Fire Protection

1) When a fire occurs in engine 1, what would you observe?

a. CRC sounds
b. MASTER WARNing flashes.
c. ENGINE FIRE PUSHbutton light comes on.
d. FIRE light on ENGINE MASTER panel comes on.
2) What to do with fire?
a. Push the MASTER WARNING P/B SW, the CRC stops.
b. Move the thrust lever to idle position.
c. Set the MASTER level o OFF, the LP fuel valve and the HP fuel valve close and cause
engine shutdown.
d. When the ENGINE FIRE PUSHbutton is released, the MASTER CAUTion comes on due
to deactivation of system. Fuel LP valve closure is confirmed.
e. SQUIB light on AGENT P/Bs come on to indicate that the AGENT P/B can be used.
f. When AGENT 1 P/B is pressed, fire bottle one is discharged in the engine
compartment and the DISCHarge light comes on. Same action for AGNE 2.
g. When the fire is extinguished, the ENGINE FIRE PUSHbutton light, MASTER CAUTion
and the FIRE indication on the ENGINE MASTER panel goes off.
3) What does AFECU does when there is APU fire?
a. CRC operates, MASTER WARNing flashes and the APU FIRE P/B light on the APU FIRE
panel comes on.
b. AFECU starts the extinguishing sequence.
c. ECB receives the signal and activates APU shutdown – Fuel solenoid valve and fire LP
SOV closes.
d. FAULT light on APU MASTER Switch P/B comes on.
e. APU fire bottle is discharged automatically.
f. MASTER CAUTion comes.
g. When the fire is extinguished, the MASTER WARN, APU FIRE P/B and APU FIRE light
goes off.

Powerplant

1) How to open fan cowl?

a. Open shoot bolts 6 and 5 then open latch 4, 2, 3 and 1.
2) What to do before opening thrust reverser cowl?
a. Must not open the C-ducts if the wind speed is 46MPH or more.
b. Before opening the C-ducts, thrust reverse must be deactivated.
c. The take-up device must be operated before to release the latches.
3) How many rotating shafts?
a. LP (N1) = 1 LPC + 4 LPT
b. IP (N2) = 8 LPC + 1 IPT
c. HP (N3) = 6 HPC + 1 HPT
4) The IP (N2) turbine shaft runs forward and is connected to the UP compressor stub shaft
with helical splines.
5) When the engine is shutdown, what happened to the fuel?
a. The drains collector tank collects excessive and unused fuel that drains from the fuel
manifold when the engine is shutdown or after an engine start abort.
b. The ejector sends the fuel back to the LP fuel system during engine start.
6) There are 3 torque motors: Metering valve TM, Ovespeed TM and Fuel SOV TM. The ENGINE
MASTER switch controls the Fuel SOV TM. The Fuel SOV TM is energised when the Master
Switch is OFF.
7) The OPU has two channels:
a. N1 function channel receives inputs from 3 N1C speed probes and N2 function
channel which receives inputs from 3 N2 speed probes. Sent to both EEC channels
for N1 and N2 monitoring and indicating.
b. N1C signal used by LPTOS of the EEC for turbine overspeed detection.
8) The EEC dedicated alternator is used to sense HP (N3) shaft speed.
9) The EEC dedicated alternator supplies 2 separate three-phase AC outputs that are converted
to DC by the PCU and sent to the EEC, one supply per channel. It also supplies 2 separate
one-phase AC output to the OPU. One of these outputs is a spare and could be connected in
place of the other winding if it fails.
10) There are 2 ignition systems, A and B.
11) If ignitor plugs are replaced, 4 tests need to be done – 2 x from EEC (A and B) and 2 x from
power supply (emergency and normal bus).
12) Only one ignition system used during auto start.
13) To initiate a manual start sequence, the ENG START selector must be set to IGN/START
position. Both EECs are then powered. The associated ENGine MANual START P/N is set to
ON and the EEC opens the Starter Control Valve, allowing the pneumatic starter to rotat e
the N3 rotor.
14) The IP compressor consists of:
a. 1 VSV control unit.
b. 2 VSV actuators
c. VIGV/VSV actuating mechanism
d. 4 IP bleed valves
e. 3 HP bleed valves
15) 2 VSV actuators are actuated by servo fuel pressure from the VSV control unit.
16) When the VSV actuator retracts, the VSV open and when it extends, the VSV closes (engine
shuts down).
17) The 7 bleed valves have internal chambers and springs for operation and are supplied with
HP3 air muscle pressure from the bleed valve solenoid unit through its solenoid valves.
When one HP/IP bleed valve solenoid is de-energised, HP3 air muscle pressure forces the
corresponding valve to open in addition to the spring load. When the solenoid is energised,
HP3 air from the servo chamber is released through the solenoid valve. This lets the
compressor air pressure close the bleed valves.
18) Powerplant is divided into 3 zones supplied with cooling air. Zone 1 – Fan case
compartment: ventilated by ram air ducted through an opening on top of the air intake
cowl. The ventilation air is exhausted through an opening in the lower part the right hand
fan cowl door.
19) When the ENGine MASTER switch is set to OFF, a 28VDC closes the auto power off time
delay relay and supplies the fuel SOV TM, resulting in the PRSOV closure. 2 minutes later,
the auto power off relay cuts off the power supply to the fuel SOV TM. The PRSOV maintain
in closed position by spring load.
20) The main thrust control parameter is the Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR). EPR is calculated by
the EEC as a function of the total pressure at engine inlet P20 and the total pressure at the
core engine outlet P50 (EPR = P50/P20).
21) If the EEC is unable to compute the EPR, the engine thrust control reverts to N1 mode.
22) If EIVMU fails,
a. FADEC permanently powered (risk of EEC overheat)
b. No manual start
c. Thrust reverser inoperative
23) EVIMU uses information from RCC, EEC and trim balance probe to indicate engine vibration
level. Trim balance probe is used for determination of N1 unbalance phase angle.
24) 3 types of locks for thrust reversers:
a. Primary lock: Hydraulic pressure directed to hydraulic latch to unlock the reversers.
b. Secondary lock
c. Tertiary lock: Released electrically to deploy the reverser. FCPC command the
tertiary locks to unlock when the following conditions are satisfied:
i. ‘Thrust reverse selected’ signals from dedicated potentiometers in the TCU
ii. Other engine throttle control levers in IDLE position
iii. Aircraft on ground – RA signal < 6FT.
25) Deactivate Thrust Reverser for flight:
a. Pull FADEC C/Bs
b. Pull the T/R locking C/B (Tertiary lock)
c. Open the fan cowl doors
d. Deactivate the thrust reverser ICU
e. Remove the inhibition bolt attachment covers from each pivoting door
f. Remove the inhibition bolts from their stowage brackets on the leading edge of the
reverser assembly.
g. Install the inhibition bolts in each pivoting door and secure with the locking plates.
h. Install the plain covers on the stowage brackets.
i. On the ECAM E/WD, make sure that the EN1 (2) REV INHIBITED message is shown.
26) Low oil pressure switch
a. Compares the main oil pressure and the scavenge oil pressure.
b. Gives an indication directly to the cockpit if the difference in oil pressure becomes
too low.
27) Oil returning to the oil tank will pass
a. Oil filter
b. Master magnetic chip detector
c. Oil temperature sensor
d. Bypass valve
e. Delta pressure switch
28) Oil vent system:
a. The engine centrifugal breather extracts the venting air/oil mixture and separates
the oil from the air before directing the air overboard through the breather outlet.
b. Breather makes sure that any oil droplets remaining in the air rom the oil tank de-
aerator are separated before discharging.
c. Any oil separated is scavenged from the breather housing back to the oil tank.
29) If oil level is low and engine has been stopped for more than 6 hours, start the engine and
run idle for 5 minutes. Shut own the engine and wait 10 minutes. Check the oil level again.
30) In case of failure of the oil quantity indication, aircraft may be dispatched as per MEL as long
as the oil LP switch is operational and there is no evidence of abnormal consumption or
leakage. Procedure:
a. Open fan cowl doors.
b. Open the thrust reverser cowls.
 c. Do a visual check for oil leakage at the oil equipment, lines and connections.
d. Check the oil level in the oil tank and service if necessary
e. On the MCDU, read the EIVMU GROUND REPORT and make sure that there are no
messages related to Oil LP switch without FADEC power on.
f. Close the cowl.
31) Desiccant should be placed at air intake cowl, rear of fan case and CAN.

