Forouzan: MCQ in
Introduction to Data
Communications and
Networking
1. There are
______________ Internet
service providers.
A) regional
B) local
C) national and
international
D) all of the above
2. ______ refers to the
physical or logical
arrangement of a network.
A) Topology
B) Mode of operation
C) Data flow
D) None of the above
3. A ______ is a data
communication system
spanning states, countries,
or the whole world.
A) MAN
B) WAN
C) LAN
D) none of the above
4. A _______ connection
provides a dedicated link
between two devices.
A) primary
B) multipoint D) Transmission B) half-duplex
C) point-to-point 9. ________ defines how a C) full-duplex
D) secondary particular pattern to be D) all of the above
5. Which topology requires interpreted, and what 13. _______ are special-
a multipoint connection? action is to be taken based interest groups that quickly
A) Bus on that interpretation. test, evaluate, and
B) Star A) Syntax standardize new
C) Mesh B) Semantics technologies.
D) Ring C) Timing A) Standards organizations
6. A ________ is a set of D) None of the above B) Regulatory agencies
rules that governs data C) Forums
communication. 10. Frequency of failure D) All of the above
A) protocol and network recovery time 14. Which agency
B) forum after a failure are measures developed standards for
C) standard of the _______of a physical connection
D) none of the above network. interfaces and electronic
7. In a ______ connection, A) Performance signaling specifications?
two and only two devices B) Security A) ISO
are connected by a C) Reliability B) ITU-T
dedicated link. D) Feasibility C) ANSI
A) multipoint 11. A television broadcast D) EIA
B) point-to-point is an example of _______ 15. A _______ is a data
C) (a) and (b) transmission. communication system
D) none of the above A) half-duplex within a building, plant, or
8. The information to be B) simplex campus, or between
communicated in a data C) full-duplex nearby buildings.
communications system is D) automatic A) LAN
the _______. 12. Data flow between two B) MAN
A) Medium devices can occur in a C) WAN
B) Protocol _______ way. D) none of the above
C) Message A) simplex
16. _______ refers to two A) A WAN ______________ data, meaning the order in
characteristics: when data B) An internet transmission. which they are presented.
should be sent and how C) A LAN A) simplex A) Semantics
fast it can be sent. D) None of the above B) half-duplex B) Syntax
A) Semantics 21. In a ________ C) full-duplex C) Timing
B) Timing connection, three or more D) automatic D) All of the above
C) Syntax devices share a link. 25. Which topology 29. An unauthorized user is
D) none of the above A) point-to-point requires a central a network _______ issue.
17. This was the first B) multipoint controller or hub? A) Security
network. C) (a) and (b) A) Mesh B) Reliability
A) CSNET D) none of the above B) Bus C) Performance
B) NSFNET 22. Which organization has C) Star D) All the above
C) ARPANET authority over interstate D) Ring 30. ________ is an idea or
D) ANSNET and international 26. The _______ is the concept that is a precursor
18. Devices may be commerce in the physical path over which a to an Internet standard.
arranged in a _____ communications field? message travels. A) RCF
topology. A) FCC A) Protocol B) ID
A) mesh B) IEEE B) Signal C) RFC
B) ring C) ITU-T C) Medium D) none of the above
C) bus D) ISOC D) All the above 31. In _______
D) all of the above 23. In the original 27. In a _______ transmission, the channel
19. _______ is the protocol ARPANET, _______ were connection, more than two capacity is shared by both
suite for the current directly connected devices can share a single communicating devices at
Internet. together. link. all times.
A) UNIX A) routers A) multipoint A) simplex
B) NCP B) host computers B) point-to-point B) half-duplex
C) TCP/IP C) networks C) primary C) full-duplex
D) ACM D) IMPs D) secondary D) half-simplex
20. ________ is a collection 24. Communication 28. _______ refers to the
of many separate between a computer and a structure or format of the Forouzan: MCQ in
networks. keyboard involves Network Models Set 1
1. The ______ layer adds a C) ARP A) user C) both a and b
header to the packet D) none of the above B) network D) none of the above
coming from the upper 5. The process-to-process C) both (a) and (b) 13. The _______ layer links
layer that includes the delivery of the entire D) neither (a) nor (b) the network support layers
logical addresses of the message is the 9. The physical, data link, and the user support
sender and receiver. responsibility of the and network layers are the layers.
A) data link _______ layer. ______ support layers. A) session
B) network A) Transport A) network B) transport
C) physical B) Application B) user C) data link
D) none of the above C) Physical C) both (a) and (b) D) network
2. Which of the following is D) Network D) neither (a) nor (b) 14. ICMPv6 includes
an application layer 6. The ______ layer is 10. The ________ layer is _______.
service? responsible for moving responsible for the A) IGMP
A) File transfer and access frames from one hop process-to-process delivery B) ARP
B) Mail service (node) to the next. of the entire message. C) RARP
C) Remote log-in A) transport A) transport D) a and b
D) All the above B) data link B) physical 15. The ____ address
3. When data are C) physical C) network uniquely defines a host on
transmitted from device A D) none of the above D) data link the Internet.
to device B, the header 7. The _______ layer is 11. The _______ layer lies A) IP
from A’s layer 4 is read by responsible for delivering between the network layer B) port
B’s _______ layer. data units from one station and the application layer. C) specific
A) Transport to the next without errors. A) Data link D) physical
B) Application A) physical B) Transport 16. The _______ layer
C) Physical B) data link C) Physical coordinates the functions
D) None of the above C) transport D) None of the above required to transmit a bit
4. __________ provides full D) network 12. The Internetworking stream over a physical
transport layer services to 8. The session, Protocol (IP) is a ________ medium.
applications. presentation, and protocol. A) data link
A) UDP application layers are the A) connection-oriented B) transport
B) TCP ____ support layers. B) reliable C) network
D) physical C) Data link Forouzan: MCQ in movement of _______
17. The ______ layer is D) None of the above Network Models Set 2 over the physical medium.
responsible for the source- 21. IPv6 has _______ -bit 25. The TCP/IP _______ A) dialogs
to-destination delivery of a addresses. layer is equivalent to the B) protocols
packet across multiple A) 128 combined session, C) bits
network links. B) 32 presentation, and D) programs
A) network C) 64 application layers of the 29. To deliver a message to
B) physical D) variable OSI model. the correct application
C) data link 22. The_____ address A) data link program running on a host,
D) transport identifies a process on a B) network the _______ address must
18. Mail services are host. C) physical be consulted.
available to network users A) specific D) application A) physical
through the _______ layer. B) port 26. When a host on B) port
A) Transport C) IP network A sends a message C) IP
B) Physical D) physical to a host on network B, D) none of the above
C) Data link 23. The_________ layer is which address does the 30. Ethernet uses a ______
D) Application responsible for the delivery router look at? physical address that is
19. The ____ created a of a message from one A) logical imprinted on the network
model called the Open process to another. B) physical interface card (NIC).
Systems Interconnection, A) transport C) port A) 32-bit
which allows diverse B) network D) none of the above B) 6-byte
systems to communicate. C) physical 27. As the data packet C) 64-bit
A) IEEE D) none of the above moves from the upper to D) none of the above
B) ISO 24. The _________ layer the lower layers, headers 31. The _______ layer is
C) OSI enables the users to access are _______. the layer closest to the
D) none of the above the network. A) Rearranged transmission medium.
