Homework 1

Dahyeon Lee
January 31, 2018

Problem 1
Aberration refers to the fact that the direction of travel of a light ray depends on the motion of the
observer. If a telescope observes a star at an inclination θ0 to the horizontal, show that in Galilean
relativity the ‘true’ inclination θ of the star is related θ0 by
sin θ
tan θ0 = ,
cos θ + v/c

where v is the velocity of the telescope relative to the star. Show that the corresponding special
relativistic formula is
sin θ
tan θ0 = .
γ(cos θ + v/c)

In order to get the correct result, we have to assume that the observer is moving towards the star. Also, all
the angles in this problem should have been measured with respect to the direction of motion. Therefore, if
the teslescope is installed on the earth, this fomula would be vaild only at one particular point at latitude
76.5◦ .

Figure 1: Aberration in Galilean relativity

With these assumptions in place, the problem can be represented as in Figure 1. The observer on the
earth sees the light emitted from the star at some time t before. During this time, the star moves by some
distance vt relative to the observer. From Figure 1, it is easy to see that the angles are related by
d sin θ sin θ
tan θ0 = = ,
d cos θ + vt cos θ + v/c

where d is the distance from the observer to the star, v is the speed of the telescope relative to the star, and
t is the time it takes for the light to reach the observer, which is simply d/c.

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Figure 2: Aberration in special relativity

The special relativistic picture is not so different (see Figure 2). The only difference is that there is
length contraction. Without length contraction (in Galilean relativity), the apparent x position of the star
was d cos θ + vt. But when we take length contraction into account, the star looks like it is farther away.1
Therefore, the apparent x position of the star is γ(d cos θ + vt). Then, it is straightforward from the diagram
that
d sin θ sin θ
tan θ00 = = .
γ(d cos θ + vt) γ(cos θ + v/c)

Problem 2
The world line of a particle is described by the parametric equations
   
λ λ
ct(λ) = a sinh , x(λ) = a cosh ,
a a

where a is a constant. Compute the particle’s four-velocity and four-acceleration components. Show
that λ is the proper time along the world line and that the acceleration is uniform (i.e. show that the
norm of the four-acceleration is constant.)

Take the differentials of t(λ) and x(λ):  

λ
cdt = cosh dλ ,
a
 
λ
dx = sinh dλ .
a
By definition,
(ds)2 = −(cdt)2 + (dx)2 = −(cdτ )2 .
1 This is a confusing point, but Feynman explains it very well. (http://www.feynmanlectures.caltech.edu/I_34.html)

Essentially, he points out that the distance d cos θ + vt is the distance measured from someone in space, not from the earth.
The observer on the earth would measure this distance to be larger because they are measuring with a squished yardstick.

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Using the explicit expressions for dt and dx,

    
2 2 λ 2 λ
(ds) = − cosh − sinh (dλ)2
a a
= −(dλ)2
= −c2 (dτ )2 .

Therefore,
λ = cτ .
Before we attempt to find the four-velocity u and four-acceleration A, let’s calculate v and γ:
 −1  
dx dx dt λ
v= = = c tanh ,
dt dλ dλ a

 
1 1 1 λ
γ=p =q = = cosh .
1 − v 2 /c2 sech (λ/a) a
1 − tanh2 (λ/a)

The four-velocity uµ is
 
0 λ c
u = γc = c cosh = x(λ)
a a
     
1 λ λ λ c
u = γv = cosh c tanh = c sinh = (ct)
a a a a
u2 = 0
u3 = 0 .

The four-acceleration Aµ is
du0 c dx1 c2
 
c λ
A0 = = = u1 = sinh
dτ a dτ a a a
1 0 2
 
du c dx c c λ
A1 = = = = cosh
dτ a dτ a a a
A2 = 0
A3 = 0 .

