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Jee Main 2017 Test Paper Code - C Questions With Solutions
Jee Main 2017 Test Paper Code - C Questions With Solutions
Jee Main 2017 Test Paper Code - C Questions With Solutions
1
Number of moles of CoCl3.6H2O = M V(L)
= 0.1 0.1
= 102
Number of moles of Cl in the complex = 3 1 102 = 3 102
1.2 1022
Number of moles of Cl precipitated = 0.2 101 2 102
6.023 1023
Number of moles of Cl remaining unprecipitated = 3 102 2 102 = 102
Since ions precipitate is twice the moles of compound, 2Cl atoms should be outside co-ordination
sphere.
Formula of compound is [Co(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O
3. Which of the following compounds will form significant amount of meta product during mono-nitration
reaction?
NHCOCH3 OH OCOCH3 NH2
Ans (4)
Aniline will form anilinium ion in the presence of nitrating mixture, which is meta directing.
+
NH2 NH3 NH2
+
conc. HNO3 NO2
conc. H2SO4
NO2
Anilinium ion
(meta directing)
4. The products obtained when chlorine gas reacts with cold and dilute aqueous NaOH are
(1) Cl and ClO2 (2) ClO and ClO3 (3) ClO 2 and ClO3 (4) Cl and ClO
Ans (4)
2NaOH Cl2 NaCl NaClO H 2O
cold & dilute
5. Both lithium and magnesium display several similar properties due to the diagonal relationship;
however, the one which is incorrect, is
(1) nitrates of both Li and Mg yield NO2 and O2 on heating
(2) both form basic carbonates
(3) both form soluble bicarbonates
(4) both form nitrides
Ans (2)
Magnesium forms basic carbonate while lithium does not form.
6. A water sample has ppm level concentration of following anions
F 10; SO 24 100; NO3 50
The anion/anions that make/makes the water sample unsuitable for drinking is/ are
(1) only SO 24 (2) only NO3 (3) both SO 24 and NO3 (4) only F
Ans (4)
Only F maximum limit of F is 2 ppm.
JEE-MAIN 2017 2
7. The formation of which of the following polymers involves hydrolysis reaction?
(1) Terylene (2) Nylon 6 (3) Bakelite (4) Nylon 6, 6
Ans (2)
O O
H2O H
N
NH N
H n
O
N-6
8. The Tyndall effect is observed only when following conditions are satisfied
(a) The diameter of the dispersed particles is much smaller than the wavelength of the light used
(b) The diameter of the dispersed particle is not much smaller than the wavelength of the light used.
(c) The refractive indices of the dispersed phase and dispersion medium are almost similar in magnitude.
(d) The refractive indices of the dispersed phase and dispersion medium differ greatly in magnitude.
(1) (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (d) (3) (b) and (d) (4) (a) and (c)
Ans (3)
Each conceptual.
9. pKa of a weak acid (HA) and pKb of a weak base (BOH) are 3.2 and 3.4, respectively. The pH of their
salt (AB) solution is:
(1) 1.0 (2) 7.2 (3) 6.9 (4) 7.0
Ans (3)
1
pH 7 (pK a pK b )
2
1
7 (3.2 3.4)
2
= 7 – 0.1
= 6.9
10. The major product obtained in the following reaction is
O
O
DIBAL – H
COOH
OH
CHO COOH
OH
CHO COOH
Ans (2)
3
11. Which of the following compounds will behave as a reducing sugar in an aqueous KOH solution?
HOH2C
HOH2C CH2OH
O CH2OCH3 O
(1) OH (2) HO
OH OCOCH3
OH OH
HOH2C O CH2OH HOH2C O CH2OH
(3) HO (4) HO
OCH3
OH OH
Ans (2)
HOH2C CH2OH HOH2C CH2OH
O O
KOH(aq)
HO HO
OCOCH3 OH
OH OH
-D-fructofuranose
(reducing sugar)
12. The correct sequence of reagents for the following conversion will be
O
HO CH3
CHO HO CH3
CH3
(1) [Ag(NH3)2]+OH, CH3MgBr, H+/CH3OH (2) [Ag(NH3)2]+OH, H+/CH3OH, CH3MgBr
(3) CH3MgBr, H+/CH3OH, [Ag(NH3)2]+OH (4) CH3MgBr, [Ag(NH3)2]+OH, H+/CH3OH
Ans (2)
O O O
OH
[Ag(NH3)2]OH CH3OH/H+ CH3MgBr
heat heat excess
X H2O
OH
H O O O O O
JEE-MAIN 2017 4
Ans (2)
O tert-BuONa
Br × alkene
(no - proton)
15. Which of the following reactions is an example of a redox reaction?
(1) XeF6 + 2H2O XeO2F2 + 4HF (2) XeF4 + O2F2 XeF6 + O2
(3) XeF2 + PF5 [XeF] + PF6 (4) XeF6 + H2O XeOF4 + 2HF
Ans (2)
4 1 1 6 0
Xe F4 O 2 F2
Xe F6 O 2
16. U is equal to
(1) Isothermal work (2) Isochoric work
(3) Isobaric work (4) Adiabatic work
Ans (4)