20. The _______ layer A) application B) Removed A) Network
changes bits into B) physical C) Added B) Transport
electromagnetic signals. C) data link D) Modified C) Physical
A) Physical D) transport 28. The physical layer is D) Data link
B) Transport concerned with the
32. The OSI model consists C) Manufacturers disliked 39. The Internet model interactions between
of _______ layers. the TCP/IP protocol suite. consists of _______ layers. communicating devices.
A) eight D) None of the above A) Eight A) session
B) seven 36. In the OSI model, as a B) Seven B) physical
C) five data packet moves from C) Five C) transport
D) three the lower to the upper D) Three D) network
33. The ________ address, layers, headers are 40. In the OSI model, what 43. A port address in
also known as the link _______. is the main function of the TCP/IP is ______ bits long.
address, is the address of a A) removed transport layer? A) 16
node as defined by its LAN B) added A) process-to-process B) 32
or WAN. C) rearranged message delivery C) 48
A) IP D) modified B) node-to-node delivery D) none of the above
B) port 37. In the OSI model, when C) synchronization 44. In the OSI model,
C) specific data is transmitted from D) updating and encryption and decryption
D) physical device A to device B, the maintenance of routing are functions of the
34. Layer 2 lies between header from A’s layer 5 is tables ________ layer.
the physical layer and the read by B’s _______ layer. 41. _______ is a process- A) application
_______ layer. A) session to-process protocol that B) presentation
A) Data link B) physical adds only port addresses, C) session
B) Transport C) transport checksum error control, D) transport
C) Network D) presentation and length information to 45. TCP/IP is a ______
D) None of the above 38. The seven-layer _____ the data from the upper hierarchical protocol suite
35. Why was the OSI model model provides guidelines layer. developed ____ the OSI
developed? for the development of A) IP model.
A) The rate of data universally compatible B) TCP A) five-layer; before
transfer was increasing networking protocols. C) UDP B) six-layer; before
exponentially A) ISO D) none of the above C) seven-layer; before
B) Standards were needed B) OSI 42. The ______ layer D) five-layer; after
to allow any two systems C) IEEE establishes, maintains, and 46. The ________ address,
to communicate D) none of the above synchronizes the also known as the link
address, is the address of a
node as defined by its LAN
or WAN.
A) logical
B) port
C) physical
D) none of the above
47. The _______ model
shows how the network
functions of a computer
ought to be organized.
A) ANSI
B) CCITT
C) ISO
D) OSI
48. The _______ layer
ensures interoperability
between communicating
devices through
transformation of data into
a mutually agreed upon
format.
A) network
B) presentation
C) transport
D) data link
Forouzan: MCQ in Error
Detection and Correction
1. Checksums use
_________ arithmetic.
A) one’s complement
arithmetic
B) two’s complement
arithmetic
C) either (a) or (b)
D) none of the above
2. The checksum of 1111
and 1111 is _________.
A) 0000
B) 1111
C) 1110
D) 0111
3. In modulo-11 arithmetic,
we use only the integers in
the range ______,
inclusive.
A) 1 to 10
B) 0 to 10
C) 1 to 11
D) none of the above
4. In cyclic redundancy
checking, the divisor is
_______ the CRC.
A) one bit less than
B) one bit more than
C) The same size as
D) none of the above
5. The ________ between
two words is the number of
differences between
corresponding bits.
A) Hamming rule
B) Hamming code
C) Hamming distance
D) none of the above
6. The _______ of a
polynomial is the highest
power in the polynomial.
A) range
B) power
C) degree
D) none of the above
7. In modulo-2 arithmetic,
__________ give the same
results.
A) addition and
subtraction
B) addition and
multiplication
C) addition and division
D) none of the above
8. In cyclic redundancy
checking, what is the CRC?
A) The quotient
B) The dividend
C) The divisor
D) The remainder
9. Which error detection
method consists of just one
redundant bit per data
unit?
A) CRC
B) Checksum
C) Simple parity check
D) Two-dimensional parity
check
10. In _____ coding, we
divide our message into
blocks, each of k bits,
called ___.
A) block; blockwords
B) block; datawords
C) linear; datawords
D) none of the above
11. A _____ error means
that two or more bits in the
data unit have changed.
A) burst
B) double-bit
C) single-bit
D) none of the above
12. Adding 1 and 1 in
modulo-2 arithmetic
results in _________.
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) none of the above
13. In ________ error
correction, the receiver
corrects errors without
requesting retransmission.
A) onward
B) forward
C) backward
D) none of the above
14. If the Hamming
distance between a
dataword and the
corresponding codeword is
three, there are _____ bits
in error.
A) 5
B) 4
C) 3
D) none of the above
15. A simple parity-check
code can detect
__________ errors.
A) an odd-number of
B) an even-number of
C) two
D) no errors
16. The Hamming distance
between equal codewords
is _________.
A) 0
B) 1
C) n
D) none of the above
17. In a linear block code,
the _______ of any two
valid codewords creates
another valid codeword.
A) ANDing
B) XORing
C) ORing
D) none of the above
18. In ________ error
correction, the receiver
asks the sender to send the
data again.
A) forward
B) backward
C) retransmission
D) none of the above
19. We can divide coding
schemes into two broad
categories: ________ and
______coding.
A) linear; nonlinear
B) block; convolution
C) block; linear
D) none of the above
20. In modulo-2 arithmetic,
we use only ______.
A) 1 and 2
B) 0 and 1
C) 0 and 2
D) none of the above
21. To guarantee
correction of up to 5 errors
in all cases, the minimum
Hamming distance in a
block code must be
________.
A) 11
B) 6 D) none of the above
C) 5 26. In block coding, if n = 5,
D) none of the above the maximum Hamming
22. The _____of errors is distance between two
more difficult than the codewords is ________.
______. A) 5
A) detection; correction B) 3
B) correction; detection C) 2
C) creation; correction D) none of the above
D) creation; detection 27. Which error detection
23. In block coding, if k = 2 method uses one’s
and n = 3, we have complement arithmetic?
_______ invalid A) Checksum
codewords. B) CRC
A) 4 C) Simple parity check
B) 8 D) Two-dimensional parity
C) 2 check
D) none of the above 28. The divisor in a cyclic
24. The checksum of 0000 code is normally called the
and 0000 is __________. _________.
A) 0000 A) redundancy
B) 1111 B) degree
C) 0111 C) generator
D) 1110 D) none of the above
25. In one’s complement 29. In modulo-2 arithmetic,
arithmetic, if positive 7 is we use the ______
0111, then negative 7 is operation for both addition
________. and subtraction.
A) 1101 A) OR
B) 1000 B) XOR
C) 1111 C) AND
D) none of the above
30. We add r redundant
bits to each block to make
the length n = k + r. The
resulting n-bit blocks are
called _________.
A) codewords
B) datawords
C) blockwords
D) none of the above
31. To guarantee the
detection of up to 5 errors
in all cases, the minimum
Hamming distance in a
block code must be
_______.
A) 11
B) 5
C) 6
D) none of the above
32. A generator that
contains a factor of ____
can detect all odd-
numbered errors.
A) x
B) 1
C) x + 1
D) none of the above
33. _______codes are
special linear block codes
with one extra property. If
a codeword is rotated, the
result is another codeword.
