43) Gram

staining

a) differentiate both capsulated and non capsulated bacteria

b) uses methylene blue as the primary stain
c) procedure is essential in the preliminary examination of body fluids
d) uses iodine as decolorizing agent
e) is able to identify the likely species of bacteria

44) Chemicals used in gram staining

a) Methylene blue
b) Acetone
c) Iodine
d) Crystal violet
e) Carbol fuchsin

45) The gram staining is useful in the preliminary identification of

a) Mycobacterium leprae
b) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
c) Staphylococcus epidermidis
d) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
e) Legionella pneumophilla

46) Gram staining is useful in the diagnosis of

a) Streptococcal pharyngitis
b) Streptococcal pneumonia
c) Gonococcal Urethritis in male
d) Bacterial vaginosis
e) Cholera

47) Regarding the gram staining

a) Distinguish gram negative from gram positive bacteria
b) Is a negative stain
c) Stains the bacterial capsule
d) Staining based on the different structure of the cell wall
Alcohol is used as a decolorizing agent

48) Streptococcus pyogenes

a) Serotyping is based on the cell wall polysaccharide antigen
b) Alpha haemolytic when grow on blood agar
c) Causes wound infection
d) Produce hyaluronidase enzyme
e) Is sensitive to penicillin

49) Streptococcus pneumoniae

a) Can be found in the human pharynx as a commensal
b) Causes middle ear infection in human
c) Is documented cause of meningitis
d) Can cause sinusitis
e) Is a known cause of pneumonia

50) Infections caused by Streptococcus pyogenes include

a) Food poisoning
b) Cellulitis
c) Impetigo
d) Pharyngitis
e) UTI

51) Streptococcus pyogenes

a) Causes pharyngitis
b) Causes erysipelas
c) Sensitive to penicillin
d) Causes food poisoning
e) Causes rheumatic fever

52) Regarding Streptococci

a) Lancefield grouping is based on the cell wall protein
b) S.pyogenes cause impetigo
c) Streptococcus type B causes neonatal meningitis
d) Streptococcus type C is documented to cause human infections
e) S. pyogenes is documented to cause sore throat

53) Streptococcus pneumoniae

a) Is a commensal in nasopharynx
b) Is documented to cause pneumonia in elderly
c) Is documented to cause otitis media
d) Is documented to cause meningitis
e) Capsule is the main virulence factor

54) Recent infection following group A beta haemolytic Streptococci

produce Ab titre against to
a) DNA ase
b) Hyluronidase
c) Erythrogenic toxin
d) Streptolysin S
e) Streptolysin O

55) Group A Streptococci

a) Causes rheumatic fever
b) Are ß haemolytic on blood agar
c) Causes pharyngitis
d) Causes erysipelas
e) Are sensitive to penicillin

56) Streptococci
a) are identified by haemolysis on blood agar
b) are universally sensitive to penicillin
c) when identified from a throat swab, provide definitive diagnosis of
Streptococcal pharyngitis
d) causes rheumatic fever by synovial infections
e) do not form abscesses

57) Streptococcus pyogenes

a) Can be identify by sensitivity to optochin
b) Is the leading cause of bacterial pharyngitis
c) Causes secondary infections of wound
d) Likely to cause in skin erysipelas
e) Infection can result from non suppurative sequale

58) Streptococcus pneumoniae

a) Non capsulated strains cause invasive diseases
b) Can be recognized by sensitivity to bacitracin
c) Causes lobar pneumonia in elderly
d) Resistant to penicillin spectrum are documented
e) Is found in the nasopharynx of the healthy adults

59) Virulence factors of Staphylococcus aureus include

a) Protein A
b) Clumping factor
c) Coagulase
d) TSST
e) Deoxyribonuclease

60) Regarding Staphylococci

a) Exfoliative toxin responsible for scalded skin syndrome
b) Responsible for fever
c) S.saprophyticus is documented to cause UTI
d) Toxic shock syndrome may affect both male and female
e) S.epidermidis is documented to cause infection in
immunocompromised patients

