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Under the important questions of Physical Education a set of 50 questions with solution is given below.
1. Which organ of the Alimentary canal is known as 'Graveyard of Red Blood Cells' ?
(A) Liver (B) Pancreas (C) Spleen (D) Duodenum (Ans : A)
2. The longest muscle in the body is–

(A) Deltoid (B) Iliopsoas (C) Pectoralis Major (D) Sartorius(Ans : D)
3. Which of the following is a scalar quantity ?

(A) Mass (B) Weight (C) Velocity (D) Gravity (Ans : A)
4. White muscle fibers are better adopted to perform–

(A) Slow contraction (B) Fast contraction (C) Medium contraction (D) No contraction (Ans : A)
5. In a cardiac cycle what is the ratio of ventricle systole and ventricle diastole?
(A) 0.1 sec/0.7 sec (B) 0.2 sec/0.6 sec (C) 0.3 sec/0.5 sec (D) 0.4 sec/0.4 sec (Ans : C)
6. Which one of the following is not considered as an organisation?

(A) Clubs (B) Schools (C) Associations (D) Society (Ans : A)
7. The camp crafts involve–

(A) Motor skills (B) Racial skills (C) Mental skills (D) Mechanical skills (Ans : C)
8. Which one of the following is not connected with the concept of motivation?
(A) Drive (B) Sympathy (C) Need (D) Motive (Ans : A)
Read More : 50+ Multiple Choice Physical Education Questions
9. The another name for percussion manipulation is–

(A) Petrissage (B) Kneeding (C) Pressure (D) Tapotment (Ans : D)
10. Trypsin helps in the digestion of–

(A) Vitamins (B) Fats (C) Protein (D) Carbohydrates (Ans : C)
11. For effective administration, the physical education teacher must possess–
(A) High qualification (B) Good personality (C) Technical Knowledge and skills (D) Teaching ability (Ans
: C)
12. Adrenalin, which is an excitatary hormone is secreted by–

(A) Pancreas (B) Gonads (C) Thyroid (D) Suprarenal glands (Ans : A)
13. The degree of uniformity with which various tester score the same test is found through–
(A) Validity (B) Objectivity (C) Reliability (D) Norms (Ans : D)
14. The National Malaria Eradicating Programme was launched in India in the year–
(A) 1973 (B) 1963 (C) 1953 (D) 1951 (Ans : C)
15. Structural and functional unit of kidney is–

(A) Nephron (B) Neuron (C) Mitochondria (D) Epidermis (Ans : A)
16. The most suitable class formation for teaching shotput is a–

(A) Circle (B) Triangle (C) Semicircle (D) Square (Ans : C)
17. Top spin causes–

(A) Higher rebound (B) Lower rebound (C) Rebound to the left (D) Rebound to the right (Ans : B)
18. 'ATLAS OF MAN' which describes the body types was written by–
(A) Heath (B) Carter (C) Kretchmer (D) Sheldon (Ans : D)
19. Upto the age of Puberty the sex hormones are secreted by–
(A) Pituitary gland (B) Adrenal gland (C) Testes (D) Ovaries (Ans : A)
20. Dynamometer is used to measure–

(A) Flexibility (B) Agility (C) Strength (D) Speed (Ans : C)
21. Bhartiyam' was conducted to promote–

(A) Indigenous games (B) Dands and Baithaks (C) Free hand exercises (D) Mass rhythmic activities (Ans
: D)
22. The knot used to tie a bandage is known as–

(A) Clove hitch (B) Granny knot (C) Half hitch (D) Reef knot (Ans : D)
23. Organisation means 'Planning the work' and administration means–

(A) Controlling (B) Processing information (C) Decision-making (D) Working the plan (Ans : A)
24. Which country is said to be the pioneer in starting the Recreation movement in the world?
(A) USA (B) England (C) China (D) Germany (Ans : A)
25. Which deficiency in the blood causes inflammation in body parts?

(A) White Blood Cells (B) Red Blood Cells (C) Platelets (D) Antibodies (Ans : B)
26. Action Research in Physical Education is concerned with–
(A) Immediate class-room problems (B) Experimental studies (C) Correlation studies (D) Descriptive
studies (Ans : A)
27. A test is considered to be reliable if it has–

(A) Comparability (B) Continuity (C) Commonality (D) Consistancy (Ans : D)
28. Standard Deviation represents spread of scores around–

(A) Mode (B) Medium (C) Mean (D) Range (Ans : C)
29. Of the given, which protein filament is 50 to 55% in the muscle?

(A) Actin (B) Myosin (C) Tropomyosin (D) Actomyosin (Ans : B)
30. Which of the endocrine gland disappears or is reduced to a very small size after maturity ?
(A) Gonads (B) Pituitary (C) Thymus (D) Thyroid (Ans : C)
31. All reflex activities are controlled by–

(A) Pons (B) Spinal cord (C) Cerebellum (D) Cerebrum (Ans : B)
32. Who considered Psychology as the "Science of activities for an individual in relation to his
environment" ?
(A) Woodworth (B) William James (C) Watson (D) Robert Singer (Ans : A)
33. Posture is an index of–

(A) Personality (B) Health (C) Character (D) Fitness (Ans : A)
34. Goniometer is an equipment which is used to measure–

(A) Strength of Muscle (B) Angle of Joint (C) Blood Glucose level (D) Blood Lactate (Ans : B)
35. Profuse sweating, during strenuous physical activity causes the loss of–
(A) Sodium chloride (B) Potassium (C) Calcium (D) Glycogen (Ans : A)
36. In which Olympic did women participate for the first time?
(A) 1896 Athens (B) 1900 Paris (C) 1920 Antwerp (D) 1928 Amsterdam (Ans : B)
37. The earliest person known to have invented the system of body classification was–
(A) Sheldon (B) Kretchmer (C) Hall (D) Hippocrates (Ans : A)
38. Pre-school children learn things by–

(A) Imitation (B) Practice (C) Watching T.V. (D) Repetition (Ans : A)
39. The two great dangers of wounds are–

(A) Bleeding and infection (B) Pain and swelling (C) Shock and shivering (D) Burnign and loss of tissue
(Ans : A)
40. In the school setting the major channel of publicity for the physical education programmes is–
(A) Teachers (B) Students (C) Advertisement (D) Intramurals (Ans : D)
41. Who said 'Recreation is not a matter of motions but emotions' ?

(A) Joseph Lee (B) Ramney (C) John Dewey (D) John Hizinga (Ans : B)
42. The functional efficiency of a muscle depends upon its–

(A) Nerve stimulation (B) Girth (C) Fibre quality (D) Tonus (Ans : C)
43. If the mean of five scores is 25 and standard deviation is 0, what will be the value of fifth score?
(A) 22 (B) 23 (C) 24 (D) 25 (Ans : D)
44. Which of the following conditions is not a cause for the occurrence of plateau in learning?
(A) Fatigue (B) Monotony (C) Distraction (D) Physiological limit (Ans : D)
45. From the view point of Sociology, which of the following factors is the most important one in the
development of human personality ?
(A) Money (B) Art (C) Literature (D) Culture (Ans : D)
46. The most important consideration in selecting the Sports equip-mentis–

(A) Price (B) Source (C) Utility (D) Quality (Ans : D)
47. Hypothalamus is associated with the control of–

(A) Motor actions (B) Thinking (C) Glands (D) Emotions (Ans : C)
48. Which of the following game was developed from 'The English Rounders' by Abner Daubleday in
New York in 1839 ?
(A) Basketball (B) Volleyball (C) Netball (D) Baseball (Ans : D)
49. Cognitive process is concerned with–

(A) Knowing Experience (B) Feeling Experience (C) Striving Experience (D) Thinking Experience (Ans : A)
50. From the viewpoint of Psychology, 'Sympathy' is–

(A) An instinct (B) An emotion (C) A general innate tendency (D) A reflex action (Ans : A)
Under the important questions of Physical Education a set of 50 questions with solution is given below.
51. Sigmund Freud is known to be the Father of the–
(A) Theory of Motivation (B) Theory of Psychoanalysis
(C) Theory of connectionism (D) Theory of parallelism (Ans : B)
52. The number of bones in the Cranium is–

(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 10 (Ans : C)
53. Ball and Socket types of Joint is–

(A) Fixed joint (B) Uniaxial joint (C) Bi - axial joint (D) Tri-axial joint (Ans : D)
54. During exercise, the Cardiac Minute Volume in the average man may rise from four (4) litres to–
(A) 10 litres (B) 15 litres (C) 20 litres (D) 25 litres (Ans : B)
55. Increase in muscle mass due to heavy weight training is called–

(A) Muscular Hypotrophy (B) Muscular Hypertrophy (C) Muscular Atrophy (D) Haematoma (Ans : B)
56. The richest source of protein is–

(A) Pulses (B) Groundnut (C) Soya bean (D) Egg (Ans : C)
57. Who amongst the following are found to be most agile?

(A) High Jumper Athlete (B) Gymnasts (C) Swimmers (D) Divers (Ans : B)
Read More : 50+ Physical Education Questions and Answer
58. Which of the following systems of the body is the focal point in movement?
(A) Circulatory system (B) Nervous system (C) Respiratory system (D) Muscular system (Ans : D)
59. Which of the following are considered as the Social Inheritance of Man?
(A) Traditions (B) Habits (C) Conditional reflexes (D) Religious practices (Ans : C)
60. Which one of the following concepts reflects the true nature of Modem Physical Education?
(A) Physical training (B) Science of Movement (C) Movement Education (D) Athleticism (Ans : A)
61. How many major Salivary glands are there in the human body?
(A) Two (B) Four (C) Six (D) Eight (Ans : C)
62. Administration and organization of Physical Education should be based on the principles of–
(A) Activity (B) Bio-mechanics (C) Humanity (D) Teaching (Ans : D)
63. In comparison to the Greeks, the Romans were more–

(A) Authoritarian (B) Utilitarian (C) Democratic (D) Aristocratic (Ans : B)
64. Which artery carries the supply of blood towards heart?

(A) Carotid artery (B) Coronary artery (C) Pulmonary artery (D) Radial artery (Ans : C)
65. Scoliosis is a postural deformity related with–

(A) foot (B) leg (C) vertebral column (D) hand (Ans : C)
66. The Law of acceleration is also known as–

(A) Law of inertia (B) Law of action and reaction (C) Law of momentum (D) Boyle's law (Ans : C)
67. Which of the following factors is considered to be most important in the construction of an indoor gymnasium ?
(A) Direction (B) Light (C) Ventilation (D) Floor (Ans : C)
68. Ultra Microscopic viruses are the main cause of–

(A) Malaria (B) Measles (C) Mumps (D) Cholera (Ans : C)
69. Sphygmomanometer is used to measure–

(A) Blood Haemoglobin (B) Blood Cholesterol (C) Blood Pressure (D) Blood Volume (Ans : C)
70. Which of the following is a two Joint muscle?

(A) Bicep brachii (B) Deltoid (C) Iliopsoas (D) Sartorius (Ans : D)
71. Harvard step test is a test for measuring–

(A) Leg strength (B) Cardio vascular endurance (C) Agility (D) Speed of movement (Ans : B)
72. The back thigh muscles are also known as–

(A) Hamstring (B) Gluteal (C) Gastro enemius (D) Quadricep (Ans : A)
73. The blood vessel which brings blood to the heart from the lower part of the body is known as–
(A) Inferior vena cava (B) Superior vena cava (C) Pulmonary vein (D) Pulmonary artery (Ans : A)
74. Which of the following activities measures dynamic strength ?

(A) Vertical Jump (B) Short distance run (C) Forward Roll (D) Rope climbing (Ans : D)
75. First step of Budget preparation is–

(A) To search income (B) Estimate Expenditure (C) Planning (D) Facilities and personnel (Ans : C)
76. The literal meaning of the word Philosophy is–

(A) Love of criticism (B) Love of wisdom (C) Love of knowledge (D) Love of God (Ans : B)
77. Resolution of National Sports Policy was laid in both Houses of the Indian Parliament on–
(A) November 19,1982 (B) August 21, 1984 (C) May 1, 1987 (D) June 20, 1991 (Ans : B)
78. Physical activity is basically a–

(A) Social attribute (B) Psychological tendency
(C) Biological necessity (D) Philosophical concept (Ans : C)
79. According to the German Concept of Physical Education, the Mother of all Games and Sports is–
(A) Swimming (B) Gymnastic (C) Athletics (D) Combatives (Ans : B)
80. In the technical terms, muscle pull is known as–

(A) Sprain (B) Strain (C) Abrasion (D) Contusion (Ans : B)
81. The 50th percentile is also known as–

(A) Mean (B) Median (C) Mode (D) Standard Deviation (Ans : A)
82. The total number of officials required for a kho-kho match is–
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7 (Ans : C)
83. Schiller and Spancer are associated with one of the following theories of play–
(A) Anticipation (B) Surplus energy (C) Recapitulation (D) Recreation (Ans : C)
84. One of the following is an excellent example of Condyloid Joint–

(A) Shoulder Joint (B) Hip Joint (C) Wrist Joint (D) Neck Joint (Ans : C)
85. In which activity Lactic acid system activated?
(A) 100 mts (B) 400 mts (C) 10,000 mts (D) 20 km walk (Ans : A)
86. In the Childhood, individual's behaviour is mostly influenced by–

(A) Community (B) School (C) Peer Group (D) Family (Ans : D)
87. One deformity may lead to the development of another, knock knees may be caused as a result of–
(A) Flat foot (B) Bow Legs (C) Genu Legs (D) Scoliosis (Ans : B)
88. Which is not a Primary Motive?

(A) Affection (B) Hunger (C) Sex (D) Love (Ans : C)
89. Which is the smallet bone in the human body?

(A) Pisiform (B) Scaphoid (C) Stapes (D) Malleus (Ans : C)
90. The most important factor in the organisation of recreation is–

(A) Materials (B) Leadership (C) Facilities (D) Planning (Ans : C)
91. The amount of blood pumped by heart in one beat is called–

(A) Tidal volume (B) Stroke volume (C) Blood volume (D) Residual volume (Ans : B)
92. Who is said to be the Father of Philosophy of Idealism?

