and absence of
maturation.)
germinal centers and B cells?
Chief cells What are the cells of the parathyroid gland that
produce PTH?
123
Secondary lysosome (think of the primary as inactive What type of lysosome is formed when lysosome
and secondary as active) fuses with a substrate for breakdown?
1. Laminin 2. Heparan sulfate (heparitin sulfate) 3. What are the four components of the
Fibronectin 4. Type IV collagen basement membrane?
Parietal cells (Remember, they What cell type of the body or fundus of the stomach
secrete HCl, too.) secretes IF?
124
Chief cells What cell type of the body or fundus of the stomach
secretes pepsinogen?
125
True. Transcription (conversion of DNA to RNA), as True or false? The nucleus is the site
well as replication, occurs in the nucleus. of transcription.
One day after the LH surge and 2 days after the How many days after the LH surge is
estrogen peak. ovulation?
126
Upper third skeletal muscle, middle third both
What is the rule of one-third regarding muscle type
skeletal and smooth muscle, and lower third smooth
of the esophagus?
muscle
The outer cortex contains most of the germinal What area of the lymph node
centers and therefore also most B cells. contains germinal centers?
False. The gallbladder does not produce bile, but it True or false? The gallbladder
concentrates bile via active sodium transport; water
follows the sodium. functions to produce bile.
127
In the alveoli, what cell type is • for
Type I pneumocytes gas exchange?
Syncytiotrophoblast. (The cytotrophoblast gets Which trophoblast layer of the placenta remains
incorporated into the syncytiotrophoblast.) until the end of pregnancy?
128
Ileum What area of the small intestine is characterized by
Peyer's patches?
Collecting ducts, which make them readily What area of the nephron is sensitive to the effects of
permeable to water reabsorption. ADH?
Nissl substances; there is a great deal of RER in What is the name of RER in
neuron cell bodies, indicating high protein synthesis. neurons?
129
1. Tight junctions 2. Capillaries that lack fenestration What are the three reasons for the effectiveness of
3. Very selective pinocytosis by the capillaries the blood-brain barrier?
Red pulp (Remember, Red pulp and What area of the spleen consists of splenic cords of
RBCs begin with R.) Billroth and phagocytoses RBCs?
130
What papillae are touch receptors on
Filiform papillae the tongue and send their sensations
via CN V3 (mandibular division)?
To provide attachment between contiguous cells and to maintain a What are the functions of the zonula
semipermeable barrier occludens and the zonula adherens
131
Ductus epididymis, which is lined by
pseudostratified epithelium with stereocilia. Where do sperm go for maturation?
Prophase of meiosis I (between 12th When is the first arrested stage of development in
and 22nd week in utero) the female reproductive cycle?
Keratinocytes, the most numerous cells in the What cells of the epidermis carry the
epidermis, carry melanin and produce keratin. pigment melanin?
Large intestine. Water is passively What segment of the gastrointestinal tract lacks villi,
has crypts, and actively transports sodium out of its
removed from the lumen. lumen?
132
Palms and soles of the feet. Sebaceous glands are What two areas of the skin do not
associated with hair follicles, which are lacking on
the palms and soles of the feet. contain sebaceous glands?
Alveoli; they are part of the Which of the following is not part of the conducting
portion of the respiratory system: trachea, bronchi,
respiratory portion. alveoli, or larynx?
The inner membrane of the Where are the enzymes for the ETC and oxidative
mitochondria (cristae) phosphorylation found?
133
Hyaluronic acid (all sulfates bind to What is the only glycosaminoglycan (GAG) that
the core protein) binds to the linker portion of the proteoglycan?
Inhibin, müllerian-inhibiting factor, and androgen What three factors do Sertoli cells produce for
binding protein normal male development?
134
Duct cells secrete HCO3-, electrolytes, and water.
The acini secrete the enzymes necessary for Do the duct or the acini cells of the pancreas secrete
carbohydrate, nucleic acid, protein cleavage, and HCO3-?
emulsification of fats.
The venae recta maintain the gradient via What maintains the osmotic gradient that is critical
countercurrent flow. to the concentrating ability of the kidney?
135
Chondroitin sulfate and keratan What are the proteoglycans of
sulfate cartilage and bone?
Menses. (Ovulation occurs 14 days before the What is the term for the first 3 to 5 days of the female
beginning of menses.) reproductive cycle?
Metaphase of meiosis II (in the oocyte of the graafian What is the second arrested stage of development in
follicle) the female reproductive cycle?
60S and 40S. The large subunits (60S) are made in What ribosomal subunit sizes do
the nucleolus and the small subunits (40S) are made
in the nucleus. eukaryotic cells have?
136
The secretory phase is progesterone-dependent and
What phase of the female reproductive cycle is 14
14 days long, whereas the length of the proliferative
days long?
phase varies
Polysome. Ribosomes read from the 5' to the 3' end A single mRNA strand translated by a ribosome is
of the mRNA. termed what?
137
What cells of the adrenal gland are neural crest
Chromaffin cells (adrenal medulla) derivatives?
In the peroxisome until it is 10 carbons long; the rest Where does Beta-oxidation of very long chain fatty
is completed in the mitochondria. acids begin?
138
What is the legal age to be deemed competent to
18 years old (except if emancipated) make decisions?
Stage 3 and 4 most commonly. It can occur at any With what stage of sleep is enuresis
stage in the sleep cycle and is usually associated with
a major stressor being introduced into the home. associated?
139
What type of correlation compares
Spearman correlation two ordinal variables?
140
What disorder is described as having • Conscious
Factitious disorder symptoms with unconscious motivation?
Reliability (think of it as "nice grouping" or What is the term for the ability of a test to measure
"precise") something consistently?
Small to medium-sized cerebral What cerebral vessel size is affected in patients with
vessels vascular dementia?
141
What level of mental retardation is characterized by •
Severe (range 20–34) Having the ability to communicate and learn basic
habits but training is usually not helpful?
142
Name these immature defense mechanisms: •
Blocking Inability to remember a known fact (aware of
forgetting)
143
At what stage of cognitive development (according to
Preoperational (2–6 years) Piaget) do children • Lack law of conservation and be
egocentric?
REM sleep. Nightmares are frightening dreams that With what stage of sleep are
we recall. nightmares associated?
144
Total and NREM sleep decrease considerably as we In the elderly, what happens to total sleep time,
age, but REM sleep remains relatively constant percentage of REM sleep, and percentage of NREM
(20%) up to age 80, then begins to decline. sleep?
Dopamine levels rise with waking; dopamine is What happens to dopamine levels
associated with wakefulness. when we awaken?
145
What is the term for a deficiency or absence of sexual
Hypoactive sexual desire disorder fantasies or desires?
Agoraphobia. It also means having a sense of What phobia is described as the fear
humiliation or hopelessness. of open spaces?
Venlafaxine. (It also has a mild What antidepressant, which recently was approved
for general anxiety disorder, inhibits the reuptake of
dopaminergic effect.) NE and 5-HT?
146
Senile plaques, neurofibrillary tangles, and What are the three microscopic pathologic changes
granulovascular changes in neurons seen in Alzheimer's disease?
Projective drawing. The artistic form is irrelevant, What type of test asks a patient to draw a scene,
but the size, placement, erasures, and distortions are attempting to find out the individual's unconscious
relevant. perceptions in his or her life?
Increased ACh to decreased NE levels. (NE pathway What is the biochemical trigger for
begins in the pons and regulates REM sleep.) REM sleep?
147
What neuropsychologic test shows nine designs to
Bender Visual Motor Gestalt Test the patient, then asks for recall of as many as
possible?
Nominal scale (categorical, e.g., What scale separates things into groups without
male or female) defining the relationship between them?
148
What specifies how accurately the sample values and
Confidence interval. It is a way of admitting
the true values of the population lie within a given
estimation for the population.
range?
100%, with about 20% remaining What percentage of children born to HIV-positive
positive after 1 year mothers will test positive for HIV at birth?
149
Clonidine Which drug is used to treat opioid withdrawal,
ADHD, and sometimes Tourette's syndrome?
150
When the results of a test are compared to findings
Norm reference (i.e., 75% of the students in the class
for a normative group, what form of reference does
will pass)
the objective test use?
Null hypothesis (what you hope to What hypothesis states that the findings of a test are
disprove) a result of chance?
151
At what age does a child develop •
At birth (reflex) Endogenous smile?
152
It is best to begin with open-ended questions,
allowing patients to describe in their own words
What type of questions should you begin with when a
what troubles them. You can then move to
patient seeks your medical opinion?
closed-ended questions when narrowing the
diagnosis.
Variable ratio If it is based on time, it is an interval, What type of scheduled reinforcement states that
and if it is based on the number of responses, it is a after a desired response, the reinforcement is given •
ratio. Varying in the number of responses?
153
At what stage of psychosexual development
Phallic stage (4–6 years) (according to Freud) do children fear castration?
Very superior (<2.5% of the What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is •
population) 130
154
Average What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is •
90 to 109
155
Cross-sectional studies determine prevalence, not Can incidence, prevalence, and cause and effect be
incidence or cause and effect. assessed in • Cross-sectional studies?
Cohort studies determine incidence and causality, Can incidence, prevalence, and cause and effect be
not prevalence. assessed in • Cohort studies?
156
Validity (remember, reliability is necessary but not What is the term for the degree to which a test
the only thing needed for validity) measures what it is intended to measure?
Acamprosate (the number of glutamate receptors What medication is used to help alcoholics avoid
increases with chronic alcohol abuse) relapse by decreasing glutamate receptor activity?
157
Neologisms. Thomas Jefferson noted, "Necessity What is the term for new made-up
obliges us to neologize." (Abnormal use of
neologisms is known as neolalism.) words?
Yes. The only civil liberty they lose is the freedom to Can committed mentally ill patients refuse medical
come and go as they please. treatment?
Reinforcement What is the term for any stimulus that increases the
probability of a response happening?
158
Name the cluster C personality disorder: • Gets
Dependent others to assume responsibility, is subordinate, and
is fearful of being alone and caring for self
Sexual aversion What is the term for a complete aversion to all sexual
contact?
disorder
Type I symptoms (positive); schizophrenics have What type of symptoms in schizophrenia are
them, but otherwise healthy persons do not. associated with • Dopamine receptors?
159
Type II symptoms (negative); otherwise healthy What type of symptoms in schizophrenia are
persons have them, but schizophrenics do not. associated with • Muscarinic receptors (ACh)?
No, it is not a mandatory reportable offense (if you Is spousal abuse a mandatory
can believe it). Child and elderly abuse are
mandatory reportable offenses. reportable offense?
As the standard deviation increases, the greater the What is the relationship between chance of error and
chance of error. • Standard deviation?
160
As sample size increases, the lower What is the relationship between chance of error and
the chance of error. • Sample size?
161
Look for broken blood vessels in the In what organ system would you attempt to localize a
sign for shaken baby syndrome"? What do you look
baby's eyes. for?
162
What has proved to be the best way
Bell pad to extinguish enuresis?
Ordinal scale (e.g., faster/slower, What scale assesses a rank order classification but
taller/shorter) does not tell the difference between the two groups?
Ratio scale What scale has a true zero point, graded into equal
increments, and also orders them?
163
4 years old By what age should children be able to draw the
following figures? • Cross
164
What personality disorder affects 75% of the prison
Antisocial personality population?
165
1. Skin color 2. Heart rate 3. Reflexes 4. Muscle tone What five things are checked in the
5. Respiratory rate APGAR, Appearance, Pulse,
Grimace, Activity, Respiration APGAR test?
Birth defects, low birth weight (< 1500 g) with What are the top three causes of
neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS), and
SIDS infant mortality?
Moving objects, along with large bright objects with Do newborns have a preference for
curves and complex designs. still or moving objects?
166
Trazodone What serotonin reuptake inhibitor's major sexual
side effect is priapism?
The biofeedback model is based on the What part of the ANS is affected in the biofeedback
parasympathetic nervous system. model of operant conditioning?
At least 15% How far below ideal body weight are patients with
anorexia nervosa?
167
True or false? According to social learning theory,
False. These beliefs are characteristic of people with people who believe that luck, chance, or the actions
an external locus of control. of others control their fate have an internal locus of
control.
Dyspareunia. It is a common complaint in women What is the term for recurrent and persistent pain
who have been raped or sexually abused. before, after, or during sexual intercourse?
168
During stage 3 and 4 (remember, it In what stage of sleep is it hardest to arouse a
is called deep sleep.) sleeping individual?
REM latency; normally it is about 90 What is the period between falling asleep and REM
minutes. sleep called?
169
Melatonin. It is a light-sensitive hormone that is What pineal hormone's release is inhibited by
associated with sleepiness. daylight and increased dramatically during sleep?
170
Somatoform pain What somatoform disorder is described as • Severe,
prolonged pain that persists with no cause being
disorder found, disrupts activities of daily living?
Tourette's syndrome; it is usually first reported by What disease is described by the following
teachers as ADHD with symptoms of characteristics: multiple motor and vocal tics,
obsessive-compulsive disorder and learning average age of onset 7, a M:F ratio of 3:1, and
disabilities. association with increased levels of dopamine?
171
What disorder, experienced more than half of the
time for a 6-month period, is described as being
Generalized anxiety disorder fearful, worrisome, or impatient and having sleep
disturbances, poor concentration, hyperactivity, and
an overall sense of autonomic hyperactivity?
172
It increases REM and total sleep
How does L-tryptophan affect sleep?
time.
Yes, as long the illness does not threaten limb or life. Can parents withhold treatment
If illness is critical or an emergency, treat the child. from their children?
Alternative hypothesis (what is left after the null has What is the name of the hypothesis
been defined) you are trying to prove?
50%, with 50% of them having the What percent of unwed mothers are
child teenagers?
173
Increased REM sleep, decreased REM latency, and
What happens to REM, REM latency, and stage 4
decreased stage 4 sleep, leading to early morning
sleep during major depression?
awakening
174
1. Sleep paralysis 2. Hypnagogic hallucinations
(while falling asleep) 3. Sleep attacks with excessive Name the four components of the
daytime sleepiness 4. Cataplexy (pathognomonic)
Narcolepsy is a disorder of REM sleep, with REM narcoleptic tetrad.
occurring within 10 minutes of sleep.
Cortisol levels increase. Lymphocyte levels decrease What happens to cortisol levels in sleep-deprived
in sleep-deprived individuals. individuals?
Sleep latency What is the period between going to bed and falling
asleep called?
Dysthymia, which is also known as nonpsychotic What disorder is characterized by a depressed mood
depression. (Think of it as the car running but not and a loss of interest or pleasure for more than 2
well.) years?
175
TSH. 5-HT and prolactin increase during sleep, and What pituitary hormone is inhibited
dopamine levels decrease during sleep. during sleep?
176
(MA/CA) x 100 = IQ score, where MA = mental age
and CA = chronological age What is the formula to calculate IQ?
Good Samaritan Law. (Physicians are not required to What law was adopted to shield physicians from
stop and help.) liability when helping at the scene of an accident?
177
Dissociative fugue. (Patients are What is the term to describe inability to recall the
past and possible assumption of a completely new
unaware of memory loss.) identity?
Recall bias. These problems arise in Failure to accurately recall the past leads to what
retrospective studies. form of bias?
178
Inversely proportional: the higher the potency, the Regarding neuroleptics, what is the relationship
lower the anticholinergic side effects. between potency and anticholinergic side effects?
179
95% in the kidneys; that's why adequate Na+ and Where is lithium metabolized and
fluid intake is essential. excreted?
At 8 to 9 years of age. Prior to this age they view At what age do children begin to understand the
death as a form of punishment. irreversibility of death?
The Halsted-Reitan battery. It consists of finger What neuropsychologic test has five basic scales
oscillation, speech sound perception, rhythm, testing for the presence and localization of brain
tactual, and category testing. dysfunction?
180
Catatonic What subtype of schizophrenia is characterized by •
Stuporous mute echopraxia and automatic
schizophrenia obedience, waxy flexibility with rigidity of posture?
No, you never refuse to treat a patient simply If a patient cannot pay, can you
because he or she can't pay. You are a patient
advocate. refuse services?
Yes. It increases the rate of suicide to nearly 50 times Does alcoholism increase the rate of
that of the general population. suicide?
181
Range What is the term for the difference between the
highest and the lowest score in a population?
Decreased REM sleep and REM How is sleep affected in a person with alcohol
rebound during withdrawal intoxication?
Need 3 panic attacks over 3 weeks (remember, they How many attacks are needed over how much time
come out of the blue.) before panic disorder is diagnosed?
Tardive dyskinesia. It persists even after treatment is What major side effect of neuroleptics is
discontinued and has no treatment. Focus is on characterized by pill rolling, shuffling gait, and
monitoring for side effects and prevention. tremors that abate during sleep?
182
Yes. This is done to help prevent underreporting out
of fear of lawsuit. Remember that it is your duty to If you report a suspected case of child abuse and are
protect the child first, not worry about legal wrong, are you protected from legal liability?
responsibility.
Without children (but don't think about this one for Is marital satisfaction higher for couples with or
too long) without children?
183
Name the aphasia based on these characteristics: •
Nonfluent speech, telegraphic and ungrammatical;
Broca's aphasia lesion in Brodmann's area 44; unimpaired
comprehension
184
What rare form of dementia is associated with
Pick's disease personality changes and affects the frontal and
temporal lobes?
The deepest sleep levels (stage 3 and 4) occur mostly When does most of the NREM sleep (stage 3 and 4)
in the first half of sleep. occur, in the first or second half of sleep?
185
Stage 3 and 4 Name the stages of sleep with these EEG patterns: •
Delta waves
Being awake Name the stages of sleep with these EEG patterns: •
Alpha waves
186
True. PIF is dopamine in the True or false? Prolactin levels can serve as a rough
tuberoinfundibular system. indicator of overall dopamine activity.
Stimulus generalization must stop. (Pairing of the In the classical conditioning model, when a behavior
unconditioned stimulus and the conditioned is learned, what must occur to break the probability
stimulus must cease.) that a response will happen?
187
The granule cell. Its neurotransmitter is glutamic What is the most abundant neuron
acid, which is also the principal neurotransmitter of
the visual pathways. in the cerebellum?