61) Staphylococcus aureus

a) coagulase positive
b) catalase negative
c) causes food poisoning
d) causes rheumatic fever
e) infection is treated with penicillin

62) Staphylococcus aureus

a) Produce an enterotoxin
b) Which are found in hospital are universally sensitive to penicillin
c) Are commensal colonies in trachea
d) Produce an erythrogenic toxin
e) Spread via direct contact

63)True or false regarding S.aureus

a) Coagulase negative
b) Ferments glucose
c) Sensitive to penicillin
d) Are gram positive organisms arranged in clusters
e) Causative organism of scalded skin syndrome

64) True or false regarding S.aureus

a) Colonization rate rises in long stay hospital patients
b) Main mode of identification is by of Coagulase production
c) Phage typing is useful in the investigation in outbreaks
d) Exotoxins are responsible for toxic epidermal necrosis
e) All strains are sensitive to penicillin

65) Staphylococcus aureus

a) Has a well defined capsule
b) Non motile
c) Give positive result to Coagulase test
d) Is a commensal on the skin
e) Virulence factor include protein A
66) True or false regarding Corynebacteria
a) They are gram positive non motile rods
b) Toxigenic strains of C. diphtheriae cause diphtheria
c) C.jeikeiun is known to cause infection in healthy adults
d) C. ulcerance is a cause of acute pharyngitis
e) Benzyl penicillin is effective in the treatment of diphtheria

67) Corynebacterium diphtheriae

a) Is a common cause of pharyngitis
b) Produce an exotoxin
c) Is susceptible to penicillin
d) Cause wound infection
e) Causing symptomatic infection(diphtheria),can be prevented by
active immunization

68) Corynebacterium diphtheriae

a) Can cause wound infection
b) Produce pseudomembranes at the site of infection
c) Can be isolated from blood
d) Infection can be treated with erythromycin
e) Toxin has effect on the CNS

69) True or false regarding genus Bacillus

a) Spore bearing organisms
b) Bacillus cereus causes cause acute gastro-enteritis
c) Bacillus anthrax is a zoonotic organism
d) Bacillus stearothermophillus is used to monitor the autoclaves
e) Can be treated with penicillin

70) Clostridium species are known to cause

a) Anthrax
b) Food poisoning
c) Botulism
d) Gas gangrene
e) Pseudomembrane colitis

71) Gas gangrene

a) Is caused by a number of Clostridial spp
b) Usually follows clean surgery
c) Is treated with penicillin
d) Diagnosis should always be confirmed by culture before
commencing treatment
e) Is diagnosed by detecting specific antibodies in the patient’s serum
76) Neisseria gonorrhoea
a) Cause syphilis
b) Infect only by sexual contact
c) Is common cause of meningitis
d) Produces penicillinase
e) Is normal commensal of vaginal flora

77) Neisseria gonorrhoea

a) Is transmitted by infected body fluids
b) Is gram positive diplococci
c) Causes vaginitis
d) Can be cultured on blood agar
e) Causes disseminated infections

78) Neisseria gonorrhoea

a) Causes syphilis
b) Can be transmitted only by sexual route
c) Is an intracellular bacterium
d) Can be identified by examination of a direct smear
e) infections do not require testing for antibiotic sensitivity pattern

79) Neisseria meningitidis

a) Is non capsulated, gram negative diplococci
b) Is the commonest cause of meningitis in neonates & infants
c) Can cause epidemics of meningitis
d) Infection can be prevented by vaccination
e) Is carried in the throat in some healthy individuals

80) Neisseria gonorrhoea

a) Is gram negative diplococci
b) Infection in male present as urethral discharge
c) Can cause pelvic inflammatory disease
d) Infection is diagnosed by taking a vaginal swab
e) Infection can be treated with cefuroxime