(A) Plato (B) Socrates (C) Aristotle (D) Galan (Ans : B)
93. A Physical Education Teacher now-a-days is essentially–

(A) An Instructor (B) A Movement Educator (C) A Drill Master (D) All of the above (Ans : D)
94. Which of the following terms denotes the 'Toughening of body' as its major objectives?
(A) Physical culture (B) Play (C) Drill (D) Physical training (Ans : D)
95. The Instrument to measure height is called–

(A) Vernier caliper (B) Dynamometer (C) Stadiometer (D) Goniometer (Ans : C)
96. Supination and Pronation are the movements of–

(A) Tibia – Febula Joint (B) Carpal – Metacarpal Joints
(C) Radio – Ulnar Joint (D) Tarcel – Metatarcel Joint (Ans : B)
97. Geographical and climatic conditions should be considered when planning–

(A) Indoor activities (B) Outdoor activities (C) Child activities (D) Old people activities (Ans : B)
98. The duration of Russel-Launge Volleyball test is–

(A) 15 sec (B) 30 sec (C) 45 see (D) 60 see (Ans : C)
99. Recreation Movement in India was started by–

(A) De Mellow (B) G. D. Sondhi (C) H. C. Buck (D) Vaidya P.R. (Ans : B)
100. The name of valve between left atrium and left ventricle is–
(A) Tricuspid valve (B) Aortic valve (C) Pulmonary valve (D) Mitral valve (Ans : D)
One Word Substitution with Meaning
1. Audience – a number of people listening to a lecture
2. Altruist – one, who considers the happiness and well-being of others first
3. Atheist – a person who does not believe in God
4. Anthropologist – one, who studies the evolution of mankind
5. Autocracy – government by one person
6. Autobiography – the life history of a person written by himself
7. Amputate – to cut off a part of a person's body which is infected
8. Arsenal – a place for ammunition and weapons
9. Archives – a place where government or public records are kept
10. Amateur – a man who does a thing for pleasure and not as a profession
11. Aristocracy – government by the nobles

12. Aquatic – animals/plants ere which live in water
13. Amphibian – animals which live both on land and sea
14. Ambidexter – one, who can use either hand with ease
15. Alimony – allowance paid to wife on legal separation
16. Anthology – a collection of poems
17. Abdication – voluntary giving up of throne in favour of someone
18. Arbitrator – a person, appointed by two parties to solve a dispute
19. Astronomer – a person, who studies stars, planets and other heavenly bodies
20. Astrologer – a person who studies the influence of heavenly bodies on human beings
21. Anthology – a collection of poems
22. Axiom – a statement which is accepted as true without proof
23. Agenda – a list of headings of the business to be transacted at a meeting
24. Anarchist – one, who is out to destroy all governance, law and order
25. Almanac – an annual calender with positions of stars
26. Bigamy – the practice of having two wives or husbands at a time
27. Bibliophile – a lover and collector of books
28. Bouquet – a collection of flowers
29. Bureaucracy – government by the officials
30. Belligerent – a person, nation that is involved in war
31. Biennial – an event which happens once in two years
32. Blasphemy – the act of speaking disrespectfully about sacred things
33. Creche – a nursery where children are cared for while their parents are at work
34. Cosmopolitan – a person who regards whole world as his country
35. Chauffeur – one, who is employed to drive a motor car
36. Curator – a person incharge of a museum
37. Carnivorous – one, who lives on flesh
38. Cannibal – one, who feeds on human flesh
39. Contemporaries – belonging to or living at the same time
40. Cloak room – a place for luggage at railway station
41. Cynosure – centre of attraction
42. Connoisseur – a critical judge of any art and craft
43. Crusade – a religious war
44. Choreographer – one, who teaches dancing
45. Cacographist – a person, who is bad in spellings
46. Calligraphist – a person, who writes beautiful handwriting
47. Cynic – one, who sneers at the aims and beliefs of his fellow men
48. Convalescent – one, who is recovering health
49. Cavalry – soldiers, who fight on horse back
50. Cardiologist – a person, who is specialist in heart diseases
51. Cartographer – one, who draws maps
52. Dormitory – the sleeping rooms with several beds especially in a college or institution
53. Drawn – a game that results neither in victory nor in defeat
54. Elegy – a poem of lamentation
55. Epitaph – words which are inscribed on the grave or the tomb in the memory of the buried
56. Ephemeral – lasting one day
57. Effeminate – a person who is womanish
58. Emigrant – a person who leaves his own country and goes to live in another
59. Edible – fit to be eaten
60. Egotism – practice of talking too much about oneself
61. Encyclopaedia – a book that contains information on various subjects
62. Epicure – one, who is devoted to the pleasure of eating and drinking
63. Florist – one, who deals-in flowers
64. Fastidious – one, who is very -selective in one's taste
65. Fanatic or Bigot – one, who is filled with excessive and mistaken enthusiasm in religious matters
66. Fatal – causing death
67. Fatalist – one, who believes in fate
68. Facsimile – an exact copy of handwriting, printing etc
69. Fauna – the animals of a certain region
70. Flora – the plants of a particular region
71. Fratricide – murder of brother
72. Fugitive – one, who runs away from justice or the law
73. Fragile – easily broken
74. Feminist – one, who works for the welfare of the women
75. Granary – a place for grains
76. Genocide – murder of race
77. Gregarious – animals which live in flocks
78. Hangar – a place for housing aeroplanes
79. Hive – a place for bees
80. Horticulture – the art of cultivating and managing gardens
81. Homicide – murder of man
82. Hearse – a vehicle which is used to carry a dead body
83. Hedonist – one, who believes that pleasure is the chief good (sensual)
84. Horizon – a line at which the earth and the sky seem to meet
85. Honorary – holding office without any remuneration
86. Heretic – one, who acts against religion
87. Herbivorous – one, who lives on herbs
88. Insolvent/Bankrupt – a person who is unable to pay his debts
89. Inaudible – a sound that cannot be heard
90. Inaccessible – that cannot be easily approached
91. Incorrigible – incapable of being corrected
92. Irreparable – incapable of being repaired
93. Illegible – incapable of being read
94. Inevitable – incapable of being avoided
95. Impracticable – incapable of being practised
96. Immigrant – a person who comes to one country from another in order to settle there
97. Invincible – one, too strong to be overcome
98. Indelible – that cannot be erased
99. Incognito – travelling under another name than one's own
100. Indefatigable – one, who does not tire easily
101. Infallible – one, who is free from all mistakes and failures
102. Invigilator – one, who supervises in the examination hall
103. Itinerant – one, who journeys from place to place
104. Infirmary – a home or room used for ill or injured people
105. Infanticide – murder of an infant
106. Infantry – soldiers, who fight on foot
107. Inflammable – liable to catch fire easily
108. Interregnum – a period of interval between two reigns or governments
109. Kennel – a place for dogs
110. Lunatic asylum – a home for lunatics
111. Lexicographer – one, who compiles a dictionary
112. Loquacious – one, who talks continuously
113. Linguist – one, who is skilled in foreign languages
114. Lapidist – one, who cuts precious stones
115. Misanthrope – a hater of mankind
116. Misogamist – one, who hates marriage
117. Mortuary – a place, where dead bodies are kept for post mortem
118. Mercenery – working only for the sake of money
119. Matricide – murder of mother
120. Martyr – one, who dies for a noble cause
121. Maiden speech – the first speech delivered by a person
122. Mint – a place where coins are made
123. Misogynist – a hater of womankind
124. Morgue – a place, where dead bodies are kept for identification
125. Mammals – animals which give milk
126. Monogamy – the practice of marrying one at a time
127. Missionary – a person, who is sent to propagate religion
128. Numismatics – the study of coins
129. Namesake – a person having same name as another
130. Nostalgia – a strong desire to return home, home sickness
131. Novice or Tyro – one, new to anything, inexperienced
132. Narcotic – a medicine for producing sleep
133. Optimist – a person who looks at the brighter side of things
134. Orphan – one, who has lost parents
135. Omnipresent – one, who is present everywhere
136. Omnipotent – one, who is all powerful
137. Omniscient – one, who knows everything
138. Opaque – that which cannot be seen through
139. Obituary – an account in the newspaper of the funeral of the one deceased
140. Orphanage – a home for orphans
141. Obstetrician – one, who is skilled in midwifery
142. Ostler – one, who looks after horses at an inn
143. Omnivorous – one, who eats everything
144. Pessimist – a person who looks at the darker side of things
145. Potable – fit to drink
146. Post mortem – an examination of dead body
147. Philanthropist – a lover of mankind
148. Patricide – murder of father
149. Philatelist – one, who collects stamps
150. Plagiarism – literary theft or passing off an author's original work as one's own
151. Polygamy – the practice of marrying more than one wife at a time
152. Polyandry – the practice of marrying more than one husband at a time
153. Philogynist – a lover of womankind
154. Plebiscite – (a decision made by) votes of all qualified citizens
155. Philanderer – one, who amuses himself by love making
156. Philistine – one who does not care for art and literature
157. Plutocracy – government by the rich
158. Pseudonym – an imaginary name assumed by an author for disguise
159. Posthumous – a child born after the death of his father or the book published after the death of the writer
160. Panacea – a remedy for all diseases
161. Paediatrician – a person, who is specialist in child diseases
162. Platitude – ordinary remarks often repeated
163. Pedant – one, who makes a vain display of his knowledge
164. Polyglot – one, who speaks many languages
165. Paleography – the study of ancient writing
166. Posse – a number of policemen called to quell a riot
167. Parole – pledge given by a prisoner for temporary release, not to escape
168. Pedestrian – one, who goes on foot
169. Portable – that can be carried easily
170. Quarantine – an act of separation from other persons to avoid infection
171. Rhetoric – the art of elegant speech or writing
172. Regicide – murder of King or Queen
173. Sacrilege – violating or profaning religious things/places
174. Sculptor – one, who cuts in stones
175. Suicide – murder of oneself
176. Stable – a place for horses
177. Somnambulist – a person, who walks in sleep
178. Somniloquist – a person, who talks in sleep
179. Souvenir – a thing kept as a reminder of a person, place or event
180. Swan song – the last work (literary) of a writer
181. Sot, Toper – one, who is a habitual drunkard
182. Sinecure – a job with high salary but little responsibility
183. Stoic – a person, who is indifferent to pleasure and pain and has control over his passions
184. Sanatorium – a place for the sick to recover health
185. Sororicide – murder of sister
186. Triennial – an event which happens once in three years
187. Truant – a person/student who absents himself from class or duty without permission
188. Teetotaller – one, who does not take any intoxicating drink
189. Transparent – that which can be seen through
190. Theocracy – government by religious principles
191. Uxorious – one extremely fond of one's wife
192. Utopia – an imaginary perfect social and political system
193. Uxoricide – murder of wife
194. Verbatim – repetition of speech or writing word for word
195. Volunteer – one, who offers one's services
196. Virgin – a woman who has no sexual experience
197. Versatile – interested in and clever at many different things
198. Veteran – one, who has a long experience of any occupation
199. Venial – a fault that may be forgiven
200. Wardrobe – a place for clothes
Section–A : Mental Ability Solved Paper
Section–A : Mental Ability :: Section–B : Teaching Attitude and Aptitude Test
Section–C : General Awareness :: Section–D : Language Proficiency (English)

1. Mohan is 18th from either end of a row of boys ? How many boys are there in that row ?
(A) 26 (B) 32 (C) 24 (D) 35
2. In a class of 60 where boys are twice that of girls, Ramya ranked 17th from the top. If there are 9 boys ahead of
Ramya, how many girls are after her in the rank ?
(A) 26 (B) 12 (C) 10 (D) 33
3. ‘Soldier’ is related to ‘Army’ in the same way as ‘Pupil’ is related to –

(A) Education (B) Teacher (C) Student (D) Class
4. ‘Kilogram’ is related to ‘Quintal’ in the same way as ‘Paisa’ is related to –

(A) Coin (B) Money (C) Cheque (D) Rupee
5. ‘Stammering’ is to ‘Speech’ as Deafness is to –

(A) Ear (B) Hearing (C) Noise (D) Commotion
6. ‘Guilt’ is to ‘Past’ as ‘Hope’ is to –

(A) Present (B) Future (C) Today (D) Hopeless
Directions—(Q. 7 to 9) based on the alphabets.

7. If the sequence of the alphabets is reversed which of the following would be the 14th letter from your left ?
(A) N (B) L (C) O (D) None of these
8. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter, which is 12th from the left ?
(A) V (B) T (C) W (D) Y
9. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter which is 10th to the left of the last but one letter from the right ?
(A) V (B) X (C) W (D) I
10. What should come in the place of (?) in the given series ?
ACE, FGH, ?, PON
(A) KKK (B) JKI (C) HJH (D) IKL
11. Typist : Typewriter : : Writer : ?

(A) Script (B) Pen (C) Paper (D) Book
12. Paint : Artist : : Wood : ?

(A) Furniture (B) Forest (C) Fire (D) Carpenter
13. acme : mace : : alga : ?

(A) glaa (B) gaal (C) laga (D) gala
14. EIGHTY : GIEYTH : : OUTPUT : ?

(A) UTOPTU (B) UOTUPT (C) TUOUTP (D) TUOTUP
15. ‘Medicine’ is related to ‘Patient’ in the same way as ‘Education’ is related to—
(A) Teacher (B) School (C) Student (D) Tuition
16. Fill in the missing letter in the following series—

S, V, Y, B, ?
(A) C (B) D (C) E (D) G
17. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series ?
3, 8, 6, 14, ?, 20
(A) 11 (B) 10 (C) 8 (D) 9
18. Select the correct option in place of the question mark.