A) Convolution
B) Cyclic
C) Non-linear
D) none of the above
34. The Hamming distance
between 100 and 001 is
________.
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) none of the above
Forouzan: MCQ in Data
Link Control
1. In Go-Back-N ARQ, if 5 is
the number of bits for the
sequence number, then
the maximum size of the
receive window must be
_______.
A) 1
B) 15
C) 16
D) 31
2. In Go-Back-N ARQ, if
frames 4, 5, and 6 are
received successfully, the
receiver may send an ACK
_______ to the sender.
A) 6
B) 7
C) 5
D) any of the above
3. The Stop-And-Wait ARQ,
Go-Back-N ARQ, and the
Selective Repeat ARQ are
for ______ channels.
A) noiseless
B) noisy
C) either (a) or (b)
D) neither (a) nor (b)
4. The _________Protocol,
adds a simple error control
mechanism to the
_______Protocol.
A) Selective Repeat ARQ;
Go-Back-N ARQ
B) Go-Back-N ARQ; Stop-
and-Wait
C) Stop-and-Wait ARQ;
Stop-and-Wait
D) none of the above
5. In PPP, the ________ is
responsible for
establishing, maintaining,
configuring, and
terminating links.
A) PAP
B) CHAP
C) LCP
D) NCP
6. HDLC is an acronym for
_______.
A) Half-duplex digital link
combination
B) Host double-level
circuit
C) High-duplex line
communication
D) High-level data link
control
7. In Selective Repeat ARQ,
if 5 is the number of bits
for the sequence number,
then the maximum size of
the receive window must
be _____.
A) 1
B) 15
C) 16
D) 31
8. In Go-Back-N ARQ, if 5 is
the number of bits for the
sequence number, then
the maximum size of the
send window must be
_____.
A) 1
B) 15
C) 16
D) 31
9. In Stop-and-Wait ARQ,
the acknowledgment
number always announces
in ______ arithmetic the
sequence number of the
next frame expected.
A) modulo-m
B) modulo-2
C) modulo-4
D) none of the above
10. In Selective Repeat
ARQ, if 5 is the number of
bits for the sequence
number, then the
maximum size of the send
window must be _____.
A) 1
B) 15
C) 16
D) 31
11. _______ control refers
to a set of procedures used
to restrict the amount of
data that the sender can
send before waiting for
acknowledgment.
A) Flow
B) Error
C) Transmission
D) none of the above
12. In the Go-Back-N
Protocol, if the size of the
sequence number field is 8,
the sequence numbers are
in ________ arithmetic,
A) modulo-256
B) modulo- 8
C) modulo-2
D) none of the above
13. ______ control refers
to methods of error
detection and correction.
A) Flow
B) Error
C) Transmission
D) none of the above
14. In a Go-Back-N ARQ, if
the window size is 63, what
is the range of sequence
numbers?
A) 1 to 63
B) 1 to 64
C) 0 to 63
D) 0 to 64
15. Both Go-Back-N and
Selective-Repeat Protocols
use a _________.
A) sliding window
B) sliding frame
C) sliding packet
D) none of the above
16. In _________, the
configuration is balanced.
The link is point-to-point,
and each station can
function as a primary and a
secondary.
A) ARM
B) ABM
C) NBM
D) NRM
17. Byte stuffing means
adding a special byte to the
data section of the frame
when there is a character
with the same pattern as
the ______.
A) trailer
B) flag
C) header
D) none of the above
18. The ______ Protocol
has neither flow nor error
control.
A) Selective-Repeat ARQ
B) Go-Back-N ARQ
C) Stop-and-Wait
D) Simplest
19. The most common
protocol for point-to-point
access is the Point-to-Point
Protocol (PPP), which is a
_________protocol.
A) byte-oriented
B) bit-oriented
C) character-oriented
D) none of the above
20. For Stop-and-Wait ARQ,
for 10 data packets sent,
_______ acknowledgments
are needed.
A) less than 10
B) more than 10
C) exactly 10
D) none of the above
21. _________framing uses
two categories of
protocols: character-
oriented and bit-oriented.
A) Standard
B) Fixed-size
C) Variable-size
D) None of the above
22. _______ control refers
to a set of procedures used
to restrict the amount of
data that the sender can
send before waiting for
acknowledgment.
A) Flow
B) Error
C) Transmission
D) none of the above
23. In a ________ protocol,
the data section of a frame
is a sequence of characters.
A) bit-oriented
B) character-oriented
C) either (a) or (b)
D) none of the above
24. In _______ framing,
there is no need for
defining the boundaries of
frames.
A) standard
B) fixed-size
C) variable-size
D) none of the above
25. The _______Protocol
has both flow control and
error control.
A) Stop-and-Wait
B) Selective-Repeat ARQ
C) Go-Back-N ARQ
D) both (b) and (c)
26. In _________, the
station configuration is
unbalanced. We have one
primary station and
multiple secondary
stations.
A) ARM
B) NBM
C) NRM
D) ABM
27. In a _________
protocol, the data section
of a frame is a sequence of
bits.
A) bit-oriented
B) byte-oriented
C) either (a) or (b)
D) none of the above
28. In ________ framing,
we need a delimiter (flag)
to define the boundary of
two frames.
A) standard
B) fixed-size
C) variable-size
D) none of the above
29. High-level Data Link
Control (HDLC) is a
_______ protocol for
communication over point-
to-point and multipoint
links.
A) byte-oriented
B) bit-oriented
C) character-oriented
D) none of the above
30. Bit stuffing means
adding an extra 0 to the
data section of the frame
when there is a sequence D) Go-Back-N ARQ
of bits with the same 34. In Stop-and-Wait ARQ,
pattern as the ________. we use sequence numbers
A) trailer to number the frames. The
B) flag sequence numbers are
C) header based on
D) none of the above __________arithmetic.
31. In the A) modulo-m
_________Protocol, if no B) modulo-2
acknowledgment for a C) modulo-4
frame has arrived, we D) none of the above
resend all outstanding 35. In the _____ Protocol,
frames. the sender sends its frames
A) Go-Back-N ARQ one after another with no
B) Selective-Repeat ARQ regard to the receiver.
C) Stop-and-Wait ARQ A) Simplest
D) none of the above B) Selective-Repeat ARQ
32. The Simplest Protocol C) Stop-and-Wait
and the Stop-and-Wait D) Go-Back-N ARQ
Protocol are for ______ 36. _________control in
channels. the data link layer is based
A) noiseless on automatic repeat
B) noisy request, which is the
C) either (a) or (b) retransmission of data.
D) neither (a) nor (b) A) Flow
33. The _______Protocol B) Error
has flow control, but not C) Transmission
error control. D) none of the above
A) Selective-Repeat ARQ 37. In PPP, _______ is a
B) Stop-and-Wait three-way hand-shaking
C) Simplest authentication protocol in
which the password is kept C) character-oriented; bit 44. _______ in the data Forouzan: MCQ in
secret; it is never sent stuffing link layer separates a Connecting LANs,
online. D) none of the above message from one source Backbone Networks, and
A) PAP 41. In the _____ Protocol, to a destination, or from Virtual LANs
B) LCP the sender sends one other messages going from 1. VLANs create _________
C) NCP frame, stops until it other sources to other domains.
D) CHAP receives confirmation from destinations. A) multicast
38. In PPP, ________ is a the receiver, and then A) Controlling B) broadcast
simple authentication sends the next frame. B) Framing C) unicast
procedure with a two-step A) Simplest C) Digitizing D) none of the above
process: B) Stop-and-Wait D) none of the above 2. A ________ operates in
A) CHAP C) Selective-Repeat ARQ 45. Data link control deals both the physical and
B) PAP D) Go-Back-N ARQ with the design and the data link layer.
