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CAREER INSTITUTE
Path to Success KOTA (RAJASTHAN) FORM NUMBER

DISTANCE LEARNING PROGRAMME

(ACADEMIC SESSION 2014-2015)

LEADER TEST SERIES COURSE

TARGET : MH-CET 2015
TEST # 06 DATE : 22 - 03 - 2015
Test Type : MAJOR Test Pattern : MH-CET
TEST SYLLABUS : FULL SYLLABUS
INSTRUCTIONS Duration : 3:00 hours Total Marks : 800
1. This question booklet contains 200 Objective Type Questions in the subjects of Physics(50), Chemistry (50) and Biology (100).
2. The question paper and OMR (Optical Mark Reader) Answer Sheet is issued separately at the start of the examination.
3. Choice and sequence for attempting questions will be as per the convenience of the candidate.
4. Candidate should carefully read the instructions printed on the Question Booklet and Answer Sheet and make the correct entries on
the Answer Sheet. As Answer Sheets are designed to suit the OPTICAL MARK READER (OMR) SYSTEM, special care should be
taken to mark the entries correctly. Special care should be taken to fill accurately. The correctness of entries has to be
cross-checked by the invigilators. Paper code and Form No.
5. Read each question carefully.
6. Select the correct answer from the four available options given for each question.
7. Mark the appropriate circle completely like this , for answering a particular question. Mark with Black ink ball point pen only.
8. Each question with correct response shall be awarded four (4) marks. There shall be no negative marking.
9. Use of whitener or any other material to erase/hide the circle once filled is not permitted.
10. Avoid overwriting and/or striking of answers once marked.
11. Rough work should be done only on the blank space provided on the Question Booklet. Rough work should not be done on the
Answer Sheet.
12. The required Log-Antilog table will be provided along with the Question Booklet.
13. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the Answer sheet is to be returned to the Invigilator.
14. No candidate is allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of examination.
15. No marks will be deducted if a particular question is not attempted.
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.

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 Leader Test Series Course/MH-CET/22-03-2015

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1. When a body is projected at an angle with the 4. What is the equivalent resistance between
horizontal in the uniform gravitational field of points A and D?
the earth, the angular momentum of the body
5 10 5
about the point of projection, as it proceeds E F
A C
along the path
10 10
(1) remains constant
B D
(2) increases 5 H 10 G 5
(3) decreases
(1) 5 (2) 10
(4) initially decreases and after its highest point
(3) 15 (4) 20
increases.
5. A bubble is at the bottom of a lake of depth h.
2. In the figure, CP represents a wavefront and
As the bubble comes to the sea level, its radius
AO and BP, the corresponding two rays. Find
increases three times. If atmospheric pressure
the condition in for constructive interference
is equal to l metre of a water column, then h is
at P between the ray BP and the reflected ray
equal to
OP.
(1) 26 l (2) l
O
Q R (3) 25 l (4) 30 l
6. A uniform metallic rod rotates about its
C
perpendicular bisector with constant angular
A P speed. If it is heated uniformly to raise its
B temperature slightly.
(1) cos = 3 /2d (1) its speed of rotation increases
(2) cos = /4d (2) its speed of rotation decreases
(3) sec – cos = /d (3) its speed of rotation remains same
(4) sec – cos = 4 /d (4) its speed increases because its moment of
3. Consider a uniform square plate of side a and inertia increases.
mass m. the moment of inertia of this plate 7. A particle is moving in a circle of radius r with
about an axis perpendicular to its plane and
passing through one of its corners is k
centripetal force
. What is the total
2
r
5 1
(1) ma2 (2) ma2 mechanical energy associated?
6 12
7 2 k k k k
(3) ma2 (4) ma2 (1) (2) (3) (4)
12 3 2r r 2r r
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8. A metal rod of Young's modulus Y and 12. If the electric flux entering and leaving an
coe-fficient of thermal expansion is held at enclosed surface respectively are and , the
its two ends such that its length remains electric charge inside that surface will be
invariant. If its temperature is raised by t0 C,
2 1 2 1
the linear stress developed in it is (1) (2)
o o
t Y
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Y t 13. A proton and an -particle enter a uniform
magnetic field perpendicularly with the same
1
(3) Y t (4) speed. If proton takes 25 µs to make 5
Yt
revolutions, then the time period for the
9. Two sound waves of wavelength 5 m and 6 m -particle would be
travelling in a medium produce 10 beats per (1) 50 µs (2) 25 µs
second. The speed of sound in the medium is (3) 10 µs (4) 5 µs
(1) 300 m/s (2) 320 m/s 14. For the AC circuit shown in the figure, the
(3) 350 m/s (4) 1200 m/s voltmeter reading is 0V. What would be the
10. The earth moves around the sun in an elliptical reading of ammeter?
OA
orbit as shown in the figure. The ratio x. A
OB
The ratio of the speeds of the earth at B and at
1000µF V ~ 100V
A is
15 mH 25
Earth
(1) 0A (2) 25A
B A (3) 4A (4) None of these
O Sun
15. A Carnot engine operating between temperature
(1) x (2) x 1
T 1 and T 2 has efficiency . When T 2 is
(3) x2 (4) x x 6