188
Fact without feeling (la belle
Isolation of affect indifférence)
189
A complete opposite expression of your inward
Reaction formation feeling (e.g., arguing all the time with someone you
are attracted to when your feelings are not known)
190
Relative risk and/or attributable risk. (Cohort What statistical method do you use when analyzing •
studies deal with incidence.) Cohort studies?
Odds ratio. (Case control studies What statistical method do you use when analyzing •
deal with prevalence.) Case control studies?
Absolutely not! Answer any question If a patient asks you a question and you do not know
the answer, do you tell a white lie or simply not
you are asked. respond?
True. IQ correlates well with education and academic True or false? There is a strong positive correlation
achievement but is not a predictor of success. between IQ and academic achievement.
191
What is the term for a schizophrenic episode lasting
Brief psychotic disorder. (In schizophreniform
longer than 30 days with full return to former
disorder the symptoms last longer than 6 months.)
functioning capacity?
192
What type of mortality rate is defined as the number
Case fatality rate of deaths • From a specific cause per number of
persons with the disease?
Being a female physician increases the risk of suicide Does being a female physician increase or decrease
nearly four times the general population. the risk of suicide?
Lead-time bias (remember, patients don't live longer What form of bias is due to false estimates of survival
with the disease; they are diagnosed sooner.) rates?
193
Objective tests that base the result of the
Criterion-referenced tests. You need a certain
examination on a preset standard use what form of
number correct to pass (e.g., the USMLE).
reference?
True. It is considered medical treatment, so it can be True or false? A patient can refuse a
withdrawn or refused. (Remember the Cruzan case.) feeding tube.
194
What rate is indicated by 1-
False-negative rate sensitivity?
195
Dementia Urinary incontinence Gait apraxia (NPH
wet, wacky, wobbly) What is the triad of NPH?
Sad but true. Some women can have multiple True or false? Only men have
successive orgasms. refractory sexual periods.
196
Name these mature defense mechanisms: •
197
Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the
function described: • Intellectual processing of
Parietal lobe sensory information, with the left (dominant)
processing verbal information, the right processing
visual-spatial orientation
198
Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the
Occipital lobe function described: • Recall of objects, distances, and
scenes; visual input processed here
Correlation. No, correlation does not What is the degree to which two measures are
imply causation. related? Does it imply causation?
Alzheimer's (dementia of Alzheimer's type, DAT). What is the most common form of
(Remember, Alzheimer's constitutes 65% of
dementias seen in patients 65 years old.) dementia?
Nicotine (but it sure has a nasty What is the only drug that does not
withdrawal!) have an intoxication?
199
What is the term to describe homosexuals who • Are
Ego dystonic uncomfortable with their own person and disagree
with their sense of self?
REM and stage 4 sleep; they What aspects of sleep are affected during
decrease. benzodiazepine use?
200
What is the term to describe a man who has • Never
Primary erectile disorder been able to achieve an erection?
Secondary erectile disorder (Male erectile disorder is What is the term to describe a man who has • Used
the same as impotence.) to be able to achieve an erection but now cannot?
Sleepwalking is associated with stage 4 and occurs What stage of sleep is associated
most often in the first third of sleep. with somnambulism?
1. What did the patient want? 2. What would the What are the three surrogate
patient say? 3. What is in the patient's best interests? criteria?
201
True; 80% have visited a doctor in the previous 6 True or false? Four-fifths of those who attempt
months. And 50% within the last month! suicide first give a warning.
Yes. (Remember, Jehovah's witnesses refuse blood Can a patient refuse life-saving treatment for
transfusions.) religious reasons?
202
When showing two pictures in rapid succession, you
split the pictures half a second apart, resulting in the
What is backward masking, and is there a positive
second picture masking the first (indicating poor
correlation with schizophrenic patients?
short-term memory). This is seen in nearly 33% of
schizophrenic patients.
False. Separation, divorce, being widowed, and True or false? Being single increases
unemployment increase your risk, but being single
does not. your risk of suicide.
False. Childbirth carries five times as much risk of True or false? Serious psychiatric illness is more
serious psychiatric illness as abortion. common after abortion than childbirth.
Type II error (beta error). (Remember it as saying What type of error is made if you accept the null
something doesn't work when it does.) hypothesis when it is false?
Stage 2, which accounts for approximately 45% of Most sleep time is spent in what
total sleep time, with REM occupying 20%. stage of sleep?
203
Yes. In a negatively skewed distribution the mean is In a negatively skewed curve is the mean greater than
greater than the median is greater than the mode. the mode?
Projective test. Most tests with a wide range of What type of personality test is the Rorschach
possibilities for the answers are projective. inkblot test, objective or projective?
The T-test (used when comparing What statistical test checks to see whether the groups
are different by comparing the means of two groups
two groups) from a single nominal variable?
204
Seasonal affective disorder (treat with bright light What form of depression is due to abnormal
therapy) metabolism of melatonin?
205
What operant conditioning therapy or modification
206
The DSM-IV-TR is scored on the basis of five axes of
Axis V diagnosis. In what axis would you place • Global
assessment of function?
207
In regard to motor development during infancy,
Ulnar to radial progression choose the motor response that happens first. •
Radial or ulnar progression
NREM sleep. Night terrors are dreams that we are With what stage of sleep are night
unable to recall. terrors associated?
208
Verbigeration What term describes senseless repetition of words or
phrases?
The courts. These are legal, not Who decides competency and
medical terms. sanity?
209
The blood withdrawn is the unconditioned stimulus,
Which is the conditioned response, the conditioned
inducing the unconditioned response (fainting). The
stimulus, the unconditioned response, the
needle is part of the blood-drawing procedure and is
unconditioned stimulus in this case? A patient has
the conditioned stimulus (unconditioned and
blood withdrawn and faints. The next time she goes
conditioned stimuli are paired) resulting in the
to have blood taken, she faints at the sight of the
conditioned response (fainting at the sight of the
needle.
needle).
210
Name the area of the cerebral cortex affected by the
Dominant parietal lobe description of the effects, symptoms, and results of
(Gerstmann's syndrome) the lesion. • Agraphia, acalculia, finger agnosia,
right–left disorientation
211
GH. The largest output of GH in a 24-hour period is What hormone's release is strongly associated with
during stage 4 sleep. stage 4 sleep?
M:F 4:1 committing, but M:F ratio of attempts is 1:3 What is the male-to-female ratio for
(males commit more but females try it more) committing suicide?
Accuracy (think of it as all the trues, because they are What is the term for the total percentage of correct
the ones correctly identified) answers selected on a screening test?
Addition (They are mutually If one event precludes another event, their
exclusive.) probabilities are combined by what method?
212
True; military service and independent self-care by a True or false? Marriage emancipates a child less than
child over 13 years old also emancipate. 17 years old.
Amnesia. (The person is aware of What term describes the inability to recall personal
the memory loss.) information, commonly associated with trauma?
Nearly 25% of patients taking lithium develop What renal side effect is commonly seen in patients
polyuria and polydipsia. taking lithium?
Chi-square (when you are in doubt and have nominal What statistical test, using nominal data only, checks
data, use chi-square) whether two variables are independent events?
213
Compulsions. They are actions done to fix the bad What is the term for repetitive actions blocking
thoughts. Obsessions are the thoughts. recurring bad thoughts?
214
Anhedonia, lack of motivation, feelings of
Unipolar disorder (major worthlessness, decreased sex drive, insomnia, and
recurrent thoughts for at least 2 weeks, representing
depression) a change from previous level of function, describes
what disorder?
215
The probability that a person with a negative test
Negative predictive value result is truly disease free refers to what value?
P = .05; P < .05 rejects the null What P value defines whether the hull hypothesis
hypothesis should or should not be rejected?
216
Prevalence increases. (Remember, prevalence can What happens to prevalence as the number of
decrease in only two ways, recovery and death.) long-term survivors increases?
217
Sadism What paraphilia is defined as • Deriving sexual
pleasure from other peoples' pain?
218
Urophilia What paraphilia is defined as • Combining sex with
urination?
219
Impotence What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually
with • β-Blockers?
Median (think of it as the halfway What is the term for the point on a scale that divides
point) the population into two equal parts?
220
True or false? Pregnancy ensures
FALSE emancipation.
221
Phase III. It is considered the What phase of Food and Drug Administration
approval tests • The efficacy and occurrence of side
definitive test. effects in large group of patient volunteers?
1. Large sample size 2. Large effect size 3. Type I In biostatistics, what are the three criteria required
error is greater to increase power?
222
Double-blind study. It is the most scientifically What type of random controlled test is least
rigorous study known. subjective to bias?
1. 7-methyl guanine cap on the 5' end 2. Addition of What are the three
the poly(A) tail to the 3' end 3. Removal of introns posttranscriptional modifications?
Aspartic acid and glutamic acid What two AAs have a pKa of 4?
223
2 acetyl CoA per glucose, producing 12 ATPs per How many acetyl CoAs per glucose
acetyl CoA, resulting in a total of 24 ATPs produced
from glucose (via acetyl CoA) enter the TCA cycle enter into the TCA cycle?
224
What three AAs must patients with maple syrup
Isoleucine, leucine, and valine urine disease not eat?
2 ATPs, via the amino acyl tRNA How many high-energy bonds are
synthase enzyme used to activate an AA?
12 ATPs per acetyl CoA that enter the tricarboxylic How many ATPs are generated per
acid (TCA) cycle (Krebs cycle) acetyl coenzyme A (CoA)?
225
HMP shunt What cytoplasmic pathway produces NADPH and is
a source of ribose 5-phosphate?
3'end of the codon (third position) on mRNA and 5' Where on the codon and anticodon does the wobble
end of the anticodon (first position) on tRNA. hypothesis take place?
Excision endonuclease, which removes thiamine What DNA excision and repair enzyme is deficient in
dimers from DNA patients with xeroderma pigmentosum?
226
Leucine and lysine What are the two ketogenic AAs?
227
What test uses very small amounts of DNA that can
PCR be amplified and analyzed without the use of
Southern blotting or cloning?
Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase, which uses 2 ATPs for What enzyme catalyzes the covalent bonding of the
this reaction. AA's carboxyl group to the 3' end of tRNA?
228
In a diabetic patient, to what does aldose reductase
Sorbitol (resulting in cataracts) convert glucose?
229
Homogentisate oxidase deficiency is seen in patients What enzyme deficiency results in darkening of the
with alcaptonuria. urine when exposed to air?
230
Name the eukaryotic DNA polymerase based on the
DNA polymerase-α following information: • Synthesizes the lagging
strand during replication
1. Glucose from liver glycogen 2. Glucose from What is the order of fuel use in a
gluconeogenesis 3. Body protein 4. Body fat prolonged fast?
231
Dihydrofolate What enzyme of pyrimidine synthesis is inhibited by
the following? • Methotrexate
reductase
If a carboxyl group is the R group, it is acidic; if an What is found in the R group if the
amino group is the R group, it is said to be basic. AA is acidic? Basic?
232
DNA replication occurs during what
S phase phase of the cell cycle?
233
What enzyme of the TCA cycle catalyzes the
Isocitrate dehydrogenase, α-ketoglutarate
production of the following: • NADH (hint: 3
dehydrogenase, and malate dehydrogenase
enzymes)
Fatty acids cannot cross the blood-brain barrier; During a prolonged fast, why is the brain unable to
therefore, they cannot be used as an energy source. use fatty acids?
234
Conjugated (direct) What type of jaundice is seen in
hyperbilirubinemia Rotor's syndrome?
Solved as 30% T + 30% A = 60%; therefore, C + G = If a sample of DNA has 30% T, what
40%; then C = 20% and G = 20% (example of
Chargaff's rule) is the percent of C?
235
Large segment Name the type of mutation: • Unequal crossover in
meiosis with loss of protein function
deletions
236
What three things are needed to produce a double
NADPH, O2, and cytochrome b5 bond in a fatty acid chain in the endoplasmic
reticulum?
Factors II, VII, IX, X, and proteins C What are the vitamin K–dependent
and S coagulation factors?
3' end. Phosphate (PO4) is at the 5' Is the hydroxyl (–OH) end of DNA and RNA at the 3'
end. or the 5' end?
61 codons code for AAs and 3 codons (UAA, UGA, How many codons code for AAs? How many for
UAG) code for the termination of translation. termination of translation?
237
GM2 ganglioside Caused by a deficiency of What substrate builds up in
β-hexosaminidase A Tay-Sachs disease?
238
What two sugars can be used to
Glucose and galactose produce cerebrosides?
239
The promoter indicates where What is the binding site for RNA
transcription will begin. polymerase?
240
Inactivated; glucose results in decreased cAMP levels
Is the Lac operon activated or inactivated in the
and therefore blocks protein binding between cAMP
presence of both glucose and lactose?
and CAP.
241
Deficiencies in what enzyme result in insoluble
α-1, 6 transferase glycogen synthesis formation?
No enzymes are needed. When the stop codon What eukaryotic translation enzyme is associated
reaches the A site, it results in termination. with the following: • Termination
What AA undergoes
Asparagine N-glycosylation?
242
What is the pyrimidine intermediate that joins PRPP
Orotic acid (purine metabolism) (5-Phosphoribosyl-1-Pyrophosphate)?
2 NADPHs per acetyl How many NADPHs are used per addition of acetyl
CoA into a fatty acid chain?
CoA
243
What factors are needed for
EF-1 and GTP elongation in eukaryotes?
What are the two ways that nitrogen can enter into
Aspartate and carbomoyl PO4- the urea cycle?
Lactose must be present and glucose What two requirements must be met for the Lac
must be absent operon to be activated?
244
Name the phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle: • Period
G2 phase (gap 2) of cellular growth (translation and transcription)
after DNA synthesis
True. Remember, RBCs do not contain True or false? RBCs anaerobically use glucose in both
mitochondria, so they cannot metabolize aerobically. the well-fed and fasting states.
Succinyl CoA What enzyme of the TCA cycle catalyzes the substrate
level phosphorylation?
synthetase
245
apo A-1 What apoprotein on HDL activates
lecithin–cholesterol acyltransferase (LCAT)?
1. Malate dehydrogenase 2. Isocitrate dehydrogenase What three steps of the TCA cycle
3. α-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase generate NADH?
246
ALA dehydrogenase and What two enzymes of heme
ferrochelatase synthesis are inhibited by lead?
G-6-PD deficiency; pyruvate kinase What is the most common genetic deficiency
deficiency is second. resulting in hemolytic anemia?
247
Positive Are the following conditions associated with a
negative or positive nitrogen balance? • Pregnancy
248
Negative Are the following conditions associated with a
negative or positive nitrogen balance? • Kwashiorkor
Hepatocytes lack the enzyme succinyl CoA Why is the liver unable to
acetoacetyl CoA transferase (thiophorase). metabolize ketone bodies?
249
Acetyl CoA and propionyl CoA (in Name the end product or products: •
odd chain fatty acids) Fatty acid oxidation
The enzyme lysyl oxidase requires Cu2+and O2 to What mineral is required for cross-linking of
function properly. collagen molecules into fibrils?
250
Western blot What blotting technique uses the following for
analysis? • Protein
Four high energy bonds, two from ATP in AA How many high-energy bonds does the cycle of
activation and two from GTP elongation cost?
251
What is the only fatty acid that is
Propionic acid gluconeogenic?
Genomic libraries are made from nuclear DNA, are Do genomic or cDNA libraries contain introns,
fragmented, and contain all sequences found in the exons, promoters, enhancers, and are they
particular genome copied. fragmented?
252
True. Adipose depends on glucose uptake for True or false? Adipose tissue lacks
dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP) production for
triglyceride synthesis. glycerol kinase.
253
What substrate is built up in
Sphingomyelin Niemann-Pick disease?
True. Restriction endonucleases cut True or false? Methylation of bacterial DNA prevents
restriction endonuclease from cutting its own
only unmethylated DNA. chromosomes.
254
A gene (a rather simple definition What is the term for a unit of DNA that encodes a
but accurate) particular protein or RNA molecule?
The coding strand is identical to mRNA, and the Is the coding or the template strand of DNA identical
template strand is complementary and antiparallel. to mRNA (excluding the T/U difference)?
255
To what does aldose reductase
Galactitol convert galactose?
Xanthine, hypoxanthine, theophylline, theobromine, Name three purine bases that are not found in
caffeine, and uric acid are all purines. nucleic acids.
256
The hairpin loop made by reverse transcriptase at What is the primer for the synthesis of the second
the 3' end of the first strand is the primer. strand in production of cDNA from mRNA?
MstII; changing codon 6 (from A to T) destroys the What restriction endonuclease site is destroyed in
restriction site. sickle β-globin allele?
257
What enzyme is deficient in congenital erythropoietic
Uroporphyrinogen III cosynthase porphyria?
258
What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step of the
Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I urea cycle?
259
Via what cell surface receptor does HDL cholesterol
Scavenger receptor (SR-B1) from the periphery enter hepatoceles?
260
Lesch-Nyhan What X-linked recessive disorder is characterized by
hyperuricemia, spastic cerebral palsy, mental
syndrome retardation, and self-mutilation?
2 ATPs, because RBCs use only How many ATPs per glucose are generated from
anaerobic metabolism. glycolysis in RBCs?
261
Ganglioside What sphingolipid cannot be produced without sialic
acid and amino sugars?
Methionine (start) and tryptophan are the only two What two AAs do not have more
AAs with only one codon. than one codon?
262
Uracil and orotic acid levels increase with ornithine How can a genetic deficiency of carbamoyl phosphate
transcarbamoylase deficiency and are normal in synthetase be differentiated from an ornithine
carbamoyl phosphate synthetase deficiency. transcarbamoylase deficiency?
263
Chylomicrons Name the lipoprotein based on the following
characteristics. • apo E, apo C-II, apoB-48
True. The energy status of the cell dictates if the cycle True or false? There is no hormonal control to the
is running or relaxing. TCA cycle.
264
Cori cycle What cycle is responsible for converting to glucose in
the liver the lactate produced in the RBCs?
No, unsaturated fatty acids have Does a saturated fatty acid have
double bonds. double bonds?