C) LCP 42. Stop-and-Wait ARQ is a procedures for ______ A) router
D) NCP special case of Go-Back-N communication. B) bridge
39. In the _________ ARQ in which the size of A) node-to-node C) repeater
protocol we avoid the send window is ___. B) process-to-process D) passive hub
unnecessary transmission A) 1 C) host-to-host 3. A _______ is a device
by sending only frames B) 2 D) none of the above that operates only in the
that are corrupted. C) 8 46. In _________ physical layer.
A) Selective-Repeat ARQ D) none of the above protocols, we use A) bridge
B) Stop-and-Wait ARQ 43. ARQ stands for ________. B) router
C) Go-Back-N ARQ _______. A) bit-oriented; character C) passive hub
D) none of the above A) Acknowledge repeat stuffing D) repeater
40. In ________ protocols, request B) character-oriented; bit 4. A ______ switch is a
we use ________. B) Automatic stuffing faster and more
A) byte-oriented; bit retransmission request C) character-oriented; sophisticated router.
stuffing C) Automatic repeat byte stuffing A) two-layer
B) bit-oriented; bit quantization D) none of the above B) four-layer
stuffing D) Automatic repeat C) three-layer
request D) none of the above
5. _________ is just a
connector.
A) A passive hub
B) An active hub
C) either (a) or (b)
D) neither (a) nor (b)
6. A ______ normally
connects LANs and WANs
in the Internet and has a
table that is used for
making decisions about the
route.
A) router
B) bridge
C) repeater
D) none of the above
7. A repeater is a
connecting device that
operates in the _______
layer of the Internet model.
A) network
B) data link
C) physical
D) all of the above
8. A _______ regenerates a
signal, connects segments
of a LAN, and has no
filtering capability.
A) router
B) repeater
C) bridge
D) none of the above
9. In a(n) _______
configuration, the
administrator types the
port numbers, the IP
addresses, or other
characteristics, using the
VLAN software.
A) automatic
B) manual
C) semiautomatic
D) none of the above
10. A _______ LAN allows
several LANs to be
connected.
A) wired
B) wireless
C) backbone
D) none of the above
11. A backbone is usually a
______.
A) star
B) bus
C) either (a) or (b)
D) neither (a) nor (b)
12. A bridge can use the
_________ algorithm to
create a loopless topology.
A) multiway tree
B) binary tree
C) spanning tree
D) none of the above
13. ________ is actually
a multiport repeater. It is
normally used to create
connections between
stations in a physical star
topology.
A) A passive hub
B) An active hub
C) either (a) or (b)
D) neither (a) nor (b)
14. In a _____ backbone,
the backbone is just one
switch.
A) star
B) bus
C) ring
D) none of the above
15. A spanning tree is a
graph in which there is no
_____.
A) arc
B) loop
C) node
D) branch
16. A ________ bridge can
forward and filter frames
and automatically build its
forwarding table.
A) dual
B) transparent
C) simple
D) none of the above
17. A virtual local area
network (VLAN) is
configured by _________.
A) hardware
B) physical wiring
C) software
D) none of the above
18. A ________ is normally
a computer that operates
in all five layers of the
Internet model or seven
layers of OSI model.
A) gateway
B) router
C) bridge
D) repeater
19. A ________ is a device
in which the stations are
completely unaware of its
existence.
A) simple bridge
B) transparent bridge
C) passive hub
D) repeater
20. A ______ has a table
used in filtering decisions.
A) bridge
B) passive hub
C) repeater
D) none of the above
21. In a star-topology
Ethernet LAN, _______ is
just a point where the
signals coming from
different stations collide; it
is the collision point.
A) A passive hub
B) An active hub
C) either (a) or (b)
D) neither (a) nor (b)
22. VLANs can_________.
A) provide an extra
measure of security
B) reduce network traffic
C) either (a) or (b)
D) both (a) and (b)
23. A ________ link acts as
a LAN in a remote
backbone connected by
remote bridges.
A) multidrop
B) point-to-point
C) multipoint
D) none of the above
24. A __________ forwards
every frame; it has no
filtering capability.
A) router
B) bridge
C) passive hub
D) repeater
25. A _______ is a
connecting device that
operates in the physical
and data link layers of the
Internet model.
A) router
B) repeater
C) bridge
D) none of the above
26. A _______ can check
the MAC addresses
contained in the frame.
A) repeater
B) bridge
C) router
D) passive hub
27. ________ is part of the
media; its location in the
Internet model is below
the physical layer.
A) A passive hub
B) An active hub
C) either (a) or (b)
D) neither (a) nor (b)
28. In a(n) _____
configuration, the stations
are automatically
connected or disconnected
from a VLAN using criteria
defined by the
administrator.
A) automatic
B) semiautomatic
C) manual
D) none of the above
29. IEEE 802.1d
specification, defines
_________ criteria for a
transparent bridges.
A) two
B) four
C) three
D) none of the above
30. A two-layer switch is a
______.
A) router
B) repeater
C) bridge
D) none of the above
31. In a bridged LAN, the
_______ algorithm creates
a topology in which each
LAN can be reached from
any other LAN through one
path only.
A) binary tree
B) spanning tree
C) unary tree
D) none of the above
32. A _____ can be used as
a connecting device
between two
internetworks that use
different models.
A) gateway
B) router
C) bridge
D) repeater
33. Membership in a VLAN
can be based on
_________.
A) MAC addresses
B) IP addresses
C) port numbers
D) all of the above
34. A ________receives a
signal and, before it
becomes too weak or
corrupted, regenerates the
original bit pattern. It then
sends the refreshed signal.
A) router
B) bridge
C) repeater
D) passive hub
35. In a(n) ______
configuration, the
initializing is done
manually, with migrations
done automatically.
A) automatic
B) semiautomatic
C) manual
D) none of the above
36. A _______ is a three-
layer device that handles
packets based on their
logical addresses.
A) router
B) repeater
C) bridge
D) none of the above
37. A three-layer switch is a
kind of ________.
A) bridge
B) router
C) repeater
D) none of the above
38. Some new two-layer
switches, called _______
switches, have been
designed to forward the
frame as soon as they
check the MAC addresses
in the header of the frame.
A) come-through
B) go-through
C) cut-through
D) none of the above
Forouzan: MCQ in
Network Layer: Delivery,
Forwarding and Routing
1. In _______ delivery, the
deliverer of the IP packet
and the destination are on
different networks.
A) a connection-oriented
B) a direct
C) an indirect
D) none of the above
2. The input and output
ports of a router perform
the ________ layer
functions of the router.
A) physical and data link
B) network
C) transport
D) none of the above
3. _________ broadcasts
packets, but creates loops
in the systems.
A) Forwarding
B) Flooding
C) Backwarding
D) none of the above
4. CBT is a ________
protocol that uses a core as
the root of the tree.
A) source-based
B) group-shared
C) a or b C) broadcasting
D) none of the above D) none of the above
5. RPF guarantees that 9. __________ is an
each network receives only implementation of
____ of the multicast multicast distance vector
packet. routing. It is a source-based
A) one copy routing protocol, based on
B) two copies RIP.