AOP, CQR, EST, GUV, ?
(A) IYZ (B) HWX (C) IWX (D) JWX
19. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series ?
1, 4, 9, 25, 36, ?
(A) 48 (B) 49 (C) 52 (D) 56
20. In a certain code ‘CONTRIBUTOR’ is written as ‘RTNOCIROTUB’. How is ‘prohibition’ written in that code ?
(A) NOITIBIHORP (B) IHORPBITION (C) ITIONBIHOTP (D) IHORPBNOITI
21. If ‘CAT’ and ‘BOAT’ are written as XZG and ‘YLZG’ respectively in a code language how is ‘EGG’ to be written in
the same language ?
(A) VSS (B) URR (C) VTT (D) UTT
22. In a code language SINGER is written as AIBCED then GINGER will be written in the same code as—
(A) CBIECD (B) CIBCED (C) CBICED (D) CIBECD
23. If BAT is coded as 283, CAT is coded as 383 and ARE is coded as 801, then the code for BETTER is—
(A) 213310 (B) 213301 (C) 123301 (D) 012334
24. If water is called black, black is called tree, tree is called blue, blue is called rain, rain is called pink and pink is
called fish in a certain language then what is the colour of sky called in that language ?
(A) Blue (B) Fish (C) Rain (D) Pink
25. A man walks 3 km northwards and then turns left and goes 2 km. He again turns left and goes 3 km. He turns
right and walks straight. In which direction he is walking now ?
(A) East (B) West (C) North (D) South
26. One morning after sunrise Vikram and Shailesh were standing in a lawn with their back towards each other.
Vikram’s shadow fell exactly towards left-hand side. Which direction Shailesh was facing ?
(A) East (B) West (C) North (D) South
27. Nageena is taller than Pushpa but not as tall as Manish. Rama is taller than Namita but not as tall as Pushpa.
Who among them is the tallest ?
(A) Manish (B) Pushpa (C) Namita (D) Nageena
28. In an examination Raj got more marks than Moti but not as many as Meena. Meena got more marks than Ganesh
and Rupali. Ganesh got less marks than Moti but his marks are not the lowest in the group. Who is second in the
descending order of marks ?
(A) Meena (B) Rupali (C) Raj (D) None of these
29. Pointing to a photograph of a girl, Rajan said “She has no sister or daughter but her mother is the only daughter
of my mother.” How is the girl in the photograph related with Rajan’s mother ?
(A) Sister in law (B) Grand daughter (C) Daughter in law (D) None of these
30. If Amit’s father is Billoo’s father’s only son and Billoo has neither a brother nor a daughter. What is the relationship
between Amit and Billoo ?
(A) Uncle—Nephew (B) Father—Daughter
(C) Father—Son (D) Grandfather—Grandson
31. An application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon of a weekday. Next day he forwarded it to the table
of the senior clerk, who was on leave that day. The senior clerk next day evening put up the application to the desk
officer. Desk officer studied the application and disposed off the matter on the same day, i.e., Friday. Which day the
application was received by the inward clerk ?
(A) Tuesday (B) Earlier week’s Saturday (C) Wednesday (D) Monday
32. Flight to Mumbai leaves every 5 hours. At the information counter I learnt that the flight took off 25 minutes
before. If the time now is 10 : 45 a.m., what is the time for the next flight ?
(A) 2 : 20 a.m. (B) 3 : 30 a.m. (C) 3 : 55 p.m. (D) 3 : 20 p.m.
33. Babloo ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the bottom among those who passed an examination. 6 boys did
not participate in the competition and 5 failed in the examination. How many boys were there in that class ?
(A) 44 (B) 40 (C) 50 (D) 55
34. Indra is 7th from the left and Jaya is 5th from the right. When they interchange their position Jaya becomes 19th
from the right. What is Indra’s position from the left ?
(A) 21st (B) 19th (C) 23rd (D) 20th
35. How many 5’s are there in the following sequence of numbers which are immediately preceded by 7 ?
8953253855687335775365335738
(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four
Directions—(Q. 36 to 39) Select the one which is different from the other three.
36. (A) Bokaro (B) Jamshedpur (C) Bhilai (D) Agra
37. (A) January (B) February (C) July (D) December
38. (A) Bible (B) Panchsheel (C) Geeta (D) Quran
39. (A) Star (B) Sun (C) Sky (D) Moon
40. How many 8’s are there in the following sequence which are immediately preceded by 6 but not immediately
followed by 5 ?
6857854368198546829681368536
(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four
41. If EARTHQUAKE is coded as MOGPENJOSM then EQUATE will be coded as—

(A) MENOPM (B) MENOMP (C) NJOGPM (D) MNJOPM
42 If COUNTRY is coded in certain way as EMWLVPA, ELECTORATE will be coded in the same manner as—
(A) CJCEFQPYWC (B) CJGERQTYVG (C) CNCERQPCRG (D) GJGAVMTYVC
43. ‘Air’ is to ‘Bird’ as ‘Water’ is to –

(A) Drink (B) Fish (C) Wash (D) Swim
44. ‘Pencil’ is to ‘Write’ as ‘Knife’ is to –

(A) Injure (B) Peel (C) Prick (D) Attack
Directions—(Q. 45 to 50) Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one
that does not belong to that group ?
45. (A) Green (B) Red (C) Colour (D) Orange
46 (A) Rabbit (B) Crocodile (C) Earthworm (D) Snail

47. (A) Polo (B) Chess (C) Ludo (D) Carrom
48. (A) Sun (B) Universe (C) Moon (D) Star
49. (A) Cheese (B) Milk (C) Curd (D) Ghee
50. (A) Carrot (B) Radish (C) Potato (D) Brinjal
Answers :
1. (D) 2. (B)
3. (D) As ‘Soldier’ is a part of ‘Army’ in the same way ‘Pupil’ is a part of ‘Class’.
4. (D)
5. (B) As ‘Stammering’ is a defect of ‘Speech’ in the same way ‘Deafness’ is a defect of ‘Hearing’.
6. (B)
7. (D) The 14th letter from the left in the sequence of alphabet when it is reversed, is M.
8. (B) The letter 12th from the left in alphabet is L and the 8th letter to the right of ‘L’ is ‘T’.
9. (C) The last but one letter from the right is Y and from Y the 10th letter to left is O and from O, 8th letter to the right
is ‘W’.
10. (A)
11. (B) As the tool for ‘Typist’ is ‘Typewriter’, similarly the tool for the writer is ‘Pen’.
12. (D) As ‘Paint’ is used by ‘Artist’, similarly ‘Wood’ is used by ‘Carpenter’.
13. (D) 14. (D)
15. (C) As ‘Medicine’ cures the ‘Patient’, similarly ‘Education’ educates the ‘Student’.
16. (C) 17. (D) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (D) 21. (C) 22. (B)
23. (A) 24. (C) 25. (B) 26. (D) 27. (A) 28. (C) 29. (B) 30. (C)
31. (C) The application was received by the inward clerk on Wednesday.
32. (D) 33. (D) 34. (A)
35. (A) Reqd. ‘5’s are printed boldly in the sequence below :
8953253855687335775365335738
36. (D) All the rest cities are famous for Ironindustry.
37. (B) Each of the rest month has thirtyone days.
38. (B) All the rest are religious books.
39. (C) All the rest are heavenly bodies.
40. (C) Reqd. ‘8’s are printed boldly in the sequence below :
6857854368198546829681368536
41. (D) 42. (D)
43. (B) As ‘Birds’ fly in ‘Air’, similarly ‘Fish’ swim in ‘Water’.
44. (B) As ‘Pencil’ is used for ‘Writing’, similarly ‘Knife’ is used to ‘Peel’.
45. (C) All the rest are different ‘colours’.
46. (A) All the rest are related with water.
47. (A) All the rest are indoor games.
48. (B) All the rest heavenly bodies.
49. (B) All the rest products are made from ‘Milk’.
50. (D) All the rest grow under ground.
Directions –Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.
1. The best method to study growth and development of the child is–
(A) Psychoanalytic Method (B) Comparative Method
(C) Developmental Method (D) Statistical Method (Ans : C)
2. Socialization is a process by which children and adults learn from '?
(A) Family (B) School (C) Peers (D) All of these (Ans : D)
3. Which one of the following is the true statement corresponding to Cephalocaudal Principle of Child's
Development?
(A) Development is from head to foot (B) Development is from foot to head
(C) Development is from middle to periphery (D) None of these (Ans : A)
4. Determinants of Individual differences in human beings relate to–

(A) Differences in Environment (B) Differences in Heredity
(C) Interaction between Heredity and Environment
(D) Both Heredity and Environment interacting separately (Ans : C)
5. Term PSRN in development implies–

(A) Problem solving, reasoning and numeracy (B) Problem solving relationship and numeracy
(C) Perceptual skill, reasoning and numeracy (D) Perceptual skill, relationship and numbers (Ans : C)
6. Vygotsky proposed that Child Development is–

(A) Due to genetic components of a culture (B) A product of social interaction
(C) A product of formal education (D) A product of assimilation and accommodation (Ans : B)
7. Gardner formulated a list of Seven Intelligencies, which among the following is not one of them?
(A) Spatial Intelligence (B) Emotional Intelligence
(C) Interpersonal Intelligence (D) Linguistic Intelligence (Ans : B)
8. Which of the following is the true statement in reference to Intelligence?

(A) Intelligence is the ability to adjust (B) Intelligence is the ability to learn
(C) Intelligence is the ability of Abstract Reasoning (D) All of these (Ans : D)
9. "A Child can think logically about objects and events" This is the characteristic given by Piaget of stage–
(A) Sensory Motor (B) Pre Operational
(C) Concrete Operational (D) Formal Operation (Ans : C)
10. Which of the following does not belong to the categories of Coping strategies that women commonly engaged in–
(A) Acceptance (B) Resistance (C) Revolution (D) Adaptation (Ans : C)
11. What should be the role of teacher in meeting the individual differences?
(A) Try to know the abilities, interest and aptitude of individuals
(B) Try to adjust the curriculum as per the needs of individuals
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these (Ans : C)
12. If a child has mental age of 5 years and chronological age of 4 years than what will be the IQ of child?
(A) 125 (B) 80 (C) 120 (D) 100 (Ans : A)
13. Which of the following is not the tool for Formative Assessment in sholastic domain?
(A) Conversation Skill (B) Multiple Choice Question
(C) Projects (D) Oral Questions (Ans : C)
14. A few students in your class are exceptionally bright, you will teach them–
(A) Along with the class (B) Along with higher classes
(C) By using Enriched programmes (D) Only when they want (Ans : C)
15. The major purpose of diagnostic test is that of identifying–

(A) The General area of weakness in class performance (B) Specific nature of remedial Programme needed
(C) The causes underlying academic difficulties (D) The specific nature of pupil difficulties (Ans : C)
16. Special education is related to–

(A) Educational for talented students (B) Educational programmes for disabled
(C) Training programmes for Teachers (D) Training programme for retarded (Ans : B)
17. In CCE, Formative and Summative Assessment totals to–
(A) 40% and 60% respectively (B) 60% and 40% respectively
(C) 50% and 50% respectively (D) None of the above (Ans : A)
18. Frobel's most important contribution to education was his development of the–
(A) Vocational school (B) Kindergarten (C) Public school (D) Latin school (Ans : B)
19. Which article enjoins that "All minorities whether based on religion or language shall have the right to establish
and administer education institutions of their choice" ?
(A) Article 29 (1) (B) Article 29 (2) (C) Article 30 (1) (D) Article 30 (2) (Ans : C)
20. If a child writes 16 as 61 and gets confused between Band D, this is case of–
(A) Visual Impairment (B) Learning Disability (C) Mental Impairment (D) Mental Retardation (Ans : B)
21. As a teacher what techniques you would follow to motivate students of your class–
1. By setting induction 2. Use of black board 3. By illustration 4. By active participation of students
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 4 (C) 2 and 4 (D) All of these (Ans : D)
22. What are the factors related to learner that effects the learning?
(A) Physical and Mental health of the learner (B) Level of aspiration and achievement motivation
(C) Readiness and Willpower (D) All of these (Ans : D)
23. Cognitive Development means–

(A) Development of intelligence (B) Development of child
(C) Development of Physical Skills (D) Development of individual (Ans : A)
24. Creative writing should be an activity planned for–

(A) Only those children reading on grade level (B) Only those children spell and write cohesive sentences
(C) Only those children who want to write for newspaper (D) All children (Ans : A)
25. Which of the following are the External Factors affecting the interest of students in classroom?
(A) Emotions and Sentiments (B) Culture and Training
(C) Attitudes of students (D) Goals and motives (Ans : D)
26. An intelligent student is not doing well in studies. What is the best course of the action for the teacher?
(A) Wait till he performs better (B) Find out reason for his under achievement
(C) Give him grace marks in the examination (D) Ask his parents to withdraw from school (Ans : B)
27. The term Identical Elements is closely associated with–

(A) Similar test questions (B) Jealousy between peers
(C) Transfer of learning (D) Group Instructions (Ans : C)
28. Who was the pioneer of Classical Conditioning?

(A) Skinner (B) Pavlov (C) Watson (D) Thorndike (Ans : B)
29. It is said that teacher should be resourceful, This means that–

(A) He should have enough money and property so that he may not have to take up tuitions
(B) He should have contacts with high authorities so that he may not be harmed
(C) He should have adequate knowledge so that he may be able to solve the problems of students
(D) He should have good reputation among students so that authorities may not be able to take any punitive measure
against him (Ans : C)
30. Which of the following Motives are considered as primary motives?