265
What pyrimidine base is found • In
Cytosine both DNA and RNA?
Anticipation, associated with fragile X syndrome; What is the term for the number of trinucleotide
Huntington's disease is also associated with a repeats increasing with successive generations and
decrease in onset of age. correlating with increased severity of disease?
266
Dihydrofolate What enzyme is blocked by
methotrexate/ trimethoprim?
reductase
1. Cortisol (stimulates PEPCK) 2. What three substrates control the enzyme PEPCK for
the conversion of oxaloacetate (OAA) to pyruvate in
Glucagon 3. GTP the cytoplasm?
267
What genetic defect is characterized by coarse facial
features, gingival hyperplasia, macroglossia,
I-cell disease is a result of a genetic defect affecting
psychomotor and growth retardation, club foot, claw
the phosphorylation of mannose residues.
hand, cardiorespiratory failure, and death in the first
decade of life?
3-Phosphoglycerate kinase and pyruvate kinase; this What two glycolytic enzymes catalyze the
produces two ATPs per enzyme (total four ATPs) substrate-level phosphorylations?
268
What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step in
Aspartate transcarbamylase pyrimidine synthesis?
It increases Ca2+ excretion from the kidney and What are the two actions of
increases bone mineralization. calcitonin?
269
In what cycle does glucose go to the muscle, where it
Alanine cycle is converted to pyruvate and then into alanine before
being taken back to the liver?
Histidine, because of the imidazole ring found in the What AA is classified as basic even though its pK is
R group, is basic. 6.5 to 7?
270
eEF-2 is the site where Pseudomonas and Diphtheria What elongation factor is inactivated by ADP
toxins work. ribosylation, preventing translation?
38 ATPs if aerobic, 2 ATPs if anaerobic (36 How many ATPs per glucose are
ATPs[malate shuttle] + 4 ATPs[Glycolysis] - 2
ATPs[phosphorylate glucose] = 38 ATPs) generated in glycolysis?
271
rRNA Name the RNA subtype based on the following: • The
most abundant form of RNA in the cell
272
Name the RNA subtype based on the following: •
hnRNA Found only in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells and are
precursors of mRNA
273
In prokaryotes, what is the term for a set of
274
70S ribosomes in prokaryotes and 80S ribosomes in What is the size of the prokaryotic
eukaryotes ribosome?
Albinism. Tyrosine is converted to melanin by the What disease is produced by a deficiency in the
enzyme tyrosinase. enzyme tyrosinase?
275
What is the rate-limiting enzyme of
G-6-PD the HMP shunt?
Sphingomyelin (lecithin also, but it What is the only sphingolipid that contains choline
is not a sphingolipid) and PO4?
276
Biotin (only if eaten in large What water-soluble-vitamin deficiency may result
quantities) from eating raw eggs?
277
What attaches to protons and allows them to enter
2, 4-Dinitrophenol into the mitochondria without going through the
ATP-generating system?
278
What bonds are broken by
Internal 3', 5' PDE bonds
endonucleases?
279
Succinate What enzyme of the TCA cycle also acts as complex II
of the ETC?
dehydrogenase
280
What is the rate-limiting step of the following? •
Carnitine acyltransferase I β-Oxidation
3'-5' direction, synthesizing RNA in the 5'-3' What direction does RNA polymerase move along
direction the template strand of DNA during transcription?
False. Histidine operon is activated when there are True or false? Histidine activates the
low intracellular levels of histidine. histidine operon.
281
The kidneys excrete the excess nitrogen from the What organ is responsible for the elimination of
body as urea in the urine. excess nitrogen from the body?
EF-Tu and EF-Ts of the 30S What prokaryotic positioning enzyme in translation
ribosomal subunit is blocked by the following? • Tetracycline
282
What prokaryotic positioning enzyme in translation
IF-2 of the 30S subunit is blocked by the following? • Streptomycin
True. DNA polymerases have 3'-5' exonuclease True or false? DNA polymerases can correct
activity for proofreading. mistakes, whereas RNA polymerases lack this ability.
283
Isoleucine, threonine, tryptophan, tyrosine, and What are the five AAs that are both ketogenic and
phenylalanine glucogenic?
284
Conjugated (direct)
What type of jaundice is seen in
hyperbilirubinemia, a transport
Dubin-Johnson syndrome?
defect
285
What lysosomal enzyme is deficient in • Tay-Sachs
Hexosaminidase A disease?
Barr bodies in females, T-cell receptor loci, and What are the three exceptions to the rule of
immunoglobulin light and heavy chain loci codominant gene expression?
9 kcal/g from fat metabolism; 4 kcal/g from both How many kilocalories per gram are produced from
CHO and protein metabolism the degradation of fat? CHO? Protein?
286
Succinyl CoA What intermediate enables propionyl CoA to enter
into the TCA cycle?
Rickets prior to fusion, osteomalacia if the deficiency What is the term for vitamin D deficiency prior to
occurs after epiphyseal fusion. epiphyseal fusion?
287
Crigler-Najjar In what disease is there a genetic absence of
UDP-glucuronate transferase, resulting in an
syndrome increase in free unconjugated bilirubin?
1. Fructose-6-phosphate 2. Glucose-6-phosphate 3. At what three sites can the HMP shunt enter into
Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate glycolysis?
pK (think of it as where half is base What is the term for the pH range where the
and half is acid) dissociation of H+ occurs?
288
1. Fructokinase 2. Glucokinase 3. Glycerol kinase 4.
PEPCK 5. Pyruvate carboxylase 6. Galactokinase 7. What are the eight liver-specific
Fructose-1, 6-bisphosphatase 8. enzymes?
Glucose-6-phosphatase
289
What component of the ETC is inhibited by the
Cytochrome b/c1 following? • Antimycin A
290
Complex I What component of the ETC is inhibited by the
following? • Rotenone
291
What AA is a precursor of the following substances? •
Glycine/arginine Creatine
292
What three organs participate in
1. Skin 2. Liver 3. Kidney
production of vitamin D?
293
Name the pattern of genetic transmission
characterized thus: both M and F affected; no
M-to-M transmission; affected M passes trait to all
X-linked dominant daughters, every generation; affected F passes trait to
both sons and daughters; a single mutant allele can
produce the disease.
In eukaryotes transcription occurs in the nucleus and Why are eukaryotes unable to perform transcription
translation in the cytoplasm. and translation at the same time like prokaryotes?
294
When the pH is more acidic than the pI, it has a net
If the pH is more acidic than the pI, does the protein
positive charge, and when the pH is more basic than
carry a net positive or net negative charge?
the pI, it has a net negative charge.
The one start codon, AUG, in eukaryotes codes for What is the start codon, and what does it code for in
methionine and in prokaryotes formylmethionine. eukaryotes? Prokaryotes?
295
Name the eukaryotic RNA polymerase based on the
RNA polymerase III following: • Synthesizes tRNA, snRNA, and the 5S
rRNA
296
A-T are linked by 2 hydrogen bonds, C-G by 3 How many hydrogen bonds link
hydrogen bonds. A-T? C-G?
297
What is the major Ab of the primary
IgM immune response?
False. Direct tests detect Ags; True or false? Direct fluorescent Ab test is used to
indirect tests detect Abs. detect Abs in a patient?
298
What complement factor deficiency leads to •
C5-C8 deficiency Recurrent gonococcal infections?
299
CD8 Name the T-cell CD marker: • Interacts with MHC
class I molecules
Dendritic cells, macrophages, and What three cells are essential for T-cell
thymic epithelial cells differentiation in the thymus?
300
B cells; macrophages and dendritic What is the only specific
cells are nonspecific. Ag-presenting cell?
301
LTC4 and LTD4 Which leukotrienes are associated with the
late-phase inflammatory response?
302
Coombs test What test is used to detect anti-RBC Abs seen in
hemolytic anemia?
CD8+ T cells (cytotoxic) Remember, 8×1=8 What subset of T cells recognizes the
(CD×8×MHC class I=8); 4×2=8 (CD×4 MHC class II
8) MHC class I Ags?
IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, and IgM What are the five Ig isotypes?
303
What type of hypersensitivity is an Ab-mediated
Type II hypersensitivity reaction response against our own cells, receptors, or
membranes via IgG or IgM?
Thymic epithelial cells, dendritic What three cells are essential for
cells, and macrophages T-cell maturation?
304
What are the two opsonizing
The Fc region of IgG and C3b
factors?
IgA deficiency; patients commonly present with What is the most common Ig
recurrent sinopulmonary infections and GI
disturbances. deficiency?
IL-8. It not only is chemotactic, it also acts as an What IL, produced by macrophages, is chemotactic
adhesive for neutrophils. for neutrophils?
305
1. One cell type 2. One Ab type 3. Random selection What are the three rules of clonal
of hypervariable regions, and only cells with bound
Ag undergo clonal expansion selection?
CD3 molecule. It transmits signals to the inside of What molecule that is needed to trigger T cell
the T cell to trigger activation activation is noncovalently linked to TCR?
306
Thymus-independent What is the term for Ags that activate B cells without
T-cell signaling?
Ags
307
Name the macrophages by location:
Microglial cells • CNS
Adenosine deaminase (ADA) What is the first human disease successfully treated
deficiency with gene therapy?
False. It is reversible because the Ags and Abs are True or false? Ag-Ab binding is
not linked covalently. irreversible
308
What three major cell lines participate in the
T cells, B cells, and macrophages acquired immune system?
ELISA. It detects anti-p24 IgG. What test is used to screen for HIV?
309
More Ab is produced in less time in a secondary Are more Abs produced in a primary or a secondary
immune response (shorter lag period). immune response?
310
Valence What is the term for the number of Ag-binding sites
on an Ig?
RBCs. That is why it is called red Which major cell type is found in the red pulp of the
pulp. spleen?
Mast cells What is the term to describe basophils that have left
the bloodstream and entered a tissue?
1. IgA receptor 2. Transport of IgA across epithelial What are the three major functions
barriers 3. Protection of IgA from degradative
proteases of secretory IgA?
311
What IL is important in myeloid cell
IL-3 (3 face down is an M)
development?
312
What three complement fragments
C3a, C4a, and C5a are also anaphylatoxins?
313
Which leukotriene is chemotactic for
LTB4 neutrophils?
314
There would be a Fab' region; thus, it would still be What would be the result if an Ab
able to participate in precipitation and agglutination. were cleaved with pepsin?
gamma and delta What are the two chains of the TCR that are mainly
found on the skin and mucosal surfaces?
chains
315
False. B cells recognize unprocessed Ags, but T cells True or false? T cells can recognize, bind, and
can recognize only processed Ags. internalize unprocessed Ags.
Mature B cell; the memory B cell can have IgG, IgA, At what stage of B-cell development can IgM or IgD
or IgE on its surface. be expressed on the cell surface?
Ag-Ab complexes. The alternative pathway protects What is the stimulus for the classical
without use of Abs; the pathogen is the stimulus. pathway activation?
316
What is the first membrane-bound
IgM; IgD follows shortly thereafter.
Ig on B cell membranes?
317
IgA What is the major Ig of the secondary immune
response in the mucosal barriers?
Hypervariable region (three per light chain; three Which region of the variable domain comprises the
per heavy chain) Ag-binding site of the Ab?
318
False; it is for the production of toxic True or false? The increased oxygen consumption
metabolites. after phagocytosis is for ATP production.
319
C3a, C4a, C5a What complement factor or factors are associated
with • Anaphylaxis?
As the isotype is switched, the Ab specificity does not What happens to the Ab specificity when class
change because it does not affect the variable chains. switching occurs in mature B cells?
320
Name the type of graft described by these
Allograft transplants: • From one person to the next (the same
species)
Hormone secretion for T-cell differentiation and What are the two functions of the thymus in T-cell
T-cell education to recognize self from nonself differentiation?
321
What cell surface marker do all T
CD3 cells have?
MHC class I antigens; they are also found on the What MHC class of antigens do all nucleated cells
surface of platelets. carry on their surface membranes?
322
Processed antigenic peptides bound in the groove of What type of Ag do T cells
the MHC molecule recognize?
The CD4 T cell; the APC is the first cell in the What is the second cell involved in
immune response. the immune response?
1. H2O2 2. Superoxide 3. Hydroxyl radical 4. What five main oxidizing reactions are used to kill
Myeloperoxidase 5. Hypochlorous acid ingested organisms?
323
What Ig is associated with ADCC for
IgE parasites?
True. Remember, all nucleated cells (and platelets) True or false? RBCs do not have MHC class I Ags on
have MHC class I Ags, and RBCs are not nucleated. their surface.
IgE. It attaches via receptor for the Fc region of the What Ig is associated with mast cell
heavy epsilon chain and basophil binding?
IL-2. T cells express IL-2 receptors on their surface What IL do T cells secrete to induce
to induce self-expression. T-and B-cell division?
324
Cytokine. If a cytokine affects another class of What is the term for a substance secreted by a
leukocytes, it is called an interleukin. leukocyte in response to a stimulus?
Immunogenicity; antigenicity refers to What is the term for the inherent ability to induce a
Ab/lymphocyte reaction to a specific substance. specific immune response?
325
The Beta-2-microglobin. It is the separately encoded What molecule differentiates the MHC class I from II
Beta-chain for class I Ags. Ag? (Hint: it's in the light chain.)
326
TCR What T-cell surface projection recognizes and reacts
to foreign Ags (presented by APCs)?
327
F-Met-Peptides What is the name of the major chemotactic agent
released from • Bacteria?
328
Rho (D) immune globulin (RhoGAM), an anti-RhD What is given to pregnant women within 24 hours
IgG antibody, prevents generation of RhD-specific after birth to eliminate Rh+ fetal blood cells from
memory B cells in the mother. their circulation?
Transient hypogammaglobinemia of infancy; it What is the term for a delay in the onset of normal
usually resolves by age 16 to 30 months. IgG synthesis seen in the fifth to sixth month of life?
329
Th1; they are also responsible for delayed-type What subset of CD4 helper T-cell function is helping
hypersensitivity (type IV) the development of CD8 T cells?
Avidity. There is a positive correlation between What is the term for the strength of the association
valence numbers and avidity. between Ags and Abs?
330
Ag processing; it is needed for class I molecules. What is the term for processing an APC's
Class II molecules have an invariant chain that pinocytosed material by fusing with a lysosomal
protects them from breakdown. granule and cleaving the Ag into peptide fragments?
Radial Immuno Diffusion (RID) for What is the most common precipitin test used in
Ig levels. clinical medicine?
331
Hapten; if it is coupled with a carrier, it may become What is the term for an immunogenic agent that is
immunogenic. too small to elicit an immune response?
332
What type II hypersensitivity disorder is defined as •
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia Autoantibodies directed against RBC Ag I?
333
What subset of T cells recognizes the
CD4+ T cells (helper) MHC class II Ags?
CD8+ T cells What T cell line arises from low affinity for self-MHC
class I Ags in the thymus?
334
Psoriasis, ankylosing spondylitis, inflammatory What diseases are associated with
bowel disease, and Reiter's syndrome the HLA-B27 allele
Sjogren's syndrome, active hepatitis, systemic lupus What diseases are associated with
erythematosus (with HLA-DR2) and type 1 diabetes
(with HLA-DR4) the HLA-DR3 allele
335
What protozoal parasite results in dysentery with
Entamoeba histolytica (treat with blood and pus in the stool, is transmitted via
fecal-oral route, is diagnosed by cysts or trophozoites
metronidazole) in the stool, and forms liver abscesses and inverted
flask-shaped lesions in the large intestine?
336
Blastomyces Which dimorphic fungus is found as hyphae with
nondescript conidia in rotting wood in the Upper
Great Lakes, Ohio, Mississippi, eastern seaboard of
dermatitidis the United States, and southern Canada?
337
Which cestode infection results in alveolar hydatid
Echinococcus multilocularis cyst disease?
338
HBc Ab What Ab is an indication of recurrent disease for
hepatitis?
False. Adenovirus vaccine is a live pathogenic virus True or false? All of the following are inactivated
in an enteric coated capsule. All of the others are vaccines available in the United States: influenza,
inactivated vaccines. Vibrio cholera, hepatitis A, rabies, and adenovirus.
339
Name the Plasmodium species based on the
Plasmodium following information: No persistent liver stage or
relapse; blood smear shows multiple ring forms and
falciparum crescent-shaped gametes; irregular febrile pattern;
associated with cerebral malaria
340
CMV; Toxoplasma also causes intracerebral What viral infection is known to cause intracerebral
calcifications but it is a parasite. calcifications?
341
Which organism causes multiple infections by
Borrelia recurrentis antigen switching?
342
Rotavirus What organism is associated with the following types
of diarrhea? Day care–associated diarrhea in infants
343
Which fungus is found worldwide on plants, is a
Sporothrix schenckii cigar-shaped yeast in tissue form, and results in rose
gardener's disease?
Eclipse period What is the term of the viral growth period when no
viruses can be found intracellularly?
344
Coxiella burnetii What organism causes Q fever?
Histoplasma capsulatum infects the cells of the RES What facultative intracellular fungus is associated
and can result in hepatosplenomegaly. with hepatosplenomegaly?
345
Meningococcus (Gonococcus does Which gram-negative diplococcus
not) ferments maltose?
No. Prions are infectious proteins, so antibiotics are Are antibiotics helpful in treating a disease caused by
useless. a prion?
346
What water-associated organism is a weakly stained
Legionella (think air conditioners) gram-negative rod that requires cysteine and iron for
growth?
347
True or false? All Proteus species
TRUE are urease positive.
348
Staphylococcus What genus of bacteria is described by
catalase-positive, gram-positive cocci in clusters?
True. Staphylococcus aureus and group D True or false? Vibrio parahaemolyticus require NaCl
enterococci also grow in high-salt media. in its growth medium.
Brucella and Listeria (has tumbling What two bacteria are associated with drinking
motility) unpasteurized milk?
349
HHV 6 What DNA virus is associated with exanthem
subitum (roseola)?
350
1. Neisseria meningitidis 2. Haemophilus influenzae What three bacteria are positive to
3. Streptococcus pneumoniae quellung reactive test?
Hepadnavirus What is the only DNA virus that has the reverse
transcriptase enzyme?