81) Neisseria meningitidis

a) Infection can present as a purpuric rash
b) Type B causes infection in children
c) Epidemic rate increase with increase nasal carriage
d) Can be empirically treated with amino glycosides
e) Infection can be prevented by vaccination

82) Regarding Neisseria gonorrhoea

a) Inhabit in normal flora
b) Pilli act as virulence factors
c) Confers the long lasting immunity after subsequent infection
d) Trans-placental transmission can occur
e) Infection can be treated with cefotaxime

83) Haemophilus influenzae

a) X & V factors are need to grow
b) Is a gram positive pleomorphic organism
c) Causes neonatal meningitis
d) Causes respiratory tract infection in children
e) Is susceptible to Ampicillin

84) Followings are caused by gram negative bacilli

a) Chancroid
b) Pseudomembranous colitis
c) Food poisoning
d) Bacillary dysentery
e) Septicaemia

85) Diseases caused by Haemophilus influenzae include

a) Epiglotitis
b) Sinusitis
c) Osteomyelitis
d) Influenza
e) Meningitis

86) Haemophilus influenzae

a) Needs X & V factors for growth
b) Cause meningitis in neonates
c) Cause acute epiglotitis
d) Non capsulated strains cause invasive disease
e) Carriage in adults is eradicated by giving Ciprofloxacin

87) Whooping cough

a) Is caused by a gram negative bacilli
b) Catarrhal phase characterized by whoop
c) Infections complicated to pneumothorax
d) Can be diagnosed in the lab by culture of anterior nasal swab
e) Early infancy is protected by maternal antibodies

88) Klebsiellae
a) Are gram negative rods
b) Show swarming characteristic when grow on solid media
c) Have capsular antigens
d) Are susceptible to amino glycosides
e) Are a common cause of UTI

89) Campylobacter
a) Is curved gram negative bacilli
b) Colonize mainly in the jejunum
c) Infection can be minimized by improving basic hygiene in food
handling
d) Is susceptible to erythromycin
e) Cause severe infections in the immune compromised people

90) Pseudomonas
a) Is a saprophyte found in the environment sources
b) Is readily killed by common disinfectants
c) Is an important cause of hospital acquired infections
d) Can cause folliculitis associated with swimming pools
e) P. aeruginosa causes melioidosis

91) Vibrio cholerae

a) Is a gram negative curved rod
b) Toxin activates adenylate cyclase
c) Is known to cause pandemic infections
d) Causes blood and mucus diarrhoea
e) Is sensitive to tetracycline

92) Escherichia coli

a) Is a known cause of neonatal meningitis
b) Is a cause of travelers diarrhoea
c) Is a common cause of pneumonia
d) Is a commensal of the human gut
e) Is a common cause of UTI

93) Salmonella typhi

a) Causes enteric fever
b) Causes bacteraemia
c) Multiplies in payer ‘s patches
d) Is an intracellular bacterium
e) Causes gastroenteritis

94) Escherichia coli

a) Is a commensal flora in the gut
b) Is an important cause of uncomplicated UTI
c) Is a cause of neonatal meningitis
d) Is resistant to penicillin
e) ETEC invades the intestinal mucosa

95) Salmonella
a) Causes typhoid fever
b) Is a common cause of gastroenteritis in Sri Lanka
c) Infections are best diagnosed by Standard Antibody Test (Widal
Test)
d) Carrier state is well recognized
e) Infection confers long lasting immunity

96) Escherichia coli is the commonest isolate from

a) UTI
b) Gastroenteritis
c) Neonatal meningitis
d) Encephalitis
e) Travelers diarrhoea

97) Helicobacter pylori

a) Is an anaerobic bacteria
b) Produces potent urease
c) Causes type B gastritis
d) Can be cultured in routine culture media
e) Biopsy specimen can be gram stained and identify the pathogen

98) Scrub typhus

a) Is caused by Orentia tsutsugamushi
b) Is transmitted to human by the larval stage of trombiculid mites
c) Infection is characterized by an eschar at the site of bite
d) Infection is treated with penicillin
e) Infection can be prevented by a live vaccine