(A) Physiological Motives (B) Psychological Motives
(C) Social Motives (D) Educational Motives (Ans : A)
1. Which institution was the first attempt in the history towards the formation of the International society nations :
(A) League of Nations
(B) United Nations
(C) International UN Federation
(D) International Institution
2. Which institution is often termed as ‘a Child of War’:

(A) UN
(B) League of Nations
(C) SAARC
(D) WHO
3. Which government established a committee to study the plan for the formation of League of Nations :
(A) British Government
(B) American Government
(C) French Government
(D) German Government
4. Which American President put forward his famous ‘Fourteen Point’ programme for the formation of League of
Nations:
(A) Bill Clinton
(B) George Bush
(C) George Lincoln
(D) Wilson
5. Who got credit for the formation of League of Nations :

(A) President Wilson
(B) President Thomson
(C) Abraham Lincoln
(D) None of the above
6. When was the League of Nations formed :

(A) 5th January, 1920
(B) 8th January, 1920
(C) 10th January, 1920
(D) 15th January, 1920
7. Which countries made a joint draft known as ‘Hirst-Millar Draft’, for the League of Nations :
(A) India and America
(B) British Government and India
(C) America and Britain
8. Which countries were the permanent members of the League of Nations :

(A) America and Britain
(B) France
(C) Italy and Japan
(D) All the above
9. For which World War League of Nations is often called the ‘Child of War’ :
(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Third
(D) Fourth
10. Which Conference adopted the United Nations Charter on 26th January, 1945 :
(A) London Conference
(B) Tokyo Conference
(C) San Francisco Conference
11. When San Francisco Conference adopted United Nations Charter, how many Nations signed the said Charter :
(A) 52
(B) 50
(C) 53
(D) 54
12. On which day ‘United Nations Day’ is celebrated every year:

(A) 26th July, 1946
(B) 27th August, 1947
(C) 25th September, 1941
(D) 24th October, 1945
13. After which event, United Nations came into existence :

(A) The Declaration of St. James Palace (January, 12, 1941), The Atlantic Charter
(B) The UN Declaration (January 1, 1942), Moscow Declaration
(C) The Tehran Conference (December 1, 1943), The Yalta Conference (February 11, 1945)
(D) All the above
14. When was ‘The United Nations Declaration’ signed :

(A) 1st January, 1942
(B) 1st October, 1945
(C) 1st November, 1946
(D) 1st December, 1949
15. Who signed Ùnited Nations Declaration' :

(A) President Roosevelt of America, Winston Churchill of Britain
(B) Maxim Litvino of Russia
(C) T. V. Soong of China
(D) All the above
16. How many states signed Ùnited Nations Declaration' :

(A) 25
(B) 24
(C) 23
(D) 21
17. Who presided at the San Francisco Conference which became the main thrust to build UNO :
(A) Lord Bantick
(B) Lord Lawishe
(C) Lord Halifax
18. How many states were the original members of the UN:
(A) 51
(B) 185
(C) 57
(D) 189
19. At present how many states are the members of the UN:
(A) 191
(B) 192
(C) 189
(D) 187
20. Which reason is indicated for the birth of the UN in the Preamble of the UN Charter:
(A) Combined International Pressure
(B) First World War
(C) Second World War
(D) Experiences of a devastating War
21. Whose association or organisation is the UN :

(A) I.L.O.
(B) World Bank
(C) W.H.O.
(D) All the above
22. The amendment to Article 23 of the UN Charter enlarges the membership of the :
(A) General Assembly
(B) Security Council
(C) Trusteeship Council
(D) UNESCO
23. Which of the following statement is not correct :

(A) The International Court of Justice is the principal judicial organ of the UN.
(B) The Statue of the International Court of Justice is an integral part of the UN Charter.
(C) The Charter was signed on 26 June, 1945 by the representatives of the 50 countries.
(D) The name Ùnited Nations', coined by United States President Woodrow Wilson was first used in the ‘Declaration
by United Nations’ of 1 January, 1942.
24. Which is the Act created by the Indian Parliament on the subject of UN :
(A) United Nations Act, 1948
(B) United Nations Act, 1949
(C) United Nations (Immunities) Act, 1946
(D) United Nations (Privileges Immunities) Act, 1947
25. In which article of the UN Charter enshrine purposes of the UN :

(A) Preamable
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) 5
26. What is the foremost important purpose of the UN:

(A) Peace
(B) Friendship
(C) Security
(D) Equality
27. Which part of the UN Charter mention important quotation thus ‘to save the succeeding generations from the
scourge of war’ :
(A) Preamble
(B) Charter
(C) Article 10
(D) Article 5
28. What is the second purpose of the UN Charter :
(A) Develop friendly relations among world leaders
(B) Develop friendly relations is subject of economy between Lunpres
(C) Develop friendly relations among nations based on respect for the principles of equal rights and self determination
of people
29. Which Article of the UN Charter state the ‘principle of self-determination’ :

(A) 1(2)
(B) 55
(C) 56
(D) All the above
30. Which Article of the UN Charter deals with ‘The promotion of International economic and social co- operation :
(A) 55
(B) 60
(C) 58
(D) 61
31. What are the principal organs of the UN :

(A) The General Assembly, The Security Council
(B) The Economic and Social Council, The Trusteeship Council
(C) The International Court of Justice, The Secretariat
(D) All the above
32. What is the status of the UN:

(A) Arbitrary Organization
(B) Democratic Organization
(C) Military Organization
(D) Developed Countries Organization
33. On what basis, important matters of the UN are decided:

(A) Absolute vote
(B) Minority vote
(C) Economic power countries vote
(D) Majority vote
34. Which organ of the UN decide all important matters :

(A) ILO
(B) WHO
(C) Security Council
(D) UNESCO
35. How many members are there in the Security Council :

(A) 9
(B) 15
(C) 7
(D) 8
36. How many permanent members are there in the Security Council :
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 3
(D) 2
37. When General Assembly of the UN decide all important matters how many country members are required to vote
in order to pass the said matters :
(A) One-fourth
(B) One-third
(C) Two-third
(D) Full majority
38. What is the primary responsibility of the Security Council of UN :

(A) maintain world heritage
(B) maintain world food
(C) maintain world award
(D) maintain peace and security in the world
39. In the UN, who is empowered to use armed forces for the maintenance of peace and security :
(A) Security Council
(B) UN General Assembly
(C) ILO
(D) UNICEF
40. Who are bound to provide armed forces to the UN :

(A) Member-states
(B) Security Council members
(C) (A) and (B)
41. Which is the principal Judicial organ of the UN :

(A) ILO
(B) IMF
(C) International Court of Justice
42. The amendment to Article 61 of the Charter, which entered into force on 31 August, 1965, enlarged the
membership of the Economic and Social Council from 18 to :
(A) 27
(B) 37
(C) 47
(D) 54
43. Which of the following statement is not correct :

(A) Membership of the United Nations is open to all democratic nations.
(B) The Charter provides for the suspension or expulsion of a member.
(C) The official languages of the United Nations are Chinese, English, French, Russian and Spanish.
(D) The General Assembly is the main deliberative organ of the United Nations.
44. According to the UN Charter, how many types of members are there :
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 1
45. What are the types of membership category defined by the Charter of the UN :
(A) Original members
(B) States which may be admitted to the UN in accordance with the provision of Article 4 of the Charter
(C) (A) and (B)
46. Which UN body takes a decision whether a state is peace loving and whether it is able and willing to carry out
obligations of the UN Charter :
(A) UN General Assembly
(C) (A) and (B)
47. Which article of the UN Charter mention expulsion of the member from the UN :
(A) Article 6
(B) Article 8
(C) Article 9
(D) Article 10
48. On whose recommendation, UN General Assembly decide suspension of a state from the UN membership :
(A) Judicial body
(B) International Judicial Community
(D) All the above
49. What majority is required when UN General Assembly decides suspension of a state from the UN membership :
(A) One-fourth majority
(B) Two-third majority
(C) Absolute majority
(D) Two-fourth majority
50. In the UN General Assembly, how many representatives can hail from a member state :
(A) Not more than 10
(B) Not more than 8
(C) Not more than 7
(D) Not more than 5
____________________________________________________________________________
More Questions : [ 2 ] [ 3 ] [ 4 ] [ 5 ] [ 6 ] [ 7 ] [ 8 ]
Answers :
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (A) 10. (C)
11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (D) 14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (B) 20.(D)
21. (D) 22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (D) 25. (C) 26. (A) 27. (A) 28. (C) 29. (D) 30.(A)
31. (D) 32. (B) 33. (D) 34. (C) 35. (B) 36. (B) 37. (C) 38. (D) 39. (A) 40.(A)
41. (C) 42. (A) 43. (A) 44. (A) 45. (C) 46. (C) 47. (A) 48. (C) 49. (B) 50.(D)
UNO Quiz Questions and Answers

1. The Secretary–General of NATO is –
(A) Hans Blix (B) Willy Claes
(C) Ajit Singh (D) Anders Fogh Rasmussen
Answer: Anders Fogh Rasmussen
2. In which year a resolution ‘Uniting for Peace, was adopted by UN General Assembly?
(A) 1950 (B) 1960
(C) 1965 (D) 1980
Answer: 1950
3. UN General Assembly elects a President and how many Vice Presidents at the start of its each regular session ?
(A) 7 (B) 15
(C) 21 (D) 2
Answer: 21
4. To consider the large number of agenda items, General Assembly has how many main committees?
(A) 5 (B) 6
(C) 9 (D) 15
Answer: 6
5. The first meeting of the UN General Assembly was held in which of the following cities ?
(A) London (B) New York
(C) San Francisco (D) Teheran
Answer: London
6. The headquarters of a few agencies related to the UN are located in Vienna, which is in –
(A) Austria (B) Belgium
(C) Denmark (D) Sweden
Answer: Austria
7. Who among the following is the President of International Court of Justice ?

(A) Jose Maria Ruda (B) Michel Hansenne
(C) Jobril Aminu (D) Peter Tomka
Answer: Peter Tomka
8. The Director General of UNESCO is –

(A) Amadau Mahtar M’Bow (B) Michel Hansenne
(C) Dr. H.T. Mahler (D) Ms. Irina Bokova
Answer: Ms. Irina Bokova
9. Who is the President of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (World Bank)?
(A) Michel Camdessus (B) Gaston Thorn
(C) Barber Conable (D) Jim Yong Kim
Answer: Jim Yong Kim
10. The Director–General of the World Health Organisation is –

(A) Ms. Gro Harlem Brundtland (B) Dr. Francis Blanchard
(C) Dr. Hans Blix (D) Dr. Margaret Chan
Answer: Dr. Margaret Chan
11. The normal term of office of the UN Secretary–General is –
(A) 3 years (B) 4 years
(C) 5 years (D) 6 years
Answer: 5 years
12. Admission of States to the membership of the UN is made by –

(A) Simple majority of the General Assembly
(B) Unanimous vote of the General Assembly
(C) The Security Council
(D) Two–thirds majority of the General Assembly members present and voting, on the recommendation of the
Security Council
Answer: (D)
13. Which one of the following international organisations does India disapprove of ?
(A) ASEAN (B) NATO
(C) FAO (D) OPEC
Answer: NATO
14. The headquarters of all the following international organisations are based at Vienna, except –
(A) United Nations Industrial Development Organisation
(B) Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries
(C) United Nations, Development Programme
(D) International Atomic Energy Agency
Answer: United Nations, Development Programme
15. Which of the following international agencies of the UN is the only distinctive inter–governmental organisation
concerned with children’s welfare ?
(A) UNESCO (B) UNICEF
(C) WHO (D) UNHCR
Answer: UNICEF
16. The official languages of the United Nations are –
(A) African, Chinese, English, French, German and Spanish
(B) Arabic, Chinese, English, French, Russian and Spanish
(C) Arabic, Japanese, Chinese, English, French and German
(D) Chinese, English, French, Hindi, Japanese and Spanish
Answer: Arabic, Chinese, English, French, Russian and Spanish
17. Which of the following organisations is, among other things, concerned with human rights and freedoms without
distinction of race, sex, language, or religion ?
(A) UNICEF (B) UNFPA
(C) UNESCO (D) None of these
Answer: UNESCO
18. The UN charter was ratified in 1945 by –

(A) 25 nations (B) 29 nations
(C) 33 nations (D) 37 nations
Answer: 29 nations
19. The UN Charter was finalised at .........and became effective on............

(A) San Francisco; 24th October, 1945
(B) Dumbarton Oaks, 5th March, 1944
(C) Yalta, 2nd February, 1945
(D) Teheran, 24th October, 1943
Answer: San Francisco; 24th October, 1945
20. Which of the following counties is not a member of the United Nations ?
(A) Cuba (B) Israel
(C) South Africa (D) Taiwan
Answer: Taiwan
51. How many number of votes can be exercised by a member state in the UN General Assembly :
(A) Two votes
(B) One vote
(C) Three votes
(D) Four votes
52. What is the majority required of member states of UN when they take a decision on important issues :
(A) Two-third majority
(B) Two-fourth majority
(C) Two-six majority
(D) Absolute majority
53. Which UN body draws attention of the Security Council to situation that is likely to endanger Inter- national Peace
and Security :
(A) Special Committee of UN
(B) General Assembly of UN
(C) Developed Countries Committee
(D) All the above
54. Which Article of the UN Charter provides that the UN General Assembly shall initiate studies and make
recommendations for the purpose of promoting international co-operation in the political field and en- courage the
progressive development of international law and its codification :
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 19
(C) Article 13
(D) Article 12
55. Which of the following has been awarded Noble Prize :

(A) ASEAN
(B) European Union
(D) International Labour Organisation
56. On whose internal affairs, UN General Assembly shall not pass any resolution :
(B) ILO
(C) WHO
(D) State
57. Which function does not belong to UN General Assembly :

(A) World legislative body
(B) Decision-making body
(C) Policy-making body
(D) All the above
58. Which principal organs are controlled by the UN General Assembly :

(A) Economic and Social Council
(B) Trusteeship Council
(C) (A) and (B)
59. Which organs are subordinate to the UN :

(A) Economic and Social Council
(C) (A) and (B)
60. Which organ of the UN approves budget of the UN :

(A) Secretary General
(B) Secretary
(C) Financial Secretary General
(D) General Assembly of UN
61. Which Article of the UN Charter provides that ‘The General Assembly shall consider and approve the budget of
the Organization and expenses of the Organization shall be borne by the members as apportioned by the General
Assembly :
(A) Article 17
(B) Article 18
(C) Article 19
(D) Article 20
62. Which of the following is not a World Bank constituent :

(A) International Monetary Fund
(B) International Development Association
(C) Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency
(D) International Finance Corporation
63. To which country, UN emergency force was sent by the UN :

(A) India
(B) Egypt
(C) Congo
(D) (B) and (C)
64. Which of the following is originated by the Berne Treaty of 1874 :

(A) World Metrological Organisation
(B) International Maritime Organisation
(C) International Labour Organisation
(D) Universal Postal Union
65. What kinds of committees are there as main committees of the UN General Assembly :
(A) Dibabmanent and Internal Security Committee, Economic and Financial
(B) Social, Humanitarian and Cultural Committee, Special Political and Decolonization
(C) Administrative and Budgetary Committee, Legal Committee
(D) All the above
66. In which year, the UN passed a resolution establishing the International Law Commission:
(A) 1947
(B) 1948
(C) 1946
(D) 1989
67. In which year, UN resolution established the United Nations Institute for Training and Research :
(A) 1969
(B) 1965
(C) 1967
(D) 1968
68. Which UN institution established that decision of the UN administrative tribunal shall be binding upon the UN
member states :
(B) Committee of Security
(C) International Court of Justice
69. In which year, UN established UN Conference on Trade and Development :