351
What are the two hepatitis viruses that can be
Hepatitis B and hepatitis C chronic and can lead eventually to hepatocellular
carcinoma?
352
What hemoflagellate species is the
Trypanosoma cruzi cause of Chagas disease?
353
Which of the following characteristics accurately
describe fungi, bacteria, viruses, or parasites? •
Parasites Eukaryotic cell, 15 to 25 microns, 80S ribosomes, no
cell walls, replicates via cytokinesis with mitosis and
meiosis
354
False. Meningococcus is True or false? Gonococcus is
encapsulated; Gonococcus is not. encapsulated.
355
What Vi-encapsulated gram-negative motile
Salmonella typhi anaerobic rod that produces H2S is associated with
enteric fever, gastroenteritis, and septicemia?
356
Describe the organism based on the following
Streptococcus viridans information: • Alpha-hemolytic Streptococcus; not
lysed by bile; not sensitive to Optochin
357
Which streptococcal species is characterized by being
Enterococcus (Streptococcus catalase negative, turning bile esculin agar black,
faecalis) producing a positive PYR test, and resulting in biliary
and urinary tract infections?
The onset of symptoms for Neisseria gonorrhea Based on the onset of the symptoms, how are
conjunctivitis is 2 to 5 days, whereas onset of bacterial conjunctivitis from Neisseria and
symptoms for Chlamydia trachomatis is 5 to 10 days. Chlamydia differentiated?
Tetanospasmin (also called tetanus What toxin, produced by Clostridium tetani, binds to
ganglioside receptors and blocks the release of
toxin) glycine and GABA at the spinal synapse?
358
True or false? All of the following are live attenuated
True. So are rubeola, smallpox, yellow fever, and the
vaccines available in the United States: measles,
Sabin polio vaccine.
mumps, varicella zoster, and Francisella tularensis.
359
What family do the following viruses
Paramyxovirus belong to? • RSV
360
Trichuris trichiura is treated with What nematode is known as
albendazole. whipworms? What is the treatment?
361
M12 strains Which M-protein strain of Streptococcus pyogenes is
associated with acute glomerulonephritis?
362
Parvovirus (it is the only ssDNA What ssDNA virus must make
virus) dsDNA before it makes mRNA?
363
What is the most serious form of tinea capitis, which
Tinea favosa (favus) results in permanent hair loss and is highly
contagious?
Y, W-135, and C and A capsular What are the four capsular polysaccharides used in
polysaccharides the Neisseria meningitides vaccine?
364
Plasmodium malariae; the others What is the only Plasmodium that is
are tertian. quartan?
365
Which carcinoma—Burkitt's lymphoma,
Hepatocellular carcinoma is associated with hepatitis nasopharyngeal carcinoma, hepatocellular
B and C infections, not with EBV. carcinoma, or thymic carcinoma—is not associated
with EBV?
HBcAb and HBeAb. You see the In the window phase of a hepatitis B infection, which
antibodies c and e. Abs do you see?
366
In what trimester is the fetus most vulnerable to
The first trimester congenital rubella syndrome?
Trichomonas vaginalis (treat with Which protozoal parasitic vaginal infection produces
metronidazole) a positive whiff test with KOH staining?
367
Herpes virus Name the DNA virus • Linear dsDNA; nuclear
envelope; icosahedral; replicates in the nucleus
368
Cryptococcus What fungus is urease positive?
True. They all have helical nucleocapsids and True or false? All negative sense RNA viruses are
virion-associated polymerases too. enveloped.
369
What two viruses are associated with
Varicella virus and influenza virus
Reye's syndrome?
370
What does hepatitis D virus need from hepatitis B
HBsAg as its envelope virus to be infective?
Heart, esophagus, and colon. Remember, you get What three organs can be affected by
megas: cardiomegaly, megaesophagus, and
megacolon. Trypanosoma cruzi?
371
What facultative gram-negative anaerobic rod is
Escherichia coli motile, ferments lactose, and is the MCC of UTIs?
372
Plasmodium What type of Plasmodium affects •
RBCs of all ages?
falciparum
373
Schistosoma Which trematode is associated with bladder
carcinoma in Egypt and Africa?
haematobium
374
What is the name of the exotoxin Shigella
Shiga toxin (enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli
dysenteriae produces, which interferes with the 60S
produces Vero toxin, which is quite similar to shiga
ribosomal subunit and results in eukaryotic protein
toxin)
synthesis inhibition?
Hot pink with PAS and grey to black What color do fungi stain with PAS?
with silver stain Silver stain?
375
Ureaplasma Which mycoplasma species is associated with
urethritis, prostatitis, and renal calculi?
urealyticum
Ixodes (also the vector for Lyme What tick is the vector for
disease) babesiosis?
Poxvirus replicates its DNA in the What is the only DNA virus that does not replicate its
cytoplasm. DNA in the nucleus of the host cell?
376
True. They absorb nutrients from True or false? Cestodes have no GI
the host's GI tract. tract.
377
What is the size of a positive PPD test for the
>15 mm following? (Reactive) • Healthy suburban male
without any medical illnesses
378
What glycoprotein in the HIV virus
GP120 attaches to CD4?
379
Both Neisseria and Moraxella are What are the two exceptions to the rule "all cocci are
gram-negative cocci. gram positive"?
Leishmania donovani (kala azar is also known as Which hemoflagellate species causes
visceral leishmaniasis) kala azar?
CMV; remember, EBV is associated with What DNA virus is associated with
heterophile-positive mononucleosis. heterophile-negative mononucleosis?
380
What negative sense RNA virus is associated with
Rabies intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies called Negri
bodies?
Positive sense RNA means it can serve as mRNA and What is the polarity (i.e., 5'-3' or 3'-5') of a positive
therefore has 5'-3' polarity sense RNA?
381
What encapsulated gram-negative,
lactose-fermenting rod is associated with pneumonia
Klebsiella pneumoniae in patients with alcoholism, diabetes, and chronic
lung disease?
Dimorphic What is the term for fungi that can convert from
hyphal to yeast forms?
382
To what viral family does the polio
Picornaviridae virus belong?
383
CMV, Toxoplasma gondii, and Which three organisms cause heterophilic negative
Listeria mononucleosis?
Pasteurella, Brucella, Legionella, and Francisella (all Which four bacteria require cysteine
of the-ellas) for growth?
384
What fungus causes endocarditis in
Candida albicans IV drug users?
385
Strongyloides stercoralis is treated What nematode is known as threadworms? What is
with thiabendazole. the treatment?
386
What two HIV regulatory genes down-regulate MHC
nef and tat genes class I expression in the host?
387
What renal pathology involves uniform thickening of
the glomerular capillary wall, granular appearance
Membranous glomerulonephritis under the microscope, and effacement of foot
processes?
388
Rhabdomyoma What benign cardiac tumor is associated with
tuberous sclerosis?
10% are bilateral, 10% malignant, and 10% familial, What are the rules of 10 regarding
10% in children, and 10% outside the adrenal gland pheochromocytoma?
Postductal coarctation of the aorta What vascular pathology is associated with HTN in
the upper extremities, hypotension in the lower
(adult) extremities, and a radial-femoral delay?
389
A 20-year-old woman who was recently diagnosed
with a sexually transmitted disease goes to the ER
Neisseria gonorrhea (history of STD in patient with
with a tender, painful, swollen, and erythematous
monoarticular infectious arthritis: think gonococcus)
knee (monoarticular). What organism is the likely
culprit?
390
What is the term for hyperextension of the PIP and
Swan-neck deformities flexion of the DIP joints in rheumatoid arthritis?
Roth spots, and they are seen in What is the term for white retinal spots surrounded
bacterial endocarditis. by hemorrhage? In what condition are they seen?
Virchow triad, associated with the What triad consists of endothelial injury, changes in
formation of a thrombus. laminar flow, and hypercoagulation?
Osteoblasts (Remember, they modulate the function What bone cell has receptors for
of osteoclasts.) PTH?
391
What type of peptic ulcer disease is characterized by
Gastric ulcer the onset of burning epigastric pain immediately
after eating?
392
What myeloid disorder is characterized by increased
hematocrit, blood viscosity, basophils, and
Polycythemia vera (Remember, polycythemia vera is
eosinophils; intense pruritus; and gastric ulcers due
a risk factor for acute leukemias.)
to histamine release from basophils, increased LAP,
and plethora?
ALL (nearly 15–20 times the normal What hematological malignancy is particularly likely
risk) to affect patients with Down syndrome?
393
A Japanese man has weight loss, anorexia, early
satiety, epigastric abdominal pain, and a palpable left
supraclavicular lymph node. On endoscopy you find
Gastric carcinoma a large, irregular ulcer with elevated margins on the
lesser curvature of the stomach. What is your
diagnosis?
394
Cingulate gyrus herniation Which cerebral herniation results in compression of
(subfalcine) the anterior cerebral artery?
395
What form of angina is characterized by • Coronary
artery nonocclusive thrombus; symptom occurrence
Unstable (crescendo) angina with increasing frequency, duration, intensity, and
decreasing activity, frequently at rest?
396
What autoimmune liver disease is characterized by
affecting a middle-aged woman with jaundice,
Primary biliary cirrhosis pruritus, fatigue, xanthomas, increased direct
bilirubin levels, and antimitochondrial Abs?
True. Pancreatic enzymes begin the breakdown of True or false? Pancreatic insufficiency results in
vitamin B12-R complex in the duodenum. vitamin B12 malabsorption.
397
What urinary metabolite is elevated
Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA)
in pheochromocytoma?
398
Graves disease What disorder leads to IgG autoantibodies to the
TSH receptor?
399
What AD disease associated with chromosome 19
Familial hypercholesterolemia involves a defect in the LDL receptors that leads to
skin and tendon xanthomas?
Choriocarcinomas and trophoblastic Name the cancer associated with the following tumor
markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) •
tumors Beta-hCG
400
Name the cancer associated with the following tumor
Pancreatic cancer markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) •
CA-19.9 and CEA
Hepatoma and nonseminomatous Name the cancer associated with the following tumor
markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) •
testicular germ cell tumors alpha-Fetoprotein
401
Cancer of the lung, stomach, colon, Name the cancer associated with the following tumor
markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) •
and breast CEA
402
Osteitis fibrosa cystica (von What bone disorder is characterized by brown
tumors, bone pain, deformities, and fractures due
Recklinghausen disease) to excessive PTH?
403
What cystic swelling of the chorionic villi is the most
Hydatidiform mole common precursor of choriocarcinoma?
Staphylococcus aureus (but they are more prone to What are the most common causes of osteomyelitis •
salmonella infections) In patients with sickle cell disease?
404
Pseudomonas What are the most common causes of osteomyelitis •
In drug addicts?
True. HPV serotypes 16 and 18 are risk factors for True or false? HPV infection increases the risk of
squamous cell carcinoma. developing squamous cell carcinoma of the penis.
405
What form of coarctation of the aorta is associated
Preductal (infantile) with Turner syndrome?
True. Increased alkaline phosphatase levels also are True or false? An elevated serum osteocalcin level is
associated with increased bone formation. a marker for increased bone formation.
406
What is the term for the speckled appearance of the
Brushfield spots iris in patients with Down syndrome?
Pott disease What is the term for the collapse of the vertebral
body due to TB?
407
Which subset of MEN syndrome is associated with
the following? • Parathyroid, pancreatic, and
MEN I (or Wermer syndrome) pituitary gland tumors and Zollinger-Ellison
syndrome
408
Metaplasia (usually to a more What is the term for a reversible change in one cell
protective cell type) type to another?
409
What condition results in the following CSF results?
Brain abscess • Opening pressure 450 mm H2O; 5 WBCs (90%
lymphocytes); normal glucose and protein levels
True. The ileum is the site where True or false? Removal of the ileum results in
vitamin B12 is absorbed. vitamin B12 deficiencies.
410
Transudative; exudative has the opposite values and What is the term for edema that has LDH below 200,
has an elevated cellular content. protein level 2.5, and a specific gravity below 1.020?
411
What is the term for flattened nose, low-set ears, and
Potter facies recessed chin seen in patients with bilateral renal
agenesis?
412
What CD4 T-cell receptor does the
gp120 HIV virus bind to?
Helicobacter pylori, which is also associated with an What urease-producing gram-negative curved rod is
increased risk of gastric carcinoma associated with PUD and chronic gastritis?
413
Leukemias and Name the cancer associated with the following
chemical agents. (Some may have more than one
lymphomas answer.) • Alkylating agents
Mesothelioma and bronchogenic Name the cancer associated with the following
chemical agents. (Some may have more than one
carcinoma answer.) • Asbestos
414
Name the cancer associated with the following
Leukemias chemical agents. (Some may have more than one
answer.) • Benzenes
415
What are the five conditions associated with
1. Autoimmune hypersplenism 2. Trauma 3. Anemia
normochromic normocytic anemia with a normal
4. Spherocytosis 5. Sickle cell anemia
MCV and an elevated reticulocyte count?
416
What estrogen-producing tumor of the female
Granulosa cell tumor of the ovary genital tract is characterized by Call-Exner bodies?
PGE (along with low oxygen What prostaglandin is associated with maintaining
tension) patency of the ductus arteriosus?
417
Thrombus What type of hemostasis in an intravascular space
consists of fibrin, platelets, RBCs, and WBCs?
418
What form of anemia is associated with IgG Abs
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia against Rh antigens, positive direct Coombs test, and
splenomegaly?
419
What AR disease involves a defect in AA 508 on
chromosome 7, causing a defect in Cl- transportation
Cystic fibrosis. (Parents are usually the first to find
that leads to recurrent pulmonary infections and an
out because the baby tastes salty.)
increase in viscid mucoid secretions along with
pancreatic insufficiencies?
420
What slow-growing primary CNS tumor that affects
Meningioma mostly females is associated with psammoma
bodies?
1. Caput medusae 2. Esophageal varices 3. Ascites 4. What are the five components of
Splenomegaly 5. Hemorrhoids portal HTN?
421
1. Conjunctivitis 2. Nongonococcal urethritis 3. What is the triad of Reiter
Peripheral arthritis Can't see, can't wee, can't kick
with your knee syndrome?
422
GP IIb/IIIa, which is why GP IIb/IIIa inhibitors are What glycoprotein allows platelets to adhere to each
used in the treatment of acute coronary syndromes other through the use of fibrinogen?
ELISA screens and Western blot Does ELISA or Western blot confirm whether a
confirms the diagnosis. patient is HIV-positive?
423
Membranoproliferative What GN is highly associated with hepatitis B and C
glomerulonephritis (MPGN) infections?
424
Heinz bodies Oxidation of Hgb forms what bodies in patients with
G-6-PD deficiency?
425
What enzyme is deficient in
Homogentisic oxidase alkaptonuria?
426
Eating fava beans can produce the Mediterranean
G-6-PD deficiency type of what deficiency?
427
What autoimmune disorder is due to Abs directed to
Myasthenia gravis ACh receptors at the NMJ?
428
Lisch nodules What is the term for pigmented iris hamartomas
seen in patients with neurofibromatosis type 1?
True. Don't forget this in your differential diagnosis True or false? GERD is a cause of
of an asthmatic. asthma.
429
PGD2, PGE2, and PGF Name the product or products of arachidonic acid: •
Vasodilation
2
430
Which hepatitis B Ab indicates low
HBeAb transmissibility?
Silicosis Note: Coal worker's pneumoconiosis is What pneumoconiosis is associated with exposure to
synonymous with black lung disease, an upper lobe the following occupations or materials? • Miners,
occupational disorder metal grinders, and sandblasters
431
Atrophy. Disuse can also be due to immobilization, What is the term to describe a decrease in the cell
ischemia, aging, and a host of other causes. size and function usually associated with disuse?
432
This is the triad of renal cell What carcinoma produces hematuria, flank pain, and
carcinoma a palpable mass?
433
What breast malignancy has tumor cells with a halo
surrounding the nucleus and is an ulceration of the
Paget disease of the breast nipple and areola with crusting, fissuring, and
oozing?
434
Name the type of exudate, given the following
Eosinophilic exudates examples. • Parasitic infection
435
What malabsorption syndrome produces abdominal
Celiac sprue (gluten-sensitive distention, bloating, flatulence, diarrhea,
enteropathy) steatorrhea, and weight loss shortly after eating
bread products?
Factors II, VII, IX, and X and Name the six vitamin K–dependent
proteins C and S. coagulation factors.
436
A marfanoid patient presents with tearing
Dissecting aortic aneurysm. MI is also high on the
retrosternal chest pain radiating to her back. What is
list, but these are buzzwords to look for dissection.
your first diagnosis?
437
What syndrome is due to a Neisseria sp. infection in
Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome a child resulting in bilateral hemorrhagic infarcts of
the adrenal glands?
Target cell What is the term for a RBC that has a peripheral rim
of Hgb with a dark central Hgb-containing area?
438
False. The disease has no associated pathology; the
True or false? Raynaud's phenomenon has no
phenomenon is arterial insufficiency due to an
underlying pathology.
underlying disease.
Vitamin B12 deficiency and folate What are the two reasons for megaloblastic anemia
deficiency with elevated MCV?
Yes. It is also a cause of cancers of the lung, Is cigarette smoking associated with transitional cell
esophagus, ureter, and kidney, just to name a few. carcinoma of the bladder?
439
What disease has multiple schwannomas,
Neurofibromatosis I (chromosome 22q is with
café-au-lait spots on the skin, and Lisch nodules and
neurofibromatosis II and no Lisch nodules)
is associated with chromosome 17q?
440
Upon seeing negatively birefringent needle-shaped
Gout crystals from a joint aspiration of the great toe, what
form of arthritis do you diagnose?
441
Oddly enough, it is true. Cryptorchidism, Klinefelter
True or false? Being a white male increases your risk
syndrome, testicular feminization, and family history
factor for testicular cancer.
of testicular cancer are all risk factors.
442
Is ulcerative colitis or Crohn disease more commonly
Ulcerative colitis associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis?
At least six How many café-au-lait spots are necessary for the
diagnosis of neurofibromatosis type 1?