First equation for adiabatic change becomes
U = q + w
U = 0 + w
Thus, U = w
17. Which of the following molecules is least resonance stabilized ?
1
0.01186
M
1
Molecular Mass = 84.3 g mol1
0.01186
5
20. Sodium salt of an organic acid ‘X’ produces effervescence with conc. H2SO4. ‘X’ reacts with the
acidified aqueous CaC12 solution to give a white precipitate which decolourises acidic solution of
KMnO4. ‘X’ is
(1) Na2C2O4 (2) C6H5COONa (3) HCOONa (4) CH3COONa
Ans (1)
Na 2C 2O 4 H 2SO4 Na 2SO 4 H 2O 2CO2
(X) effervescence
CaCl2
decolourization
5C2O42 MnO 4 8H 10CO 2 Mn 2 4H 2O
21. The most abundant elements by mass in the body of a healthy human adult are: Oxygen (61.4%);
Carbon (22.9%), Hydrogen (10.0%); and Nitrogen (2.6%). The weight which a 75 kg person would gain
if all 1H atoms are replaced by 2H atoms is
(1) 10 kg (2) 15 kg (3) 37.5 kg (4) 7.5 kg
Ans (4)
10
Mass of H 75 7.5 Kg
100
Mass of D, if replaced = 7.5 2 = 15 kg
Mass gained = 15 – 7.5 = 7.5 kg
22. The major product obtained in the following reaction is
Br
H tBuOK
C 6H5
C6H5 C heat
(+)
(1) ()C6H5CH(OtBu)CH2C6H5 (2) ()C6H5CH(OtBu)CH2C6H5
(3) C6H5CH = CHC6H5 (4) (+)C6H5CH(OtBu)CH2C6H5
Ans (3)
Base tBuOK being bulky, it will abstract proton and -elimination takes place.
Br
H tBuOK
C6H5 C6H5CH = CHC6H5
C6H5 (+) heat
JEE-MAIN 2017 6
1
H 2 O 2 H2O H 285.8 kJ / mol …(2)
2
CO 2 2H 2 O CH 4 2O 2 H 890.3 …(3)
Eq(1) Eq(2) 2 Eq(3) gives
C 2H 2
CH 4 H 393.5 2(285.8) 890.3 –74.8 kJ / mol
24. In the following reactions, ZnO is respectively acting as a/an:
(a) ZnO + Na2O Na2ZnO2 (b) ZnO + CO2 ZnCO3
(1) acid and base (2) base and acid (3) baseandbase (4) acid and acid
Ans (1)
ZnO Na 2O Na 2 ZnO 2
Acidic Basic
oxide oxide
ZnO CO 2
ZnCO3
Basic Acidic
oxide oxide
25. The radius of the second Bohr orbit for hydrogen atom is: (Planck’s Const. h = 6.6262 1034 Js; mass of
electron = 9.1091 1031 kg; charge of electron e = 1.60210 1019 C; permittivity of vacuum =
8.854185 1012 kg1 m3A2)
(1) 2.12 Å (2) 1.65 Å (3) 4.76 Å (4) 0.529 Å
Ans (1)
Radius of nth Bohr orbit, rn = a0 n2
Radius of 2nd orbit r2 = 0.53 22
= 2.12 Å
26. Two reactions R1 and R2 have identical pre-exponential factors. Activation energy of R1 exceeds that of
R2 by 10 kJ mol1. If k1 and k2 are rate constants for reactions R1 and R2 respectively at 300 K, then
ln(k2/k1) is equal to: (R = 8.314 J mol1K1)
(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 12 (4) 6
Ans (1)
Ea
k 2 Ae RT
Ea 104
k1 Ae RT
104
k2 k 104 k
e RT ln 2 ln 2 4
k1 k1 8.314 300 k1
27. A metal crystallises in a face centred cubic structure. If the edge length of its unit cell is ‘a’, the closest
approach between two atoms in metallic crystal will be
a
(1) (2) 2a (3) 2 2a (4) 2a
2
Ans (1)
4r 2 a 2 a 2
a
r
2 2
Closest approach between two atoms rs, 2r
a
2r
2
7
28. The group having isoelectronic species is
(1) O, F, Na+, Mg2+ (3) O2, F, Na+, Mg2+
(3) O, F, Na, Mg (4) O2, F, Na, Mg2+
Ans (2)
O 2 , F , Na , Mg 2 all have 1s2 2s2 2p6
29. Given ECl /Cl 1.36 V, ECr3 /Cr 0.74 V ; ECr O2 /Cr3 1.33 V, EMnO/Mn 2 1.51 V . Among the
2 2 7
MATHEMATICS
3
4
dx
31. The integral 1 cos x is equal to
4
3
tan tan
8 8
1 1
cot 22 tan 22
2 2
2 1 2 1
=2
JEE-MAIN 2017 8
32. Let I n tan n x dx, (n 1) . If I4 + I6 = a tan5 x + bx5 + C, where C is a constant of integration, then the
ordered pair (a, b) is equal to
1 1 1 1