C) a or b A) MOSPF
D) none of the above B) DVMRP
6. Routing between C) CBT
autonomous systems is D) none of the above
referred to as 10. In multicast routing,
____________. each involved router needs
A) interdomain routing to construct a ________
B) intradomain routing path tree for each group.
C) both a and b A) average
D) none of the above B) longest
7. DVMRP is a C) shortest
________routing protocol, D) none of the above
based on RIP. 11. In ________, the
A) source-based multicast packet must
B) group-shared reach only those networks
C) both a and b that have active members
D) none of the above for that particular group.
8. In _______, the router A) RPF
may forward the received B) RPB
packet through several of C) RPM
its interfaces. D) none of the above
A) unicasting 12. In ________, each node
B) multicasting maintains a vector (table)
of minimum distances to
every node.
A) path vector
B) distance vector
C) link state
D) none of the above
13. A _______ message
tells an upstream router to
start sending multicast
messages for a specific
group through a specific
router.
A) weed
B) graft
C) prune
D) none of the above
14. RPB guarantees that
each destination receives
_________ of the packet.
A) one copy
B) no copies
C) multiple copies
D) none of the above
15. Emulation of ________
through ___________ is
not efficient and may
create long delays.
A) unicasting; multiple
unicasting
B) multicasting; multiple
unicasting
C) broadcasting;
multicasting
D) none of the above
16. MOSPF is a _______
protocol.
A) data-driven
B) command-driven
C) both a and b
D) none of the above
17. RPB creates a shortest
path _______ tree from
the source to each
destination.
A) unicast
B) multicast
C) broadcast
D) none of the above
18. The _______ protocol
allows the administrator to
assign a cost, called the
metric, to each route.
A) OSPF
B) RIP
C) BGP
D) none of the above
19. A one-to-all
communication between
one source and all hosts on
a network is classified as a
_______ communication.
A) unicast
B) multicast
C) broadcast
D) none of the above
20. For purposes of
routing, the Internet is
divided into ___________.
A) wide area networks
B) autonomous networks
C) autonomous systems
D) none of the above
21. The metric used by
_______ is the hop count.
A) OSPF
B) RIP
C) BGP
D) none of the above
22. A static table is one
_______.
A) with manual entries
B) which is updated
automatically
C) either a or b
D) none of the above
23. The idea of address
aggregation was designed
to alleviate the increase in
routing table entries when
using ________.
A) classful addressing
B) classless addressing
C) both a and b
D) none of the above
24. In _______ forwarding,
the full IP address of a
destination is given in the
routing table.
A) next-hop
B) network-specific
C) host-specific
D) default
25. The Routing
Information Protocol (RIP)
is an intradomain routing
based on _________
routing.
A) distance vector
B) link state
C) path vector
D) none of the above
26. ____________ is a
group of networks and
routers under the authority
of a single administration.
A) An autonomous system
B) An area
C) both a and b
D) none of the above
View Answer:
27. In the group-shared
tree approach, _________
involved in multicasting.
A) only the core router is
B) all routers are
C) only some routers are
D) none of the above
28. In OSPF, a ________
link is a network is
connected to only one
router.
A) point-to-point
B) transient
C) stub
D) none of the above
29. _______ adds pruning
and grafting to _______ to
create a multicast shortest
path tree that supports
dynamic membership
changes.
A) RPM; RPB
B) RPB; RPM
C) RPF: RPM
D) none of the above
30. In OSPF, when the link
between two routers is
broken, the administration
may create a _________
link between them using a
longer path that probably
goes through several
routers.
A) point-to-point
B) transient
C) stub
D) none of the above
31. The Open Shortest Path
First (OSPF) protocol is an
intradomain routing
protocol based on _______
routing.
A) distance vector
B) link state
C) path vector
D) none of the above
32. In unicast routing, each
router in the domain has a
table that defines a ______
path tree to possible
destinations.
A) average
B) longest
C) shortest
D) none of the above
33. In _______, a logical
tunnel is established by
encapsulating the multicast
packet inside a unicast
packet.
A) UNIBONE
B) MULTBONE
C) MBONE
D) none of the above
View Answer:
34. _______ deals with the
issues of creating and
maintaining routing tables.
A) Forwarding
B) Routing
C) Directing
D) none of the above
35. To create a
neighborhood relationship,
a router running BGP sends
an ________ message.
A) open
B) update
C) keep alive
D) none of the above
36. The Multicast Open
Shortest Path First
(MOSPF) protocol is an
extension of the OSPF
protocol that uses
multicast routing to create
source-based trees. The
protocol is based on
_______ routing.
A) distance vector
B) link state
C) path vector
D) none of the above
37. RPF eliminates the
________ in the flooding
process.
A) forwarding
B) backwarding
C) flooding
D) none of the above
38. A _______ routing
table is updated
periodically using one of
the dynamic routing
protocols.
A) static
B) dynamic
C) hierarchical
D) none of the above
39. A one-to-many
communication between
one source and a specific
group of hosts is classified
as a _______
communication.
A) unicast
B) multicast
C) broadcast
D) none of the above
40. A one-to-one
communication between
one source and one
destination is classified as a
_______ communication.
A) unicast
B) multicast
C) broadcast
D) none of the above B) intradomain routing 48. In OSPF, a ________ C) RPM
41. A _______ routing C) both a and b link connects two routers D) none of the above
table contains information D) none of the above without any other host or 52. The task of moving the
entered manually. 45. In RPF, a router router in between. packet from the input
A) static forwards only the copy that A) point-to-point queue to the output queue
B) dynamic has traveled the _______ B) transient in a router is done by
C) hierarchical path from the source to C) stub _________.
D) none of the above the router. D) none of the above A) input and output ports
42. PIM-DM is used in a A) shortest 49. In _______ forwarding, B) routing processor
_______ multicast B) longest the routing table holds the C) switching fabrics
environment, such as a C) average address of just the next D) none of the above
LAN. D) none of the above hop instead of complete 53. In _______ delivery,
A) dense 46. In ________ routing, route information. both the deliverer of the IP
B) sparse we assume that there is A) next-hop packet and the destination
C) a or b one node (or more) in each B) network-specific are on the same network.
D) none of the above autonomous system that C) host-specific A) a connectionless
43. In distance vector acts on behalf of the entire D) default B) a direct
routing, each node autonomous system. 50. In _______ forwarding, C) an indirect
periodically shares its A) distant vector the destination address is a D) none of the above
routing table with B) path vector network address in the 54. In _______ forwarding,
_________ and whenever C) link state routing table. the mask and destination
there is a change. D) none of the above A) next-hop addresses are both 0.0.0.0
A) every other node 47. ___________ is an B) network-specific in the routing table.
B) its immediate neighbors interdomain routing C) host-specific A) next-hop
C) one neighbor protocol using path vector D) default B) network-specific
D) none of the above routing. View Answer: C) host-specific
44. Routing inside an A) BGP 51. Pruning and grafting D) default
autonomous system is B) RIP are strategies used in 55. In the _______ tree
referred to as C) OSPF _______. approach, each router
_______________. D) none of the above A) RPF needs to have one shortest
A) interdomain routing B) RPB path tree for each group.
A) group-shared
B) source-based
C) a or b
D) none of the above
56. The use of hierarchy in
routing tables can
________ the size of the
routing tables.
A) reduce
B) increase
C) both a and b
D) none of the above
57. In _______ routing, the
least cost route between
any two nodes is the route
with the minimum
distance.