99) Weil felix test

a) Is used in the diagnosis of rickettsial disease
b) Utilizes cross reacting antibodies to Treponemal spp
c) Is an agglutination test
d) Is highly sensitive
e) Is highly specific

100) Mycoplasma pneumoniae

a) Lacks a cell wall
b) Causes atypical pneumonia
c) Infection is more common in adults
d) Infections arte diagnosed by serology
e) Infection responds to erythromycin

101) True or false regarding Chlamydia

a) Causes urethritis
b) Inclusion bodies can be seen in host cells
c) Resistant to tetracycline
d) Transmitted sexually
e) Are intracellular parasites

102) Regarding Mycobacterium tuberculosis

a) Ischiorectal abscess is complication
b) Ethambutol causes optic neuritis
c) BCG is given as a intramuscular injection
d) BCG vaccine is contraindicated in immunocompromized people
e) Primary infection occurs in lung apex

103) Legionella
a) A small bacilli that stain poorly with gram stain
b) Can be easily identified by culture
c) Transmitted to the human via food
d) Causes pneumonia
e) Infection responds well to penicillin

104) Rickettsiae
a) Are obligatory intracellular parasites
b) Can easily be stain by the gram stain
c) Transmitted to human by inhalation
d) Infect the endothelial lining of the small blood vessels
e) Infection is known to produce a macular popular rash

105) Coxiella burnetii

a) Causes Q fever
b) Survive and multiply in phgolysosome
c) Infection occurs by ingestion
d) Life cycle involves an arthropod vector
e) Infection responds to tetracycline

106) Spirochaetes
a) Include the genus Treponems
b) Include the genus Leptospira
c) Are spiral rods
d) Are n on motile
e) Can be stained by the gram’s method

107) Treponema pallidum

a) Is transmitted vertically from mother to foetus
b) Infection results from a painless ulcer initially
c) Can be isolated in the laboratory culture media
d) Infection is mainly diagnosed by serology
e) Infection responds to Benzyl penicillin therapy

108) Weil’s disease

a) Is not a zoonotic disease
b) In man caused by Leptospira icterohaemorrhagia
c) Can have haemorrhagic manifestations
d) Is diagnosed by examination of urine dark ground microscopy
e) Can be prevented by the control of rodents

109) Regarding Rickettsiae

a) Are gram negative bacilli
b) Are obligatory intracellular parasites
c) Are associated with arthropod vector
d)
e) are effectively treated with penicillin

110) In leptospirosis
a) Source of infection is infected air
b) Bacteria enter in to the body through intact mucosa
c) The organism spread through the blood stream
d) Direct microscopy is useful in diagnosis of late stage
e) Treatment with penicillin is effective

1. Are exotoxins heat stable?

- no, destroyed rapidly at 60C (exception: Staphylococcal
enterotoxin)

2. Are endotoxins heat stable?

- yes, stable at 100C for 1 hr.
3. Are exotoxins used as antigens in vaccines?
- Yes, TOXOIDS are used as vaccines

4. Describe the major components of a G- cell wall.

- inner and outer lipid bilayer membranes - thin layer of
peptidoglycan - periplasmic space - contains
lipopolysaccharide, lipoprotein and phospholipid

5. Describe the major components of a G+ cell wall.

- one lipid bilayer membrane - thick layer of peptidoglycan -
contains teichoic acid

6. Does endotoxin induce and antigenic response?

- no, not well

7. Does exotoxin induce and antigenic response?

- Yes, induces high-titer antibodies called antitoxins

8. How are Group A and Group B Strep primarily

differentiated?
- Group A are Bacitracin sensitive - Group B are Bacitracin
resistant