(1) , 1 (2) , 0 (3) , 1 (4) , 0
5 5 5 5
Ans (4)
I n Tan n x dx
Tan n 2 x (sec 2 x 1) dx
tan n 2 x sec 2 x dx I n 2
t n 1 tan n 1 x
I n In 2 t n 2 dt
n 1 n 1
If n = 6
tan 5 x
I6 I 4 C
5
1
a ; b0
5
1
(a, b) ,0
5
33. The area (in sq. units) of the region (x, y) : x 0, x y 3, x 2 4y and y 1 x is
7 5 59 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 2 12 2
Ans (2)
Required area = A1 + A2 …(1)
1
x2
A1 1 x dx
4
x 0
1
3
2 3
x x
x
3 12
2 0
3 3 1
2 x 2
x x
3 12 0
2 13
1 1
3 12
12 8 1
12
19
A1
12
2
x2
A 2 3 x dx
x 1
4
9
2
x2 x3 y
3x
2 12 1 x2 = 4y
2 2 23 1 13 (1, 2)
y 1 x
3.2 3.1
2 12 2 12
2 1 1 (1, 0) (2, 1)
6 2 3
3 2 12
2 1 1 x
4 3 O
3 2 12
2 1 1 A1 A2 x+y=3
1
3 2 12
1 4 1 6 1 1 4 6 1
3 2 12 12
11
A2
12
19 11 30 5
1 Required Area = A1 + A2 =
12 12 12 2
34. A box contains 15 green and 10 yellow balls. If 10 balls are randomly drawn, one-by-one, with
replacement, then the variance of the number of green balls drawn is
6 12
(1) 4 (2) (3) (4) 6
25 5
Ans (3)
3 2 3 2 12
n = 10, p ,q variance npq = 10
5 5 5 5 5
dy
35. If (2 sin x) (y 1) cos x 0 and y(0) = 1, then y is equal to
dx 2
1 4 1 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 3 3 3
Ans (3)
dy cos x
(y 1) 0
dx 2 sin x
dy cos x cos x
y
dx 2 sin x 2 sin x
cos xdx
I.F e 2sin x elog(2sin x ) 2 sin x
y(2 sin x) sin x c
x = 0, y = 1 c = 2
x , y(2 1) 1 2
2
1
y
3
1 1 1
36. Let be a complex number such that 2 + 1 = z where z 3 . If 1 1 2 3k , then k is
2
1 2 7
equal to
(1) – 1 (2) 1 (3) – z (4) z
JEE-MAIN 2017 10
Ans (3)
1 1 1
1 1 2 3K
2
1 2
R2 R2 R3
1 1 1
2
2 1 3K
1 2
1 1 1
2 1 1 3K
1 2
R1 R1 R 2
3 0 0
2 1 1 3K
1 2
3( 2 ) 3K
3( 1 ) 3K
3( 2 1) 3K
3( z) 3K
K = –z
37. Let a 2iˆ ˆj 2kˆ and b ˆi ˆj . Let c be a vector such that c a 3 , a b c 3 and the angle
between c and a b be 30. Then a c is equal to
1 25
(1) 5 (2) (3) (4) 2
8 8
Ans (4)
ab c 3
a b | c | sin 30 3
i j k
a b 2 1 2
1 1 0
2i j 2k
a b 4 1 4 3
3 2
| c | 2 , | a | 4 1 4 3
3
2
c a 32
| c |2 | a |2 2a.c 9
4 9 2a.c 9
a.c 2
11
38. The radius of a circle, having minimum area, which touches the curve y = 4 – x2 and the lines, y = |x| is
(1) 4 2 1 (2) 4 2 1 (3) 2 2 1 (4) 2
2 1
Ans (1)
Circle be x2 + (y – k)2 = r2
k Y
r
2
k (0, 4)
| k 4 | y=–x y=x
2
k 2k 4 2 (0, k)
k
2 1 4 2 or k 2k 4 2
4 2
k
2 1
or k
2 1 4 2 O
r
k
4 2 2 1 or k
4 2
2 2 2 1
k
r4 2 1 or r
2
4
2 1 ; Since r 4 r 4
2 1
1 6x x
39. If for x 0, , the derivative of tan 1 3
is x g(x) , then g(x) equals
4 1 9x
3x 3 9 3x x
(1) (2) (3) (4)
1 9x 3 1 9x 3 1 9x 3 1 9x 3
Ans (3)
Let 3x x tan
2 tan
tan 1 2
1 tan
tan 1 (tan 2) 2
2 tan 1 (3x x )
1 3 9
2 3 x x
1 9x 3
2 1 9x 3
9
So g(x)
1 9x 3
40. If two different numbers are taken from the set {0, 1, 2, 3, ....... , 10} ; then the probability that their sum
as well as absolute difference are both multiple of 4, is
14 7 6 12
(1) (2) (3) (4)
45 55 55 55
Ans (3)
11 10
n(S) 11C2 55
2
Let A = sum as well as absolute difference of the number is multiple of 4
{(0,4),(0,8),(2,10),(2,6),(4,8),(6,10)}
n(A) 6
n(A) 6
P(A)
n(S) 55
JEE-MAIN 2017 12
cot x cos x
41. lim equals
x
( 2x)3
2
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
8 4 24 16
Ans (4)
cot x cos x
lt
x
( 2x)3
2
Put x h
2
cot h cos h
2 2
lt 3
h 0 ( 2h)
1 tanh sinh
lt
8 h 0 h3
1 sinh 1
lt 3 1
8 h0 h cosh
1 sinh 1 h
lt 3 2sin 2
8 h0 cosh h 2
h
sin 2
1 tanh 2
lt 2
8 h 0 h h2
4
4
1 1 1
8 2 16
