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Chapter 12: GRE Practice Test 2 327

SECTION 2

Verbal Reasoning
30 Minutes
20 Questions

This section consists of three different types of questions: Reading Comprehension,


Text Completion, and Sentence Equivalence. To answer the questions, select the
best answer from the answer choices given. Reading Comprehension questions
appear in sets; Text Completion and Sentence Equivalence questions are indepen-
dent. The questions will be presented in random order. Read the following direc-
tions before you begin the test.

Reading Comprehension Questions

Directions:
Multiple-choice Questions—Select One Answer Choice: These are the traditional
multiple-choice questions with five answer choices from which you must select one.

Multiple-choice Questions—Select One or More Answer Choices: These questions


provide three answer choices; select all that are correct.

Select-in-Passage: Choose the sentence in the passage that meets a certain


description.

Text Completion Questions

Directions: Select one entry from the corresponding column of choices for each
blank. Fill all blanks in the way that best completes the text.

Sentence Equivalence Questions

Directions: Select the two answer choices that, when used to complete the sen-
tence, fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole and produce completed sentences
that are alike in meaning.

Questions 1 to 3 are based on the following passage.

Responsibilities pertaining to property and land use are agreed upon within a
signed, binding contract. And while it is fathomable that a disagreement with the
owner of an adjacent property may occur, particular difficulty arises in defining
the party liable for necessary maintenance when said disagreement is over the
deterioration of a naturally occurring, communally-owned parcel, such as a beach.

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In California, the coastal city of Encinitas is slowly watching its shoreline wash
away. The beach has a massive sand deficit with over 100,000 cubic yards of sand
lost on an annual basis. The sand erosion is a natural occurrence, but beachfront
property owners and the city government are attempting to fight mother nature
with a sand replenishment project. This involves dredging up 2 million cubic yards
of sand from the ocean bottom at a cost of $25 million.

For Question 1, select one answer choice.

1. Which of the following most logically completes the passage?


A Everyone knows that $25 million is a lot of money.
B However, local oceanographers claim that dredging the ocean floor
will have catastrophic consequences for native sea-life.
C Because sand erosion occurs naturally, many city residents claim
that replenishment is unnecessary.
D While the property owners and the government are in agreement
over the value of the project, neither side is willing to assume the
costs.
E The dredging project would be repeated every five years.

2. Select the sentence that shows the scope of the problem in Encinitas.

For Question 3, select one answer choice.

3. The passage suggests that the author would be most likely to agree with
which of the following statements?
A The situation in Encinitas is unusual for coastal cities.
B Binding contracts do not necessarily preclude all conflicts over
property.
C Sand erosion must necessarily be prevented by all means possible.
D Current contract law is irreparably flawed.
E Beachfront property owners should always work with the local
government in order to achieve a favorable outcome in property
disputes.

Question 4 is based on the following passage.

In the world of art, distinguishing the authentic piece from the forgery is not an
easy feat and often requires the use of multiple experts. Millions of dollars can be at
stake, yet even experts can be fooled. However, a recent discovery has introduced a
new resource for galleries and other groups seeking to establish the origins of their
paintings: mathematicians. Math experts were able to analyze digital images of
authenticated paintings where they found consistent differences in paint texture.
This consistency suggests that each artist has a unique style of brush stroke that
cannot be completely duplicated.
Chapter 12: GRE Practice Test 2 329

For Question 4, select one answer choice.

4. In the first two sentences of the passage, the author suggests which of the
following?
A It is nearly impossible to determine whether a painting is authentic
or fake without the use of math.
B Even if multiple experts from various fields analyze a painting, it is
not always possible to determine its authenticity.
C New discoveries in art always lead to a greater degree of truth.
D Art can be difficult to analyze, but mathematical models can help to
find the truth.
E Mathematicians have a great degree of expertise in analyzing art.

For Questions 5 to 7, select one entry from the corresponding column of


choices for each blank. Fill all blanks in the way that best completes the text.