443
Volvulus What is the term for a twisting of the bowel around
its vascular axis resulting in intestinal obstruction?
444
Type IV hypersensitivity Name the type of hypersensitivity reaction based on
the following properties. • Reaction-mediated by
(cell-mediated) sensitized T-cells
Intrinsic. The extrinsic pathway is activated by the What pathway of the coagulation cascade is activated
release of tissue factors. when it is in contact with foreign surfaces?
Wilms tumor does not cross the midline; has immature glomeruli,
tubules, and stroma; and metastasizes late to the
lungs?
445
What CNS tumor commonly
Schwannoma produces tinnitus and hearing loss?
True. Scl-70 Abs are used in diagnosing diffuse True or false? Anticentromere Abs are used in
scleroderma. diagnosing CREST syndrome.
446
What form of vasculitis involves the ascending arch
Syphilitic and causes obliterative endarteritis of the vasa
vasorum?
Fever, night sweats, and hemoptysis What is the classic triad of TB?
True. A thrombus has platelets, but True or false? Blood clots lack
clots do not. platelets.
447
What malignant tumor of the skin is associated with
Histiocytosis X Birbeck granules?
Pernicious anemia (secondary to a lack of vitamin What type of anemia is the result of a deficiency in
B12 absorption) intrinsic factor?
Scrotal cancer, due to the high exposure to polycyclic What cancer is particularly likely to affect English
aromatic hydrocarbons chimney sweeps?
448
GH-producing With which pituitary adenoma is an elevated
somatomedin C level associated?
adenoma
1. Less than 3 cm 2. Clean base 3. Level with the What three criteria allow you to differentiate an ulcer
surrounding mucosa from an erosion or carcinoma?
Truncus (1) arteriosus Transposition of the (2) great Name the four right-to-left
vessels Tri(3)cuspid atresia Tetra(4)logy of Fallot
They all begin with T congenital cardiac shunts.
PT for extrinsic and PTT for intrinsic (remember: Does PT or PTT test the extrinsic
wPeT and hPiTT, which means warfarin, extrinsic,
PT; heparin, intrinsic, PTT) coagulation pathway?
449
What leukemia is associated with four-leaf-clover
Adult T-cell leukemia lymphocytes on peripheral blood smear?
Flea-bitten kidney (can also be seen What is the term for the appearance of the kidney in
malignant hypertension (it has petechiae on its
in pyelonephritis) surface)?
450
False. Elevated calcitonin levels are seen in
medullary carcinoma of the thyroid. Psammoma True or false? Psammoma bodies are seen in
bodies are seen in papillary carcinoma of the thyroid medullary carcinoma of the thyroid.
and ovaries, as well as meningiomas.
Melanosis coli What is the term for black pigmentation of the colon
associated with laxative abuse?
451
Minor Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of
rheumatic fever? • Fever
452
Major Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of
rheumatic fever? • Pericarditis
453
Fibrillary protein, amyloid protein, and What are the three main
glycosaminoglycans (heparin sulfate mainly) components of amyloid?
454
What disorder is associated with loss of polarity,
455
What type of erythema do you see in •
Erythema multiforme Stevens-Johnson syndrome?
456
What slow-growing CNS tumor in 30-to 50-year-old
Oligodendroglioma patients with a long history of seizures has fried egg
cellular appearance in a network of chicken wire?
Goodpasture Ag is a component of
Type IV collagen what type of collagen?
457
What is the first sign of megaloblastic anemia on a
Hypersegmented neutrophils peripheral blood smear?
Curling ulcers (think curling iron = What is the term for gastric ulcers associated with
burn) severely burned or traumatic patients?
458
Neutropenia, splenomegaly, and
What is the triad of Felty syndrome?
rheumatoid arthritis
459
What disease with familial mental retardation
Fragile X syndrome produces large, everted ears and macro-orchidism?
460
What is the term for panhypopituitarism secondary
Sheehan syndrome to ischemic necrosis and hypotension postpartum?
461
A chronic alcohol abuser goes to the ER with
Subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord
weakness, a sore, beefy red tongue, loss of vibration
is treated with IM vitamin B12 injections. If
and position sense, arm and leg dystaxia, elevated
treatment is working, you will see an increased
levels of methylmalonic acid in the urine, and anemia
reticulocyte count on the peripheral smear in about 5
with an MCV above 105 fL. What is your diagnosis,
days.
and how will you monitor his response to treatment?
Scrofula What is the term for TB with the cervical lymph node
involved?
462
What pathology is associated with elevated levels of
Primary hyperparathyroidism Ca2+, cardiac arrhythmias, bone resorption, kidney
stones, and metastatic calcifications?
463
What congenital small bowel outpouching is a
Meckel diverticulum remnant of the vitelline duct?
Klatskin tumor What is the tumor at the bifurcation of the right and
left hepatic ducts?
464
What disease is seen in the 20-to 40-year-old age
group, is more prevalent in women than men,
involves diarrhea with or without bloody stools,
Ulcerative colitis starts in the rectum and ascends without skipping
areas, includes pseudopolyps, and has a thickness of
the bowel that does not change?
465
What platelet disorder is characteristically seen in
Hemolytic uremic syndrome children following a bout of gastroenteritis with
bloody diarrhea?
466
Name the type of regeneration (i.e., labile, stable, or
Permanent permanent) based on the following examples. •
Skeletal muscle
467
Stable Name the type of regeneration (i.e., labile, stable, or
permanent) based on the following examples. • Liver
468
Stable (Labile cells proliferate throughout life; stable Name the type of regeneration (i.e., labile, stable, or
cells have a low level of proliferation; and permanent permanent) based on the following examples. •
cells as the name states, do not proliferate.) Osteoblasts
469
Hereditary angioneurotic edema (AD) produces local
edema in organs (e.g., GI, skin, respiratory tract).
C1 esterase inhibitor (C1INH) What enzyme deficiency causes increased capillary
permeability due to a release of vasoactive peptides?
Berry aneurysm in the circle of Name the cerebral vessel associated with the
following vascular pathologies. • Subarachnoid
Willis hemorrhage
Bridging veins draining into the Name the cerebral vessel associated with the
following vascular pathologies. • Subdural
sagittal sinus hemorrhage
470
Middle meningeal Name the cerebral vessel associated with the
following vascular pathologies. • Epidural
artery hemorrhage
471
At least 30% blast in the bone What percentage of the bone marrow must be
marrow composed of blast for leukemia to be considered?
472
Hgb F What type of Hgb is increased in patients with sickle
cell anemia who take hydroxyurea?
473
What thyroid carcinoma secretes calcitonin and
Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid arises from the parafollicular C cells?
474
What type of GN, associated with celiac disease and
Berger disease (IgA nephropathy) dermatitis herpetiformis, has mesangial deposits of
IgA, C3, properdin, IgG, and IgM?
475
What oxygen-dependent killing enzyme requires
Myeloperoxidase hydrogen peroxide and halide (Cl-) to produce
hypochlorous acid?
Arsenic, thorotrast, and vinyl What three chemical agents are associated with
chloride angiosarcomas of the liver?
476
Lead poisoning What metal poisoning produces microcytic anemia
with basophilic stippling?
477
What female pathology is associated with
Endometriosis endometrial glands and stroma outside the uterus
commonly affecting the ovaries as chocolate cysts?
Hirschsprung disease (aganglionic What is the term for a congenital absence of the
ganglionic cells of the Auerbach and Meissner plexus
megacolon) in the rectum and sigmoid colon?
478
Folate deficiency (very common in The "tea-and-toast" diet is classically associated with
the elderly) what cause of megaloblastic anemia?
479
1. Steroids 2. Alcohol 3. Scuba diving 4. Sickle cell What are the four most common causes of femoral
anemia head necrosis?
Rubor (red), dolor (pain), calor (heat), tumor What are the four signs of acute
(swelling); also sometimes there is loss of function inflammation?
480
Name the hypochromic microcytic anemia based on
Thalassemia minor the following laboratory values. • Normal iron, TIBC,
percent saturation, and ferritin
481
Boutonnière What is the term for flexion of the PIP and extension
of the DIP joints seen in rheumatoid arthritis?
deformities
482
What is the term for fibrinoid necrosis of the
Onion skinning arterioles in the kidney secondary to malignant
hypertension?
Fibrocystic change of the breast. This highlights the A 30-year-old woman goes to your office with
distinguishing features from breast cancer, which is bilateral multiple breast nodules that vary with
commonly unilateral, single nodule, no variation menstruation and have cyclical pain and
with pregnancy. engorgement. What is your diagnosis?
483
Two major or one major and two How many major and/or minor Jones criteria are
minor required for the diagnosis of rheumatic fever?
Mycosis fungoides (cutaneous T-cell What skin carcinoma is a superficial dermal infiltrate
of T lymphocytes seen in males more than 40 years
lymphoma) old and presents as scaly red patches or plaques?
484
Gout What pathology is associated with podagra, tophi in
the ear, and PMNs with monosodium urate crystals?
485
Beryllium What chemical can be dangerous if you work in the
aerospace industry or in nuclear plants?
486
Which hepatitis B serology markers—HBcAb IgG,
HBcAb IgG, HBV-DNA, HBeAg, HBcAb IgM, HBeAg, HBsAb IgG, HBsAg,
HBsAg HBV-DNA—are associated with the following
periods? • Chronic infection
487
Name the type of necrosis. • Soft, friable,
Caseous necrosis cottage-cheese appearing; characteristically seen in
TB
Superoxide dismutase, glutathione Name the three enzymes that protect the cell from
peroxidase, catalase oxygen-derived free radicals.
2% of population, 2 cm long, 2 feet from ileocecal What are the rules of 2 for Meckel
valve, 2 years old, and 2% of carcinoid tumors diverticulum?
488
A 20-year-old black woman goes to you with
nonspecific joint pain, fever, and a malar rash over
SLE; ANA, anti-dsDNA and anti-Sm the bridge of her nose and on her cheeks. This is a
(anti-Smith) classic example of what autoimmune disease? What
are three autoantibody tests you could order to make
the diagnosis?
True. It deposits at the gingivodental line, known as True or false? Excess lead deposits
the lead line. in the oral cavity.
489
What myopathy due to autoantibodies to ACh
Myasthenia gravis receptors can present with thymic abnormalities, red
cell aplasia, and muscle weakness?
490
Pseudogout What form of arthritis is associated with calcium
pyrophosphate crystals?
491
What disease is seen in children younger than 5 years
of age and is characterized by X-linked recessive
cardiac myopathies, calf pseudohypertrophy,
Duchenne muscular dystrophy lordosis, protuberant belly, an increase then a
decrease in CPK, and death commonly in the second
decade of life?
Giant cell bone tumor What malignant neoplasm of the bone has a soap
(osteoclastoma) bubble appearance on radiograph?
492
Extravascular hemolysis if it occurs in the spleen; if Is splenomegaly more commonly associated with
in the liver, it results in hepatomegaly. intravascular or extravascular hemolysis?
Factor XII for the intrinsic; factor VII for the What factor gets activated in the intrinsic pathway of
extrinsic pathway the coagulation cascade? Extrinsic pathway?
493
What chronic systemic inflammatory disease
commonly seen in women aged 20 to 50 is a
Rheumatoid arthritis progressive, symmetric arthritis affecting the hands,
wrists, knees, and ankles that improves with
increased activity?
494
Niemann-Pick and Tay-Sachs What two lysosomal storage diseases have cherry-red
diseases spots on the retina?
Paradoxic emboli most commonly enter the arteries What is the term for a venous embolus in the arterial
through a patent septal defect in the heart. system?
495
Red blood cell distribution width What is the name for the following RBC indices? •
index (RDW) The coefficient of variation of the RBC volume
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin What is the name for the following RBC indices? •
(MCH) Average mass of the Hgb molecule/RBC
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin What is the name for the following RBC indices? •
Average Hgb concentration/given volume of packed
concentration (MCHC) RBCs
496
Which HPV serotypes are associated with condyloma
HPV serotypes 6 and 11 acuminatum?
497
What is flat, circumscribed nonpalpable pigmented
Macule (e.g., a freckle) change up to 1 cm?
498
Histiocytes Name the macrophage based on its location: •
Connective tissue macrophages
499
Lower lobe In which region of the lung are 75% of the pulmonary
infarcts seen?
500
Eosin Do the following structures pick up stain from
hematoxylin or eosin? • Cytoplasm
501
Eosin Do the following structures pick up stain from
hematoxylin or eosin? • Fibrin
502
Based on the following information, is the renal
transplantation rejection acute, chronic, or
hyperacute? • Months to years after transplantation;
Chronic rejection gradual onset of HTN, oliguria, and azotemia; seen
as intimal fibrosis of the blood vessels and interstitial
lymphocytes
503
What disease has IgG autoantibodies, occurs in
504
What B-cell neoplasm is seen in males with massive
splenomegaly, produces dry tap on bone marrow
Hairy cell leukemia aspirations, and stains positive for tartrate-resistant
acid phosphatase (TRAP)?
3 months of symptoms in 2 How many months in how many years must a person
cough with copious sputum production for the
consecutive years diagnosis of chronic bronchitis to be made?
505
What chronic inflammatory WBC is associated with
Eosinophils IgE-mediated allergic reactions and parasitic
infections?
506
Name the hepatitis virus based on the following
Hepatitis D information. • Small circular RNA virus with
defective envelope
507
What AR disease involves a decreased amount of
sphingomyelinase, massive organomegaly, zebra
Niemann-Pick disease bodies, and foamy histiocytes and is associated with
chromosome 11p?
Marrow failure, cancer, and What are the three causes of normochromic
normocytic anemia with a normal MCV and a low
leukemia reticulocyte count?
Dilation of the internal mammary arteries results in Notching of the ribs, seen on chest radiograph in
erosions on the inner surface of the ribs and is seen patients with postductal coarctation of the aorta, is
as notching. due to collateralization of what arteries?
508
What is the term for occlusion of a blood vessel due
Embolism to an intravascular mass that has been carried
downstream?
Melanoma, cancer of the stomach Name the cancer associated with the following
oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) •
and bladder hst-1 and int-2
509
MEN II and III Name the cancer associated with the following
oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) •
syndromes et
510
Name the cancer associated with the following
CML and ALL oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) •
abl
511
What AD GI neoplasia produces multiple
Gardner syndrome adenomatous polyps, osteomas, fibromas, and
epidural inclusion cysts?
512
What AD disorder due to a mutation in fibroblast
Barbiturate overdose and benzodiazepine Which overdose carries a higher mortality rate, that
withdrawal carry the highest mortality rates. of benzodiazepines or barbiturates?
513
H1 Are the following responses associated with
histamines H1 or H2 receptor activation? • Edema
514
Are the following responses associated with
H2 histamines H1 or H2 receptor activation? • Inotropic
action and automaticity
M 1 and nicotinic receptors are excitatory in the CNS Which CNS ACh receptor or receptors are
and M 2 receptor is inhibitory. excitatory? Inhibitory?
True. They are useful in the early-phase response to True or false? Beta2-Adrenergic agents are used in
an asthmatic attack. the management of an acute asthmatic attack.
515
Inactivated Do local anesthetics bind to the activated or
inactivated sodium channels?
516
Fentanyl What drug is given transdermally for chronic pain
but can cause chest wall rigidity if given IV?
517
Carbamazepine Which anticonvulsant can cause teratogenic
craniofacial abnormalities and spina bifida?
Schedule dependent; antineoplastic agents that work Are antineoplastic agents that work on actively
on nonproliferating cells are dose dependent proliferating cells schedule or dose dependent?
518
Raloxifene What estrogen receptor agonist in bone is used in the
treatment and prevention of osteoporosis?
With opioid use the pupils become pinpoint (miosis) How is the eye affected by use of
because of increased cholinergic activity. opioids?
519
Metronidazole Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side
effect is listed. • Teratogenicity
520
Vancomycin Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side
effect is listed. • Auditory toxicity
Constipation and What are the two side effects of opioids to which the
user will not develop tolerance?
miosis
521
Name the insulin preparation based on the peak
Ultralente effect and duration of action. • Peak, 8 to 16 hours;
duration, 24 to 36 hours
Lente or NPH insulin (neutral Name the insulin preparation based on the peak
effect and duration of action. • Peak, 8 to 12 hours;
protamine Hagedorn insulin) duration, 18 to 24 hours
522
Alendronate What is the drug of choice for steroid-induced
osteoporosis?
523
Phase I Are hydrolysis, oxidation, and reduction phase I or II
biotransformations?
524
Ionized drugs are water soluble, and since only
lipid-soluble drugs can cross biomembranes, an If a drug is ionized, is it water or lipid soluble? Can it
ionized drug cannot cross them without the help of a cross a biomembrane?
carrier.
Diazepam is longest acting and midazolam is What are the longest-acting and shortest-acting
shortest acting. benzodiazepines?
525
Tyramine What agent, in combination with a MAOI inhibitor,
can cause hypertensive crisis?
Lente insulin and either NPH or protamine zinc What two forms of insulin, if mixed together,
insulin (PZI) precipitate zinc?
526
What are the first signs of
Nystagmus and ataxia phenobarbital overdose?
527
What antiepileptic agent has SIADH
Carbamazepine as a side effect?
528
Low molecular weight heparin What class of heparin is active against factor Xa and
(LMWH) has no effect on PT or PTT?
529
Nerve fibers with small diameter and high firing Which size nerve fibers (small or large diameter) are
rates are most sensitive to local blockade more sensitive to local anesthetic blockade?
NADPH and molecular What are the two absolute requirements for the
cytochrome P450 enzyme system?
O2
PGE 1, PGI 2 (most potent), and What three PGs are potent platelet
TXA 2 aggregators?
530
What class of drugs is used in the treatment of
Bisphosphonates demineralization of the bone?
531
What IV-only agent inhibits water reabsorption in
They prevent mast cell What cell type do cromolyn and nedocromil affect for
degranulation. prophylactic management of asthma via blockade?
In the dorsal horn of the spinal cord on the primary Where in the spinal cord are the presynaptic opioid
afferent neurons receptors?
532
Terbinafine What antifungal agent is used to treat dermatophyte
infections by inhibiting squalene epoxidase?