42. The value of 21 C1 10C1 21 C2 10C2 21 C3 10C3 21 C4 10C4 ...... 21 C10 10C10 is
(1) 220 – 29 (2) 220 – 210 (3) 221 – 211 (4) 221 – 210
Ans (2)
(21C1 + 21C2 + … + 21C10) – (10C1 + 10C2 + … + 10C10)
S = 21C1 + 21C2 + … + 21C10
S = 21C20 + 21C19 + … + 21C11
2S = 21C1 + 21C2 + … + 21C10
2S = 221 2
S = 220 1
(10C1 + 10C2 + … + 10C10) = 210 – 1
(21C1 + 21C2 + … + 21C10) – (10C1 + 10C2 + … + 10C10) = 220 – 1 – 210 + 1 = 220 – 210
43. For three events A, B and C, P(Exactly one of A or B occurs) = P(Exactly one of B or C occurs)
1 1
= P(Exactly one of C or A occurs) and P (All the three events occur simultaneously) . Then
4 16
the probability that at least one of the events occurs, is
7 3 7 7
(1) (2) (3) (4)
64 16 32 16
Ans (4)
1
P(A) P(B) 2P(A B) … (1)
4
13
1
P(B) P(C) 2P(B C) … (2)
4
1
P(C) P(A) 2P(C A) … (3)
4
1
P(A B C) … (4)
16
Adding (1), (2), (3)
3
2[P(A) P(B) P(C) P(A B) P(B C) P(C A)]
4
3
P(A) P(B) P(C) P(A B) P(C A)
8
3 1 7
P(A B C)
8 16 16
44. Let a vertical tower AB have its end A on the level ground. Let C be the mid-point of AB and P be a
point on the ground such that AP = 2AB. If BPC = , then tan is equal to
2 4 6 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
9 9 7 4
Ans (1)
h
1
tan 2
2h 4 B
h 1 h
tan( )
2h 2 2
tan tan 1 C
1 tan tan 2 h
2
1
tan
4 1 P A
2h
1
1 tan 2
4
1 1
2 tan 1 tan
2 4
9 1
tan
4 2
2
tan
9
1
45. The eccentricity of an ellipse whose centre is at the origin is . If one of its directrices is x = – 4, then
2
3
the equation of the normal to it at 1, is
2
(1) 4x + 2y = 7 (2) x + 2y = 4 (3) 2y – x = 2 (4) 4x – 2y = 1
Ans (4)
1 a
Given e ; x 4 2a 4 a 2
2 e
1
Now b 2 a 2 (1 e2 ) 4 1 3
4
x 2 y2
Equation to the ellipse is 1
4 3
JEE-MAIN 2017 14
2x
dy 3x 3 1 3
Then 4 = slope of the tangent at 1,
dx 1, 3 2y 4y 1, 3 6 2 2
2 2
3 3
1,
2
3
Equation of the normal at 1, is
2
3 1
y 2(x 1) i.e., 2x y 0
2 2
i.e., 4x 2y = 1
46. If, for a positive integer n, the quadratic equation,
x(x 1) (x 1)(x 2) .... x n 1 (x n) 10n has two consecutive integral solutions, then n is
equal to
(1) 10 (2) 11 (3) 12 (4) 9
Ans (2)
nx2 + (1 + 3 + … + 2n 1) x + [2.1 + … + n(n 1)] = 10n
n(n 1)(n 1)
nx 2 n 2 x 10n
3
(n 1)(n 1)
x 2 nx 10
3
For n = 11
x2 + 11x + 30 = 0
(x + 5) (x + 6) = 0
x = 5 , x = 6
47. The following statement (p q) [(~ p q) q] is
(1) equivalent to p ~ q (2) a fallacy
(3) a tautology (4) equivalent to ~ p q
Ans (3)
p q p q ~p ~p q (~p q) q (p q) [(~p ~q) q]
T T T F T T T
T F F F T F T
F T T T T T T
F F T T F T T
48. The normal to the curve y (x – 2) (x – 3) = x + 6 at the point where the curve intersects the y-axis passes
through the point
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
(1) , (2) , (3) , (4) ,
2 3 2 3 2 2 2 2
Ans (4)
y(x 2) (x 3) = x + 6
put x = 0 y = 1
P(0, 1)
Differentiate
y (x 2) (x 3) + y (2x 5) = 1
x = 0, y = 1 y = 1
15
1
Slope of the normal = m ' 1
y'
N : (y 1) = 1 (x 0) x + y = 1
1 1
, lies on the normal x + y = 1
2 2
49. For any three positive real numbers a, b and c, 9(25a2 + b2) + 25(c2 – 3ac) = 15b(3a + c). Then
(1) a, b and c are in A.P. (2) a, b and c are in G.P.
(3) b, c and a are in G.P. (4) b, c and a are in A.P.
Ans (4)
225a2 + 9b2 + 25c2 – 75ac – 45ab – 15bc = 0
1
2(15a) 2 2(3b) 2 2(5c)2 2(75)ac 2(45)ab 2(15)bc 0
2
(15a – 3b)2 + (3b – 5c)2 + (15a – 5c)2 = 0
15a = 3b, 3b = 5c, 15a = 5c
b = 5a, 3b = 5c, 3a = c
If a = k, b = 5k, c = 3k
b, c, a are in A.P.