5. Since many people who casually tan indoors develop skin cancer and
many (i) indoor tanners do not, scientists believe that
individuals differ in their (ii) the development of
melanoma.

Blank (i) Blank (ii)


A habitual D proximity to
B frequent E susceptibility to
C chronic F concern about

6. Despite claims that his artistic style can be traced to (i)


source, the style actually draws upon several traditions and
methodologies and could justifiably be termed (ii) .

Blank (i) Blank (ii)


A a fraudulent D eclectic
B a schematic E derivative
C a particular F consistent

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7. When President Thomas Jefferson’s relentless passion to know all about


the flora and the (i) of the Western section of the country
grew too overwhelming, he enjoined explorers Lewis and Clark to
(ii) their journey into this vast, mysterious
(iii) .

Blank (i) Blank (ii) Blank (iii)


A flowers D dictate G uncharted territory
B fauna E aggrandize H promised land
C forests F chronicle I familiar ground

Questions 8 to 11 are based on the following passage.

The evolution of culture is dependent upon the development of the tools of civi-
lization. Civilized cultures exhibit a high degree of ingenuity. It is the concept of
humans as toolmakers and modifiers that differentiates us from other animals and,
some would say, makes us civilized. A monkey might use a stick to remove termites
from a log, but that stick will never be reworked into a fork or other eating utensil.
Monkeys have never devised a spoken language, written a book, composed a melody,
built a house, or paved a street. To claim that birds build nests and beavers construct
dams is to miss the mark. Man once lived in caves, but our imagination and creativity
have allowed us to progress toward true civilization.

For Question 8, select one answer choice.

8. Which generalization about modern civilization is supported by the


passage?
A Modern civilization is not due to man’s achievement.
B Modern civilization is a result of prolific human creativity.
C Modern civilization cannot be viewed as successful.
D Modern civilization is a result of man copying the behavior of
certain animals.
E Modern civilization came about through luck.

For Question 9, consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply.

9. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage regarding man’s
imagination?
A Great imagination is a necessary prerequisite to great art.
B Architecture is the result of an imaginative act and results in more
than simple habitation.
C True communication is solely the purview of man.
Chapter 12: GRE Practice Test 2 331

10. Select the sentence that suggests that some specialists overstate the
complexity of animal behavior.

For Question 11, consider each of the choices separately and select
all that apply.

11. Based on the attitudes displayed in the passage, with which of the
following statements would the author most likely disagree?
A High culture is the necessary result of a stable civilization.
B Flexibility is almost as important as ingenuity in the development of
a civilized culture.
C Sophisticated social structures in the animal world can be seen as
precursors to civilized culture in humans.

Question 12 is based on the following passage.

The basic concept of cellular phones began in 1947, when researchers looked at
crude mobile (i.e. police car) phones and realized that, by using small cells, or
ranges of service areas, with frequency reuse, they could increase the traffic capac-
ity of mobile phones substantially. However, at that time, the technology to accom-
plish this was nonexistent. Dr. Martin Cooper, a former general manager for the
systems division at Motorola, is considered the inventor of the first modern por-
table handset. Cooper made the first call on a portable cell phone in April 1973.
He made the call to his rival, Joel Engel, Bell Laboratories head of research. Bell
Laboratories had introduced the idea of cellular communications back in 1947.
However, Motorola was the first to incorporate the technology into a portable
device that was designed for use outside of an automobile.

For Question 12, select one answer choice.

12. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage regarding
mid-twentieth century police car technology?
A Mid-twentieth century police car technology had no influence on
the development of truly portable telephones.
B Mid-twentieth century police car technology was hailed as a
revolutionary development.
C Mid-twentieth century police car technology was considered by many
politicians to be crucial to America’s war against communism.
D Mid-twentieth century police car technology was not completely
understood by Bell Laboratories.
E Mid-twentieth century police car technology allowed officers a
degree of mobility in communication not available to the general
public.