533
1. Cloxacillin 2. Oxacillin 3. Nafcillin 4. Dicloxacillin What are the five
5. Methicillin (CONDM) penicillinase-resistant penicillins?
534
First-pass metabolism and acid What two factors influence low oral
lability bioavailability?
The larger the volume of distribution, the lower the What happens to plasma concentration of a drug if
plasma concentration of a drug. there is a large volume of distribution?
535
Opioids cause cerebral vasodilation and can result in Why should opioid analgesics be avoided for patients
increased intracerebral pressure. with head trauma?
Succinylcholine and halothane (Treatment is with What two drugs, when mixed, can lead to malignant
dantrolene.) hyperthermia?
536
TRUE True or false? Succinylcholine is a nicotinic receptor
agonist.
537
The entire tubule barring the thick What is the site of action of the following? • Osmotic
ascending limb diuretics
538
Non-Hodgkin What hematologic malignancy is treated with the
monoclonal antibody rituximab?
lymphoma
Yes, because they both activate the BZ1-receptors, Could an overdose with either zolpidem or zaleplon
which can be reversed by flumazenil. be reversed with flumazenil?
539
False. Bacteriocidals kill; True or false? Antimicrobial agents that slow
bacteriostatics slow growth. bacterial growth are bactericidal.
Nicotinic acid, because its side effects include Which antihyperlipidemic agent would you not
hyperuricemia and exacerbation of ulcers. prescribe for a patient with a history of gout or PUD?
540
Which direct-acting vasodilator is used clinically to
Diazoxide treat hypertensive emergencies, insulinomas, and as
a uterine smooth muscle relaxant?
541
The affinity of the drug for its What is the most important
receptor determinant of drug potency?
False. Risk of breast and endometrial cancer but not True or false? Estrogen use increases the risk of
ovarian cancer increases with the use of estrogen. developing ovarian cancer.
Phentolamine and What mixed α-antagonists are used for patients with
phenoxybenzamine pheochromocytoma?
1. Intracellular receptors 2. Membrane receptors 3. What are the four types of signaling
Enzymes 4. Intracellular effectors mechanisms?
542
The dose of glipizide must be decreased in hepatic The dose of which second-generation sulfonylurea
dysfunction. Glyburide's dose must be decreased in agent must be decreased for patients with hepatic
renal dysfunction. dysfunction?
543
What is the site of action for carbonic anhydrase
Proximal tubule inhibitors?
544
Mitosis What phase of the cell cycle are the following
antineoplastic agents specific for? • Paclitaxel
545
S phase What phase of the cell cycle are the following
antineoplastic agents specific for? • Hydroxyurea
546
There is a difference; it takes about 7 to 8 half-lives Is there a difference between mathematical and
to reach mathematical steady state and 4 to 5 clinical steady states? If so, what are their values
half-lives to reach clinical steady state. (half-lives)?
547
What form of penicillin is used in the treatment of
Penicillin G (benzylpenicillin) life-threatening illnesses?
False. Flumazenil is unable to block the effects of True or false? Flumazenil is used in the treatment of
barbiturates. barbiturate overdose.
548
Finasteride What agent used in the treatment of BPH and
baldness is a 5-α-reductase inhibitor?
549
What two drugs inhibit the release of
Guanethidine and bretylium neurotransmitters from storage granules?
Efficacy What is the term for how well a drug produces its
desired response?
550
What drug, if given during pregnancy, would cause
RU 486 the uterus to exhibit signs of progesterone
withdrawal and induce an abortion?
551
Which thrombolytic agent, activated in the presence
Alteplase of fibrin, is manufactured by recombinant DNA
process?
No, therapeutic indices can tell which drug is safer, Can you tell which drug is more toxic based on
not more toxic. therapeutic indices alone?
552
A schizophrenic patient who is taking haloperidol is
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a potentially
brought to your ER with muscle rigidity, a
life-threatening condition which is treated with
temperature of 104° F, altered mental status, and
symptomatic support, bromocriptine, and
hypotension. What is your diagnosis and what is the
dantrolene.
treatment?
Minoxidil (orally and topically, Which α-blocking agent is used to treat refractory
respectively!) hypertension and baldness?
553
Imipenem and What bactericidal agents are resistant to
β-lactamases and are used to treat in-hospital
meropenem life-threatening infections?
554
Which drugs bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit and
Aminoglycosides interfere with the initiation complex, causing a
misreading of mRNA?
Proton pump What class of drugs are the DOCs for peptic ulcer
disease, Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, and
inhibitors gastroesophageal reflux disease?
555
What bacteriostatic agent's side effect profile
Chloramphenicol includes grey baby syndrome and aplastic anemia?
556
True or false? Tetracyclines are
False. They are bacteriostatic.
bactericidal.
557
What is the term for the proportion of a drug that
Bioavailability reaches systemic circulation?
False. Glutamic acid is excitatory, True or false? Both GABA and glutamic acid are
but GABA is inhibitory. excitatory neurotransmitters in the CNS.
558
Rifampin What is the drug of choice for asymptomatic
meningitis carriers?
559
Splenomegaly and anemia (with a What are the two most important features in the
high index of suspicion) diagnosis of malaria?
Oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam ( OTL, Name the three benzodiazepines that are not
Outside The Liver) metabolized by the cytochrome P450 enzyme system.
560
Rifampin What antitubercular agent causes a red-orange tinge
to tears and urine?
Doxacurium What is the most potent NMJ blocker and also has
no cardiovascular side effects?
561
Which group of antihypertensive agents best
Thiazide diuretics decreases left ventricular hypertrophy?
Because they do not block D2A receptors, they are Why are clozapine and olanzapine unlikely to result
antagonists of 5HT2 receptors. in EPS effects?
562
True. They block the dopamine receptors in the True or false? Dopamine antagonists
chemoreceptor trigger zone. are antiemetic.
True. They inhibit DNA gyrase (topo True or false? Fluoroquinolones are
II). bactericidal.
563
What oral hypoglycemic agent stimulates pancreatic
Repaglinide β-cell release of insulin and is given just prior to
meals because of its short half-life?
True. No loss of drug and no absorption if a drug is True or false? There is no absorption of an
given IV. IV-administered drug.
Log-kill hypothesis (follows first What hypothesis states that an antineoplastic agent
kills a fixed percentage of tumor cells, not a fixed
order kinetics) number?
564
Spironolactone (binds to What is the only diuretic that works on the blood
aldosterone receptors) side of the nephron?
Heparin, intrinsic pathway, PTT; warfarin, extrinsic Do you monitor heparin's therapeutic levels by PT or
pathway, PT (mnemonic: hPeT, wPiTT) PTT?
565
Aminophylline What phosphodiesterase inhibitor is used IV in the
management of status asthmaticus ?
566
Tetracycline Which antimicrobial class may cause tooth enamel
dysplasia and decreased bone growth in children?
567
Spironolactone Which potassium-sparing drug is an aldosterone
receptor antagonist ?
False. Metformin does not have weight gain as a True or false? Metformin is contraindicated in obese
potential side effect (unlike sulfonylureas). patients because of weight gain as its side effect.
Corticosteroid What is the DOC for the treatment of the late phase
response in an asthmatic attack?
568
Regardless of the rate of infusion, it takes 4 to 5 If you double the infusion rate of a drug, how long
half-lives to reach steady state. will it take to reach steady state?
569
Metronidazole What is the DOC for the following protozoal
infections? • Giardiasis
570
What is the only antifungal agent to
Fluconazole penetrate CSF?
571
Which macrolide is used in the
Erythromycin treatment of gastroparesis?
572
Meclizine Which antihistamine is one of the DOCs for
treatment of vertigo?
573
Bile acid sequestrants (cholestyramine and
colestipol) increase VLDL and triglyceride levels; Which class of antihyperlipidemics would you avoid
therefore, they are not used if a patient has for a patient with elevated triglyceride levels?
hypertriglyceridemia.
574
What determines the plasma level at
The rate of infusion steady state?
575
What is the DOC for
Ipratropium β-blocker-induced bronchospasms?
True. Cimetidine can decrease androgen production True or false? Gynecomastia is a side
and lead to gynecomastia. effect of cimetidine.
Hydralazine, isoniazid, and What three drugs are associated with SLE-like
procainamide (HIP) syndrome in slow acetylators?
576
What aminoglycoside causes
Streptomycin disruption of CN I?
577
Tamoxifen What competitive estrogen receptor antagonist is
used in the treatment of breast cancer?
578
Zafirlukast Which prophylactic asthmatic agent is an antagonist
of LTD4?
579
Nasal polyps, rhinitis, and aspirin What are the three components to
hypersensitivity the asthma triad?
580
Leuprolide What GnRH analog is used as a repository form of
treatment in prostatic cancer?
Clearance What is the term for drug removal per unit of time in
a given volume of blood?
581
Which two tetracyclines have the
Doxycycline and minocycline
highest plasma binding?
Effective dose for 50% of drug takers (median What do the following values
effective dose) indicate? • ED50
Toxic dose for 50% of drug takers What do the following values
(median toxic dose) indicate? • TD50
Lethal dose for 50% of drug takers What do the following values
(median lethal dose) indicate? • LD50
582
Spasms of the uterus, bladder, and the biliary tree A patient goes to the ER with signs and symptoms of
occur with all of the opioids except meperidine. biliary colic. Which opioid analgesic do you choose?
Physiologic dead space is the total dead space of the Anatomical and alveolar dead spaces together
respiratory system. constitute what space?
583
LH has no effect on the production of adrenal
What is the effect of LH on the production of adrenal
androgens; ACTH stimulates adrenal androgen
androgens?
production.
1. CHF 2. Vena caval obstruction or constriction 3. What four conditions result in secondary
Hepatic cirrhosis 4. Renal artery stenosis hyperaldosteronism?
Right vagus innervates the SA node and the left Does the left or right vagus nerve
vagus innervates the AV node innervate the SA node?
584
Repolarization is from base to apex and from How does ventricular repolarization take place, base
epicardium to endocardium. to apex or vice versa?
Anatomical dead space, which ends at the level of the What is the term for any region of the respiratory
terminal bronchioles. system that is incapable of gas exchange?
1:1. Remember, the flow through the pulmonary What is the ratio of pulmonary to
circuit and the systemic circuit are equal. systemic blood flow?
585
To differentiate central from nephrogenic diabetes
Central. Remember, there is a deficiency in ADH
insipidus, after an injection of ADH, which will show
production in the central form.
a decreased urine flow?
586
1. Provide antibacterial action 2. Lubricate 3. Begin CHO digestion What are the four
4. Begin fat digestion functions of saliva?
Decreases Remember, the carotid sinus reflex attempts to When a person goes from supine to
compensate by increasing both TPR and heart rate. standing, what happens to the
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------- following? • BP
587
It normally does not play a role in filtration but
When does the hydrostatic pressure in Bowman's
becomes important when there is an obstruction
capsule play a role in opposing filtration?
downstream.
Combined metabolic and respiratory If the pH is low with increased CO2 levels and
decreased HCO3- levels, what is the acid-base
acidosis disturbance?
Membrane conductance (think What is the term that refers to the number of
conductance = channels open) channels open in a cell membrane?
588
1. CNS 2. Renal tubules 3. Beta Islet cells of the What are the five tissues in which glucose uptake is
pancreas 4. RBCs 5. GI mucosa insulin independent?
1. Increase compliance 2. Decrease surface tension 3. What are the three functions of
Decrease probability of pulmonary edema formation surfactant?
589
Name the hormone—glucagon, insulin, or
Epinephrine epinephrine: • Glycogenolytic, gluconeogenic,
lipolytic, glycolytic, and stimulated by hypoglycemia
Hydrophobic (water-insoluble) end faces the Is the hydrophobic or hydrophilic end of the
aqueous environment and the hydrophilic phospholipids of the cell membrane facing the
(water-soluble) end faces the interior of the cell. aqueous environment?
590
90% as HCO3-, 5% as carbamino compounds, and What percentage of CO2 is carried in
5% as dissolved CO2 the plasma as HCO3- ?
591
Amylase hydrolyzes alpha-1, 4-glucoside linkages, What linkage of complex CHOs does pancreatic
forming alpha-limit dextrins, maltotriose, and amylase hydrolyze? What three complexes are
maltose. formed?
Heart rate determines the diastolic interval, and Does the heart rate determine the diastolic or systolic
contractility determines the systolic interval. interval?
At the beginning of splay is when the renal threshold On a graphical representation of filtration,
for glucose occurs and the excess begins to spill over reabsorption, and excretion, when does glucose first
into the urine. appear in the urine?
592
How many days prior to ovulation does LH surge
1 day prior to ovulation occur in the menstrual cycle?
As flow increases, the urine becomes more dilute How are flow through the loop of Henle and
because of decreased time for H2O reabsorption. concentration of urine related?
Somatotrophins are stimulated by IGF-1, and they How do elevated blood glucose levels decrease GH
inhibit GH secretion. GHRH stimulates GH secretion? (Hint: what inhibitory hypothalamic
secretion. hormone is stimulated by IGF-1?)
Terminal collecting duct has the highest What segment of the nephron has the highest
concentration and Bowman's capsule has the lowest concentration of inulin? Lowest concentration of
concentration of inulin. inulin?
593
A high-resistance system is formed when resistors What type of resistance system, high or low, is
are added in a series. formed when resistors are added in a series?
Apneustic center (deep breathing What respiratory center in the caudal pons is the
center for rhythm promoting prolonged
place) inspirations?
594
What is the term to describe the increased rate of
Adrenarche secretion of adrenal androgens at the onset of
puberty?
T3 has a greater affinity for the nuclear receptor and Does T3 or T4 have a greater affinity for its nuclear
therefore is considered the active form. receptor?
Low interstitial free Ca2+ What is the only important physiological signal
concentrations regulating the release of PTH?
595
What endocrine abnormality is characterized by the
Secondary hypoparathyroidism following changes in PTH, Ca2+, and inorganic
(vitamin D toxicity) phosphate (Pi)? • PTH decreased, Ca2+ increased, Pi
increased
14 L, 33% of body What is the amount in liters and percent body weight
for the following compartments? • ECF
weight
596
What is the amount in liters and percent body weight
9.3 L, 15% of body weight for the following compartments? • Interstitial fluid
28 L, 40% of body What is the amount in liters and percent body weight
for the following compartments? • ICF
weight
4.7 L, 5% of body What is the amount in liters and percent body weight
for the following compartments? • Vascular fluid
weight
42 L, 67% of body What is the amount in liters and percent body weight
for the following compartments? • Total body water
weight
597
Graves disease (Increased T4 decreases TRH and What thyroid abnormality has the following? • TRH
TSH through negative feedback.) decreased, TSH decreased, T4 increased
598
Glucagon and What two stress hormones are under the permissive
action of cortisol?
epinephrine
The resistance will decrease one-sixteenth of the If the radius of a vessel doubles, what happens to
original resistance. resistance?
False. It has glycogenolytic and lipolytic actions but True or false? Epinephrine has proteolytic metabolic
not proteolytic. effects.
Cortisol, a 21-carbon steroid, has a -OH group at What is the only 17-hydroxysteroid
position 17. with hormonal activity?
599
The oncotic pressure of plasma promotes
Does the oncotic pressure of plasma promote
reabsorption and is directly proportional to the
filtration or reabsorption?
filtration fraction.
Umbilical vein and ductus venosus What two vessels in fetal circulation have the highest
(80%) PO2 levels?
600
How many days prior to ovulation does estradiol
2 days prior to ovulation peak in the menstrual cycle?
Total ventilation (minute ventilation What is the term for the total volume of air moved in
or minute volume) and out of the respiratory system per minute?
Increase in urinary excretion of HCO3-, shifting the What is the renal compensation
reaction to the right and increasing H+ mechanism for alkalosis?
601
Arterioles have the largest drop, whereas the vena
In the systemic circulation, what blood vessels have
cava has the smallest pressure drop in systemic
the largest pressure drop? Smallest pressure drop?
circulation.
Decrease in surface area and increase in membrane What are two causes of diffusion
thickness (Palv O2 > PaO2) impairment in the lungs?
602
Increases With an increase in arterial systolic pressure, what
happens to • Stroke volume?
603
What enzyme is needed to activate the following
Trypsin reactions? • Procarboxypeptidase to
carboxypeptidase
Hypoglycemia for secretion and What is the most potent stimulus for glucagon
hyperglycemia for inhibition secretion? Inhibition?
604
Dopamine is converted into NE in the vesicle via the In an adrenergic nerve terminal, where is dopamine
enzyme dopamine-Beta-hydroxylase. converted to NE? By what enzyme?
Preload. It is the load on a muscle What is the term for the load on a muscle in the
Prior to contraction. relaxed state?
LVEDV and LVEDP (left ventricular end-diastolic What are the two best indices of left
volume and end-diastolic pressure, respectively) ventricular preload?
605
What stage of male development is characterized by
606
Resistance increases as resistors are added When referring to a series circuit, what
happens to resistance when a resistor is
to the circuit. added?
Because the venous system is more compliant than the arterial Regarding the venous system, what
vessels, small changes in pressure result in large changes in happens to blood volume if there is a small
blood volume. change in pressure?
607
Stages 3 and 4 In what stage of sleep is GH
secreted?
(NREM)
In the RBC; remember, you need carbonic anhydrase Where does the conversion of CO2
for the conversion, and plasma does not have this
enzyme. into HCO3- take place?
Calcium and ATP are required for packaged What two factors are required for
macromolecules to be extruded from the cell. effective exocytosis?
608
What hormone is required for 1,
PTH 25-dihydroxy-vitamin D (1, 25-diOH-D) to have bone
resorbing effects?
Opening of the mitral valve indicates the termination The opening of what valve indicates the termination
of the isovolumetric relaxation phase and the of isovolumetric relaxation phase of the cardiac
beginning of the ventricular filling phase. cycle?
609
Estrogens are 18-carbon steroids. (Removal of one How many carbons do estrogens
carbon from an androgen produces an estrogen.) have?
The main drive shifts from central chemoreceptors In high altitudes, what is the main
(CSF H+) to peripheral chemoreceptors monitoring
low PO2 levels. drive for ventilation?