50. If the image of the point P (1, 2, 3) in the plane, 2x 3y 4z 22 0 measured parallel to the line,
x y z
is Q, then PQ is equal to:
1 4 5
(1) 42 (2) 6 5 (3) 3 5 (4) 2 42
Ans (4)
Equation of line through P(1, – 2, 3) and parallel to given line
x 1 y 2 z 3
1 4 5
Point on line be ( + 1, 4 – 2, 5 + 3)
It lies on the plane 2x + 3y – 4z + 22 = 0
=1
M (2, 2, 8)
PM 12 42 52 42
PQ 2 42
51. If 5(tan 2 x cos2 x) 2cos 2x 9, then the value of cos 4x is:
2 7 3 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
9 9 5 3
Ans (2)
5 (tan2 x – cos2 x) = 2 cos 2x + 9
5 tan2 x – 5 cos2 x = 2(2cos2 x – 1) + 9
5 tan2 x = 9 cos2 x + 7
5 sin2 x = 9 cos2 x + 7 cos2 x
5 – 5 cos2 x = 9 cos4 x + 7 cos2 x
9 cos4 x + 12 cos2 x – 5 = 0
9 cos4 x + 15 cos2 x – 3 cos2 x – 5 = 0
3 cos2 x (3 cos2 x + 5) – (3 cos2 x + 5) = 0
JEE-MAIN 2017 16
(3 cos2 x + 5) (3 cos2 x – 1) = 0
3 cos2 x = – 5 (not possible)
3 cos2 x = 1
1
cos2 x
3
cos 4x = 2 cos2 2x – 1
2[2cos2 x 1]2 1
2
1
2 2 1 1
3
2 2
2 1
2 1 1 2 1
3 3
1 7
2 1
9 9
52. Let a, b,c R. If f (x) ax 2 bx c is such that a b c 3 and
10
f (x y) f (x) f (y) xy, x, y R then f (n) is equal to:
n 1
Aliter
f(1) = a + b + c = 3
f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y) + xy
Differentiate partially w.r.t. x,
f (x y) f ( ) y
Now put x = 0, then y = x
f (x) f (0) x
f (x) x k
x2
f (x) k put x = 1
2
1
f (1) k
2
1 5
k 3
2 2
17
x2 5
f (x)
2 2
x2 5
f (x)
2 2
10
1 10 2 5 10 11
x 1
f (x) (x ) 2 2
2 x 1
1 10 11 21 5 10 11
2 6 2 2
385 275 660
330
2 2 2
53. The distance of the point (1,3, 7) from the plane passing through the point (1, 1, 1) , having normal
x 1 y 2 z 4 x 2 y 1 z 7
perpendicular to both the lines and , is:
1 2 3 2 1 1
5 10 20 10
(1) (2) (3) (4)
83 74 74 83
Ans (4)
The normal vector to the plane
ˆi ˆj kˆ
n 1 2 3 5iˆ 7ˆj 3kˆ
2 1 1
Equation to the plane is
5(x – 1) + 7 (y + 1) + 3(z + 1) = 0
i.e., 5x + 7y + 3z + 5 = 0
5 21 21 5 10
Distance of the point from (1, 3, – 7) to the above plane is
25 49 9 83
54. If S is the set of distinct values of ‘b’ for which the following system of linear equations
x y z 1
x ay z 1
ax by z 0
has no solution, then S is:
(1) a finite set containing two or more elements (2) a singleton
(3) an empty set (4) an infinite set
Ans (2)
No solution
If |A| = 0 (adj A) B 0
1 1 1
1 a 1 0
a b 1
(a – b) – (1 – a) + (b – a2) = 0
a2 – 2a + 1 = 0
a=1
The system of equations becomes
x+y+z=1
JEE-MAIN 2017 18
x + by + z = 0
This system has no solution if b = 1
2 3 2
55. If A
4 1 , then adj (3A 12A) is equal to:
51 84 72 63 72 84 51 63
(A) (B) (C) (D)
63 72 84 51 63 51 84 72
Ans (4)
2 3
A
4 1
16 9
A2
12 13
48 27
3A 2
36 39
24 36
12A
48 12
72 63
3A 2 12A
84 51
51 63
adj[3A 2 12A]
84 72
56. A hyperbola passes through the point P( 2, 3) and has foci at ( 2, 0). Then the tangent to this
hyperbola at P also passes through the point:
(1) ( 3, 2) (2) ( 2, 3) (3) (3 2,2 3) (4) (2 2,3 3)
Ans (4)
Foci ( ae, 0) = ( 2, 0) ae = 2
2 2 2
b = a (e – 1) a 2 + b2 = 4 (or) b2 = 4 – a 2
The equation to the hyperbola is
x2 y2
1
a2 4 a2
This passes through P 2, 3
2 3
2
1 a 4 9a 2 8 0
a 4 a2
(a2 – 8) (a2 – 1) = 0
a2 = 1 ( a2 8)
Now the equation to the hyperbola is
x 2 y2
1
1 3
Equation of tangent at P 2, 3 is
y
2x 1 is 3 2x y 3
3
Which is satisfied only by 2 2, 3 3
19
57. Let k be an integer such that the triangle with vertices (k, 3k), (5, k) and ( k, 2) has area 28 sq. units.
Then the orthocenter of this triangle is at the point:
3 1 1 3
(1) 1, (2) 2, (3) 2, (4) 1,
4 2 2 4
Ans (2)
k 3k 1
1
5 k 1 28
2
k 2 1
k(k – 2) + 3k(5 + k) + (10 + k2) = 56 A (2, – 6)
2
5k + 13k – 46 = 0
k=2
(h, k)
AO is perpendicular to BC
h=2 O
Also BO is perpendicular to AC B C
k2 8 (5, 2) (– 2, 2)
1
h 5 1
k2 1
h5 2
1
k
2
1
orthocenter is 2,
2
58. Twenty meters of wire is available for fencing off a flower-bed in the form of a circular sector. Then the
maximum area (in sq. m) of the flower-bed, is:
(1) 25 (2) 30 (3) 12.5 (4) 10
Ans (1)
Perimeter
P 20 2r r
20 2r
r
1
A r 2
2
1 20 2r
r2
2 r
1
r(20 2r)
2
1
(2r) (20 2r)
4
2r 20 2r
A attain for
1 1
4r 20 r 5
1
Max area .5(20 10)
2
1
.5.10 25
2
JEE-MAIN 2017 20
1 1 x
59. The function f : R , defined as f (x) , is:
2 2 1 x2
(1) surjective but not injective (2) neither injective nor surjective
(3) invertible (4) injective but not surjective.