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For Question 13, select one entry from the corresponding column of choices
for each blank. Fill all blanks in the way that best completes the text.

13. Economic predictions can be reasonably accurate when the assumption


that the future will be much like the past is (i) ; however,
in times of major (ii) in the economy, forecasts can be
dangerously wrong.

Blank (i) Blank (ii)


A contradicted D spirals
B entertained E surges
C satisfied F shifts

Questions 14 and 15 are based on the following passage.

We had been anticipating this maiden voyage for a full nine months, since the
initial purchase of 109 acres of northern, forested property. The property included
a large, deep, somewhat murky pond that we were eager to investigate. In late
April, the wait for decent weather was over, even though the sky still held intermit-
tent steel gray clouds and the thermometer registered a mere 54° F. We could wait
no longer; Buck’s Pond was begging to be explored. Four adults and a precocious
Golden Retriever gingerly climbed into the over-sized five-person canoe and, sur-
prisingly, remained dry as the helmsman shoved us off the sandy launch. A bit of
wind created ripples on the surface of the water, but we could only remark that this
same breeze would be aiding us on our way back to shore; there was no room for
any negative thoughts to mar our excitement and enthusiasm for this long-awaited
adventure.

For Question 14, select one answer choice.


14. The author implies that the journey across Buck’s Pond was
A relatively simple and required little exertion
B somewhat risky and uncertain
C difficult and required the strength of four adults
D a disappointment to the four weary travelers
E undertaken during hazardous weather conditions

For Question 15, consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply.
15. The passage indicates that the author would agree with which of the
following statements?
A It is ill-advised to commence water explorations in winter.
B Ponds are small bodies of water that are always easily traversed.
C New adventures are never a cause of excitement and enthusiasm.
Chapter 12: GRE Practice Test 2 333

For Questions 16 through 20, select the two answer choices that, when used
to complete the sentence, fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole and
produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.

16. With its rebellious approach to the subject, her book has been more
widely debated than most; throughout the country, the media have
brought the author’s opinions to the public’s attention.
A authoritative
B popular
C controversial
D articulate
E conclusive
F polemical

17. Judged by almost any standard, the seahorse remains one of nature’s
more creatures, with the male of the species giving birth
to offspring.
A unique
B feckless
C novel
D lackluster
E industrious
F mettlesome

18. After numerous rejections, the actress was , certain that


she would never act in a Broadway play.
A speculative
B optimistic
C despondent
D resilient
E insipid
F melancholy

19. After a slump in sales, the board of directors decided to


with another corporation, forming one of the largest conglomerates in the
country.
A unite
B capitulate
C dissipate
D merge
E alternate
F disperse

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20. The topic of teaching evolution in schools, still a rather


issue, has been a subject of debate for years.
A ephemeral
B controversial
C abbreviated
D contentious
E inexplicable
F settled

STOP.
This is the end of Section 2. Use any remaining time to check your work.
Chapter 12: GRE Practice Test 2 335

SECTION 3

Verbal Reasoning
30 Minutes
20 Questions

This section consists of three different types of questions: Reading Comprehension,


Text Completion, and Sentence Equivalence. To answer the questions, select the best
answer from the answer choices given. Reading Comprehension questions appear
in sets; Text Completion and Sentence Equivalence questions are independent. The
questions will be presented in random order. Read the following directions before
you begin the test.

Reading Comprehension Questions

Directions:
Multiple-choice Questions—Select One Answer Choice: These are the traditional
multiple-choice questions with five answer choices from which you must select one.

Multiple-choice Questions—Select One or More Answer Choices: These questions


provide three answer choices; select all that are correct.

Select-in-Passage: Choose the sentence in the passage that meets a certain description.

Text Completion Questions


Directions: Select one entry from the corresponding column of choices for each
blank. Fill all blanks in the way that best completes the text.

Sentence Equivalence Questions

Directions: Select the two answer choices that, when used to complete the sentence,
fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole and produce completed sentences that
are alike in meaning.