The acceleration is uniform:

c4 c4
    
2 λ 2 λ
A · A = −(A0 )2 + (A1 )2 = 2
cosh − sinh = 2 = constant .
a a a a

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 PHYS7320 Homework 1

Problem 3
Compton scattering: A photon of frequency νi scatters off an electron (of mass m) at rest in the lab.
Use four-momentum conservation to show that the frequency of the scattered photon is given by the
1 1 h
formula − = (1 − cos θ), where θ is the scattering angle.
νf νi m

Before doing the calculation, I will prove an identity that I will use later:
β2 1
γ2β2 = 2
= − 1 = γ2 − 1 .
1−β 1 − β2

Figure 3: Compton scattering

Figure 3 shows a photon scattering off of an electron of mass m. We want to prove the compton scattering
formula
1 1 h
− = (1 − cos θ) .
νf νi m
Each component of the four-momentum is conserved.
First compoent (cp0 ):
hνi + mc2 = hνf + γmc2 .
γmc2 = h(νi − νf ) + mc2 . (1)
1
Second component (p ):
hνi hνf
= cos θ + γmv cos φ . (2)
c c
Third component (p2 ):
hνf
0= sin θ − γmv sin φ . (3)
c
By combining equations (2) and (3), we can get

γ 2 β 2 m2 c4 = h2 νi2 + h2 νf2 − 2νi νf cos θ .

From the identity we proved in the beginning,

(γ 2 − 1)m2 c4 = h2 νi2 + h2 νf2 − 2h2 νi ν f cos θ . (4)

Meanwhile, squaring (1) gives

γ 2 m2 c4 = h2 (νi − νf )2 + 2mc2 h(νi − νf ) + m2 c4 .

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 PHYS7320 Homework 1

(γ 2 − 1)m2 c4 = h2 (νi − νf )2 + 2mc2 h(νi − νf ) . (5)

Combining (4) and (5),
h2 νi2 + h2 νf2 − 2h2 νi νf + 2mc2 h(νi − νf ) = h2 νi2 + h2 νf2 − 2h2 νi νf cos θ .
hνi νf (1 − cos θ) = mc2 (νi − νf ) .
Finally,
1 1 h
− = (1 − cos θ) .
νf νi mc2

Problem 4
Write down a Lorentz covariant form of the Lorentz force law in electrodynamics and show that the
spatial components are equivalent to the usual form
dp
= qE + qv × B .
dt
What is the interpretation of the time component?
Jackson (11.144):
dpν duν q
=m = F µν uν .
dτ dτ c
The field tensor is given by
0 −Ex −Ey −Ez
 
Ex 0 −Bz By 
F µν =  .
 Ey Bz 0 −Bx 
Ez −By Bx 0
Let’s explicitly check that the spacial part reduces to the usual Lorentz force law:2
dp1 q
= (F 10 u0 − F 11 u1 − F 12 u2 − F 13 u3 )
dτ c
q
= (γcEx + Bz u2 − By u3 )
c
= γq [Ex + (γv × B)x ] .
Similarly,
dp2
= γq [Ey + (γv × B)y ]
dτ
and
dp3
= γq [Ez + (γv × B)z ] .
dτ
Combining the results,
dp
= γq(E + γv × B) .
dτ
The time component is
dp0 q
= (F 00 u0 − F 01 u1 − F 02 u2 − F 03 u3 )
dτ c
q
= (0 + Ex u1 + Ey u2 + Ez u3 )
c
γq
= E·v
c
q
= u·E
c
This is force times velocity, which is the rate of change in energy.
2 For this calculation, I’m using Jackson’s convention, where the metric tensor is diag(1,-1,-1,-1).

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 PHYS7320 Homework 1

Problem 5
(a) Show that the four acceleration is orthogonal to the four velocity (a.u = 0)

du 1 d 1 d
a·u= ·u= (u · u) = (−c2 ) = 0 .
dτ 2 dτ 2 dτ

(b) A particle is subject to a four-force (F 0 , F). Show that the time component is related to the spacial
p·F
component by F 0 = , where (p0 , p) are the components of the momentum four vector. What is
p0
the relation between F and the Newtonian force?

Since u · u = 0 from part (a), we should have a0 u0 = a · u. Using this result,

dp0 du0 ma0 u0 ma · u p·F

F0 = =m = ma0 = = = 0 .
dτ dτ u0 u0 p
If we just consider the spacial parts,

dpi d2 xi dxi dxi

   
i d d
F = =m 2 =m γ = mγ γ = γ γ̇mv i + γ 2 mai .
dτ dτ dτ dt dt dt
The last term is the Newtonian force.