Ans (1)
1 1
f : R ,
2 2
x
f (x)
1 x2
(1 x 2 ) x(2x) 1 x2
f (x)
(1 x 2 )2 (1 x 2 )2
f (x) is both + ve and ve. Hence function is not injective.
x
y
1 x2
x y x2y
x2y x y 0
1 4y 2 0
4y 2 1
1 1
y ,
2 2
Function is surjective.
60. A man X has 7 friends, 4 of them are ladies and 3 are men. His wife Y also has 7 friends, 3 of them are
ladies and 4 are men. Assume X and Y have no common friends. Then the total number of ways in
which X and Y together can throw a party inviting 3 ladies and 3 men, so that 3 friends of each of X and
Y are in this party, is:
(1) 469 (2) 484 (3) 485 (4) 468
Ans (3)
X Y
M L M L
3 4 4 3
M L
2W 1H 1W 2H
1W 2H 2W 1H
3H 3W
3W 3H
4
C2 .3 C1.3 C1.4 C2 4 C1.3 C 2 .3 C2 .4 C1 3 C3 .3 C3 4 C3 .4 C3
= 6.3.3.6 + 4.3.3.4 + 1.1 + 4.4
= 324 + 144 + 1 + 16 = 485
21
PHYSICS
ALL THE GRAPHS/DIAGRAMS GIVEN ARE SCHEMATIC AND NOT DRAWN TO SCALE.
61. An observer is moving with half the speed of light towards a stationary microwave source emitting
waves at frequency 10 GHz. What is the frequency of the microwave measured by the observer?
(speed of light = 3 108 ms–1)
(1) 12.1 GHz (2) 17.3 GHz (3) 15.3 GHz (4) 10.1 GHz
Ans (2)
1
The observed frequency, f 0 fs
1
v 1
where 0.5
c 2
f 0 fs 3 17.3 GHz
62. The following observations were taken for determining surface tension T of water by capillary method:
diameter of capillary, D = 1.25 10–2 m rise of water, h = 1.45 10–2 m.
rhg
Using g = 9.80 m/s2 and the simplified relation T 103 N / m, the possible error in surface tension
2
is closest to:
(1) 1.5% (2) 2.4% (3) 10% (4) 0.15%
Ans (1)
T
The fractional error in surface tension is given by
T
T r h g D h g
T r h g D h g
0.01 0.01 0.01
0.008 0.0068 0.001
1.25 1.45 9.8
T
0.015
T
T
(%) 1.5%
T
63. Some energy levels of a molecule are shown in the figure. The ratio of the wavelengths r = 1/2, is
given by:
2 3 1 4
(1) r (2) r (3) r (4) r
3 4 3 3
Ans (3)
The energy of the photon of wave length 1 is given by
hc
2E E E … (1)
1
The energy of photon of wavelength 2 is given by
JEE-MAIN 2017 22
hc 4 1
EE E … (2)
2 3 3
1
1
2 3
64. A body of mass m = 10–2 kg is moving in a medium and experiences a frictional force F = –kv2. Its
1
initial speed is v0 = 10 ms–1. If, after 10 s, its energy is mv 02 , value of k will be:
8
–3 –1 –4 –1
(1) 10 kg s (2) 10 kg m (3) 10–1 kg m–1s–1 (4) 10–3 kg m–1
Ans (2)
F dv kv 2
a
m dt m
v0
2 t
dv k 1 v
v v 2 m 0 dt [ energy becomes mv 02 , speed becomes 0 ]
0
8 2
v0
1 2 kt
v v0 m
2 1 kt
v0 v0 m
1 kt
v0 m
m 102
k 104 kg m 1
v 0 t 10 10
OR
(2)
dv
m kv 2
dt
v 10
dv k
v
v2
m0
dt
b
v
1 k
10
v
v0 m
1 1 10k 1 1 10k
v v0 m v v0 m
v 0m
v
m 10kv 0
1 v 02 m 2 1
E m mv 02
2 (m 10kv 0 )2 8
m2 1
2
(m 10kv 0 ) 4
2m m 10kv 0
m 10kv 0
m
k 104 kg m 1
10v 0
23
65. Cp and Cv are specific heats at constant pressure and constant volume respectively.
It is observed that
Cp – Cv = a for hydrogen gas
Cp – Cv = b for nitrogen gas
The correct relation between a and b is:
1
(1) a = b (2) a = 14 b (3) a = 28 b (4) a b
14
Ans (2)
Considering specific heat in terms of mass
m5
Q mC p T RT W
M2
m5
mCV T RT
M2
m
m(C P C V )T RT
M
R
Hence C P C V
M
R R
From question C P C V a and b
2 28
or a = 14b
Note: The problem doesn't states molar specific heat otherwise CP – CV = R for all ideal gases a = b
(There is ambiguity since generally capital symbols are used for molar specific heat)
66. The moment of inertia of a uniform cylinder of length l and radius R about its perpendicular bisector is I.
What is the ratio l/R such that the moment of inertia is minimum?