(A) 1974
(B) 1977
(C) 1968
(D) 1964
70. When did the UN General Assembly pass ‘Unity for Peace Resolution’ :
(A) 4th November, 1950
(B) 8th November, 1950
(C) 3rd November, 1950
(D) 10th November, 1950
71. When can the special emergency session of the General Assembly be called :
(A) Absolute majority
(B) 9 affirmative votes of the Security Council
(C) The majority of the members of the General Assembly
(D) (B) and (C)
72. Which UN body may consider the matter if the Security Council fails to prevent any aggression or to take any
action in respect of any breach of peace :
(B) Security Committee of developing countries
(C) UN Developed Countries Committee
73. How many number of UN collective members measures committee examine ‘studying and report the matters
relating to international peace and security’ :
(A) 18
(B) 14
(C) 15
(D) 16
74. Which UN member country challenged and criticized the ‘UN Resolution Uniting for Peace’ :
(A) India
(B) Japan
(C) America
(D) USSR
75. Who appoints the Secretary-General of the UN:

(B) UN Security Council
(C) UN General Assembly upon the recommendation of the Security Council.
(D) UN Under-developed Countries
76. Under which Article of the UN Charter, Secretary- General shall be appointed by the UN General Assembly on
the basis of recommendations of the Security Council :
(A) Article 78
(B) Article 97
(C) Article 99
(D) Article 96
77. On whose vote of the UN organ, a member of the UN, who is in arrears of the payment of its financial contribution
to the Organization, may be deprived from the membership:
(B) General Assembly
(C) (A) and (B)
(D) None of the these
78. What is the majority required when UN General Assembly deprives a member state from membership because of
arrears of the payment of financial contribution to the UN Organization :
(A) Two-third majority
(B) Two-fourth majority
(C) Absolute majority
79. Who elects ten non-permanent members of the Security Council :

(A) UN
(B) UN General Assembly
(C) UN Developing Countries
(D) All the above
80. Under which Article of the UN Charter, expenses of the Organization shall be borne by the members as
apportioned by the General Assembly :
(A) 16
(B) 16(1)
(C) 17(2)
(D) 17
81. Who elects 54 members of the UN Economic and Social Council :

(A) UN developing council
(B) UN developing countries
(C) (A) and (B)
(D) UN General Assembly
82. Who elects judges of the International Court of Justice:

(A) Supreme Court
(B) High Court
(C) UN General Assembly
(D) UN Security Council
83. In which Conference, it was finally decided to establish a Security Council :

(A) New York Conference
(B) San Francisco Conference
(C) London Conference
(D) Tokyo Conference
84. How many members are there in the Security Council :

(A) 18
(B) 15
(C) 16
(D) 14
85. How many permanent members exist in the Security Council :
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 5
(D) 4
86. How many members are non- permanent in the Security Council :
(A) 9
(B) 8
(C) 5
(D) 10
87. Who are the permanent members in the Security Council :

(A) China
(B) America
(C) Britain
(D) All the above
88. On what date Security Council came into existence :

(A) 12 January, 1945
(B) 12 January, 1948
(C) 12 January, 1946
(D) 12 January, 1950
89. On 12th January, 1946, UN General Assembly elected how many members in the Security Council :
(A) 4
(B) 7
(C) 6
(D) 9
90. On what date, UN General Assembly amended Article 23 of the UN Charter to extend the number of 15 members
in the Security Council :
(A) 17th December, 1963
(B) 18th December, 1963
(C) 19th December, 1963
(D) 21st December, 1963
91. For what period, ten non-permanent members are elected by the UN General Assembly :
(A) 4 years
(B) 2 years
(C) 3 years
(D) 6 years
92. Which type of members in the Security Council have a veto power :
(A) Permanent members
(B) Non-official members
(C) Non-permanent members
93. When ‘veto is not considered as action of a permanent member’ :

(A) US Senate passed resolution
(B) British Parliament made a law
(C) Security Council permanent members absent during meeting of the Security Council
(D) All the above
94. What are the functions and powers of the Security Council:
(A) Maintenance of international peace and security, elective functions
(B) Supervisory functions
(C) Constituent functions
(D) All the above
95. Under Article 41 of the UN Charter, how does the Security Council take military action against any country :
(A) through air
(B) through sea
(C) through land
(D) all the above
96. Under Article 43 of the UN Charter, Security Council asks whom to contribute for the maintenance of international
peace and security and make available its armed forces, etc:
(A) ILO
(B) International Peace Keeping Force
(C) UN members
(D) Non-aligned Nations
97. Which committee advise and assist Security Council on all matters relating to its military requirements for
maintenance of international peace and security :
(A) Military Advisory Committee
(B) Military Staff Committee
(C) Military Security Council
98. Its work completed-its membership reduced now to the five permanent-members of the Security Council-for which
this statement is relevant :
(A) UNESCO
(C) Economic and Social Council
(D) General Assembly
99. Which of the following statement is not correct:

(A) Trusteeship Council was established by the Charter in 1945.
(B) By 1994 all trust territories had attained self government or independence.
(C) The last trust territory of the Pacific Islands (Palau) became the 185th member state of the UN.
(D) The functions of the Trusteeship Council are transferred to the General Assembly.
100. When was the definition of aggression finally adopted without vote by the UN General Assembly :
(A) December, 13, 1974
(B) December, 12, 1974
(C) December, 18, 1974
(D) December, 14, 1974
____________________________________________________________________________
Answers :
51.(B)52.(A)53.(B)54.(C)55.(D)56.(D)57.(A)58.(C)59.(C)60.(D)
61.(A)62.(A)63.(D)64.(D)65.(D)66.(A)67.(B)68.(C)69.(D)70.(C)
71.(D)72.(A)73.(B)74.(D)75.(C)76.(B)77.(B)78.(A)79.(B)80.(C)
81.(D)82.(C)83.(A)84.(B)85.(C)86.(D)87.(D)88.(C)89.(C)90.(A)
91.(B)92.(A)93.(C)94.(D)95.(D)96.(C)97.(B)98.(B)99.(B)100.(D)
101. Which members in the Security Council were conferred upon the veto power:
(A) China, Russia
(B) America, Britain
(C) France
(D) All the above
102. In which country's matter, Security Council has made significant contributions for the cause of world peace :
(A) Korea (1948), Indonesia (1949)
(B) Indo-Pak conflicts (1949, 1965 and 1971), Congo (1960-61)
(C) Cyprus (1964), Arab-Israeli conflict 1973, Palestine
(D) All the above
103. Which UN organ separately elects the judges of International Court of Justice:
(B) UN Security Council
(C) (A) and (B)
104. To which UN organ, does the Security Council send its annual report :
(B) General Council
(C) Special Council
(D) All the above
105. How many permanent members are required to give their affirmative vote on important decisions taken by the
Security Council :
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 3
(D) 2
106. The United Nations Secretarial consists of :

(A) Commissions and Committees
(B) Specialised agencies and related organisations
(C) Secretaries and Secretary General
(D) Departments and Offices
107. Which permanent member of the Security Council used double veto on the question of Greece, Czechoslovakia
and Spain :
(A) USA
(B) USSR
(C) Britain
108. Who can challenge the decision of the President of the Security Council :
(A) Developed countries
(B) Developing countries
(C) Permanent members of Security Council
109. In which subject, Security Council's recommendation is necessary for UN General Assembly decision :
(A) Admitting a new state of the UN
(B) The suspension and expulsion of UN members
(C) Appointment of Secretary General
(D) All the above
110. What is the present strength of members in the Economic and Social Council of the UN body :
(A) 53
(B) 54
(C) 55
(D) 56
111. Before 31st August, 1965, how many members were in the Economic and Social Council:
(A) 18
(B) 17
(C) 16
(D) 13
112. How many votes are entitled for members of the UN Economic and Social Council:
(A) Two votes
(B) Three votes
(C) One vote
(D) Five votes
113. Which UN organization may make or initiate studies and forward reports with respect to economic, social,
cultural, educational, health and other related matters to the UN General Assembly :
(A) ILO
(B) IMF
(D) Economic and Social Council
114. How many Regional Commissions are established by the UN Economic and Social Council :
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 1
115. Which are the regional Commissions of the UN Economic and Social Council:
(A) Economic Commission for Europe, Economic Commission for Asia and Pacific
(B) Economic Commission for Africa
(C) Economic Commission for Latin America and the Caribbean
(D) All the above
116. In which year did UN establish the UN Conference on Trade and Development :
(A) 1964
(B) 1963
(C) 1969
(D) 1967
117. Which of the following is UN Programme and not special agency :

(A) UNEP
(B) UNESCO
(C) WHO
(D) ILO
118. Which of the following is UN special agency and not programme :

(A) UNDP
(B) UNIFEM
(C) IBRD
(D) UNFPA
119. Which of the following is a World Bank group of five institutions :

(A) IMF
(B) IDA
(C) ILO
(D) ITU
120. Which of the following established as the Bretton Woods Conference in 1944 :
(A) IMF
(B) ILO
(C) WHO
(D) UNDP
121. When was the first restructured substantive session of the Economic and Social Council held :
(A) 29 April to 31 July 1992
(B) 27 April to 30 July 1992
(C) 27 June to 31 July 1992
122. In the UN, how many territories were placed under the trusteeship system :
(A) 11
(B) 12
(C) 13
(D)15
123. Which Article of the UN Charter established the International Trusteeship System :
(A) 78
(B) 79
(C) 75
(D) 74
124. Which are the territories placed under the Trusteeship System :
(A) New Geneva and Nauru (Australia), Rwanda- Urundi (Belgium)
(B) Cameroon and Togoland (France), Someell (Italy), Western Samva (New Zealand)
(C) Cameroon, Togoland and Tanzania, (UK), Pacific Islands Trust Territory (US)
(D) All the above
125. In which year, UN General Assembly terminated South Africa's mandate over Namibia:
(A) 1968
(B) 1966
(C) 1969
(D) 1965
126. In which year UN General Assembly established a 11- member council for South- West Africa to administer the
territory till independence :
(A) 1967
(B) 1965
(C) 1964
(D) 1968
127. Which is the first specialised agency of the UN :

(A) UNCTAD
(B) ILO
(C) UNESCO
(D) UNDP
128. Which Article of the UN Charter describe the basic procedure to make a member of the UN Trusteeship Council:
(A) 84
(B) 83
(C) 86
(D) 89
129. Who are the members of the Trusteeship Council :

(A) US, China
(B) France
(C) Russian Federation and UK
(D) All the above
130. When UN Peacekeeping forces were awarded Noble Prize :

(A) 1978
(B) 1988
(C) 1998
(D) 2005
131. How many vote does each member of the Trusteeship Council possess :
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
132. Which is the original trust territory under the Trusteeship System :
(A) Western Samva
(B) Rwanda-Urundi
(C) Minonesia
(D) Somaliland
133. Which UN body shall exercise all functions of the UN relating to strategic areas, including the approval of the
terms of the trusteeship agreements and also their alteration or amendment :
(C) UN body
(D) Developed countries
134. In the subject of independence of which country, UN General Assembly took initiative and secured
independence from South Africa :
(A) India
(B) Ethiopia
(C) Namibia
135. Which date is observed every year by the UN on the subject of Namibia day :
(A) 15th August
(B) 18th August
(C) 25th August
(D) 26th August
136. After efforts by the UN for Namibia's independence, which was the date when Namibia became an independent
country :
(A) 21st March, 1990
(B) 28th March, 1990
(C) 26th March, 1990
(D) 29th March, 1990
137. Which is not a correct statement :

(A) Peacekeeping operations are established by the Security Council.
(B) Peacekeepers are identified only by a United Nations red helmet
(C) UN has no military forces of its own.
(D) Peacekeepers wear their country's uniform.
138. Who is the ‘Chief Administrative Officer’ of the UN Secretariate :

(A) Special Secretary
(B) Secretary-in-Charge
(C) Secretary General
(D) Dy. Secretary General
139. What is the term of the Secretary General of the UN:

(A) 6 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 4 years
(D) 3 years
140. In which year, International Civil Service Advisory Board was established for the UN :
(A) 1968
(B) 1967
(C) 1948
(D) 1949
141. When did the UN General Assembly adopt the statute of the International Civil Service Commission :
(A) December, 1974
(B) December, 1976
(C) December, 1979
(D) December, 1978
142. What functions are performed by the UN Secretary General:

(A) The Secretary-General is the chief administrative officer of the Organization.
(B) The Secretary-General acts in the capacity of the chief administrative officer of the organization in all meetings of
the General Assembly, the Security Council, The Economic and Social Council and of the Trusteeship Council.
(C) Secretary-General makes annual report to the UN General Assembly in the work of the Organization. The
Secretary-General may bring to the notice of the Security Council any matter which in his opinion threatens the
maintenance of international peace and security.
(D) All the above
143. What is the general nature of the specialised agencies of the UN :

(A) Most of the states are the members of these specialized agencies.
(B) All the specialised agencies have been brought in relationship with the UN through special agreements.
(C) Each specialised agency has a Constitution or Charter of its own which describes the duties, functions,
constitution, etc. of the organisation.
(D) All the above
144. When was the international Labour Organization established :