5T 1
11. Two pendulums have time periods T and . lowered by 62 K its efficiency increases to .
4 3
They start SHM at the same time from the mean Then T1 and T2 are respectively.
position. What will be the phase difference (1) 372 K and 330 K
between them after the larger length pendulum (2) 330 K and 268 K
completes one oscillation? (3) 310 K and 248 K
(1) 45º (2) 90º (3) 60º (4) 30º (4) 372 K and 310 K
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16. A ray of light is incident on the surface of a 21. An uncharged parallel plate capacitor having
glass plate of refractive index 1.732 at the a dielectric of constant K is connected to a
polarising angle. The angle of refraction of similar air cored parallel capacitor charged to
the ray is a potential V. The two share the charge and
(1) 450 (2) 600 the common potential V'. The dielectric
(3) 15 0
(4) 300 constant K is
17. Two beams of light of intensities 4I and I
V' V V' V V' V V V'
interfere. The intensity on the screen, where (1) (2) (3) (4)
V' V V' V V'
the phase difference is /2 will be
(1) 5I (2) 0 (3) 3I (4) 6I 22. A beam of unpolarised light of intensity I0 is
18. An electron of mass m and charge e is initially passed through a polaroid A and then through
at rest. It is accelerated by a constant electric another polaroid B which is oriented so that its
field E. The rate of change of de-Broglie principal plane makes an angle of 45º relative
wavelength of this electron at time t is to that of A. The intensity of the emergent light
is
h nh
(1) e E t 2 (2) e E t 2 (1) I0 (2) I0/2 (3) I0/4 (4) I0/8
23. Two copper wires have their masses in ratio of
h eht 2:3 and their lengths in ratio 3:4. What is the
(3) e E (4) E
ratio of their resistances?
19. A radioactive nucleus undergoes a series of (1) 4:9 (2) 16:81
decays according to the scheme (3) 27:32 (4) 2:1
24. Three particles of equal mass M are situated at
A A1 A2 A3 A4
the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side L.
If the mass number and atomic number of A What should be the velocity of each particle
are 180 and 72 respectively, these numbers of so that they move on a circular path without
A4 are changing L?
(1) 172, 69 (2) 177, 69
(3) 171.69 (4) 172,68 GM GM 2GM GM
(1) (2) (3) (4)
20. When the angle of incidence on the material is 2L L L 3L
60°, the reflected light is completely polarised. 25. A magnet of length 14cm and magnetic
The velocity of refracted ray inside the material moment M, is broken into two parts of length
is :- 6cm and 8cm respectively. They are put at
3 right angles to each other, with opposite poles
(1) 3 × 108 m/s (2) × 108 m/s
2 together. The magnetic moment of the
combination is
1
(3) 3 × 108 m/s (4) × 108 m/s (1) M/10 (2) M (3) M/1.4 (4) 2.8M
3
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26. An audio signal 12 sin2 (1000t) amplitude 31. A block of mass m attached to a spring of
modulates 48 sin2 (10 6 t). The modulation spring constant K is suspended from the ceiling
index will be :- of a lift. If the lift suddenly starts falling freely, then
(1) 20% (2) 30% (1) length of spring will not change
(3) 25% (4) 50% (2) spring will have fixed elongation of mg/K
27. A racing car moving towards a cliff sounds its (3) block will perform SHM of amplitude mg/K
horn. The driver observes that the sound (4) block will perform SHM of frequency mg/K.
reflected from the cliff has a pitch double of 32. A string fixed at both the ends having a
the actual sound of the horn. If v is the velocity fundamental frequency of 240 Hz is vibrated
of sound, the velocity of the car is with the help of a tuning fork having frequency
480 Hz, then
v v
(1) (2) (1) string will vibrate with a frequency of 240 Hz
2 2
(2) string will vibrate in resonance with the
v v tuning fork with frequency 480 Hz.
(3) (4)
3 4 (3) string will vibrate with a frequency of 480 Hz,
28. The materials suitable for making electro- but is not in resonance with the tuning fork.
magnets should have (4) string is in resonance with the tuning fork
(1) high retentivity and high coercivity and hence vibrates with a frequency of 240 Hz.
(2) low retentivity and low coercivity 33. The stress-strain graph for two metals A and B
(3) high retentivity and low coercivity are given below
(4) low retentivity and high coercivity Stress Stress
29. Two cars of masses m1 and m2 are moving in
circles of radii r1 and r2 respectively. Their
speeds are such that they make complete circles
in the same time t. The ratio of their centripetal
Strain Strain
acceleration is (Metal A) (Metal B)
(1) m1 r1 : m2 r2 (2) m1 : m2 Which statement is true?
(3) r1 : r2 (4) 1 : 1 (1) Young's modulus for A is more than B and
30. The equation of a wave on a string of linear A is more ductile than B.
mass density 0.04 kg m-1 is given by (2) Young's modulus for B is more than A and
t x A is more ductile than B.
y = 0.02 (m) sin 2
0.04(s) 0.50(m) (3) Young's modulus for A is more than B and
The tension in the string is B is more ductile than A.
(1) 4.0 N (2) 12.5 N (4) Young's modulus for B is more than A and
(3) 0.5 N (4) 6.25 N B is more ductile than A.
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34. When the photons of energy hv fall on a photo 37. What is the potential difference between points
sensitive metallic surface (work function ), A and D of circuit shown in figure?
electrons are emitted with some kinetic energy.
2 C 4V
The graph between stopping potential Vo & v A
for two metals A and B is given 6V 3 5V 6
1 4
Vo A B
B D