610
Describe what type of fluid is either gained or lost
with the following changes in body hydration for the
Loss of hypotonic fluid (alcohol, diabetes insipidus,
ECF volume, ICF volume, and body osmolarity,
dehydration)
respectively: • ECF, decrease; ICF, decrease; body:
increase
T4; because of the greater affinity for the binding Is there more circulating T3 or T4 in
protein, T4 has a significantly (nearly fifty times)
longer half-life than T3. plasma?
611
The resting membrane potential of the cell is -90 mV Why is the cell's resting membrane
because of the intracellular proteins. potential negative?
False. Thyroid size is a measure of TSH levels (which True or false? Thyroid size is a
are goitrogenic). measure of its function.
NE, via its vasoconstrictive action on What neurotransmitter is essential for maintaining a
blood vessels normal BP when an individual is standing?
612
1. Decrease alpha-1 activity 2. Increase Beta-2 Name the three methods of vasodilation via the
activity 3. Increase ACh levels sympathetic nervous system.
True. Elevated plasma levels of progesterone can True or false? Progesterone has
raise the body temperature 0.5° to 1.0°F. thermogenic activities.
613
How long is the transit time through
2 to 4 hours the small intestine?
True; cortisol inhibits glucose uptake in most tissue, True or false? Cortisol inhibits glucose uptake in
making it available for neural tissue use. skeletal muscle.
100%; the percentage of blood flow through the What percentage of cardiac output flows through the
pulmonary and systemic circulations are equal. pulmonary circuit?
614
Name the Hgb-O2 binding site based on the
1. Exercise 2. Emergencies (stress) 3. Exposure to Which three factors cause the release of epinephrine
cold (The three Es) from the adrenal medulla?
One, and it provides the energy for How many ATPs are hydrolyzed every time a skeletal
mechanical contraction. muscle cross-bridge completes a single cycle?
615
Venous pressure above the heart is subatmospheric, Why would a puncture to a vein above the heart have
so a puncture there has the potential to introduce air the potential to introduce air into the vascular
into the system. system?
High volume, watery solution; sympathetic What type of saliva is produced under
stimulation results in thick, mucoid saliva. parasympathetic stimulation?
alpha-Cells; glucagon has stimulatory effects on What pancreatic islet cell secretes
-cells and inhibitory effects on -cells. glucagons?
616
1. Competition for carrier with similar chemical
substances 2. Chemical specificity needed for
transportation 3. Zero-order saturation kinetics What are the four characteristics of all
(Transportation is maximal when all transporters are protein-mediated transportation?
saturated.) 4. Rate of transportation faster than if by
simple diffusion
617
Production of HCO3-, shifting the reaction to the left What is the renal compensation
and thereby decreasing H+ mechanism for acidosis?
The lung will expand; also the What happens to the lung if the intrapleural pressure
opposite is true. exceeds lung recoil?
618
What type of muscle contraction occurs when the
Isotonic contraction muscle shortens and lifts the load placed on it?
GH and prolactin are produced by acidophils; all What two pituitary hormones are
others are by basophils. produced by acidophils?
619
What is the titratable acid form of
H2PO4- (dihydrogen phosphate)
H+ in the urine?
1. Increased tube radius 2. Increased velocity 3. What five factors promote turbulent
Decreased viscosity 4. Increased number of branches
5. Narrowing of an orifice flow?
Aldosterone Remember, from the outer cortex to the What is the major hormone produced in the
inner layer, Salt, Sugar, Sex. The adrenal cortex gets following areas of the adrenal cortex? • Zona
sweeter as you go deeper. glomerulosa
Cortisol Remember, from the outer cortex to the What is the major hormone produced in the
inner layer, Salt, Sugar, Sex. The adrenal cortex gets following areas of the adrenal cortex? • Zona
sweeter as you go deeper. fasciculata
620
DHEA (androgens) Remember, from the outer What is the major hormone produced in the
cortex to the inner layer, Salt, Sugar, Sex. The following areas of the adrenal cortex? • Zona
adrenal cortex gets sweeter as you go deeper. reticularis
In bone; nearly 99% of Ca2+ is stored in the bone as Where is most of the body's Ca2+
hydroxyapatite. stored?
They are inversely related. If ventilation increases, What is the relationship between ventilation and
there will be a decrease in PCO2 levels and vice versa. PCO2 levels?
621
Hydroxyproline Increased urinary excretion of what substance is
used to detect excess bone demineralization?
20:1T4T3. There is an increase in the production of What is the ratio of T4:T3 secretion from the thyroid
T3 when iodine becomes deficient. gland?
622
From the adrenal medulla; NE is mainly derived Where does most circulating plasma
from the postsynaptic sympathetic neurons. epinephrine originate?
When calcium is removed from troponin and What causes a skeletal muscle
pumped back into the SR, skeletal muscle
contraction stops. contraction to terminate?
ICF volume decreases when there is an increase in What happens to intracellular volume when there is
osmolarity and vice versa. an increase in osmolarity?
Fructose; both glucose and galactose are actively Which CHO is independently absorbed from the
absorbed via secondary active transport. small intestine?
Surface tension, the force to collapse the lung, is When is the surface tension the greatest in the
greatest at the end of inspiration. respiratory cycle?
623
What adrenal enzyme deficiency results in
17-alpha-Hydroxylase deficiency hypertension, hypernatremia, increased ECF volume,
and decreased adrenal androgen production?
Hydrostatic pressure of the glomerular capillaries Under normal conditions, what is the main factor
(promotes filtration) that determines GFR?
Closure of the aortic valve indicates the termination The closure of what valve indicates the beginning of
of the ejection phase and the beginning of the the isovolumetric relaxation phase of the cardiac
isovolumetric relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle. cycle?
The aorta has the greatest velocity and the capillaries What vessels in the systemic circulation have the
have the slowest velocity. greatest and slowest velocity?
624
Thin extremities, fat collection on the upper back
and abdomen, hypertension, hypokalemic alkalosis,
Hypercortisolism (Cushing acne, hirsutism, wide purple striae, osteoporosis,
syndrome) hyperlipidemia, hyperglycemia with insulin
resistance, and protein depletion are all
characteristics of what disorder?
TLC, FRC, and RV have to be calculated. What three lung measurements must be calculated
(Remember, any volume that has RV as a component because they cannot be measured by simple
has be calculated.) spirometry?
625
What cell converts androgens to
Granulosa cell estrogens?
Subatmospheric pressure acts to expand the lung; Does subatmospheric pressure act to expand or
positive pressure acts to collapse the lung. collapse the lung?
626
Because the large drop in TPR is accompanied by a
Why is there a minimal change in BP during exercise
large increase in cardiac output, resulting in a
if there is a large drop in TPR?
minimal change in BP.
Insulin increases total body stores of protein, fat, and What is the effect of insulin on
CHOs. When you think insulin, you think storage. protein storage?
Calcium influx secondary to slow What triggers phase 0 of the action potential in a
channel opening ventricular pacemaker cell?
627
At the end of the PCT 25% of Na+, What are the following changes seen in the luminal
fluid by the time it leaves the PCT of the nephron? •
Cl-, K+ is left Percentage of Na+, Cl-, K+ left in the lumen
In the cytoplasm of the presynaptic nerve terminal; it Where does the synthesis of ACh
is catalyzed by choline acetyltransferase. occur?
628
delta-Cells; somatostatin has an inhibitory effect on What pancreatic islet cell secretes
alpha- and Beta-islet cells. somatostatin?
The chief cells of the parathyroid gland release PTH What cells of the parathyroid gland are simulated in
in response to hypocalcemia. response to hypocalcemia?
629
Intrapleural pressure at the base is -2.5 cm H2O At the base of the lung, what is the baseline
(more positive than the mean), resulting in a force to intrapleural pressure, and what force does it exert on
collapse the alveoli. the alveoli?
Normal thyroid hormones levels in the plasma are What hormone is necessary for
necessary for proper secretion of GH. Hypothyroid
patients have decreased GH secretions. normal GH secretion?
None; they are the storage sites for What hormones are produced in the median
eminence region of the hypothalamus and the
ADH and oxytocin. posterior pituitary gland?
630
What presynaptic receptor does NE use to terminate
alpha2-Receptors further neurotransmitter release?
T3 increases both heart rate and cardiac output by What is the effect of T3 on heart rate
increasing the number of Beta-receptors and their
sensitivity to catecholamines. and cardiac output?
Because it is the largest vessel and has the highest Why will turbulence first appear in the aorta in
velocity in systemic circulation patients with anemia?
631
What is the physiologically active
Free ionized Ca2+ form of Ca2+?
Metabolic rate and alveolar What are the two factors that affect
ventilation (main factor) alveolar PCO2 levels?
Peroxidase, which is also needed for iodination and What thyroid enzyme is needed for oxidation of I– to
coupling inside the follicular cell I'?
632
What is the most important stimulus for the
An increase in serum glucose levels secretion of insulin?
Preload (the load on the muscle in What term is described as the prestretch on the
the relaxed state) ventricular muscle at the end of diastole?
The carotid body, which monitors What peripheral chemoreceptor receives the most
arterial blood directly blood per gram of weight in the body?
Osmosis; water will diffuse from higher to lower What is the term for diffusion of water across a
water concentrations. semipermeable or selectively permeable membrane?
633
When do hCG concentrations peak
In the first 3 months in pregnancy?
634
Surface tension; in the alveoli, it is a force that acts to What is the greatest component of
collapse the lung. lung recoil?
True. In the distal colon, sweat glands, and salivary True or false? Aldosterone has a sodium-conserving
ducts, aldosterone has sodium-conserving effects. action in the distal colon.
635
What forms of fatty acids are absorbed from the
Short-chain fatty acids small intestine mucosa by simple diffusion?
Ovulation What is the term for the day after the LH surge in the
female cycle?
636
What disorder of aldosterone secretion is
Primary hypoaldosteronism characterized by • Decreased total body sodium, ECF
(Addison's disease) volume, plasma volume, BP, and pH; increased
potassium, renin, and AT II activity; no edema?
Lung recoil, being a force to collapse the lung, What is the name of the force that develops in the
increases as the lung enlarges during inspiration. wall of the lungs as they expand?
637
A decrease in cutaneous blood flow results from How does sympathetic stimulation to the skin result
constriction of the arterioles, and decreased in decreased blood flow and decreased blood
cutaneous blood volume results from constriction of volume? (Hint: what vessels are stimulated, and
the venous plexus. how?)
Renal plasma flow (decrease flow, What is the main factor determining
increase FF) FF?
638
If positive, hypotonic urine (osmolarity <300
If free water clearance (CH2O) is positive, what type
mOsm/L); if negative, hypertonic urine (osmolarity
of urine is formed? And if it is negative?
> 300 mOsm/L)>>
SA node; it is the reason it is the primary pacemaker What cell in the heart has the highest rate of
of the heart. automaticity?
NaCl is removed from the lumen to dilute the fluid What is pumped from the lumen of the ascending
leaving the loop of Henle. loop of Henle to decrease the osmolarity?
639
CCK stimulates the pancreas to release amylase, What is the pancreatic action of
lipase, and proteases for digestion. CCK?
The time it takes ACh to diffuse to the postjunctional What is the rate-limiting step in a
membrane conduction of a NMJ?
Excretion is greater than filtration for net secretion Is excretion greater than or less than filtration for net
to occur. secretion to occur?
640
Name the lung measurement based on the following
Tidal volume (VT) descriptions: • The amount of air that enters or
leaves the lung system in a single breath
641
Name the lung measurement based on the following
Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) descriptions: • Additional air that can be taken in
after normal inspiration
642
True or false? All of the hormones in the
TRUE hypothalamus and anterior pituitary gland are water
soluble.
643
Hypoventilation, which increases CO2, shifting the What is the respiratory compensation mechanism for
reaction to the right and increasing H+ metabolic alkalosis?
Increased androgen secretion at puberty drives the During puberty, what is the main drive for the
increased GH secretion. increased GH secretion?
Liver, kidneys, and pituitary gland via 5' deiodinase What three organs are responsible for peripheral
enzyme conversion of T4 to T3?
644
How many carbons do androgens
Androgens are 19-carbon steroids.
have?
Baseline apical intrapleural pressure is -10 cm H2O At the apex of the lung, what is the baseline
(more negative than the mean) resulting in a force to intrapleural pressure, and what force does it exert on
expand the alveoli. the alveoli?
True. Increased renin and AT II levels occur as a True or false? Renin secretion is increased in
result of the decreased production of aldosterone. 21-β-hydroxylase deficiency.
1. Decrease the radius of the vessel 2. Increase the What are the four ways to increase
length of the vessel 3. Increase the viscosity 4.
Decrease the number of parallel channels TPR?
645
Compliance; the more compliant a lung is, the easier What term is an index of the effort needed to expand
it is to inflate. the lungs (i.e., overcomes recoil)?
1. Liver 2. Kidney 3. Pituitary gland (via At which three sites in the body is T4
5'-deiodinase enzyme) converted to T3?
646
ADH is secreted in response to increased plasma ADH is secreted in response to what
osmolarity and decreased blood volume. two stimuli?
14 days in most women (Remember, the luteal phase How many days before the first day of menstrual
is always constant.) bleeding is ovulation?
The β-subunit; remember, the What subunit of hCG is used to detect whether a
α-subunit is nonspecific. patient is pregnant?
647
Oncotic pressure increases because What happens to capillary oncotic pressure with
of the removal of water. dehydration?
Decreasing potassium conductance, which results in What triggers phase 4 of the action potential in a
increased excitability ventricular pacemaker cell?
648
Gastrin-releasing peptide (GRP) stimulates G cells to What parasympathetic neurotransmitter of the GI
release Gastrin. (All G's) tract stimulates the release of gastrin?
Glomerular capillary pressure (increased glomerular What is the main factor determining
capillary pressure, increased GFR and vice versa) GFR?
649
Hypoventilation results in an increase in PCO2 levels What is the effect of hypoventilation on cerebral
and therefore an increase in blood flow. blood flow?
The parafollicular cells of the thyroid (C cells) release What cells of the thyroid gland are stimulated in
calcitonin in response to hypercalcemia. response to hypercalcemia?
Pulmonary shunt (i.e., pulmonary What does failure of PaO2 to increase with
embolism) supplemental O2 indicate?
650
The clearance of what substance is the gold standard
Para-aminohippurate (PAH) of renal plasma flow?
651
The ECF compartment always enlarges when there is
a net gain in total body water and decreases when What happens to extracellular volume with a net gain
there is a loss of total body water. Hydration status is in body fluid?
named in terms of the ECF compartment.
Resistance and vessel length are proportionally How are resistance and length
related. The greater the length of the vessel, the
greater the resistance is on the vessel. related regarding flow?
652
Filtration is greater than excretion for net Is filtration greater than or less than excretion for net
reabsorption to occur. reabsorption to occur?
Hormone-sensitive lipase, which breaks down What hormone, stimulated by epinephrine, results in
triglyceride into glycerol and free fatty acid an increase in lipolysis?
653
As the name indicates, there is no change in volume What happens to intraventricular pressure and
but there is an increase in pressure. volume during isovolumetric contraction?
Breathing high-pressure nitrogen over a long time What two factors lead to the development of the
and sudden decompression result in the bends. bends (caisson disease)?
654
With an increased rate of breathing the total
ventilation is greater than the alveolar ventilation.
What happens to total and alveolar ventilation with •
Rapid, shallow breathing increases dead space
Increased rate of breathing?
ventilation with little change in alveolar ventilation.
(This is hypoventilation).
655
Secondary hypocortisolism What pathophysiologic disorder is characterized by
the following changes in cortisol and ACTH? •
(pituitary) Cortisol decreased, ACTH decreased
Capillary flow and pressure increase with arteriolar What happens to flow and pressure in capillaries
dilation and decrease with arteriolar constriction. with arteriolar dilation? Arteriolar constriction?
656
What has occurred to the renal arterioles based on
the following changes in the GFR, RPF, FF, and
Constriction of afferent arteriole glomerular capillary pressure? • GFR ↓, RPF ↓, FF
normal, capillary pressure ↓
When the intra-alveolar pressure equals zero, there Which direction is air flowing when the
is no airflow. intra-alveolar pressure is zero?
657
Cholera toxin irreversibly activates the
cAMP-dependent chloride pumps of the small and What is the site of action of cholera
large intestine, producing a large volume of toxin?
chloride-rich diarrhea.
658
In the medulla; all the other Where in the kidney are the long loops of Henle and
structures are cortical. the terminal regions of the collecting ducts?
The p50 value does not change in either anemia or Is there a shift in p50 values with
polycythemia; the main change is the carrying
capacity of the blood. anemia? Polycythemia?
659
Estradiol What hormone level peaks 1 day before the surge of
LH and FSH in the female cycle?
True; it requires both a concentration gradient and True or false? Active protein transport requires a
ATP to work. concentration gradient.
Up to 72 hours; the ovum losses its ability to be Up to how many hours post ejaculation do sperm
fertilized 8 to 25 hours after release. retain their ability to fertilize the ovum?
660
True. They are evaginations of the surface True or false? In a skeletal muscle fiber, the interior
membranes and therefore extracellular. of the T-tubule is extracellular.
Arterial PCO2 levels are proportional to cerebral Under resting conditions, what is the main
blood flow. determinant of cerebral blood flow?
Atrial contraction Atrial, On the venous pressure curve, what do the following
Contraction, Venous waves represent? • A wave?
Ventricular contraction Atrial, On the venous pressure curve, what do the following
Contraction, Venous waves represent? • C wave?
Atrial filling (venous filling) Atrial, On the venous pressure curve, what do the following
Contraction, Venous waves represent? • V wave?
661
Osteoblast (Remember, blasts make, What cell type in the bone is responsible for bone
clasts take) deposition?
662
1. Flow independent of BP 2. Flow proportional to What are the three characteristics of
local metabolism 3. Flow independent of nervous
reflexes autoregulation?
Purkinje cell is the fastest, and the AV node is the What is the fastest-conducting fiber of the heart?
slowest. Slowest conduction fiber in the heart?