Ice and Rain Protection

1) How does the probe heat turn on?

a. Captain, FO and standby probes are heated by independent system controlled by a
PHC.
b. Probes and static ports are automatically heated when engine 1 or 2 is started on
ground or in flight using the landing gear status.
c. TAT probes are only heated in flight.
d. Pitot probes have 2 heating levels – low on ground and normal in flight.
2) How does the ground test on wing anti-ice system work?
a. LGCIU 1 sends a ground signal to the MODE relay.
b. When the WING ANTI-ICE P/B SW is on, MODE relay is energised and the GROUND
TEST relay opens for 30 seconds. CONTROL relay closes for 30 seconds.
c. Valves to be energised for a limited time, preventing the slats from overheating.
d. After 30 seconds, GROUND TEST relay closes and de-energises the valves through
the CONTROL relay.
3) What is the working relationship of the Windshield Temperature Sensors?
a. The WHC is connected to 2 sensors of the windshield and 1 sensor on each fixed
window.
b. If one sensor of the windshield (N1) fails, the WHC automatically switches to the
second sensor (N3) without any maintenance action. The third sensor (N2) has to be
connected manually at terminal block level.
4) If there is a failure in the EIVMU and you turn on the engine anti ice, what should happen?
a. ENG 1 (2) OIL LOW PRESS and GrouND relay is not energised and causes the related
probes and static ports to be heated.
b. The PHCs still get the engine status from the valid EIVMU via the crosstalk link.
5) When will the fuel tank inecrting system work automatically?
a. Only in flight.
6) Another name for Air-conditioned system = ECS
7) The signal received from IGGS in order to function properly?
a. ADIRU – TAT, Corrected Average Static Pressure, Altitude Rate and Computed
Airspeed Signals.
b. FCMC – Fuel density, center tank fuel quantity and FCMC labels.