G O O N TO N E X T PAG E
336 Part IV: Practicing for the GRE General Test

For Questions 1 through 3, select the two answer choices that, when used
to complete the sentence, fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole and
produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.

1. While most addictions in today’s culture center on recreational drugs


or alcohol, some experts believe that more than six percent of the 189
million Internet users in the United States are being on
the web to the point of not being able to imagine going 24 hours without
accessing the computer.
A fed up with
B compulsive about
C tired of
D obsessed with
E afraid of
F disgusted with

2. Although the act is often referred to as “book burning,” occasionally


other items are thrown into the flames in an act of extreme
, including a variety of supposedly offensive graphic
novels and records.
A revolution
B celebration
C censorship
D liberation
E suppression
F freedom

3. When Henry David Thoreau wrote, “If a man does not keep pace with his
companions, perhaps it is because he hears a different drummer,” it was
his way of declaring that and solitude were perfectly
acceptable habits for a fulfilling life.
A poverty
B minimalism
C duplicity
D exorbitance
E infamy
F simplicity
Chapter 12: GRE Practice Test 2 337

Questions 4 and 5 are based on the following passage.

We packed early. An 8 a.m. international flight, especially one to be taken with


children, demands strict attention to detail and advance preparation. But with that
chore finished, it was time to spend one last afternoon in Paris. We chose to see the
Louvre. We planned our visit strategically: the Mona Lisa, of course, followed by
the Venus De Milo. The Napoleon buff in our party insisted on seeing the Jacques-
Louis David’s seemingly life-sized painting of the emperor’s coronation, while the
children were thrilled by the Egyptian mummies. I think we walked for miles.
Despite the frenetic pace, we saw only a fraction of the museum before it was
time to head home—home being a tiny, sixth-floor apartment in the 10th arrondisse-
ment. Sitting amongst our suitcases, we flipped through our souvenirs and swapped
stories with our host until bedtime. Lifting a glass toward our window view of a
sparkling Eiffel Tower, we toasted each other—and a beautiful day in Paris.

For Question 4, consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply.

4. Which of the following is implied about the visit to the Louvre?


A The Louvre is the largest, most comprehensive art museum in the
world.
B The visit was exhausting and inappropriate for small children.
C The visit encompassed diverse tastes.

For Question 5, select one answer choice.

5. In the passage, the author is primarily concerned with


A emphasizing the immense diversity of art to be found at the Louvre
museum
B describing the challenges of international travel with children
C complaining about inadequate accommodations in Europe
D giving an account of her last day in Paris
E bragging about her foreign vacation

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Question 6 is based on the following passage.

Thousands of years ago, royalty of diverse cultures were often buried in extremely
lavish tombs that they themselves commissioned in preparation for their inevitable
deaths. About 2,200 years ago, a Chinese emperor named Qin Shihuang had such
a tomb prepared. At the age of thirteen, Qin Shihuang had succeeded his father as
emperor. The boy was very aggressive and ambitious. He assumed full power at the
age of 22 by ridding himself of his rival, a man who had controlled the throne while
Qin Shihuang was a minor. Qin Shihuang’s goal was to unify and subjugate all of the
Chinese states using his powerful political, economic, and military strength. Despite
an ongoing quest for immortality, Qin Shihuang died while traveling at the age of 49.
Although he has been dead for centuries, historians can continue to learn of his life
by studying the artifacts found in the extravagant tomb in which he was laid to rest.

For Question 6, select one answer choice.


6. According to the passage, Qin Shihuang can best be described as
A benevolent
B modest
C spontaneous
D insightful
E ruthless

Questions 7 and 8 are based on the following passage.