663
What are the primary neurotransmitters at the
Epinephrine following sites? • Chromaffin cells of the adrenal
medulla
664
Tip of the loop of Henle (1200 What region of the nephron has the
mOsm/L) highest osmolarity?
Acid is needed for the activation of pepsin and What pH (acidotic or alkalotic) is needed for
therefore needed for protein digestion. pepsinogen to pepsin conversion?
Stroke volume What is the term for the amount of blood expelled
from the ventricle per beat?
False. It does increase uterine synthesis of True or false? Oxytocin initiates rhythmic
prostaglandins, which increase uterine contractions. contractions associated with labor.
665
What enzyme converts androgens to
Aromatase estrogens?
The greater the myelination, the greater the How does myelination affect conduction velocity of
conduction velocity. an action potential?
1. Maltose 2. Maltotetrose 3. α-Limit dextrans (α-1, 6 What are the three end products of
binding) amylase digestion?
666
Hyperventilation, which decreases CO2, shifting the What is the respiratory compensation mechanism for
reaction to the left and decreasing H+ metabolic acidosis?
Viscosity and resistance are proportionally related. How are resistance and viscosity
The greater the viscosity, the greater the resistance is
on the vessel. related regarding flow?
667
Name the ventricular muscle membrane channel: •
Closed at rest; depolarization causes channels to
Voltage-gated sodium channel open quickly; will not respond to a second stimulus
until cell is repolarized.
Transmembrane potential (an What is the term for the potential difference across a
absolute number) cell membrane?
668
What adrenal enzyme deficiency can be summed up
21-β-Hydroxylase deficiency leads to hypotension,
as a mineralocorticoid deficiency, glucocorticoid
hyponatremia, and virilization.
deficiency, and an excess of adrenal androgens?
Increase in ECF osmolarity means a in decrease in When the ECF osmolarity increases, what happens to
ICF osmolarity, so cells shrink. cell size?
669
Hypokalemic metabolic acidosis occurs in colonic What acid-base disturbance occurs
diarrhea because of the net secretion of HCO3- and
potassium into the colonic lumen. in colonic diarrhea
Resistance decreases as resistors are In a parallel circuit, what happens to resistance when
added in parallel. a resistor is added in parallel
670
O2 affinity increases with a decrease in the p50, What happens to O2 affinity with a
making O2 more difficult to remove from the Hgb
molecule. decrease in p50?
If the ratio of the filtrate to plasma concentration of a If the ratio of a substance's filtrate and plasma
substance is equal, the substance is freely filtered by concentrations are equal, what is that substance's
the kidney. affect on the kidney?
1. Fat 2. Forty 3. Female 4. Familial What are the five F's associated with
5. Fertile gallstones?
False. It is a passive process due to decreased sex True or false? Menstruation is an active process due
hormones. to increased gonadal sex hormones?
671
Relaxation of the diaphragm increases the What happens to the intrapleural pressure when the
intrapleural pressure (becomes more positive). diaphragm relaxes?
672
Shortens What happens to the following during skeletal
muscle contraction? • I band
673
Simple diffusion; it does not use protein-mediated What is the main mechanism for exchange of
transport nutrients and gases across a capillary membrane?
674
Name the valve abnormality based on the following
criteria: • Back-filling into the left atrium during
Mitral insufficiency systole; increased v-wave, preload, left atrial volume,
and left ventricular filling
675
VIP is an inhibitory parasympathetic
What hormone controls relaxation of the lower
neurotransmitter that results in relaxation of the
esophageal sphincter during swallowing?
lower esophageal sphincter.
Pulse pressure What is the term for the difference between systolic
and diastolic pressures?
Osteoblasts, which in turn stimulate osteoclasts to What cell type of the bone has PTH
break down bone, releasing Ca2+ into the
interstitium. (Remember, blasts make, clasts take.) receptors?
676
What substance is secreted by parietal glands and is
Intrinsic factor (IF) required for life?
Afterload What is the term for the force the ventricular muscle
must generate to expel the blood into the aorta?
677
The urine becomes hypertonic because of water What happens to the tonicity of the urine with
reabsorption in the collecting duct. increased ADH secretion?
The V/Q ratio increases, since the area is ventilated What happens to V/Q ratio if a thrombus is lodged in
but hypoperfused as a result of the occlusion. the pulmonary artery?
678
What hormone has the following effects:
GH, especially IGF-1. GH also increases the chondrogenic in the epiphyseal end plates of bones;
incorporation of thymidine in DNA synthesis and increases AA transport for protein synthesis;
uridine in RNA synthesis. increases hydroxyproline (collagen); and increases
chondroitin sulfate synthesis?
679
T wave What component of an ECG is associated with the
following? • Ventricular repolarization
Pneumotaxic center (short, fast What respiratory center in the rostral pons has an
breaths) inhibitory affect on the apneustic center?
680
What primary acid-base disturbance is cause by a
Respiratory acidosis (summary: high CO2, high H+, decrease in alveolar ventilation (increasing CO2
slightly high HCO3-) levels) resulting in the reaction shifting to the right
and increasing H+ and HCO3- levels?
A low-resistance system is formed by resistors added What type of resistance system (i.e., high or low) is
in parallel. formed when resistors are added in parallel?
681
0.21; it is a fancy way of saying 21%
What is the FiO2 of room air?
of the air is O2.
The conversion of CHO to pregnenolone via the What is the rate-limiting step in the production of
enzyme desmolase steroids?
Primary polydipsia; patients with diabetes insipidus In the water deprivation test, does a patient with
will continue to produce large volumes of dilute reduced urine flow have primary polydipsia or
urine. diabetes insipidus?
True; the greater the fat, the less the True or false? There is an inverse relationship
total body water. between fat content and total body water.
682
The negative charge inhibits the filtration of protein What is the role of the negative charge on the
anions. filtering membrane of the glomerular capillaries?
Bile salts are actively reabsorbed in Where in the GI tract does the reabsorption of bile
the distal ileum. salts take place?
1. Plicae circularis (3 times) 2. Villi (30 times) 3. What three structures increase the surface area of the
Microvilli (600 times) GI tract?
683
150 mcg/day is the minimal daily intake needed. How much dietary iodine is necessary to maintain
Most people ingest 500 mcg/day. normal thyroid hormone secretion?
Free hormone levels remain constant, and the bound What happens to free hormone levels when the liver
hormone level changes with a decrease in binding decreases production and release of binding
hormones. proteins?
684
Estrone What type of estrogen is produced in peripheral
tissues from androgens?
Promotes systemic venous return into the chest and What changes does more negative intrathoracic
increases the caliber and volume of the pulmonary pressure cause to systemic venous return and to the
vessels pulmonary vessels?
False. Right-sided valves are the first to open and True or false? Right-sided valves close before the
last to close. valves on the left side of the heart.
685
What is the order of attachment of O2 to
Order of attachment is site 1, 2, 3, 4, and for release
Hgb-binding sites in the lung? Order of release from
is 4, 3, 2, 1.
the binding sites in the tissue?
With arteriolar constriction both the flow and What happens to blood flow and pressure
pressure downstream decrease. downstream with local arteriolar constriction?
True. They have no gates, so by definition they are True or false? Ungated channels are
always open. always open.
686
What component of the ANS is responsible for
Parasympathetics (parasympathetics point,
dilation of the blood vessels in the erectile tissue of
sympathetics shoot)
the penis, resulting in an erection?
They are inversely proportional to each other; as How are pulse pressure and
pulse pressure increases, compliance decreases. compliance related?
687
What three substances stimulate
ACh, histamine, and gastrin
parietal cells?
True. Without ADH hypotonic urine True or false? Without ADH the collecting duct
would be formed. would be impermeable to water.
Depolarization is from apex to base and from How does ventricular depolarization take place, base
endocardium to epicardium. to apex or vice versa?
PTH increases Ca2+ reabsorption in the DCT of the What are effects of PTH in the
kidney and decreases PO4- reabsorption in the PCT. kidney?
688
It is produced by the preload on the muscle prior to Regarding muscle mechanics, how is passive tension
contraction. produced?
689
Transport maximum (Tm) occurs when all function What is used as an index of the number of
carriers are saturated and therefore is an index of the functioning carriers for a substance in active
number of functioning carriers. reabsorption in the kidney?
690
True. They are also necessary for True or false? Thyroid hormones are necessary for
normal brain maturation. normal menstrual cycles.
691
The greater the cell diameter, the greater the How does cell diameter affect the conduction velocity
conduction velocity. of an action potential?
692
Bronchial asthma (eosinophil Charcot-Leyden
membranes)
crystals
Squamous cell
carcinoma Keratin pearls
Bence-Jones
Multiple myeloma
proteinuria
693
Bladder carcinoma RBCs in the urine
Acute
RBC casts in the urine
glomerulonephritis
694
Gastric carcinoma Signet ring cells
695
Histiocytosis X Birbeck granules
696
Turner syndrome Streaky ovaries
697
Toxic or viral hepatitis Councilman bodies
Osteogenesis
imperfecta Blue sclera
698
Neuroblastoma Homer-Wright rosettes
Glioblastoma
Pseudopalisades
multiforme
699
Alzheimer disease Senile plaques
700
Name the most common type. •
Dyslexia Learning disability
Anxiety disorders; for men it is Name the most common type. • Psychiatric disorder
substance abuse. in women of all ages
701
Name the most common cause. •
Alcohol abuse Chronic pancreatitis
702
Coronavirus Name the most common cause. • A cold in the winter
and summer
Rhinoviruses for summer and fall; coronaviruses for Which virus is the MCC of a cold in the summer and
winter and spring fall? Winter and spring?
703
Name the most common type or cause. • Sudden
Ventricular fibrillation (V fib) cardiac death
704
Name the most common type or cause. • Acute
Staphylococcus aureus bacterial endocarditis
705
Alcohol abuse Name the most common type or cause. • Reversible
HTN in the United States
706
Streptococcus Name the most common type or
cause. • Lobar pneumonia
pneumoniae
707
Name the most common type or cause. • Liver
Alcoholic cirrhosis transplantation in adults
708
Name the most common type or
IgA nephropathy cause. • GN in the world
709
Rotavirus Name the most common type or cause. • Diarrhea in
children
710
Name the most common type or
Polycystic ovaries cause. • Anovulation
711
Name the most common type or cause. •
Hashimoto thyroiditis Noniatrogenic hypothyroidism in the United States
Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B Name the most common type or cause. • Neonatal
Streptococcus, or GBS) septicemia and meningitis
712
Pneumococcus Name the most common type or cause. • Meningitis
in adults
Enteropathogenic Escherichia coli (Rotavirus is the Name the most common type or cause. • Infantile
MCC overall.) bacterial diarrhea
713
Name the most common type or cause. • Urethritis in
Staphylococcus saprophyticus a young, newly sexually active individual
714
Neonatal respiratory distress Name the MCC of death. • In
syndrome (NRDS) neonates
715
Cancer What is the second leading cause of death in the
United States?
For males it's prostate cancer, and for females it's What is the second leading cause of cancer deaths in
breast cancer. males? In females?
716
Homicide. It is also the leading cause of death in What is the MCC of death in black
black females aged 15 to 24. males aged 15 to 24?
Neisseria gonorrhoeae and What are the two MCC of acute epididymitis in
Chlamydia trachomatis males? • Less than 35 years old
Escherichia coli and Pseudomonas What are the two MCC of acute epididymitis in
sp. males? • More than 35 years old
717
What is the MCC of the following endocarditis
Streptococcus viridans scenarios? • Post dental work
718
Name the MCC. • Pneumonia in a
Pseudomonas sp. neutropenic burn patient
719
Cryptococcus What is the MCC of the following meningitides? • In
patients who have AIDS or are immunocompromised
720
Listeria What is the MCC of the following meningitides? • In
renal transplant patients
monocytogenes
721
What is the most common one? •
VSD Congenital cardiac anomaly
722
What is the most common one? •
Temporal arteritis Vasculitis
723
What is the most common one? • Cardiac anomaly
Coarctation of the aorta in Turner syndrome
724
What is the most common one? • Neoplastic tumor
Metastatic carcinomas in the lungs
725
Diffuse proliferative What is the most common one? • Renal pathology in
patients with SLE
GN
Adenocarcinoma (because of Barrett What is the most common one? Esophageal cancer in
esophagus) the United States
726
What is the most common one? • Site of ischemia in
Splenic flexure the GI tract
Anterior wall of the first part of the What is the most common one? • Location of a
duodenum duodenal ulcer
Lesser curvature of the antrum of What is the most common one? • Location of a
the stomach gastric ulcer
727
Sigmoid colon What is the most common one? • Site for colonic
diverticula
728
Mixed (both cholesterol and What is the most common one? • Stone type
calcium) associated with cholecystitis
729
What is the most common one? •
Clear cell Renal cell cancer type
730
What is the most common one? • Subtype of
Nodular sclerosis Hodgkin lymphoma
731
What is the most common one? •
Prolactinoma Pituitary adenoma
732
What is the most common one? •
Breast Malignant tumor in women
733
What is the most common one? •
Serocystadenoma Benign tumor of the ovary
734
What is the most common one? • Malignant tumor of
Invasive ductal carcinoma the breast
735
What is the most common one? • Malignant
Cystadenocarcinoma carcinoma of the ovaries
736
What is the most common one? •
Seminoma Germ cell tumor in men
Yolk sac tumor What is the most common one? • Testicular tumor in
infants and children
737
What is the most common one? •
Retinoblastoma Eye tumor in children
738
Bronchogenic What is the most common one? • Tumor in
individuals exposed to asbestos
carcinoma
739
Hematogenous What is the most common one? • Route for
infectious arthritis
740
What is the most common one? •
Metastatic Bone tumor
741
What is the most common one? •
Metastatic Brain tumor
In children, the fourth ventricle; in adults, the lateral What is the most common one? • Location of
ventricle or spinal cord ependymomas in children
742
What is the most common one? •
Superficial spreading melanoma
Type of melanoma
Left posterolateral side of the diaphragm, usually What is the most common one? Site of congenital
resulting in pulmonary hypoplasia. diaphragmatic hernias
Direct; in males less than 50 years old indirect What is the most common one? • Type of hernia seen
hernias are the most common type. in males more than 50 years old
Between the renal arteries and at the bifurcation of What is the most common one? • Sites for abdominal
the abdominal aorta aorta aneurysm
743
The bifurcation of the abdominal What is the most common one? • Site for
aorta atherosclerotic plaques in the abdominal aorta
On the superior body of the What is the most common site for implantation of
posterior wall of the uterus the blastocyst?
744
0157:H7 What is the most common serotype of
enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli?
In men it is prostate cancer, and in women it is What is the most common cancer
breast cancer. diagnosed in men? In women?
Lung and bronchus What is the second most common cancer diagnosed
in both males and females?
cancer
Prostate and lung cancer, What are the two leading causes of cancer-related
respectively death in men?
745
What are the two leading causes of cancer-related
Breast and lung cancer, respectively. death in women?
For males, HTN; for females, What is the most common primary diagnosis
pregnancy. resulting in an office visit for males? For females?
Chlamydia; gonorrhea is second (Remember, it is What is the most common disease or infection
mandatory to report STDs to the CDC.) reported to the CDC?
746
Name the most common reported
Gonorrhea STD. • In males
747
What is the most common form of non-Hodgkin
Follicular lymphoma lymphoma in the United States?
90% of benign myxomas arise within the left atrium What is the most common cardiac tumor? In what
near the fossa ovalis. chamber does it most commonly arise?
748
The scaphoid is the most commonly fractured and What carpal bone is most commonly
the lunate is the most commonly dislocated. fractured? Dislocated?
Alcohol and its related problems cost the country What is the costliest health care problem in the
approximately $100 billion a year. United States?
Alcohol. Nearly 10% of adults have a What is the most abused drug across
problem with alcohol. all age groups?
749
What is the most common lethal AR disorder
Cystic fibrosis affecting white Americans?
Down syndrome (it is slightly more common than What is the most common genetic cause of mental
fragile X syndrome.) retardation?
Trisomy 12 (nearly 50% of patients with CLL have What is the most common chromosomal
abnormal karyotypes.) abnormality associated with CLL?
750
Name the most common one. • Chromosomal
Klinefelter syndrome disorder involving sex chromosomes
751
Name the associated chromosomal translocation. •
Chromosome 15, 17 Acute promyelocytic leukemia (M3)
752
Name the associated chromosome. •
Chromosome 4p Huntington disease
753
Name the associated chromosome. •
Chromosome 7 Cystic fibrosis
754
Name the associated chromosome. •
Chromosome 21 Down syndrome
755
What is the most common lysosomal
Gaucher disease storage disorder?
Patients with cystic fibrosis have a mutation in the What chromosome is mutant in
chloride channel protein in the CFTR gene on
chromosome 7. patients with cystic fibrosis?
756
Chromosome Name the associated chromosome. •
Albinism
11p
757
Thymine (B1) What vitamin is a component of the coenzyme
thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP)?
758
Iron (Fe) What mineral, via excessive depositions in the liver,
causes hemochromatosis?
Cyanocobalamin (B12) deficiency (Folic acid What vitamin deficiency produces homocystinuria
deficiency has only homocystinuria as a sign.) and methylmalonic aciduria?
759
Pyruvate, acetyl CoA, and propionyl What are the three carboxylase
CoA carboxylase enzymes that require biotin?
760
What mineral deficiency involves
Copper deficiency blood vessel fragility?
761
Pyridoxine Name the antidote. • Isoniazid
762
Ethyl alcohol Name the antidote. • Ethylene glycol
763
Protamine sulfate Name the antidote. • Heparin
764
Methylene blue Name the antidote. • Nitrates
765
The triad of respiratory depression, pinpoint pupils, A known IV drug abuser goes to the ER with
and coma in an IV drug abuser suggests opioid respiratory depression and pinpoint pupils and in a
overdose (e.g., heroin), and you should give semicomatose state. What overdose do you suspect,
naloxone. and what agent will you give to reverse its effects?
766
What are the first signs of overdose
Nystagmus and ataxia from phenobarbitals?
Constipation and What are the two side effects of opioids to which the
user will not develop tolerance?
miosis
767