9. List the four phases of the bacterial growth curve.

- Lag phase - log (exponential) phase - stationary phase -
death phase

10. Name 3 Gram -ve rods that are considered fast lactose
fermenters.
- 1) Klebsiella 2) E. coli 3) Enterobacter

11. Name 3 Gram -ve rods which are lactose nonfermenters

and Oxidase(-)?
- Shigella, Salmonella, Proteus

12. Name 4 bacteria that use IgA protease to colonize

mucosal surfaces.
- 1) Strep. pneumoniae 2) Neisseria meningitidis 3) Neisseria
gonorrhea 4) H. influenzae

13. Name 6 bacteria that don't Gram's stain well?

- Treponema - Rickettsia - Mycobacteria - Mycoplasma -
Legionella pneumophila - Chlamydia

14. Name two type of Strep that exhibit alpha hemolysis?

- S. pneumoniae ; Viridans strep. (e.g. S. mutans)

15. Name two types of Strep. that are non-hemolytic (gamma

hemolysis).
- Enterococcus (E. faecalis) and Peptostreptococcus
(anaerobe)

16. Name two types of Strep. that exhibit beta hemolysis.

- Group A Strep. (GAS) and Group B Strep. (GBS)

17. Teichoic acid induces what two cytokines?

- TNF and IL-1
18. What are the effects of erythrogenic toxin?
- it is a superantigen - it causes rash of Scarlet fever

19. What are the effects of streptolysin O?

- it is a hemolysin - it is the antigen for ASO-antibody found
in rheumatic fever

20. What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by

Clostridium botulinum?
- blocks release of acetylcholine: causes anticholenergic
symptoms, CNS paralysis; can cause 'floppy baby'

21. What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by

Bordetella pertussis?
- Stimulates adenylate cyclase by ADP ribosylation - causes
whooping cough - inhibits chemokine receptor, causing
lymphocytosis

23. What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by

Clostridium perfringens?
- alpha toxin is a lecithinase - causes gas gangrene - get a
double zone of hemolysis on blood agar

24. What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by

Clostridium tetani?
- blocks release of the inhibitory NT glycine; causes
'lockjaw'

25. What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by

Corynebacterium diphtheria?
- 1) inactivates EF-2 by ADP ribosylation 2) pharyngitis 3)
'pseudomembrane' in throat

26. What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by E. coli?

- this heat labile toxin stimulates adenylate cyclase by ADP
ribosylation of G protein - causes watery diarrhea

27. What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Staph.

aureus?
- superantigen; induces IL-1 and IL-2 synthesis in Toxic
Shock Syndrome; also causes food poisoning

28. What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Vibro

cholerae?
- Stimulates adenylate cyclase by ADP ribosylation of G
protein - increases pumping of Cl- and H2O into gut - causes
voluminous rice-water diarrhea

29. What are the general clinical effects of endotoxin?

- fever, shock

30. What are three primary/general effects of endotoxin

(especially lipid A)?
- 1) Acivates macrophages 2) Activates completment (alt.
pathway) 3) Activates Hageman factor

31. What are two exotoxins secreted by Strep. pyogenes?

- Erythrogenic toxin and streptolysin O

32. What are two functions of the pilus/fimbrae?

- Mediate adherence of bacteria to the cell surface - sex
pilus forms attachment b/t 2 bacteria during conjugation

33. What are two species of Gram (-) cocci and how are they
differentiated?
- 1) Neisseria meningitidis: maltose fermenter 2) Neisseria
gonorrhoeae: maltose NONfementer

34. What bacteria produces a blue-green pigment?

- Pseudomonas aeruginosa

35. What bacteria produces a red pigment?

- Serratia marcescens ('maraschino cherries are red')

36. What bacteria produces a yellow pigment?

- Staph. aureus (Aureus= gold in Latin)

37. What culture requirements do Fungi have?

- Sabouraud's agar

38. What culture requirements do Lactose-fermenting

enterics have?
- MacConkey's agar (make pink colonies)

39. What culture requirements does B. pertussis have?

- Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar

40. What culture requirements does C. diphtheriae have?

- Tellurite agar
41. What culture requirements does H. influenzae have?
- chocolate agar with factors V (NAD) and X (hematin)