The Earthquake Country Alliance (ECA) recently released its guidelines for protec-
tive action in case of an earthquake. Operating under the slogan, “Drop, Cover, and
Hold on,” the EAC urges individuals experiencing an earthquake to drop to the
ground, seek the cover of a sturdy table, and hold on. The EAC’s most important
message is stay put. Individuals should not try to leave the room, even if better
cover could be found elsewhere. The secondary message includes what not to do.
Persons caught in an earthquake are now told not to seek shelter in doorways.
Structurally, doorways are no safer than the rest of the building, and they provide
no protection from falling debris. Similarly, individuals should avoid the so-called
“triangle of life” on the side of furniture or automobiles.

For Question 7, select one answer choice.

7. Based on the passage, the author would most likely disagree with which
of the following statements?
A Seeking out the “triangle of life” is an ineffective protective
measure in the event of an earthquake.
B In the event of an earthquake, individuals should always seek
shelter in the dining room under the table.
C In the past, people were told to seek shelter from earthquakes by
standing in doorways.

8. Select the sentence that summarizes the current safety message from the
Earthquake Country Alliance.
Chapter 12: GRE Practice Test 2 339

For Questions 9 and 10, select one entry from the corresponding column of
choices for each blank. Fill all blanks in the way that best completes the text.

9. In a (i) model, the political process centers on


competing interest groups that are able to (ii) the
government and, by doing so, help to influence or impact many of its
decisions.

Blank (i) Blank (ii)


A democratic D overthrow
B pluralist E impede
C despotic F access

10. Pathological liars are seldom disturbed by the use of a polygraph, since
their overall response to lying is often drastically
reduced and as such, is undetectable.
A cognitive
B operational
C physiological
D qualitative
E correlative

Questions 11 to 13 are based on the following passage.


Sometimes an object in nature is so rare that it escapes mention in nature books.
Such is the case with the delightful Kirtland’s warbler. The Kirtland’s warbler is a
plump, yellow-breasted bird that can be found nesting almost exclusively in the
upper half of Michigan’s Lower Peninsula. Although this bird does migrate to the
Bahamas during the winter months, Michigan is its natural habitat. Unfortunately,
reduced numbers have caused the Kirtland’s warbler to be designated an endan-
gered species. The remaining Kirtland’s warblers now enjoy living among the
jack pine trees located in protected Michigan forests. The male warblers generally
return north before the female birds. Often, they return as early as May. When they
arrive, the male warblers stake out their territories and choose a nesting area. At the
completion of their own long journey from the Bahamas, the female warblers begin
to collect leaves and grass to build their nests. Oddly, the Kirtland’s warbler nests
on the ground and not in the nearby jack pine trees themselves. During the nesting
process, the male warbler provides food for his mate while the female Kirtland’s
warbler lays four to five speckled eggs. The eggs hatch in two to three weeks and
both the male and female warblers tend to their chicks.

G O O N TO N E X T PAG E
340 Part IV: Practicing for the GRE General Test

For Questions 11 to 13, select one answer choice.

11. The passage implies that the author is


A disinterested in the fate of Kirtland’s warbler
B a proponent of Kirtland’s warbler
C a native of Michigan who travels to the Bahamas
D reluctant to discuss the migratory patterns of Kirtland’s warbler
E annoyed that Kirtland’s warbler is not mentioned in nature books

12. In the first two sentences of the passage, the author is mostly likely
suggesting that
A Kirkland’s warblers do not merit mention in nature books
B birds that migrate are considered native to the place where they
build their nests
C many bird species are so rare that they escape mention in nature books
D most bird species in Michigan are well documented in scientific
literature
E Kirkland’s warblers are little known because of their limited numbers

13. Which of the following most logically completes the passage?


A Male and female warblers generally eat small insects.
B Most native species of birds only lay three to four eggs.
C Other Michigan-native birds species also nest on the ground.
D Five weeks after the eggs hatch, the fledglings are able to survive on
their own.
E While the birds nest on the ground, the jack pine trees offer unique
protection.

For Questions 14 to 16, select one entry from the corresponding column of choices
for each blank. Fill all blanks in the way that best completes the text.

14. Queen Isabella was a strong and (i) ruler, serving as a


role model for noble women in Spain who had, until her reign, been
politically (ii) .