3 3 3
(1) (2) 1 (3) (4)
2 2 2
Ans (4)
R 2l constant
2RldR R 2dl 0
2RldR R 2dl
dR R
dl 2l
1 1
I mR 2 ml 2
4 12
dI 1 dR 1
mR ml 0
dl 2 dl 6
R dR 1
l
2 dl 6
R2 1
l
4l 6
l2 6
R2 4
l 3
R 2
JEE-MAIN 2017 24
67. A radioactive nucleus A with a half life T, decays into a nucleus B. At t = 0, there is no nucleus B. At
sometime t, the ratio of the number of B to that of A is 0.3. Then, t is given by:
log1.3 T T log 2
(1) t T (2) t T log (1.3) (3) t (4) t
log 2 log(1.3) 2 log1.3
Ans (1)
After n half lives the number of nuclei left
N
N n0
2
t
Here, n and N = 0.7 N0
T
N0
OR n 0.7N 0
2
10
2n
7
nlog2 = log1.3
log1.3
t T
log 2
68. Which of the following statement is false?
(1) In a balanced wheatstone bridge if the cell and the galvanometer are exchanged, the null point is
disturbed.
(2) A rheostat can be used as a potential divider.
(3) Kirchhoff’s second law represents energy conservation.
(4) Wheatstone bridge is the most sensitive when all the four resistances are of the same order of
magnitude.
Ans (1)
On changing the cell and the galvanometer the null point does not change.
69. A capacitance of 2 F is required in an electrical circuit across a potential difference of 1.0 kV. A large
number of 1 F capacitors are available which can withstand a potential difference of not more than
300 V.
The minimum number of capacitors required to achieve this is
(1) 16 (2) 24 (3) 32 (4) 2
Ans (3)
Let say there are n capacitors are connected in series and m number of such rows are connected as
shown.
The potential difference across each capacitor should be less than or equal to 300 V
25
Hence n(300) 1 103
10
n
3
or n 4
1
Also m F 2F
4
or m = 8
Hence total capacitors required = 4 8 = 32
70. In the given circuit diagram when the current reaches steady state in the circuit, the on the capacitor of
capacitance C will be:
r1 r2 r1
(1) CE (2) CE (3) CE (4) CE
(r2 r) (r r2 ) (r1 r)
Ans (2)
When steady state is reached, the current through capacitor is zero. Hence current through resistance r2 is
E
i
r r2
Er2
The potential difference across capacitor and resistance r2 is same and it is V ir2
r r2
CEr2
Hence Q = CV
r r2
71.
JEE-MAIN 2017 26
72. In amplitude modulation, sinusoidal carrier frequency used is denoted by c and the signal frequency is
denoted by m. The bandwidth (m) of the signal is such that m << c. Which of the following
frequencies is not contained in the modulated wave?
(1) c (2) m + c (3) c – m (4) m
Ans (4)
The variation of amplitude modulated (AM) wave with frequency () is given as:
Hence, m is not contained in modulated wave.
73. In a common emitter amplifier circuit using an n-p-n transistor, the phase difference between the input
and the output voltages will be:
(1) 90 (2) 135 (3) 180 (4) 45
Ans (3)
In a common emitter amplifier, the input diode (emitter – base junction) is forward biased and the output
diode (collector base junction) is reverse biased.
Hence positive half cycle of input signal is converted into large negative half cycle at the output.
Hence the phase difference between input and output is 180.
74. A copper ball of mass 100 gm is at a temperature T. It is dropped in a copper calorimeter of mass
100 gm, filled with 170 gm of water at room temperature. Subsequently, the temperature of the system is
found to be 75 °C. T is given by:
(Given: room temperature = 30 °C, specific heat of copper = 0.1 cal/gm °C)
(1) 885 C (2) 1250 C (3) 825 C (4) 800 C
Ans (1)
Heat lost by hot body = Heat gained by cold body
Heat lost by copper ball = heat gained by copper calorimeter + heat gained by water
m balls ball (t 75) m caloriscalori (75 30) m water s water (75 30)
100 0.1 (t 75) 1.00 0.1 45 170 1 45
t 885C
75. In a Young’s double slit experiment, slits are separated by 0.5 mm, and the screen is placed 150 cm
away. A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths, 650 nm and 520 nm, is used to obtain interference
fringes on the screen. The least distance from the common central maximum to the point where the
bright fringes due to both the wavelengths coincide is
(1) 7.8 mm (2) 9.75 mm (3) 15.6 mm (4) 1.56 mm
Ans (1)
n1D1 n 2 D 2
d d
n1 2 520 4
n 2 1 650 5
4th bright fringe corresponding to 650 nm coincides with 5th bright fridge corresponding to 520 nm.
27
Distance of 4th bright fringe from central maximum
4D1
d
D 1.5m, 1 650 109 m
d 5 104 m
Distance = 7.8 mm
76. An electric dipole has a fixed dipole moment p , which makes angle with respect to x-axis. When
subjected to an electric field E1 Eiˆ , it experiences a torque T1 kˆ . When subjected to another electric
field E 3E ˆj it experiences a torque T T . The angle is:
2 1 2 1
3
II case 2 PE cos (k)
as 1 2 we have tan 3 60
choice (2) is correct
77. A slender uniform rod of mass M and length l is pivoted at one end so that it can rotate in a vertical plane
(see figure). There is negligible friction at the pivot. The free end is held vertically above the pivot and
then released. The angular acceleration of the rod when it makes an angle with the vertical is:
2g 3g 2g 3g
(1) sin (2) cos (3) cos (4) sin
ml 2l 3l 2l
Ans (4)
l
We have mg sin
2
= I
2
ml 2 l
But I m
12 2
ml 2 mg
3
O
ml 2 l
mg sin
3 2
3
gsin
2l
JEE-MAIN 2017 28
78. An external pressure P is applied on a cube at 0 °C so that it is equally compressed from all sides. K is
the bulk modulus of the material of the cube and is its coefficient of linear expansion. Suppose we
want to bring the cube to its original size by heating. The temperature should be raised by:
P 3a P
(1) (2) (3) 3PK (4)
aK PK 3K
Ans (4)
PV V P
K ;
V V K
V L
But 3 3dt
V L
P
3dt
K
P
t
3k
79. A diverging lens with magnitude of focal length 25 cm is placed at a distance of 15 cm from a
converging lens of magnitude of focal length 20 cm. A beam of parallel light falls on the diverging lens.