42. What culture requirements does Legionella pneumophia

have?
- Charcol yeast extract agar buffered with increased iron and
cysteine

43. What culture requirements does N. gonorrhea have?

- Thayer-Martin (VCN) media

44. What G- rod is a lactose nonfermenter and is Oxidase+ ?

- Pseudomonas

45. What is a toxoid?

- exotoxin treated with formaldehyde (or acid or heat);
retains antigeniciy but looses toxicity

46. What is the chemical composition of endotoxin?

- Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)

47. What is the chemical composition of exotoxin?

- polypeptide

48. What is the function of a glycocalix?

- mediates adherence to surfaces, especially foreign
surfaces (i.e. catheters)
49. What is the function of spores?
- provides resistance to dehydration, heat, and chemicals

50. What is the major chemical composition of the capsule?

- Polysaccharide (*except Bacillus anthracis, which contains
D-Glutamate)

51. What is the major function of the capsule?

- antiphagocytic

52. What is used to stain Legionella?

- silver stain.

53. When endotoxin activates complement, what are the

secondary effects?
- C3a: hypotension, edema - C5a: neutrophil chemotaxis

54. What type of enzymes allows certain bacteria to colonize

mucosal surfaces?
- IgA proteases

55. What two things distinguish S. pneumoniae from

Viridans Strep.?
- S. pneumoniae: have Capsule; Optochin Sensitive
Viridans strep: No capsule; Optochin Resistant

56. What test distinguishes Staph. aureus from Staph.

epidermidis and Staph. saprophyticus?
- S. aureus is Coagulase (+)
S. epidermidis and S. saprophyticus are Coagulase (-)

57. What test distinguishes Staph. and Strep?

- Staph. are Catalase (+) and are in clusters
Strep. are Catalase (-) and are in chains

58. What stains gylcogen, mucopolysaccharides and is used

to diagnose Whipple's disease?
- PAS (periodic acid Schiff)

59. What stain is used for Cryptococcus neoformans?

- India ink

59. What stain is used for Borrelia, Plasmodium,

trypanosomes, and Chlamydia?
- Giemsa's stain

60. What stain is used for acid fast bacteria?

- Ziehl-Neelsen

61. When endotoxin activates macrophages, what 3

cytokines are released and what are the secondary effects?
- IL-1--fever ; TNF--fever, hemmoragic tissue necrosis ; Nitic
oxide--hypotension, shock

62. Which type of Neisseria ferment Glucose only?

- Gonococci (Glucose= Gonococci)

63. Which type of Neisseria ferment maltose and glucose?

- Meningococci (MaltoseGlucose= MeninGococci)

64. Why don't Mycobacteria Gram's stain well?

- high lipid content cell wall requires acid-fast stain

65. Why don't Mycoplasma Gram's stain well?

- no cell wall

66. Why don't Rickettsia, Chlamydia, and Legionella Gram's

stain well?
- they are intracellular (Legionella is Mainly intracellular)

69. Why don't Treponema Gram's stain well?

- too thin to be visualized (use darkfield microscopy and
antibody staining)

70. Name 5 species of bacteria that are transmitted to

humans from animals.(Acronym: BBugs From Your Pet.)
- Borrelia burgdorferi - Brucella spp. - Francisella tularensis
- Yersinia pestis - Pasteurella multocida

71. All Rickettsiae (except one genus) are transmitted by

what type of vector?
- arthropod (Coxiella is atypical: transmitted by aeresol)

72. Are Strep. pneumoniae sensitve to optochin? Are

Viridans strep.?
- Strep. pneumoniae is optochin-Sensitive - Viridans
streptococci is optochin-Resistant
73. Are Strep. pyogenes Bacitracin-sensitive?
- YES.