(1) 5V (2) 9V
(3) 10.4 V (4) 11.4 V
38. Two wires of same material but of different
Which of the following is true regarding the
diameters carry the same current I. If the ratio
work function of two metals?
of their diameters is 2:1. then the corresponding
(1) A> B (2) A < B
ratio of their mean drift velocities will be
(3) A = B (4) Can't be determined
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 1 (3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 4
35. A body placed at the equator of the earth shows
39. A conducting rod PQ is rotating with constant
weightlessness. When the earth has rotational
angular velocity about end P, in uniform
kinetic energy equal to
magnetic field B as shown.
(M = Mass of earth, R = Radius of earth)
2MgR X X X X X
(1) MgR (2) QX
5 X X X X X X

X X X X X X
MgR 1 B
(3) (4) MgR X P X X X X
5 4 X X X X X X X
36. In the given circuit, the silicon diode conducts X X X X X X X
at 0.7 V and Germanium diode conducts at
0.3 V. The value of Vo is The polarity of end P and Q is
(1) P is positive, Q is negative
Si (2) P is negative, Q is positive
Vo (3) emf will not be induced
Ge 5 (4) data is insufficient
12V 40. Magnetic field at the centre of a circular loop
of area A is B. The magnetic moment of the
loop will be
(1) 14 V (2) 11.3 V BA 2 BA3 / 2 BA3 / 2 2BA 3 / 2
(3) 16 V (4) 11.7 V (1) (2) (3) 1/ 2 (4) 1/ 2
0 0 0 0