A) path vector
B) distance vector
C) link state
D) none of the above
58. Multicast link state
routing uses the _______
tree approach.
A) source-based
B) group-shared
C) a or b
D) none of the above
59. A dynamic table is one
_______.
A) with manual entries
B) which is updated
automatically
C) either a or b
D) none of the above
60. In ______, the router
forwards the received
packet through only one of
its interfaces.
A) unicasting
B) multicasting
C) broadcasting
D) none of the above
61. In OSPF, a _______ link
is a network with several
routers attached to it.
A) point-to-point
B) transient
C) stub
D) none of the above
62. The _________ routing
uses the Dijkstra algorithm
to build a routing table.
A) distance vector
B) link state
C) path vector
D) none of the above
63. An area is _______.
A) part of an AS
B) composed of at least
two ASs
C) another term for an AS
D) none of the above
View Answer:
64. The principle of
________ states that the
routing table is sorted from
the longest mask to the
shortest mask.
A) first mask matching
B) shortest mask matching
C) longest mask matching
D) none of the above
65. PIM-SM is used in a
_______multicast
environment such as a
WAN.
A) dense
B) sparse
C) a or b
D) none of the above
66. The routing processor
of a router performs the
________ layer functions
of the router.
A) physical and data link
B) network
C) transport
D) none of the above
67. A _______ message
tells an upstream router to
stop sending multicast
messages for a specific
group through a specific
router.
A) weed
B) graft
C) prune
D) none of the above
Forouzan: MCQ in Remote
Logging, Electronic Mail,
and File Transfer
1. When both sender and
receiver are connected to a
mail server via a LAN or a
WAN, we need
___________________.
A) two UAs, two pairs of
MTAs, and a pair of MAAs
B) two UAs, and two pairs
of MTAs
C) two UAs, two pairs of
MTAs, and two pairs of
MAAs
D) none of the above
2. The actual mail transfer
is done through
____________.
A) UAs
B) MTAs
C) MAAs
D) none of the above
3. If the sender wants an A) sending; receiving B) character C) retrieve a list
option enabled by the B) request; reply C) line D) none of the above
receiver, it sends a C) data; control D) none of the above 15. During an FTP session
_______ command. D) none of the above 11. The _______ is the data connection is
A) WILL 7. In FTP, ASCII, EBCDIC, software residing on the opened _______.
B) DO and image define an remote system that allows A) exactly once
C) WONT attribute called _______. the remote system to B) exactly twice
D) none of the above A) file type receive characters from a C) as many times as
4. When the sender is B) data structure TELNET server. necessary
connected to the mail C) transmission mode A) terminal driver D) none of the above
server via a LAN or a WAN, D) none of the above B) pseudoterminal driver 16. In FTP, _______ is the
we need ______________. 8. The third stage in an C) TELNET client service type used by the IP
A) two MTA email transfer needs a D) none of the above protocol because this is an
B) two UAs and two pairs ________ protocol. 12. FTP uses the services of interactive connection
of MTAs A) pull ________. between a user (human)
C) two UAs and a pair of B) push A) UDP and a server.
MTAs C) both a and b B) IP A) maximize throughput
D) none of the above D) none of the above C) TCP B) minimize delay
5. The ________ usually 9. _______ is the standard D) none of the above C) minimize error
contains the sender mechanism provided by 13. For the control D) none of the above
address, the receiver TCP/IP for copying a file connection, FTP uses the 17. When a user wants to
address, and other from one host to another. __________ character set. access an application
information. A) TELNET A) regular ASCII program or utility located
A) message B) SMTP B) EBCDIC on a remote machine, he
B) envelope C) TFTP C) NVT ASCII or she performs
C) both a and b D) none of the above D) none of the above ___________ login.
D) none of the above 10. In the _______ mode, 14. In FTP, when we A) local
6. NVT uses two sets of each character typed is _______, it is copied from B) remote
characters, one for sent by the client to the the client to the server. C) temporary
_____and one for server. A) retrieve a file D) none of the above
__________. A) default B) store a file
18. The third stage in an
email transfer uses a(n)
________ protocol.
A) UA
B) MTA
C) MAA
D) none of the above
19. TELNET uses only one
TCP connection. The server
uses ________ port and
the client uses ________
port.
A) a well-known; another
well-known
B) an ephemeral; another
ephemeral
C) a well-known; an
ephemeral
D) none of the above
20. For control, NVT uses
US ASCII characters with
the highest order bit set to
______.
A) 1
B) 0
C) a or b
D) none of the above
21. The formal protocol
that defines the MTA client
and server in the Internet is
called ___________.
A) SMTP
B) SNMP
C) TELNET
D) none of the above
22. _________ is a
supplementary protocol
that allows non-ASCII data
to be sent through email.
A) JPEG
B) MPEG
C) MIME
D) none of the above
23. Which of the following
services is not provided by
a UA?
A) composing messages
B) reading messages
C) replying messages
D) all are
24. If the sender wants to
enable an option, it sends a
_______ command.
A) WILL
B) DO
C) WONT
D) none of the above
25. In FTP, when we
_______, it is copied from
the server to the client.
A) retrieve a file
B) retrieve a list
C) a and b
D) none of the above
26. TELNET is an
abbreviation for
____________.
A) terminal network
B) telephone network
C) telecommunication
network
D) none of the above
27. When a user logs into a
local time-sharing system,
it is called ________ login.
A) local
B) remote
C) temporary
D) none of the above
28. Which part of the mail
created by the UA contains
the sender and receiver
names?
A) envelope
B) address
C) header
D) none of the above
29. ________ is part of a
local hard drive, a special
file with permission
restrictions.
A) A message
B) A response
C) An agent
D) none of the above
30. ________ provides
service to the user to make
the process of sending and
receiving a message easier.
A) An MTA
B) An MAA
C) A UA
D) none of the above
31. The message contains
the ________ and the
__________.
A) header; envelop
B) header; body
C) envelop; body
D) none of the above
32. In the ____ mode, line
editing (echoing, character
erasing, line erasing, and so
on) is done by the client.
A) default
B) character
C) line
D) none of the above
33. The MIME _______
header uses text to
describe the type of data in
the body of the message.
A) content-type
B) content-transfer-
encoding
C) content-description
D) none of the above
34. If the sender wants to
disable an option, it sends
a _______ command.
A) WILL
B) DO
C) WONT
D) none of the above
35. SMTP is a
__________protocol.
A) pull
B) push
C) both a and b
D) none of the above
36. In FTP, there are three
types of _______: stream,
block, and compressed.
A) file types
B) data structures
C) transmission modes
D) none of the above
37. For data, NVT uses US
ASCII characters with the
highest order bit set to
______.
A) 1
B) 0
C) a or b
D) none of the above
38. The _______ translates
NVT characters into a form
acceptable by the remote
operating system.
A) terminal driver
B) TELNET client
C) TELNET server
D) none of the above
39. When the sender and
the receiver of an email are
on the same system, we
need only ___________.
A) one UA
B) two UAs
C) one UA and one MTA
D) none of the above
40. In the Internet, the
email address consists of
two parts: a _______ and a
_______.
A) local part; domain name
B) global part; domain
name
C) label; domain name
D) none of the above
41. To distinguish data
from control characters,
each sequence of control
characters is preceded by a
special control character
called ________.
A) ICA
B) IAC
C) AIC
D) none of the above
42. When the sender and
the receiver of an email are
on different systems, we
need only _____________.