74. Besides the rash, what other body systems are affected
by Lyme disease?
- joints -CNS -heart

75. Describe lab-findings for Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

- Aerobic, G(-) rod. - Non-lactose fermenting - Oxidase
positive - Produces pyocyanin (blue-green pigment)

76. Describe the typical findings with Vibro cholerae.

- 1) Comma-shaped organisms 2) rice-water stools 3) no
fever/leukocytosis

77. What are the culture requirement for H. influenzae?

- culture on chocolate agar with factor V (NAD) and X
(hematin). [Think: 'Child has 'flu'; mom goes to five (V) and
dime (X) store to buy chocolate.']

78. What are the three stages of Lyme disease?

- 1) erythema chronicum migrans, flu-like symptoms 2)
neurologic and cardiac manefestations 3) autoimmune
migratory polyarthritis

79. What are the two forms of leprosy (or Hansen's

disease)?
- 1) lepromatous- failed cell-mediated immunity, worse 2)
tuberculoid- self-limited.
80. What are two drugs that could treat Chlmydia?
- erythromycin or tetracycline

81. What are usually associated with pseudomembraneous

colitis?
- Clostridium difficile; it kills enterocytes, usu. is overgrowth
secondary to antibiotic use (esp. clindamycin or ampicillin)

82. What bacteria are G+, spore-forming, anaerobic bacilli?

- Clostridia

83. What bacteria causes a malignant pustule (painless

ulcer); black skin lesions that are vesicular papules covered
by a blak eschar?
- Bacillus anthracis

84. What bacteria exhibits a 'tumbling' motility, is found in

unpasteurized milk, and causes meningitis in newborns?
- Listeria monocytogenes

85. What bacteria is catalase(-) and bacitracin-resistant?

- Strep. agalactiae

86. What bacteria is catalase(-) and bacitracin-sensitive?

- Strep. pyogenes

87. What bacteria is catalase+ and coagulase+?

- Staph. aureus
88. What bacteria produces alpha-toxin, a hemolytic
lecithinase that causes myonecrosis or gas gangrene?
- Clostridium perfringens

89. What bacterium causes Lyme disease?

- Borrelia burgdorferi

90. What bacterium causes the Plague?

- Yersinia pestis

91. What bacterium causes Tularemia?

- Francisella tularensis

92. What bacterium causes Undulant fever?

- Brucella spp. (a.k.a. Brucellosis)

93. What bug causes atypical 'walking' pneumonia?

- Mycoplama pneumoniae

94. What bug causes gastroenteritis and up to 90% of

duodenal ulcers?
- Helicobacter pylori

95. What bug is associated with burn wound infections?

- Pseudomonas aeruginosa

96. What bug is comma- or S-shaped and grows at 42C, and

causes bloody diarrhea with fever and leukocytosis?
- Campylobacter jejuni

97. What causes tetanus? (give bacteria and disease

process)
- Clostridium tetani: exotoxin produced blocks glycine
release (inhibitory NT) from Renshaw cells in spinal cord

98. What chemical is found in the core of spores?

- dipicolinic acid

99. What coccobacillus causes vaginosis: greenish vaginal

discharge with a fishy smell; nonpainful?
- Gardnerella vaginalis

100. What disease does Vibrio cholerae cause? How?

- Cholera: toxin permanently activates G-protein in intestinal
mucosa (turns the 'on' on) causing rice-water diarrhea

101. What disease is caused by Clostridium botulinum?

What pathophys. does it cause?
- Botulism: associated with contaminated canned food,
produces a preformed, heat-labile toxin that inhibits ACh
release---> flaccid paralysis.

102. What diseases can be caused by Staph. aureus?

- Inflammatory disease: skin infections, organ abscess,
pneumonia - Toxin-mediated disease: Toxic Shock Syn.,
scalded skin syndrome (exfoliative toxin), rapid onset food
poisoning (enterotoxins)
103. What do Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes A, B, and C
cause?
- chronic infection, cause blindness in Africa (ABC= Africa /
Blindness / Chronic

104. What do Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes D-K cause?

- urethritis/ PID - neonatal pneumonia -neonatal conjuctivitis

105. What do Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes L1,L2, and

L3 cause?
- lymphogranuloma venereum (acute lymphadentis: positive
Frei test)

106. What does catalase do? Which bacteria have it?

- it degrades H2O2, an antimicrobial product of PMNs. -
Staphlococci make catalase; Strep. do NOT.