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41. A small particle of mass m moves such that 47. The drift velocity of free electrons in a
conductor is v when a current i is flowing in it.
potential energy PE 1 2 2 . Assuming
mr If both the radius of cross section and current
2
Bohr's model of quantisation of angular are doubled, then the drift velocity will be
momentum and circular orbit, radius of nth orbit (1) v (2) v/2 (3) v/4 (4) v/8
is proportional to 48. The magnetic field at a distance x on the axis
1 1 1
(1) n 2 (2) n3 (3) (4) 3 of a circular coil of radius R is th of that at
n n 8
42. The circuit shown below will acts as the centre. The value of x is
A R 2R
(1) (2) (3) R 3 (4) R 2
3 3
B
49. For the circuit shown in figure, E = 50V,
(1) AND gate (2) OR gate
R1 = 10 , R2=20 , R3=30 and L=2.0 mH.
(3) NAND gate (4) XOR gate
The current through R 1 immediately after
43. A conducting circular loop is placed in an
switch S is closed, is
uniform magnetic field of induction B tesla
with its plane normal to the field. If the radius 5
(1) A
of the loop starts shrinking at the rate of 3 R1 R3
(dr./dt). What is the induced e.m.f. at the 1 S
(2) A E R2 L
instant, when the radius is r? 3
dr dB 5
(1) rB (2) r2 (3) mA
dt dt 3
5
dr r2 dr (4) mA
(3) 2 r B (4) B. 6
dt 2 dt
50. A steady current is set up in a network
44. The current through a coil of self inductance composed of wires of equal resistance and
L = 2mH is given by I = t2 e-t at time t(sec). length d as shown in figure. What is the
How long will it take to make the e.m.f. zero? magnetic field at the centre P ?
(1) 2 sec (2) 3 sec (3) 4 sec (4) 1 sec B C
2I
45. The minimum length of antenna required to (1) 0
4 d A
transmit a radio signal of frequency 20 MHz is D
3I E P
(1) 5m (2) 7.5m (3) 2m (4) 3.75m (2)
0 F
46. The ratio of longest to shortest wavelength in 4 2d H G
Paschen series is (3) 0
(1) 1:2.286 (2) 2.286:1 l
(4) 0
(3) 1.886:1 (4) 1.7:1 4 d
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51. Which of the following reactions does not 55. A B KA = 1015 e–2000/T
produced HBr?
(1) KBr + H3PO3 C D KC = 1014 e–1000/T
(2) P(red) + Br2 + H2 Temperature T(in Kelvin) at which (KA = KC) is
(3) NaBr + H2SO4(conc.)
(1) 1000 (2) 2000
(4) Br2 + NaOH
52. The atoms (A) form hexagonal closest packing 2000 1000
(3) (4)
and atoms (C) occupy 16.67% of octahedral 2.303 2.303
voids and 25% of tetrahedral voids in it, then 56. A hydrogen electrode is immersed in a solution
the general formula of the compound is of pH = zero (let HCl solution). By how much
(1) CA 2 (2) C3A2 will the reduction potential change if an equivalent
(3) C2A3 (4) C2 A amount of NaOH is added to this solution? Given
53. Given H2(g) + Br2(g) 2HBr(g) ; Hr0 = H10 pH = 1 atm and temperature = 25 0C.
2