A) one MTA
B) two UAs
C) two UAs and one pair of
MTAs
D) none of the above
43. During an FTP session
the control connection is
opened _______.
A) exactly once
B) exactly twice
C) as many times as
necessary
D) none of the above
44. If the sender wants an
option disabled by the
receiver, it sends a
_______ command.
A) WILL
B) DO
C) DONT
D) none of the above
45. The _______ translates
local characters into NVT
form.
A) terminal driver
B) TELNET client
C) TELNET server
D) none of the above
46. Currently two message
access protocols are
available: _______ and
_________.
A) POP3; IMAP2
B) POP4; IMAP1
C) POP3; IMAP4
D) none of the above
47. TELNET is a ________
client-server application
program.
A) specific-purpose
B) general-purpose
C) both a and b
D) none of the above
48. In FTP, a file can be
organized into records,
pages, or a stream of bytes.
These are types of an
attribute called _______.
A) file types
B) data structures
C) transmission modes
D) none of the above
49. The process of
transferring a mail message
occurs in ________ phases.
A) two
B) four
C) five
D) none of the above
50. In FTP, the well-known
port ____ is used for the
control connection and the
well-known port ________
for the data connection.
A) 21; 22
B) 21; 20
C) 20; 21
D) none of the above
51. In the _______ mode,
the echoing is done by the
client.
A) default
B) character
C) line
D) none of the above
52. There are two types of
user agents: _________
and ___________.
A) command-driven; data-
driven
B) command-driven; GUI-
based
C) command-based and A) ciphertext 7. A ________ cipher
data-based B) plaintext replaces one character
D) none of the above C) secret-text with another character.
53. _______ is more D) none of the above A) substitution
powerful and complex than 4. A(n) _______ algorithm B) transposition
_______. transforms plaintext to C) either (a) or (b)
A) POP3; IMAP4 ciphertext. D) neither (a) nor (b)
B) IMAP4; POP3 A) encryption 8. The ________ cipher
C) SMTP; POP3 B) decryption reorders the plaintext
D) none of the above C) either (a) or (b) characters to create a
D) neither (a) nor (b) ciphertext.
Forouzan: MCQ in 5. The ________ method A) substitution
Cryptography provides a one-time B) transposition
1. One commonly used session key for two parties. C) either (a) or (b)
public-key cryptography A) Diffie-Hellman D) neither (a) nor (b)
method is the ______ B) RSA 9. _______ is a round
algorithm. C) DES cipher based on the
A) RSS D) AES Rijndael algorithm that
B) RAS 6. A(n) ______ is a keyless uses a 128-bit block of
C) RSA substitution cipher with N data.
D) RAA inputs and M outputs that A) AEE
2. A(n) ______ algorithm uses a formula to define B) AED
transforms ciphertext to the relationship between C) AER
plaintext. the input stream and the D) AES
A) encryption output stream. 10. The ________is the
B) decryption A) S-box original message before
C) either (a) or (b) B) P-box transformation.
D) neither (a) nor (b) C) T-box A) ciphertext
3. The ________ is the D) none of the above B) plaintext
message after C) secret-text
transformation. D) none of the above
11. A modern cipher is B) public 19. ECB and CBC are C) either (a) or (b)
usually a complex C) either a or b ________ ciphers. D) neither (a) nor (b)
_____cipher made of a D) neither (a) nor (b) A) block 23. DES has an initial and
combination of different 15. AES has _____ different B) stream final permutation block
simple ciphers. configurations. C) field and _________ rounds.
A) round A) two D) none of the above A) 14
B) circle B) three 20. A(n) _______is a B) 15
C) square C) four keyless transposition C) 16
D) none of the above D) five cipher with N inputs and M D) none of the above
12. The _________ attack 16. DES is a(n) ________ outputs that uses a table to
can endanger the security method adopted by the define the relationship 24. The DES function has
of the Diffie-Hellman U.S. government. between the input stream _______ components.
method if two parties are A) symmetric-key and the output stream. A) 2
not authenticated to each B) asymmetric-key A) S-box B) 3
other. C) either (a) or (b) B) P-box C) 4
A) man-in-the-middle D) neither (a) nor (b) C) T-box D) 5
B) ciphertext attack 17. DES uses a key D) none of the above 25. In a(n) ________
C) plaintext attack generator to generate 21. ________ DES was cipher, the same key is
D) none of the above sixteen _______ round designed to increase the used by both the sender
13. A combination of an keys. size of the DES key. and receiver.
encryption algorithm and a A) 32-bit A) Double A) symmetric-key
decryption algorithm is B) 48-bit B) Triple B) asymmetric-key
called a ________. C) 54-bit C) Quadruple C) either (a) or (b)
A) cipher D) 42-bit D) none of the above D) neither (a) nor (b)
B) secret 18. The Caesar cipher is a 22. ________ is the science 26. _________ ciphers can
C) key _______cipher that has a and art of transforming be categorized into two
D) none of the above key of 3. messages to make them broad categories:
14. In an asymmetric-key A) transposition secure and immune to monoalphabetic and
cipher, the receiver uses B) additive attacks. polyalphabetic.
the ______ key. C) shift A) Cryptography A) Substitution
A) private D) none of the above B) Cryptoanalysis B) Transposition
C) either (a) or (b) C) key B) decryption 7. A witness used in entity
D) neither (a) nor (b) D) none of the above C) hash authentication is
27. The _______ cipher is 31. In a(n) ________, the D) none of the above ____________.
the simplest key is called the secret key. 4. The secret key between A) something known
monoalphabetic cipher. It A) symmetric-key members needs to be B) something possessed
uses modular arithmetic B) asymmetric-key created as a ______ key C) something inherent
with a modulus of 26. C) either (a) or (b) when two members D) all of the above
A) transposition D) neither (a) nor (b) contact KDC. 8. A _______ message
B) additive Forouzan: MCQ in A) public digest is used as an MDC.
C) shift Network Security B) session A) keyless
D) none of the above 1. Message_____ means C) complimentary B) keyed
28. In an asymmetric-key that the data must arrive at D) none of the above C) either (a) or (b)
cipher, the sender uses the receiver exactly as 5. The ________ criterion D) neither (a) nor (b)
the__________ key. sent. ensures that a message 9. A(n)______ creates a
A) private A) confidentiality cannot easily be forged. secret key only between a
B) public B) integrity A) one-wayness member and the center.
C) either (a) or (b) C) authentication B) weak-collision- A) CA
D) neither (a) nor (b) D) none of the above resistance B) KDC
29. In a(n) ________ 2. Message _______ means C) strong-collision- C) KDD
cipher, a pair of keys is that the receiver is ensured resistance D) none of the above
used. that the message is coming D) none of the above 10. ________ means to
A) symmetric-key from the intended sender, 6. A(n) _____ is a trusted prove the identity of the
B) asymmetric-key not an imposter. third party that assigns a entity that tries to access
C) either (a) or (b) A) confidentiality symmetric key to two the system’s resources.
D) neither (a) nor (b) B) integrity parties. A) Message authentication
30. The _______ is a C) authentication A) KDC B) Entity authentication
number or a set of D) none of the above B) CA C) Message confidentiality
numbers on which the 3. A(n) ________function C) KDD D) none of the above
cipher operates. creates a message digest D) none of the above View Answer:
A) cipher out of a message. 11. A ________ signature is
B) secret A) encryption included in the document;
a _______ signature is a
separate entity.