(A) 1919
(B) 1920
(C) 1921
(D) 1923
145. In 1919, International Labour Organization became an autonomous partner of which Organization :
(A) UN
(B) Developed Nations
(C) League of Nations
146. Where is the head office of the International Labour Organization situated :
(A) Paris
(B) Geneva
(C) Moscow
(D) London
147. When ILO was brought into relationship with the UN through a special agreement:
(A) 1945
(B) 1968
(C) 1969
(D) 1946
148. Which of the following supervised the entire election process that led to the independence of Namibia :
(A) United Nations
(B) European Union
(C) ASEAN
(D) Common Wealth
149. What is the kind of state representation in the general assembly of the International Labour Organization :
(A) Two representatives of the state government
(B) One each representative of the workers and employees
(C) (A) and (B)
150. Which is recently created UN institution as part of the Human Rights Machinery :
(A) High Commissioner for Human Rights
(B) Commission on Human Rights
(C) Human Rights Council
(D) Human Rights Institute
____________________________________________________________________________
Answers :
101.(D)102.(D)103.(C)104.(A)105.(B)106.(D)107.(B)108.(C)109.(D)110.(B)
111.(A)112.(C)113.(D)114.(C)115.(D)116.(A)117.(A)118.(C)119.(B)120.(A)
121.(C)122.(A)123.(C)124.(D)125.(B)126.(A)127.(B)128.(C)129.(D)130.(B)
131.(A)132.(C)133.(B)134.(C)135.(D)136.(A)137.(B)138.(C)139.(B)140.(D)
141.(A)142.(D)143.(D)144.(A)145.(C)146.(B)147.(D)148.(A)149.(C)150.(C
151. What are the principal functions of the International Labour Organization :
(A) The formulation of International Standards in the form of International labour conventions and recommendations
(B) Formulation of labour union in every country
(C) Formulation of labour law in every country
152. Division for public Administration and Development Management is related with :
(A) Common Wealth
(B) UNO
(C) ASEAN
(D) SAARC
153. What is the programme and budget set out for strategic objectives of the International Labour Organization :
(A) to promote and realise fundamental principles and rights at work
(B) To create greater opportunities for women and men to secure decent employment and income
(C) To enhance the coverage and effectiveness of social protection for all, to strengthen tripartism and social
dialogue
(D) All the above
154. Which new Convention was adopted by the 87th International Labour Organization in June 1999 :
(A) Banning the worst forms of child labour
(B) Banning the labour union in regional level
(C) Banning the labour union in International level
(D) promote labour efficiency in physical work
155. How many members of countries of Industrial importance hold permanent seats on the governing body of the
International Labour Organization :
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 6
(D) 8
156. Which are the countries of industrial importance holding permanent seats on the governing body of the
International Labour Ogranisation :
(A) Brazil, China, Germany and France
(B) India, Italy and Japan
(C) Russia, UK and USA
(D) All the above
157. How many member countries are elected after every three years in the International Labour Organisation :
(A) 18
(B) 17
(C) 16
(D) 15
158. In which year has the UN established the International Maritime Organisation :
(A) 1969
(B) 1979
(C) 1959
(D) 1989
159. Which of the following report is published every year by the World Bank :
(A) World Development Report
(B) Human Development Report
(C) World Trade Development Report
(D) International Finance and Development Report
160. Official languages of the UN are :

(A) Chinese, English, French and Urdu
(B) Chinese, English, French, Russian and Spanish
(C) English, French, Spanish, Russian and Urdu
(D) Hindi, English, Spanish and Arabic
161. What are the main functions of International Maritime Organization :

(A) To facilitate co-operation among governments on technical matters effecting merchant shipping
(B) Safety of sea
(C) To prevent and control marine pollution caused by ships, to facilitate international maritime traffic
(D) All the above
162. Which became one of the last original 51 member of the UN:
(A) Italy
(B) Germany
(C) Poland
(D) India
163. Which of the following was awarded Noble Peace Prize?

(A) Kofi Annan
(B) U Thant
(C) Ban ki Moon
(D) Javier Perez de Cueller
164. What are the aims of International Monetary Fund:

(A) To promote international monetary co-operation
(B) The expansion of international trade and exchange rate stability
(C) To assist in the removal of exchange restricting and the establishment of a multilateral system of payment
(D) All the above
165. The second world conference on Human Rights was held in :

(A) Vienna
(B) Geneva
(C) New York
(D) Havana
166. India's Dr. Homi Jahangir Bhabhas has has been the President of the :
(A) UNDEP
(B) UNESCO
(C) ILO
(D) IAEA
167. Which countries have the largest quotas of capital resources in the International Monetary Fund :
(A) USA and Germany
(B) Japan and France
(C) UK
(D) All the above
168. How many members are of the International Law Commission?

(A) 64
(B) 54
(C) 44
(D) 34
169. How many executive directions are there in the Board of Governors in the International Monetary Fund:
(A) 23
(B) 24
(C) 28
(D) 29
170. Where is the headquarters of the International Monetary Fund :

(A) Paris
(B) Geneva
(C) Washington
(D) New York
171. Which nation has the eligibility to become President of the World Bank :
(A) Japan National
(B) USSR National
(C) India National
(D) US National
172. The members of the International Law Comm- ission are elcted by :
(B) General Assembly
(C) International Court of Justic
(D) Human Rights Council
173. When was the International Telecommunications Union established :

(A) 1864
(B) 1865
(C) 1869
(D) 1876
174. When did International Telecommunications Union become a Specialized Agency of the UN :
(A) 1948
(B) 1946
(C) 1947
(D) 1945
175. What are the main functions of the International Tele- communication Union :
(A) To maintain and extend international co-operation for the improvement and rational use of telecommunication of
all kinds.
(B) Promote and offer technical assistance to developing countries in the field of telecommunications.
(C) To promote the development of technical facilities and their most efficient operation to improve the efficiency of
telecommunications service.
(D) All the above
176. Where is the headquarters of the International Tele- communications Union :

(A) Geneva
(B) New Delhi
(C) New York
(D) London
177. Which of the following pair is not correct?

(A) World Summit for Children — New York
(B) World Food Summit — Rome
(C) World Conference in Human Rights — Geneva
(D) World Summit for Social Development — Copenhagen
178. When was the UN Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO) constitution signed in London :
(C) 16th November, 1945
179. How many countries were in the UNESCO when its constitution was signed in London on 16th November, 1945
:
(A) 37
(B) 38
(C) 32
(D) 35
180. Established by the General Assembly in 1966, UNIDO became a UN specialised agency in :
(A) 1980
(B) 1985
(C) 1990
(D) 1995
181. In what way UNESCO's primary objectives contribute to peace and security in the world :
(A) Education, Science
(B) Communication culture and justice
(C) Rule of law, human rights and fundamental freedoms
(D) All the above
182. What is the main work regarding education by the UNESCO :

(A) To provide basic education for all, expand access to basic education
(B) Improve the quality of basic education
(C) Education for the 21st century
(D) All the above
183. Which of the following pair is not correct :

(A) IAEA — New Delhi
(B) WTO — Geneva
(C) UPU — Berne
(D) IMF — Washington
184. Where is the headquarters of the UNESCO :

(A) New Delhi
(B) London
(C) Paris
(D) New York
185. In which country UNESCO Science Co-operation Office has been set-up :
(A) Cairo, Jakarta
(B) Nairobi, New Delhi
(C) Montevideo, Venice
(D) All the above
186. How many member countries are there in the Executive Board of UNESCO :
(A) 68
(B) 58
(C) 28
(D) 88
187. What are the UNESCO's focus areas in the cultural field :
(A) The link between culture and development
(B) Action to conserve and protect the world cultural inheritance
(C) By assisting member states in studying and preserving both physical and the non-physical heritage of their
societies
(D) All the above
188. Whose part is the International Bureau of Education :

(A) UNESCO
(B) UNIDO
(C) IMF
189. When did UN General Assembly establish UN Industrial Development Organization :

(A) 1968
(B) 1966
(C) 1967
(D) 1965
190. What are the aims of the UN Industrial Development Organization :

(A) Helps developing countries on the issue of fight against marginalization and poverty
(B) Helps developing countries
(C) Mobilizes knowledge, skills, information and technology to promote productive employment, a competitive
economy and sound environment
(D) All the above
191. Where is the headquarters of the UN Industrial Development Organization :

(A) Vienna, Austria
(B) New Delhi
(C) Washington DC
192. When was the Universal Postal Union (UPU) establish:

(A) 1889
(B) 1874
(C) 1886
(D) 1885
193. Where is the headquarters of the Universal Postal Union :

(A) Switzerland
(B) UK
(C) Iran
(D) India
194. When did World Health Organization (WHO) come into force:
(A) 6th April, 1948
(B) 7th April, 1948
(C) 10th April, 1948
(D) 26th April, 1948
195. What are the functions of the World Health Organization :

(A) To assist government to strengthen their health services
(B) To assist advance work to eradicate diseases
(C) To promote maternal and child health
(D) All the above
196. Where is the headquarters of World Health Organization :

(A) Geneva, Switzerland
(B) London, UK
(C) New Delhi, India
197. When is World Health Day observed every year :

(A) 8th April
(B) 10th April
(C) 7th April
(D) 9th April
198. When does World Health Organization organise ‘World Aids Day’ :
(A) 1st December
(B) 2nd December
(C) 10th December
(D) 15th December
199. Which of the following awarded Noble Peace Prize for three times?
(A) Human Rights Council
(B) World Bank
(C) International Committee of the Red Cross
(D) UN Peacekeeping forces
200. Where is the headquarters of Pan American Health Organization :

(A) Washington DC
(B) Ottawa
(C) New York
(D) Mexico
____________________________________________________________________________
Answers :
151.(A)152.(B)153.(D)154.(A)155.(B)156.(D)157.(A)158.(C)159.(A)160.(B)
161.(D)162.(C)163.(A)164.(D)165.(A)166.(D)167.(D)168.(D)169.(B)170.(C)
171.(D)172.(B)173.(B)174.(C)175.(D)176.(A)177.(C)178.(C)179.(A)180.(B)
181.(D)182.(D)183.(A)184.(C)185.(D)186.(B)187.(D)188.(A)189.(B)190.(D)
191.(A)192.(B)193.(A)194.(B)195.(D)196.(A)197.(C)198.(A)199.(C)200.(D)
201. In which year did World Intellectual Property Organization become a UN Specialised Agency :
(A) 1975
(B) 1974
(C) 1976
(D) 1979
202. What are the aims of World Intellectual Property Organization :

(A) To promote the protection of intellectual property throughout the world through co-operation among member
states
(B) To ensure administrative co-operation among various intellectual property created by the Paris and Berne
Convention
(C) (A) and (B)
203. Where is the headquarters of World Intellectual Property Organization :
(A) Geneva
(B) Colombo
(C) New Delhi
(D) Paris
204. What is the official language of the World Intellectual Property Organization :
(A) Arabic, Chinese
(B) English, French
(C) Russian, Spanish
(D) All the above
205. In which year World Meteorological Organization was recognized as a specialized agency of the UN:
(A) 1958
(B) 1956
(C) 1951
(D) 1955
206. 14th Non-aligned Summit was organised in 2006 as :

(A) Jakarta
(B) Cairo
(C) Kathmandu
(D) Havana
207. What are the functions of World Meteorological Organi- zation:

(A) To facilitate worldwide co-operation in the establishment of networks of stations for the making of meteorological
observations as well as hydrological or other geophysical observations
(B) To promote standardization of meteorological and related observations and ensure the uniform publication of
observations and statistics
(C) To promote activities in operational hydrology and to further enhance co-operation between meteorological and
the hydrological services
(D) All the above
208. When was International Atomic Energy Agency statute approved by the UN :
(A) 26th October, 1956
(B) 26th October, 1955
(C) 26th October, 1954
(D) 26th October, 1953
209. What are the functions of International Atomic Energy Agency :

(A) To accelerate and enlarge the contribution of atomic energy to peace, health and prosperity throughout the world
(B) To ensure that assistance provided by it or at its request or under its supervision or control is not used in such a
way as no further any military purpose
(C) (A) and (B)
210. Where is the headquarters of International Atomic Energy Agency :

(A) Sydney
(B) Vienna
(C) Capetown
(D) New Delhi
211. When did International Seabed Authority come into existence:

212. Where is the headquarters of International Seabed Authority:

(A) Jamaica
(B) South Africa
(C) Cuba
(D) India
213. When did World Trade Organization come into force:

(A) 2nd January, 1948
(B) 1st January, 1995
(C) 12th January, 1948
(D) 15th January, 1946
214. What is the number of member states in the World Trade Organization :
(A) 144
(B) 148
(C) 150
(D) 146
215. Where is the headquarters of World Trade Organization :

(A) New Delhi
(B) New York
(C) Geneva
216. Who have the largest share of world trade :

(A) European Union, USA
(B) Japan
(C) Canada
(D) All the above
217. When was International Criminal Court established by the UN :

(A) 11th April 2002
(B) 18th June — 19th August 1998
(C) 20th July — 20th October 1998
218. Where is the International Criminal Court establish :

(A) New Delhi
(B) Rome
(C) Paris
(D) The Hague
219. Where is the headquarters of World Meteorological Organization :

(A) Geneva
(B) Paris
(C) London
(D) New Delhi
220. On which subjects, individuals get accused by the International Criminal Court:
(A) Genocide
(B) War-crime
(C) Crime against individual
(D) All the above
221. What are the ad-hoc bodies of the UN General Assembly:

(A) Special Committee on Peace Keeping Operation, Human Rights Committee, Committee on the Peaceful Use of
Outer Space
(B) Conciliation Commission for Palestine, Conference on Disarmament, International Law Commission, Scientific
Committee on the effects of Atomic Radiation
(C) Special Committee on the Implementation of the Declaration on the Granting of Independent Countries and
Peoples Commission on International Trade Law
(D) All the above
222. When did Russian Federation take over the seat of the former USSR as a permanent member of the Security
Council:
(A) December, 1991
(B) December, 1992
(C) December, 1993
(D) December, 1994
223. What are the standing Committees of the Security Council :

(A) The Committee of Experts on Rules of Procedure
(B) The Committee on the Admission of New Members
(C) (A) and (B)

(A) Kiribati, Naura, Tonga — 1988
(B) Tuvalu, Serbia, Montenegr — 1989
(C) Palau — 1995
(D) Switzerland, Timor Loste — 2002

(A) India — 1947
(B) Pakistan — 1947
(C) Poland — 1945
(D) Switzerland — 2002
226. Which of the following is not an original member of the UN:

(A) Pakistan
(B) India
(C) Poland
(D) Cuba
227. Who is the Secretary General of the UN :