(c) Express the components of the four-acceleration vector in terms of the usual acceleration vector
A = dv/dt and vice-versa (Here v is the usual velocity dx/dt). Hence show that if A is zero in one
inertial frame it is zero in every inertial frame.

d2 x0 d2 (ct)
 
0 d dt dγ
a = = =c =c = cγ γ̇ .
dτ 2 dτ 2 dτ dτ dτ
d2 x d d
a= = (γv) = γ (γv) = γ γ̇v + γ 2 A .
dτ 2 dτ dt
Combining these,
a = (cγ γ̇, γ γ̇v + γ 2 A) .
If we wanted to be more explicit,
−1/2
v2

d
γ̇ = 1− 2
dt c
−3/2 
v2
 
1 1
=− 1− 2 − 2 2vA
2 c c
v 3
= 2γ A .
c
If in A = 0 in one inertial frame, every component of a has to be zero as well. Then, in any other inertial
frame, a0 is still zero (because Lorentz transformation is linear), which in turn gives A0 = 0.

dp0 √
(d) Show that = 1 − v 2 v · F.
dt

r
dp0 du0 du0 dτ m ma·u m m 1 1 v2
=m =m = a0 = 0
= 2 u·a= v·a= v·F= 1− v·F
dt dt dτ dt γ γ u γ c γc γc c c2

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 PHYS7320 Homework 1

Problem 6
A kaon is moving with an energy of 1 GeV in the laboratory frame. If the kaon decays into two pions,
what is the maximal opening angle between the two pions in the laboratory frame?
Hint: First find a general formula for the opening angle. You may need to use
cot θ1 cot θ2 − 1
cot(θ1 + θ2 ) = .
cot θ1 + cot θ2

We can approach this problem in two perspectives: in the rest frame of kaon and in the lab frame. Figure
4 shows how this decay looks like in the two frames. In the rest frame of kaon, the two decay products have
to come out in opposite directions in order to conserve momentum. Furthermore, since the masses of the two
decay products are the same, the momenta of each particle have to be the same (p01 = p02 ≡ p0 ). Therefore,
if the rest mass of kaon is M and the rest mass of pion is m,
q q p
0
M c2 = m2 c4 + p02 2
1 c + m2 c4 + p02 2 2 4 02 2
2 c = 2 m c + p c ≡ 2E .

Using M = 500 MeV and m = 140 MeV, we get E 0 = 250 Mev and p0 = 207 MeV/c.

Figure 4: Kaon decay in its rest frame and the lab frame

Now, consider the picture in the lab frame. It is nothing but a Lorentz transformation of the first picture
with γ = 2 (because the energy of the kaon in the lab frame is 1 GeV = 2M c2 ) and β = 0.87). The Lorentz
tranformed momenta are:
0 0 0 0
p+
x = γ(px + βE /c) = γ(p cos α + βE /c) ,
p− 0 0
x = γ(−p cos α + βE /c) ,
0
p+
y = p sin α ,
p− 0
y = p sin α .

α is the only variable here. We would like to maximize the opening angle θ1 + θ2 by choosing an
appropriate α. In order to do this, note that

γ(p0 cos α + βE 0 /c)

cot θ1 = p+ +
x /py =
p0 sin α
and
γ(−p0 cos α + βE 0 /c)
cot θ2 = p− −
x /py = .
p0 sin α

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 PHYS7320 Homework 1

Plugging this into the given trig identity,

γ 2 (β 2 E 02 − p02 c2 cos2 α) − p02 c2 sin2 α

cot(θ1 + θ2 ) = .
2βγp0 cE 0 sin α

Since cot θ is a monotonically decreasing function, we want to minimize cot(θ1 + θ2 ). I used Mathematica
for this:
γ = 2;
β = 0.87;
e = 250; (* MeV *)
p = 207; (* MeV/c *)

γ2 β2 e2 - p2 (Cos[x])2  - p2 (Sin[x])2

�������� f[x_ ] :=
2 β γ p e Sin[x]

�������� Minimize[{f[x], 0 < x < π / 2}, x]

�������� {0.531661, {x → 0.381615}}

�������� ArcCot[0.53]

�������� 1.08344

Figure 5: Finding the maximal opening angle

The maximal opening angle is θ1 + θ2 = 1.083 rad = 62◦ when α = 0.38 rad.