and standard enthalpy of condensation of (1) 0.42 (2) 0.21

bromine is H 02 , then standard enthalpy of (3) 0.11 (4) 0.84
formation of HBr at 25 0C is 57. P4O10 on reacting with water does not form
(1) orthophosphoric acid
H10 (2) pyrophosphoric acid
(1)
2 (3) metaphosphoric acid
(4) phosphorous acid
H10 0
(2) H2 58. H2 S cannot be dried by passing over conc.
2
H2SO4 because
0
H1 (1) the acid combines with H2S to form salt
(3) H 02
2 (2) the acid oxidizes it
(3) both form complex
H10 H 20
(4) (4) it dissolves in the acid
2
59. Which of the following will not be obtained as
54. For the reaction; 3A products, the value a product on hydrolysis of XeF2 ?
of k = 1 × 10–3 lit mol-1 min-1, then the value of (1) O2 (2) XeO3
(3) H2F 2 (4) Xe
d[A]
in mol lit-1 sec-1 when {[A] = 2M} is 60. The number of geometrical isomers possible
dt
for the complex ion [Cr(NH3)(OH)2 Cl3 ]2- are
(1) 6.67 × 10-3 (2) 1.2 × 10-2 (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 2 × 10 -4
(4) 4 × 10 -3
(3) 3 (4) 4
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61. Which of the following statements is 65. Aqueous solutions of 0.004 M Na 2 SO 4 and
INCORRECT? 0.01 M glucose are isotonic. The degree of
(1) S 2 O 8 -2 oxidizes Ag + in the presence of dissociation of Na2SO4 is (keeping temperature
pyridine and give red colour compound. constant)
(2) MnO4-2 disproportionates to yield MnO4-1 (1) 25% (2) 60%
and MnO2 in presence of H+ ions (3) 75% (4) 85%
(3) In Cr2O72- each Cr is linked to four oxygen 66. Which metal solution cannot be prepared by
atoms. Bredig's arc method?
(4) Ti+2 is purple while Ti+4 is violet (1) Pt (2) Au
62. The final product III obtained in the reaction (3) Ag (4) K
CH3 67. When calcium acetate is dissolved in water, heat
Sn/HCl Br2/H 2O HONO is evolved. If the temperature is raised, the
I II III
H3PO2 solubility of calcium acetate
NO2 (1) increases (2) decreases
CH 3 CH3 (3) remains same (4) None of these
68. The number of moles of water which must be
(1) (2)
Br Br Br electrolysed to produce 22.4 lit of O2 at 273 K
OH and 2 atm pressure are
CH 3 CH3 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
Br PO 2H
(3) (4) 69. If NaOH is added to an aqueous solution of
Br Zn2+ ions, a white precipitate appears and on
NO2 NO adding excess NaOH, the precipitate dissolves.
63. A mineral having the formula AB2 crystallizes In this solution, zinc exists in the
in the cubic close packed lattice with the 'A' (1) Cationic part
atoms occupying the lattice points. What is (2) Anionic part
the co-ordination number of the 'B' atoms? (3) Both in cationic and anionic part
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 12 (4) There is no zinc left in the solution
64. When one mole of an ideal gas is compressed 70. An excess of AgNO3 is added to 100 ml of a
to half of its initial volume and simultaneously 0.01M solution of chloropentaaquachromium
heated to twice its temperature, the change in (III) chloride. The number of moles of AgCl
entropy of system is precipitated would be
(1) Cv ln2 (2) CPln2 (1) 0.001 (2) 0.002
(3) Rln2 (4) (CV - R)ln2 (3) 0.003 (4) 0.01
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71. HgCl2 and SnCl2 cannot coexist in a solution 77. The freezing point depression of 0.001 molal
due to Kx[Fe(CN)6 ] is 7.44 × 10 -3 . Determine the
(1) Common ion effect value of x ? Given Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1
(2) Redox change (1) 2 (2) 3
(3) Solubility product (3) 4 (4) 1
(4) All of these 78. For a first order reaction
72. A magnetic moment of 1.73 B.M. will be
shown by one among the following 1
N2 O5(g) N2O4(g)+ O the increase in
compounds 2 2(g)
(1) [Cu(NH3) 4] 2+ (2) [Ni(CN)4]2- total pressure from 50 mm of Hg to 60 mm of
(3) TiCl4 (4) [CoCl6]4- Hg is noticed in 2.3 minutes, find the value of
73. A mixture of NaCl, NaBr and K 2 Cr 2 O 7 on K(rate constant) in minute-1 ?
heating with conc. H 2 SO 4 produces reddish (Given log3 = 0.48 and log5 = 0.70)
brown vapours consisting of (1) 0.22 (2) 0.11
(1) Br2 and Cl2O (2) CrO2Cl2 & CrO2Br2 (3) 0.42 (4) 0.32
(3) CrO2Cl2 & Br2 (4) CrO3 & CrO2Br2 79. Which has the highest heat of vaporisation?
74. When PbO2 reacts with conc. HNO3 , the gas (1) HF (2) HCl
evolved is
(3) HBr (4) HI
(1) NO2 (2) O2
80. Which is correct statement:
(3) N2 (4) N2 O
(1) XeO3 is a colourless explosive solid and
75. Extraction of Aluminium from aluminium oxide
has a pyramidal molecular structure.
is best done by
(2) XeF2 is not a better oxidizing agent
(1) electrolytic reduction of Al2O3
(2) reduction of Al2 O3 by carbon (3) Xe, Kr and Ne all form clatherate
(3) reduction of Al2O3 by sodium compounds.
(4) reduction of Al2O3 by CO (4) Fluorine in dilute solution of sodium
76. What will be the final temp. (in Kelvin) in hydroxide disproportionates in fluoride and
adiabatic compression of 2 mole of an ideal hypofluorite.
monoatomic gas against constant external 81. Sulpha drugs are derivatives of
pressure of 2 atm, starting from initial pressure (1) para-aminobenzoic acid
of 1atm and initial temperature of 300 K. (2) para-aminobenzene sulphonic acid
(1) 210 K (2) 300 K (3) para-aminobenzene sulphonamide
(3) 420 K (4) 520 K (4) para-aminobenzene sulphonyl chloride