(A) Kofi Annan
(B) Ban Ki Moon
(C) Philippe Couveeur
228. When did UN General Assembly adopt the Universal Declaration of Human Rights:
(A) 15th December, 1948
(B) 10th December, 1948
(C) 30th December, 1948
(D) 25th December, 1948
229. Which articles of the UN Charter mention the Universal Declaration of Human Rights :
(A) 1 to 25
(B) 1 to 26
(C) 1 to 30
(D) 1 to 35
230. When UN General Assembly adopted ‘Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty’ on 26th March, 2002 how
many states had signed the Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty :
(A) 165
(B) 164
(C) 168
(D) 169
231. What does Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty (CTBT) prohibit :
(A) Nuclear weapon test explosion
(B) Any other nuclear explosion anywhere in the world
(C) (A) and (B)
232. How many numbers of organisations are under UN :

(A) 26
(B) 28
(C) 25
(D) 24
233. How many members are there in the Executive Board which govern UN Development Programme :
(A) 38
(B) 39
(C) 35
(D) 36
234. Which is the UN agency associated with children's work :

(A) UNICEF
(B) UNDP
(C) UNFPA
235. When was UN Children's Fund establish :

(A) 1948
(B) 1949
(C) 1946
(D) 1947
236. When was UN Population Fund establish :

(A) 1970
(B) 1969
(C) 1971
(D) 1972
237. In 2000, UN population fund provided assistance to how many developing countries :
(A) 142
(B) 145
(C) 148
(D) 147
238. What is the function of the UN Population Fund for developing nation :
(A) Special emphasis on in- creasing the quality of reproductive health service
(B) Ending the gender discrimination and violence, formulation of effective population policies
(C) Reducing the spread of HIV/AIDS
(D) All the above
239. What are the main areas of work by the UN Population Fund :
(A) To help and ensure universal access to reproductive health
(B) Caring form the environment
(C) Sexual Health
(D) All the above
240. When was UN Environment Programme establish :

(A) 1972
(B) 1979
(C) 1978
(D) 1976
241. When was the UN International Drug Control Programme establish :

(A) 1997
(B) 1993
(C) 1991
(D) 1992
242. Where is UN International Drug Control Programme headquarters located :

(A) Vienna
(B) Tokyo
(C) London
(D) Switzerland
243. Where is the UN International Crime and Justice Research Institute located :
(A) New Delhi
(B) Rome
(C) Turin
244. Where is the head-office of UN High Commissioner for Refugees :

(A) Rome
(B) London
(C) Geneva
(D) Stockholm
245. Which are the autonomous institutions for training and research within the UN :
(A) UN Institute for Training and Research (UNITAR), UN Institute for Disarmament Research (UNDIR)
(B) UN Research Institute for Social Development, UN International Research and Training Institute for the
Advancement of Women
(C) UN University, University for Peace
(D) All the above
246. Which UN Organization is called as the World Bank :

(A) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
(B) International Banking System
(C) International Banking Management System
(D) All the above
247. Where is the headquarters of International Bank for Reconstruction and Development :
(A) New York
(B) Washington
(C) Texas
(D) All the above
248. Where is the headquarters of International Finance Corporation :

(A) New Delhi
(B) Tokyo
(C) London
(D) Washington
249. Which UN Organization provide facilities for conciliation and arbitration of disputes between government and
foreign investor :
(A) Multilateral investment guarantee agency
(B) International finance corporation
(C) International centre for settlement of investment disputes
250. Where is the headquarters of International Civil Aviation Organization :

(A) Canada
(B) Lebanon
(C) Brazil
____________________________________________________________________________
Answers :
201.(B)202.(C)203.(A)204.(D)205.(C)206.(D)207.(D)208.(A)209.(C)210.(B)
211.(A)212.(A)213.(B)214.(D)215.(C)216.(D)217.(A)218.(D)219.(A)220.(D)
221.(D)222.(A)223.(C)224.(C)225.(A)226.(A)227.(B)228.(B)229.(A)230.(C)
231.(B)232.(D)233.(A)234.(A)235.(C)236.(B)237.(D)238.(D)239.(A)240.(A)
241.(A)242.(A)243.(C)244.(C)245.(A)246.(A)247.(B)248.(C)249.(C)250.(A)
251. Where is the headquarters of the International Fund for Agriculture Development :
(A) Sweden
(B) UK
(C) USA
(D) Rome
252. When did African Union come into existence :

(A) 27th May, 2002
(B) 26th May, 2001
(C) 26th May, 1999
(D) 28th May, 1996
253. Which African Organization was dissolved, when African Union was formed :
(A) Organization of African Country
(B) Organization of African Nation
(C) Organization of African Unity
254. What are the aims of the African Union :

(A) Unity of the 53 African member states politically, socially and economically
(B) Modelled on European Union
(C) (A) and (B)
255. What is the official language of the African Union :

(A) African languages
(B) Arabics, Portuguese
(C) English, French
(D) All the above
256. Where is the headquarters of the African Union :

(A) Addis Ababa (Ethiopia)
(B) Burundi
(C) Cameroon
(D) Congo
257. What is the aim of African Development Bank :

(A) Promote developing countries' economy
(B) Promote economic and social development in the African region
(C) Promote economic zone of African union
(D) All the above
258. How many regional members of African Development Bank are there :
(A) 54
(B) 55
(C) 53
(D) 58
259. How many non-regional members are there in the African Development Bank :
(A) 24
(B) 23
(C) 25
(D) 27
260. What is the official language of African Development Bank:

(A) English
(B) French
(C) (A) and (B)
261. Where is the headquarters of African Development Bank :

(A) Abidjan (Cote d' Ivoire)
(B) Niger
(C) Namibia
(D) Nigeria
262. When was Bank of Central African States formed :

(A) 1974
(B) 1978
(C) 1973
(D) 1979
263. Which is the official language of Bank of Central Arican States :

(A) English
(B) Hindi
(C) German
(D) French
264. What are the original member states in Bank of Central African States :
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2
265. Who are the original members of Bank of Central African States :
(A) Cameroon and Central African Republic
(B) Chad and Republic of the Congo
(C) Gabon
(D) All the above
266. Which European country is the guarantor of Bank of Central African States :
(A) UK
(B) France
(C) Germany
(D) Switzerland
267. Which European country provide its currency for Bank of Central African States :
(A) France
(B) UK
(C) Netherlands
(D) Germany
268. When did East African Development Bank come into force :
(A) 1967
(B) 1980
(C) 1982
(D) 1983
269. Through which treaty was East African Development Bank originally establish : (A) Treaty for East African Co-
operation, 1967
(B) Treaty for African Co-operation, 1965
(C) Treaty for African Unity, 1968
270. Which African countries are the members of the East African Development Bank :
(A) Kenya
(B) Tanzania
(C) Uganda
(D) All the above
271. Where is the headquarters of East African Development Bank :

(A) Uganda
(B) South Africa
(C) Zambia
(D) Zimbabwe
272. Which is the official language of East African Development Bank :

(A) German
(B) English
(C) French
(D) Portuguese
273. When was West African Development Bank formed :

(A) November, 1978
(B) November, 1979
(C) November, 1973
(D) November, 1976
274. Which is the official language of West African Development Bank :

(A) Arabic
(B) French
(C) Portuguese
(D) English
275. When was Central Bank of West African States formed :

(A) 1964
(B) 1963
(C) 1962
(D) 1965
276. Which is the official language of Central Bank of West African Bank:
(A) French
(B) Arabic
(C) English
(D) Hindi
277. Where is the headquarters of Central Bank of West African States :

(A) Avenue Abdoulaye Fediga
(B) Dakar
(C) Senegal
(D) All the above
278. In which year, African Export and Import Bank came into existence :
(A) 1978
(B) 1979
(C) 1976
(D) 1974
279. What is the official language of African Export and Import Bank :
(A) English, French
(B) Arabic
(C) Portuguese
(D) All the above
280. Where is the headquarters of African Export and Import Bank :

(A) Egypt
(B) Senegal
(C) Dauber
281. When did Economic Community of Central African States came into existence :
(A) 1984
(B) 1983
(C) 1982
(D) 1981
282. In which year, Economic Community of West African States came into existence :
(A) 1975
(B) 1978
(C) 1979
(D) 1974
283. Which is the official language of Economic Community of West African States :
(A) English
(B) French
(C) Portuguese
(D) All the above
284. When was West African Monetary and Economic Union found :
(A) 1991
(B) 1994
(C) 1992
(D) 1995
285. When was ‘Common Market for Eastern and Southern African (COMESA) formed :
(A) 1995
(B) 1994
(C) 1992
(D) 1991
286. How many member states are in `Common Market' for Eastern and Southern Africa:
(A) 21
(B) 28
(C) 20
(D) 26
287. Which is the official language of the `Common Market' for Eastern and Southern Africa:
(A) English
(B) French
(C) Portuguese
(D) All the above
288. How many member countries were founder of the Southern African Development Community :
(A) 9
(B) 8
(C) 7
(D) 6

(A) World Press Freedom Day — 3 May
(B) World Day for Water — 11 July
(C) World Environment Day — 5 June
(D) World Refugee Day — 20 June
290. Which is the official language of Southern African Development Community :

(A) English, French
(B) Portuguese
(C) German
(D) (A) and (B)
291. When was Lake Chad Basin Commission founded :

(A) 22nd May, 1964
(B) 24th May, 1964
(C) 28th May, 1964
(D) 29th May, 1964
292. When was Niger Basin Authority established :

(A) 1983
(B) 1981
(C) 1980
(D) 1982

(A) World Post Day — 9 October
(B) World Health Day — 7 April
(C) World Teacher's Day — 5 September
(D) World Book and Copyright Day — 23 April
294. When was East African Community formed :

295. Who are the members of East Arican Community :

(A) Kenya
(B) Uganda
(C) Tanzania
(D) All the above
296. When was Inter-Governmental Authority on Development come into existence :

(A) 21st March, 1995
(B) 21st March, 1996
(C) 25th March, 1998
(D) 28th March, 1997
297. When was World Council of Churches formally constituted:

(A) 23rd August, 1945
(B) 23rd August, 1944
(C) 23rd August, 1948
298. Where is the head-office of the World Council of Churches :

(A) Switzerland
(B) Germany
(C) France
(D) Italy
299. When did Unrepresented Nations and Peoples Organisation come into existence :
(A) 1991
(B) 1992
(C) 1993
(D) 1994
300. How many countries are represented in Unrepresented Nations and Peoples Organisation :
(A) 54
(B) 53
(C) 58
(D) 59
____________________________________________________________________________
Answers :
251.(D)252.(B)253.(B)254.(C)255.(D)256.(A)257.(B)258.(C)259.(C)260.(C)
261.(A)262.(C)263.(D)264.(A)265.(D)266.(B)267.(A)268.(A)269.(A)270.(D)
271.(A)272.(B)273.(C)274.(B)275.(C)276.(A)277.(D)278.(A)279.(D)280.(A)
281.(B)282.(A)283.(D)284.(B)285.(B)286.(C)287.(D)288.(B)289.(B)290.(D)
291.(A)292.(C)293.(C)294.(A)295.(D)296.(B)297.(C)298.(A)299.(A)300.(B)
301. When was International Organisation for Migration formed :

(A) Takoyo in 1994
(B) London in 1995
(C) Brusselos in 1951
302. What is the official language of International Organisation for Migration :

(A) English
(B) French
(C) (A) and (B)

(A) World Population Day — 11 July
(B) World Food Day — 20 June
(C) International Youth Day — 12 August
(D) International Day of Peace — 21 September
304. When was International Committee of the Red Cross (ICRC) established :
(A) New Delhi in February, 1996
(B) London in February, 1817
(C) Hague in February, 1896
(D) Geneva in February, 1863
305. Where is the headquarters of International Committee of the Red Cross :

(A) Switzerland
(B) South Africa
(C) United Kingdom
(D) U.S.A.
306. How many members are there in the International Committee of the Red Cross:
(A) 189
(B) 188
(C) 190
(D) 195
307. When did Antarctic Treaty come into force :

(A) 25th July, 1961
(B) 28th July, 1968
(C) 23th June, 1961
308. How many countries are Represented in the Antarctic Treaty :

(A) 35
(B) 34
(C) 37
(D) 39
309. When was Amnesty International founded :

(A) 1965
(B) 1961
(C) 1968
(D) 1975
310. Where is the headquarters of Amnesty International :

(A) London
(B) Tokyo
(C) New Delhi
(D) Paris
311. When did Amnesty Inter- national get the Nobel Peace Prize :
(A) 1978
(B) 1977
(C) 1975
(D) 1974

(A) World Conference against Racism — Durban
(B) World Summit for Sustainable Development — Johannesburg
(C) World Food Summit — Havana
(D) World Education Forum — Dakar

(A) Human Development Report — UNCTAD
(B) World Health Report — WHO
(C) World Development Report — World Bank
(D) World Economic Outlook — IMF
314. What is the main responsibility of the Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons :
(A) Maintain Chemical Weapons Warheads
(B) Implementation of the Chemical Weapons Convention
(C) (A) and (B)
315. When was Inter Parliamentary Union (IPU) founded :

(A) 1889
(B) 1876
(C) 1887
(D) 1888
316. Who found Amnesty International :

(A) Peter Shon
(B) Peter Max
(C) Peter Benson
(D) All the above
317. Who founded Inter Parliamentary Union :

(A) Willian Randal Cremer
(B) Foredrick Passy
(C) (A) and (B)
318. Which of the following pair is not correct : (A) SAARC — New Delhi
(B) ASEAN — Jakarta
(C) International Committee of the Red Cross — Geneva
(D) INTERPOL — Leon
319. Where is the headquarters of Inter Parliamentary Union :

(A) Sweden
(B) U.K.
(C) U.S.A.
(D) Switzerland
320. When was Organisation of the Islamic Conference founded :

(A) 1964
(B) 1968
(C) 1967
(D) 1965

(A) Statue of the International Court of Justice — 70 Articles
(B) Original Members of the UN — 50 Articles
(C) UN Charter — 111 Articles
(D) Universal Declaration of Human Rights — 30 Articles
322. When was Islamic Development Bank formed :

(A) August, 1974
(C) August, 1978
(B) August, 1979
(D) August, 1975
323. Where is the headquarters of the Organisation of the Islamic Conference :