Blank (i) Blank (ii)


A domineering D disregarded
B powerful E lauded
C aberrant F vilified
Chapter 12: GRE Practice Test 2 341

15. During a European broadcast in 2002, television viewers were


(i) by a border collie’s ability to correctly retrieve
specific toys at the request of its owner and, subsequently, researchers
discovered that the dog had the (ii) level of a
three-year-old child.

Blank (i) Blank (ii)


A awestruck D maturation
B appalled E cognitive
C duped F education

16. The author spends so much time on this intricate description of scenery
that the reader becomes lost in this , and the point of the
entire article is overlooked or forgotten.

A rabble
B vocabulary
C opulence
D digression
E machination

Question 17 is based on the following passage.


In 1979, Margaret Thatcher became Prime Minister of Great Britain. Her acces-
sion was one of the most important steps in finally making the Chunnel a reality.
Thatcher had made it part of her political platform, finally giving the project full
political weight. Still, it was not until two years later, when Thatcher met with
French President François Mitterand for one of their routine economic meetings,
that she and he organized a committee to take a new and serious look at build-
ing the Chunnel. Both political leaders felt that the underwater tunnel would be
advantageous to their respective countries by bringing important financial support
to local businesses as well as providing jobs to counteract growing unemployment.
Both Thatcher and Mitterand also knew that it would enhance their image world-
wide and leave behind a legacy of their respective times in office.

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For Question 17, select one answer choice.

17. Which of the following sentences can be inferred from this passage about
the Chunnel?
A At one time, the idea of the Chunnel was not necessarily a viable
one.
B The Chunnel was originally Prime Minister Margaret Thatcher’s
idea.
C French President François Mitterand often agreed with Margaret
Thatcher’s ideas.
D The Chunnel was an overhead bridge that would connect England
and France.
E Construction of the Chunnel was going to be challenging to the
European economy.

Question 18 is based on the following passage.

Making snow angels usually falls under the category of children’s winter recre-
ation, but in early 2007, the process took on a whole new meaning. Almost 9,000
people gathered on the state Capitol grounds in Bismarck, North Dakota, to set a
new world’s record for the most people making snow angels at one time. They were
determined to break Michigan’s record of 3,784. Participants ranged from families
with children to snowplow drivers. One woman was there to mark her 99th birth-
day! Kids of all ages flapped their arms in the snow and a young baby even made a
snow angel by having her car seat spun in circles.

For Question 18, select one answer choice.

18. In the context in which it appears, “mark” most nearly means


A memorialize
B remember
C identify
D define
E celebrate
Chapter 12: GRE Practice Test 2 343

Questions 19 and 20 are based on the following passage.

Although it is almost always taken for granted, sleep is an essential part of most
creatures’ lives. For giraffes, two hours a day is enough. For bats, however, that
number is closer to 20! For human adults, the need averages between seven and
eight hours a night, and if they do not get it, they can suffer in their ability to con-
centrate and to think logically. While humans sleep, a number of things occur. First,
their bodies are resting and reenergizing for the next day. Second, their brains are
sorting through information and retaining some details while discarding others.
Some experts believe this process helps to strengthen individuals’ memories. Third,
humans dream.
Dreams have lent an ineffable quality to sleep. While modern scientists believe
that dreams are the brain’s method for sifting through life’s daily events, this was
not always the case. Long ago, philosophers and sages gave prophetic significance
to dreams. Even the ever-practical ancient Romans thought that dreams could be
messages sent directly from one of their gods.

For Question 19, consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply.

19. The author of the passage most likely mentions the Romans’ beliefs about
dreaming because
A it demonstrates that some dreams originate from deities
B it supports the idea that some cultures give dreams different kinds of
significance
C it correlates to how the culture felt about the power of dreaming and
sleepwalking

20. Select the sentence within the passage that illustrates a possible
minimum level of sleep necessary for full functionality in the animal
world.

STOP.
This is the end of Section 3. Use any remaining time to check your work.

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