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82. Which of the following is a linear polymer? (3) On reaction with aldehydes and ketones
(1) polypeptide with NaHSO 3 ,oxygen of SO3 is directly
(2) protein attached with carbon.
(3) Starch (4) Aldehydes and ketones react with HCN to
(4) phenol-formaldehyde resin form Cyanohydrin which hydrolysed to
83. Which one of the following will not give give alpha hydroxy acids.
carbylamine reaction?
(1) CH2=CH–CH2–NH2 (2) C6H5 – NH2 OH
C2H5ONa(excess)
87. + CH3 I the major
(3) C6 H 5 –NH–R (4) NH2 C2H5OH
NO2
Cl
(i) NH3 (1mole) product is:
84. CH3 - CH - COOH X OCH 3
product X will be (1) (2) C2H5OCH3
(1) -amino acid (2) -amino amide
(3) -amino acid (4) -amino amide NO2
85. Which of the following statement is true
OC2H5 I
regarding carbohydrates
(1) Cellulose is a reducing sugar (3) (4)
(2) Sucrose is a monosaccharide
NO2 C2H5
(3) A pair of diastereomeric aldoses which
differ only in configuration at C-2 are CH3CH2CH2CH 2Li Cl-CH2OCH3
88. X+Y
anomers. Step-1 Step-2
(4) Osazone formation destroys the
CH2OCH3
configuration at C-2 of an aldose, but does
not affect the configuration of the rest of 'Y' is an hydrocarbon
the molecules. In the above reaction which of the following
86. Select the incorrect statement statement is correct?
(1) Aldehydes and Ketones have lower boiling (1) Step-1 is an SN2 reaction
points compared to alcohols of similar (2) The hydrocarbon product of step-1 is
molecular mass. propane
(2) Aldehydes without alpha hydrogen gives (3) X is cyclopentadiene
cannizzaro's reaction with conc. NaOH (4) The nucleophile in second reaction is
solution. cyclopentadienyl anion.
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89. PhCOCH3 cannot be prepared by 93. The increasing order of basic strength for
H2O/H (I) aniline (II) p-nitroaniline (III) p-toluidine
(1) Ph - C N + CH3 Mg Br
(1) III < I < II
CH3C OCl/Anhydrous AlCl3
(2) (2) III < II < I
(3) II < I < III
B2 H6 / H2 O2 / OH
(3) Ph - C CH (4) I < III < II
Cu/
(4) Ph - CH - CH3 OH Br2 /CS 2
OH A (major)
94. Br2 /H2O
B (major)
90. CH3 - CHO + CH3 - CH2 CHO OH
mixture
of aldols: then total number of aldols (including A & B are respectively.
stereoisomers) are
(1) 8 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 14 OH OH
Br
(i) LiAlD 4 (1) &
91. CH3 - CH 2 - C - CH 3 product is
(ii) H2 O
Br
O

D H OH OH
(1) CH3 - CH2 - C - CH 3 (2) CH3 - CH2 - C - CH 3 Br
(2) &
OH OD
(Only d-form) (Only l-form) Br