A) conventional; digital
B) digital; digital
C) either (a) or (b)
D) neither (a) nor (b)
12. If _________ is needed,
a cryptosystem must be
applied over the scheme.
A) integrity
B) confidentiality
C) nonrepudiation
D) authentication
13. Digital signature
provides ________.
A) authentication
B) nonrepudiation
C) both (a) and (b)
D) neither (a) nor (b)
14. Digital signature cannot
provide ________ for the
message.
A) integrity
B) confidentiality
C) nonrepudiation
D) authentication
15. To authenticate the
data origin, one needs a(n)
_______.
A) MDC
B) MAC A) symmetric-key verifier by using one of the
C) either (a) or (b) B) asymmetric-key three kinds of witnesses.
D) neither (a) nor (b) C) either (a) or (b) A) message authentication
16. A(n) _________ can be D) neither (a) nor (b) B) entity authentication
used to preserve the 20. A(n) ________is a C) message confidentiality
integrity of a document or federal or state D) message integrity
a message. organization that binds a 24. The _______ criterion
A) message digest public key to an entity and states that it must be
B) message summary issues a certificate. extremely difficult or
C) encrypted message A) KDC impossible to create the
D) none of the above B) Kerberos message if the message
17. Challenge-response C) CA digest is given.
authentication can be done D) none of the above A) one-wayness
using ________. 21. Message ________ B) weak-collision-
A) symmetric-key ciphers means that the sender and resistance
B) asymmetric-key ciphers the receiver expect privacy. C) strong-collision-
C) keyed-hash functions A) confidentiality resistance
D) all of the above B) integrity D) none of the above
18. The _______criterion C) authentication 25. A(n) ______ is a
ensures that we cannot D) none of the above hierarchical system that
find two messages that 22. In ________ answers queries about key
hash to the same digest. authentication, the certification.
A) one-wayness claimant proves that she A) KDC
B) weak-collision- knows a secret without B) PKI
resistance actually sending it. C) CA
C) strong-collision- A) password-based D) none of the above
resistance B) challenge-response 26. _________ means that
D) none of the above C) either (a) or (b) a sender must not be able
19. A digital signature D) neither (a) nor (b) to deny sending a message
needs a(n)_________ 23. In _______, a claimant that he sent.
system. proves her identity to the A) Confidentiality
B) Integrity 1. _________ operates in from any application layer 9. ______ is the protocol
C) Authentication the transport mode or the protocol, but the protocol designed to create security
D) Nonrepudiation tunnel mode. is normally HTTP. associations, both inbound
27. A hash function must A) IPSec A) SSL and outbound.
meet ________ criteria. B) SSL B) TLS A) SA
A) two C) PGP C) either (a) or (b) B) CA
B) three D) none of the above D) both (a) and (b) C) KDC
C) four 6. IKE is a complex protocol D) IKE
D) none of the above 2. IKE creates SAs for based on ______ other 10. A _______network is
28. __________ is a _____. protocols. used inside an
popular session key creator A) SSL A) two organization.
protocol that requires an B) PGP B) three A) private
authentication server and a C) IPSec C) four B) public
ticket-granting server. D) VP D) five C) semi-private
A) KDC 3. ______ provides either 7. IPSec defines two D) semi-public
B) Kerberos authentication or protocols: _______ and 11. SSL provides
C) CA encryption, or both, for ________. _________.
D) none of the above packets at the IP level. A) AH; SSL A) message integrity
29. Password-based A) AH B) PGP; ESP B) confidentiality
authentication can be B) ESP C) AH; ESP C) compression
divided into two broad C) PGP D) all of the above D) all of the above
categories: _______ and D) SSL 8. In the ______ mode, 12. The Internet authorities
_______. 4. One security protocol for IPSec protects information have reserved addresses
A) fixed; variable the e-mail system is delivered from the for _______.
B) time-stamped; fixed _________. transport layer to the A) intranets
C) fixed; one-time A) IPSec network layer. B) internets
D) none of the above B) SSL A) transport C) extranets
Forouzan: MCQ in Security C) PGP B) tunnel D) none of the above
in the Internet: IPSec, D) none of the above C) either (a) or (b) 13. An _________ is a
SSL/TLS, PGP, VPN, and 5. Typically, ______ can D) neither (a) nor (b) network that allows
Firewalls receive application data
authorized access from
outside users.
A) intranet
B) internet
C) extranet
D) none of the above
14. _________ is a
collection of protocols
designed by the IETF
(Internet Engineering Task
Force) to provide security
for a packet at the network
level.
A) IPSec
B) SSL
C) PGP
D) none of the above
15. IKE uses _______.
A) Oakley
B) SKEME
C) ISAKMP
D) all of the above
16. IPSec uses a set of SAs
called the ________.
A) SAD
B) SAB
C) SADB
D) none of the above
17. An ________ is a
private network that uses
the Internet model.
A) intranet A) VPP D) none of the above
B) internet B) VNP 26. ______ provides
C) extranet C) VNN authentication at the IP
D) none of the above D) VPN level.
18. ______ is actually an 22. _______ uses the idea A) AH
IETF version of _____. of certificate trust levels. B) ESP
A) TLS; TSS A) X509 C) PGP
B) SSL; TLS B) PGP D) SSL
C) TLS; SSL C) KDC 27. In _______, the
D) SSL; SLT D) none of the above cryptographic algorithms
19. In ______, there is a 23. IPSec in the ______ and secrets are sent with
single path from the fully mode does not protect the the message.
trusted authority to any IP header. A) IPSec
certificate. A) transport B) SSL
A) X509 B) tunnel C) TLS
B) PGP C) either (a) or (b) D) PGP
C) KDC D) neither (a) nor (b) 28. ______ is designed to
D) none of the above 24. ________ provides provide security and
20. The combination of key privacy, integrity, and compression services to
exchange, hash, and authentication in e-mail. data generated from the
encryption algorithms A) IPSec application layer.
defines a ________ for B) SSL A) SSL
each SSL session. C) PGP B) TLS
A) list of protocols D) none of the above C) either (a) or (b)
B) cipher suite 25. In _____, there can be D) both (a) and (b)
C) list of keys multiple paths from fully or 29. _______ provide
D) none of the above partially trusted security at the transport
21. A ______ provides authorities. layer.
privacy for LANs that must A) X509 A) SSL
communicate through the B) PGP B) TLS
global Internet. C) KDC C) either (a) or (b)
D) both (a) and (b) 34. In PGP, to exchange e-
30. The _______ mode is mail messages, a user
normally used when we needs a ring of _______
need host-to-host (end-to- keys.
end) protection of data. A) secret
A) transport B) public
B) tunnel C) either (a) or (b)
C) either (a) or (b) D) both (a) and (b)
D) neither (a) nor (b)
31. In the _______ mode,
IPSec protects the whole IP GOODLUCK SA EXAM
packet, including the BABY! GALINGAN MO AH!
original IP header. PANCIT BIHON IS ON THE
A) transport LINE!
B) tunnel I LOVE YOU BABY!
C) either (a) or (b)
D) neither (a) nor (b)
32. ______ was invented
by Phil Zimmerman.
A) IPSec
B) SSL
C) PGP
D) none of the above
33. A _______ layer
security protocol provides
end-to-end security
services for applications.
A) data link
B) network
C) transport
D) none of the above