The final image formed is:
(1) virtual and at a distance of 40 cm from convergent lens.
(2) real and at a distance of 40 cm from the divergent lens.
(3) real and at a distance of 6 cm from the convergent lens.
(4) real and at a distance of 40 cm from convergent lens.
Ans (4)
For diverging lens u and f 25
v 25
For converging lens u 15 25 40 f 20
v = 40
80. An electron beam is accelerated by a potential difference V to hit a metallic target to produce X-rays. It
produces continuous as well as characteristic X-rays. If min is the smallest possible wavelength of X-ray
in the spectrum, the variation of log min with log V is correctly represented in:
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Ans (4)
In X-ray continuous spectrum.
hc
eV
min
29
hc k
min say
eV V
log min log k log V
81. The temperature of an open room of volume 30 m3 increases from 17 °C to 27 °C due to the sunshine.
The atmospheric pressure in the room remains 1 Pa. If ni and nf are the number of molecules in the
room before and after heating, then nf – ni will be:
(1) 1.38 1023 (2) 2.5 1025 (3) – 2.5 1025 (4) –1.61 1023
Ans (3)
We know that
PV
ni 0 0 N A
RTi
PV
nf 0 0 N A
RTf
P0 V0 N A 1 1
nf ni
R 300 290
1 105 30 m 3
[ 0.000115]
1.38 1023
= – 2.5 × 1025
82. In a coil of resistance 100 , a current is induced by changing the magnetic flux through it as shown in
the figure. The magnitude of change in flux through the coil is:
JEE-MAIN 2017 30
Ans (4)
I = 5 mA for full scale deflection
G = 15
X=?
Voltmeter range = 0 – 10V
10V
(15 x) 2 103
5mA
x = 2000 – 15 = 1985
x = 1.985 × 103
84. A time dependent force F = 6t acts on a particle of mass 1 kg. If the particle starts from rest, the work
done by the force during the first 1 sec. will be:
(1) 22 J (2) 9 J (3) 18 J (4) 4.5 J
Ans (4)
F 6t
6t
a 6t
m
dv
6t
dt
v 1
0
dv 6 t dt
0
6
[v]0v [t 2 ]10
2
v3
According to work energy theorem
W K
1 1
mv 2 mu 2
2 2
1
mv 2
2
1
1 (3) 2 4.5 J
2
85. A magnetic needle of magnetic moment 6.7 10–2 Am2 and moment of inertia 7.5 10–6 kg m2 is
performing simple harmonic oscillations in a magnetic field of 0.01 T. Time taken for 10 complete
oscillations is:
(1) 8.89 s (2) 6.98 s (3) 8.76 s (4) 6.65 s
Ans (4)
M = 6.7 × 10–2 Am2
I = 7.5 × 10–6 kg m2
B = 10–2 T
I 7.5 106
Using formula T 2 2 = 6.65 s
MB 6.7 102 102
31
86. The variation of acceleration due to gravity g with distance d from centre of the earth is best represented
by (R = Earth’s radius):
Ans (3)
If r < R,
Gm 4
g 2 m r 3
r 3
4 3 G 4
g r 2 G r
3 r 3
gr
If r > R,
GM
g 2
r
1
g 2
r
87. A body is thrown vertically upwards. Which one of the following graphs correctly represent the velocity
vs time?
Ans (2)
Acceleration is constant and g is downwards. Hence the graph is a straight line.
m
88. A particle A of mass m and initial velocity v collides with a particle B of mass which is at rest. The
2
collision is head on, and elastic. The ratio of the de-Broglie wavelengths A to B after the collision is:
2 1 1
(1) A 2 (2) A (3) A (4) A
B B 3 B 2 B 3
Ans (1)
m
From conservative of linear momenta, mv mv1 v2
2
2v1 + v2 = 2v … (1)
v v2
Also 1 1
v
v1 – v2 = – v … (2)
v 4v
Hence, v1 and v2
3 3
m 4v
A pB 2 3 2
B pA v
m
3
JEE-MAIN 2017 32
89. A particle is executing simple harmonic motion with a time period T. At time t =0, it is at its position of
equilibrium. The kinetic energy - time graph of the particle will look like:
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Ans (3)
T 3T
Kinetic energy is minimum and zero at t ,
4 4
T
Kinetic energy is maximum at t 0, ,T and kinetic energy increases non-linearly.
T
2 t
3T 2 T
Alternate method t t
4 t=0 4
Ans (3)
At t = 0, KE = max
t
t , KE = O
4
t vmax v=0
t , KE = max v=0
2
3T
t , KE = O
4
O T T 3T T
4 2 4
90. A man grows into a giant such that his linear dimensions increase by a factor of 9. Assuming that his
density remains same, the stress in the leg will change by a factor of:
1 1
(1) (2) 81 (3) (4) 9
9 81
Ans (4)
Mass = Ah
M = 81 9 (Ah)
A = 81A
M 'g 9(Ah)g
New stress 9hg
A' A
M Ahg
Old stress hg
A A
Stress increases 9 times
***
33