(A) Morocco
(B) Saudi Arabia
(C) Kuwait
(D) Niger
324. Which is the Official Language of Islamic Development Bank:

(A) Arabic
(B) English
(C) French
(D) All the above
325. Where is the headquarters of Islamic Development Bank :

(A) Saudi Arabia
(B) Sweden
(C) Switzerland
326. United Nations entities having primary role in providing protection and assistance in humanitarian cribes :
(A) World Food Programme
(B) UNDP
(C) UNICEF
(D) All the above

(A) Partial Test-Ban Treaty — 1963
(B) Antarctic Treaty — 1965
(C) NPT — 1968
(D) CTBT — 1996
328. When did International Criminal Police Organisation come into existence :
(A) 1914
(B) 1918
(C) 1917
(D) 1915
329. Which of the following UN organ can impose embargoes and sanctions or authorize the use of force :
(B) International Court of Justice
(C) Secretary General
(D) Security Council
330. What is the official language of INTERPOL :

(A) English, Arabic
(B) French
(C) Spanish
(D) All the above
331. When did INTERPOL obtain observer status by the UN General Assembly :
(A) 15th Oct, 1996
(B) 15th Oct, 1998
(C) 15th Oct, 1997
(D) 15th Oct, 1999
332. Where is the headquarters of INTERPOL :

(A) U.S.A.
(B) U.K
(C) France
(D) Germany
333. When was International Mobile Satellite Organisation set-up :

(A) 1978
(B) 1979
(C) 1977
(D) 1988
334. Where is the headquarters of the International Mobile Satellite Organisation :

(A) U.K.
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Spain
(D) Netherlands
335. When was International Telecommunication Satellite Organisation founded :

(A) 1969
(B) 1964
(C) 1965
(D) 1962
336. Which of the following day is designated as the International Day of Peace :
(A) 1 January
(B) 31 December
(C) 21 September
(D) 15 August
337. Where is the headquarters of International Telecommuni- cation Satellite Organisation :

(A) Washington D.C.
(B) London
(C) Geneva
(D) Sweden
338. When was World Tourism Organisation established :

(A) 1921
(B) 1923
(C) 1925
(D) 1929
339. Where the University for Peace is established?

(A) Kenya
(B) Fiji
(C) Switzerland
(D) Costa Rica
340. Where is the headquarters of the World Tourism Organisation:

(A) Spain
(B) U.K.
(C) U.S.A.
(D) India
341. When was International Air Transport Association founded:

(A) 1949
(B) 1945
(C) 1947
(D) 1948
342. Where is the headquarters of International Air Transport Association :

(A) Canada
(B) Singapore
(C) France
343. Where is the headquarters of International Road Federation:

(A) Netherlands
(B) Spain
(C) France
(D) Switzerland
344. Where is the headquarters of International Confederation of Free Trade Union :

(A) Belgium
(B) Denmark
(C) Zambia
(D) Namibia
345. When was the World Federation of Trade Union founded :

(A) 1949
(B) 1945
(C) 1946
(D) 1942
346. Where are the regional offices of World Federation of Trade Unions :
(A) New Delhi, Havana
(B) Daka, Damascus
(C) Moscow
(D) All the above
347. Where is the headquarters of the World Federation of Trade Union :

(A) Czech Republic
(B) Russia
(C) U.K.
(D) U.S.A.
348. When was European Trade Union Confederation established :

(A) 1974
(B) 1973
(C) 1971
(D) 1978
349. Where is the headquarters of European Trade Union Confederation :

(A) Italy
(B) Democratic Republic of the Congo
(C) Belgium
(D) Albania
350. When was World Confederation of Labour founded :

(A) 1920
(B) 1921
(C) 1923
(D) 1924
_________________
Answers :
301.(C)302.(C)303.(B)304.(D)305.(A)306.(B)307.(C)308.(D)309.(B)310.(A)
311.(B)312.(C)313.(A)314.(C)315.(A)316.(C)317.(B)318.(A)319.(D)320.(A)
321.(B)322.(A)323.(B)324.(D)325.(A)326.(D)327.(B)328.(A)329.(C)330.(D)
331.(A)332.(C)333.(B)334.(A)335.(B)336.(C)337.(A)338.(C)339.(D)340.(A)
341.(B)342.(A)343.(D)344.(A)345.(B)346.(D)347.(A)348.(B)349.(C)350.(A)
351. Where is the headquarters of World Confederation of Labour:

(A) Chad
(B) Canada
(C) Belgium
(D) Cameroon
352. Where is the headquarters of International Organisation of the Francophonie :

(A) Togo
(B) Mali
(C) Romania
(D) France
353. When was International Organisation for Standard- isation established :

(A) 1947
(B) 1949
(C) 1948
(D) 1945
354. Where is the headquarters of the International Organisation for Standardisation :

(A) U.S.A.
(B) U.K.
(C) Switzerland
(D) Senegal
355. In which year, International Organisation for Standardisation published the First Standard with the Title
‘Standard Reference Tem- perature for Industrial length measurement’ :
(A) 1951
(B) 1952
(C) 1954
(D) 1958
356. Where is the headquarters of Worldwide Fund for Nature:

(A) Lebanon
(B) Benin
(C) Switzerland
(D) Haiti
357. When was International Olympic Committee founded :

(A) 1894
(B) 1895
(C) 1888
(D) 1887
358. When was International Union against Cancer founded:

(A) 1934
(B) 1933
(C) 1939
(D) 1938
359. When was Inter American Development Bank established :

(A) 1959
(B) 1958
(C) 1957
(D) 1951
360. In order to help accelerate Economic and Social Development of which country Inter-American Development
Bank was formed :
(A) Latin America
(B) Caribbean
(C) (A) and (B)
361. How many member countries are there in the Inter-American Development Bank :
(A) 45
(B) 43
(C) 46
(D) 48
362. Which is the official language of Inter-American Development Bank :

(A) English and French
(B) Portuguese
(C) Spanish
(D) All the above
363. Where is the headquarters of Inter-American Development Bank :

(A) U.S.A.
(B) Spain
(C) Venezuela
(D) Uruguay
364. When was Secretariate for Central American Economic Integration established :
(A) 1953
(B) 1952
(C) 1951
(D) 1954
365. Where is the headquarters of Central American Common Market.

(A) Guatemala
(B) Venezuela
(C) Honduras
(D) Colombia
366. When was Central American Bank for Economic Integration founded :
(A) 1962
(B) 1960
(C) 1961
(D) 1964
367. Which is the official language of Central American Bank for Economic Integration :
(A) Hindi
(B) Spanish
(C) English
(D) (B) and (C)
368. Where is the headquarters of the Central American Bank for Economic Integration :
(A) Honduras
(B) Costa Rica
(C) Mexico
(D) China
369. Which is the official language of Latin American Integration Association :

(A) Portuguese
(B) Spanish
(C) (A) and (B)
370. In which year Latin American Economic System was established :

(A) 1975
(B) 1978
(C) 1979
(D) 1974
371. Which is the official language of Latin American Economic System :

(A) English and French
(B) Portuguese
(C) Spanish
(D) All the above
372. Where is the headquarters of Latin American Economic System :

(A) Panama
(B) Venezuela
(C) Paraguay
(D) Peru
373. In which year was Latin American Reserve Fund established :

(A) 1990
(B) 1989
(C) 1991
(D) 1982
374. Which is the official language of Latin American Reserve Fund :

(A) Spanish
(B) Portuguese
(C) English
(D) French
375. Which is the official language of the Andean Community :

(A) English
(B) German
(C) Spanish
376. When was Southern Common Market founded :

(A) January 1992
(B) March 1991
(C) October 1989
(D) September 1997
377. Which is the headquarters of Southern Common Market :

(A) Uruguay
(B) Peru
(C) Trinidad
(D) Tobago
378. When was Association of Caribbean States formed :

(A) 24th July, 1998
(B) 24th July, 1994
(C) 24th July, 1999
(D) 24th July, 1995
379. When did Caribbean Community come into force :

(A) 1st August, 1973
(B) 1st August, 1971
(C) 1st August, 1972
(D) 1st August, 1967
380. Which is the official language of Caribbean Community

(A) English
(B) Hindi
(C) Japanese
381. When was Caribbean Development Bank establish :

(A) 1968
(B) 1967
(C) 1969
(D) 1965
382. How many members of regional members are there in the Caribbean Development Bank :
(A) 15
(B) 16
(C) 14
(D) 11
383. Which are the non-regional countries of Caribbean Development Bank :

(A) Canada, China and Germany
(B) Italy and U.K.
(C) (A) and (B)
384. Where is the headquarters of Caribbean Development Bank:

(A) Barbados
(B) Guyana
(C) Trinidad
(D) Tobago
385. Where is the headquarters of ‘Agency for the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons in Latin America and Caribbean :
(A) Mexico
(B) El Salvador
(C) Grenada
(D) Guatemala
386. When was ‘Eastern Caribbean Central Bank’ established :

(A) 1981
(B) 1983
(C) 1984
(D) 1991
387. Which is the official language of Eastern Caribbean Central Bank :

(A) English
(B) Arabaic
(C) Japanese
(D) All the above
388. Where is the headquarters of Eastern Caribbean Central Bank :

(A) St. Kitts and Nevis
(B) St. Lucia
(C) St. Vincent
389. When was the Organisation of Eastern Caribbean States founded :

(A) 1988
(B) 1987
(C) 1981
(D) 1991
390. When was Asian Development Bank established :

(A) 1966
(B) 1967
(C) 1968
(D) 1965
391. What is the official language of the Asian Development Bank :

(A) English
(B) German
(C) Italian
(D) Arabic
392. Where is the headquarters of Asian Development Bank :

(A) Denmark
(B) China
(C) Philippines
(D) Nepal
393. When was Economic Co-operation Organisation established :

(A) 1885
(B) 1981
(C) 1984
(D) 1980
394. Which are the countries who set-up the Economic Co-operation Organisation :
(A) Iran
(B) Pakistan
(C) Turkey
(D) All the above
395. Where is the headquarters of the Economic Co-operation Organisation :

(A) Republic of Iran
(B) Pakistan
(C) Turkey
(D) Afghanistan
396. When was Colombo Plan founded :

(A) 1949
(B) 1948
(C) 1950
(D) 1951
397. Which countries are the provisional members of the Colombo Plan :
(A) Mongolia
(B) Vietnam
(C) (A) and (B)
398. Where is the headquarters of Colombo Plan :

(A) Srilanka
(B) Singapore
(C) Thailand
(D) Myanmar
399. When was Asia-Pacific Economic Co-operation formed:

(A) 1949
(B) 1989
(C) 1987
(D) 1983
400. Which is the official language of Asia Pacific Economic Co-operation :

(A) English
(B) Urdu
(C) German
(D) French
____________________________________________________________________________
Answers :
351.(C)352.(D)353.(A)354.(C)355.(A)356.(C)357.(A)358.(B)359.(A)360.(C)
361.(C)362.(D)363.(A)364.(B)365.(A)366.(B)367.(D)368.(A)369.(C)370.(A)
371.(D)372.(B)373.(C)374.(A)375.(C)376.(B)377.(A)378.(B)379.(A)380.(A)
381.(C)382.(B)383.(C)384.(A)385.(A)386.(B)387.(A)388.(A)389.(C)390.(A)
391.(A)392.(C)393.(A)394.(D)395.(A)396.(C)397.(C)398.(A)399.(B)400.(A)

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Under the important questions of Physical Education a set of 50 questions with solution is given below.

2. The longest muscle in the body is–

3. Which of the following is a scalar quantity ?

4. White muscle fibers are better adopted to perform–

6. Which one of the following is not considered as an organisation?

7. The camp crafts involve–

Read More : 50+ Multiple Choice Physical Education Questions

9. The another name for percussion manipulation is–

10. Trypsin helps in the digestion of–

12. Adrenalin, which is an excitatary hormone is secreted by–

15. Structural and functional unit of kidney is–

16. The most suitable class formation for teaching shotput is a–

17. Top spin causes–

20. Dynamometer is used to measure–

21. Bhartiyam' was conducted to promote–

22. The knot used to tie a bandage is known as–

23. Organisation means 'Planning the work' and administration means–

25. Which deficiency in the blood causes inflammation in body parts?

27. A test is considered to be reliable if it has–

28. Standard Deviation represents spread of scores around–

29. Of the given, which protein filament is 50 to 55% in the muscle?

31. All reflex activities are controlled by–

33. Posture is an index of–

34. Goniometer is an equipment which is used to measure–

38. Pre-school children learn things by–

39. The two great dangers of wounds are–

41. Who said 'Recreation is not a matter of motions but emotions' ?

42. The functional efficiency of a muscle depends upon its–

46. The most important consideration in selecting the Sports equip-mentis–

47. Hypothalamus is associated with the control of–

49. Cognitive process is concerned with–

50. From the viewpoint of Psychology, 'Sympathy' is–

52. The number of bones in the Cranium is–

53. Ball and Socket types of Joint is–

55. Increase in muscle mass due to heavy weight training is called–

56. The richest source of protein is–

57. Who amongst the following are found to be most agile?

Read More : 50+ Physical Education Questions and Answer

63. In comparison to the Greeks, the Romans were more–

64. Which artery carries the supply of blood towards heart?

65. Scoliosis is a postural deformity related with–

66. The Law of acceleration is also known as–

68. Ultra Microscopic viruses are the main cause of–

69. Sphygmomanometer is used to measure–

70. Which of the following is a two Joint muscle?

71. Harvard step test is a test for measuring–

72. The back thigh muscles are also known as–

74. Which of the following activities measures dynamic strength ?

75. First step of Budget preparation is–

76. The literal meaning of the word Philosophy is–

78. Physical activity is basically a–

80. In the technical terms, muscle pull is known as–

81. The 50th percentile is also known as–

84. One of the following is an excellent example of Condyloid Joint–

86. In the Childhood, individual's behaviour is mostly influenced by–

88. Which is not a Primary Motive?

89. Which is the smallet bone in the human body?

90. The most important factor in the organisation of recreation is–

91. The amount of blood pumped by heart in one beat is called–