107. What does VDRL detect? (It detects non-specific

antibody that reacts with what?)
- detects antibody that reacts with beef cardiolipin

108. What drug of choice is used to treat Norcardia?

Actinomyces? (Acronym: SNAP)
- Sulfonamides for Norcarida, Actinomyces gets Penicillin

109. What family includes E. coli, Salmonella, Klebsiella,

Enterobacter, Serratia, and Proteus?
- Enterobacteriaceae
110. What G+ anaerobe causes oral/facial abscesses with
'sulfur granules' that may drain through sinus tracts in skin?
- Actinomyces israelii

111. What G+ and also weakly acid fast aorobe found in soil
causes pulmonary infections in immunocompromised
patients?
- Norcardia asteroides

112. What general type of bacteria are normal flora in GI

tract but pathogenic elsewhere?
- Anaerobes

113. What general type of bacteria grow pink colonies on

MacConkey's agar?
- Lactose-fermenting enteric bacteria

114. What is a lab diagnosis of diphtheria based on?

- G+ rods with metachromatic granules; grows on tellurite
agar. (Coryne=club shaped)

115. What is a major difference between Salmonella and

Shigella observable in the lab?
- Salmonella are motile; Shigella are nonmotile

116. What is a positive Quellung reaction?

- if encapsulated bug is present, capsule SWELLS when
specific anticapsular antisera are added.
117. What is the classic triad of symptoms associated with
Rickettsiae?
- 1) headache 2) fever 3) rash (vasiculitis)

118. What is the common manifestation of secondary TB?

- Fibrocaseous cavitary lesion usu. in APICIES of lung

119. What is the common site of infection for

Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
- the apicies of the lung (which have the highest PO2)

120. What is the D.O.C. to treat Gardnerella vaginalis?

- Metroidazole

121. What is the DOC for treating rickettsial infections?

- tetracycline

122. What is the DOC to treat Lyme Disease?

- tetracycline

123. What is the DOC to treat syphilis?

- Penicillin G

124. What is the drug of choice for H. influ meningitis? What

DOC for prophylaxis in close-contacts?
- Treat meningitis with CEFTRIAXONE; Rifampin for
prophylaxis.

125. What is the drug of choice for Legionaires' disease?

- Erythromycin

126. What is the morphology of H. influ?

- Small G(-) (coccobacillary) rod

127. What is the morphology of H. pylori?

- Gram (-) rod

128. What is the primary drug used to treat leprosy?

- dapsone (toxicity is hemolysis and methemoglobinemia)

129. What is the source of infection and the bacterium that

causes Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?
- Rickettsia rickettsii; from tick bite

130. What is the unique feature of Chlamydiae cell walls?

- its peptidoglycan wall lacks muramic acid

131. What species are associated with food poisoning in

contaminated seafood?
- Vibrio parahaemolytica and Virbrio vulnificus

132. What species is associated with food poisoning in

improperly canned foods (bulging cans)?
- Clostridium botulinum

133. What species is associated with food poisoning in

meats, mayonnaise, and custard?
- Staphylococcus aureus (this food poisoining usually starts
quickly and ends quickly)

134. What species is associated with food poisoning in

poultry, meat, and eggs?
- Salmonella

135. What species is associated with food poisoning in

reheated meat dishes?
- Clostridium perfringens

136. What species is associated with food poisoning in

reheated rice?
- Bacillus cereus ('Food poisoning from reheated rice? Be
serious!')

137. What species is associated with food poisoning in

undercooked meat and unpasteurized juices?
- E. coli 0157-H7

138. What strain of Haemophilus influenza causes most

invasive disease?
- capsular type b