H D
OH OH
(3) CH3 - CH2 - C - CH 3 (4) CH3 - CH2 - C - CH 3 Br Br Br
OD OH (3) &
( d & l-form both) (d & l-form both)
Br
92. Identify 'Z' in the following reaction sequence:
Mg ( i) CO 2 Cl 2
CH3I Ether
X (ii) H 3 O Y Re d P
'Z' OH OH
Br Br
(1) CH3 COOH (4) &
(2) CH3COCl
(3) CH4 Br Br
(4) ClCH2COOH
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95. Which of the following compounds will 99. Consider the following isolation or purification
undergo SN2 reaction faster processes.
(1) CH3 - CH2 - CH2 - Cl (I) Heating impure metal with I2 at 150-200 0C
(2) CH3 - CH - CH3 and passing the resulting volatile iodide on
hot tungsten filament at 1400 0C to get the
Cl
pure metal.
(3) CH3 - CH2 - CH2 - I
(II) Heating the sulphide ore in air until a part
(4) CH3 - CH - CH3 is converted to oxide and then further
I heating in the absence of air to let the oxide
96. Most simple mononuclear metal carbonyl react with unchanged metal sulphide to get
complexes obey the 18-electron rule. Which the metal.
of the following complexes is therefore likely (III) Electrolysis of the molten electrolyte
to be INCORRECTLY formulated ? containing metal oxide and cryolite or
(1) [Mn(CO)5]- fluorspar to obtain the metal.
(2) [Ni(CO)4 ] The processes used for obtaining Al, Ti and
(3) [Cr(CO)5 ] Pb are respectively.
(4) [Fe(CO)4]-2 (1) (I), (II) & (III)
97. Given the half-cell reactions (2) (II), (III) & (I)
(3) (II), (I) & (III)
Cu+ (aq) + e Cu(s), E0 = +0.52 V
(4) (III), (I) & (II)
Cu2+(aq) + e Cu+(aq), E0 = +0.16 V O HI(Excess)
the equilibrium constant for the dispropor- 100. O
tionation reaction
OH
2Cu+(aq) Cu(s) + Cu2+(aq) at 298 K is (1) + CH2I2
OH
(1) 6 × 104
(2) 6 × 106 I
(3) 1.2 × 106 (2) + HCHO
CH2I
(3) 1.2 × 10-6
98. A compound of molecular weight 180 g is OH
(3) + ICH2OH
acetylated to give a compound of molecular CH2I
390 g. The number of amino groups in the
compound are _____. I
(4) + ICH2OH
OH
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6
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101. The following statements with respect to Pea 106. In the experiment of Avery, Macleod and
plant, describes the features of pea flower. Mc. Carty, DNA was mixed with an enzyme
Identify the correct statement/s. by which the transformation process got
a. Papillionaceous-Butterfly like corolla stopped.
b. Their is always cross pollination in pea plant. What is the name of the enzyme?
c. There are 10 stamens, of which 9 filaments (1) Helicase (2) RNase
are fused together and one is free. (3) Topoisomerase (4) Deoxyribonuclease
d. Stamens and carpels are appressed to form 107. Complete the following sentence.
Carina. Each Okazaki fragment requires _____ RNA
(1) a & c (2) b only primer and later the primer is removed by the
enzyme _____.
(3) a, c & d (4) c & d
(1) One DNA Polymerase-I
102. The technique to avoid self-pollination used
(2) One RNase
by Mendel was done
(3) Two DNA Polymerase-III
(1) after anthesis
(4) Two RNase
(2) in bud state
108. When a DNA molecule is wrapped around the
(3) during anthesis
histone octomer, how many base pairs does it
(4) after the growth of adult flower
consist of ?
103. What is the genotype of mulatto offspring?
(1) 144 bp (2) 145 bp
(1) aabbcc (3) 146 bp (4) 147 bp
(2) AABBCC 109. Identify the type of RNA which shows 73-93
(3) AaBbCc nucleotides only with molecular weight
(4) AABBcc ranging between 23,000-30,000.
104. In Drosophila, which factor leads to the arising (1) t-RNA (2) m-RNA
of 'vestigial wing' condition? (3) r-RNA (4) Genetic RNA
(1) Vg+ genotype in homozygous condition 110. Which genes are responsible for the formation
(2) Vg+ genotype in heterozygous condition of repressors?
(3) vg genotype in heterozygous condition (1) Z gene (2) Y gene
(4) vg genotype in homozygous condition (3) a gene (4) Regulatory (i)
105. Which of the following trait is regulated by 111. Identify the ODD one with respect to histone
genes Aa,Bb,Cc? proteins.
(1) Phenylketonuria (1) Basic amino acids
(2) Human skin colour (2) Lysines
(3) Sickle-cell anaemia (3) Arginines
(4) Blood group in humans (4) Negatively charge amino acids
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112. What is 'Alu' sequence? (1) Genomic library
(1) A type of bacterial protein (2) Gene amplification
(2) Sequence of interspersed repititive DNA (3) cDNA library
present in Human genome (4) Electrophoresis
(3) Sequence of interspersed repititive DNA 116. Match the following -
present in Drosophila Column - I Column - II
(4) A type of plasmid a. Genomic library p. Collection of all
113. Read the following paragraph - clones of DNA
DNA of this particle is 48.5 kb in length having fragments that
cos sites of 12 bp at the end. The cohesive represent complete
cos ends allows the DNA to be circularized in genome
the host cells. b. Primers q. To join DNA
Identify the particle. fragments together.
(1) Cosmid (2) M13 phage c. DNA ligase r. Complementary
DNA, produced
(3) phage (4) Virion
from mRNA with
114. Below mentioned are the stages involved in
the help of the
the replication of bacteriophage. Identify the
enzyme reverse
INCORRECT stage/s.
transcriptase.
a. Bacteriophages attach to specific receptors
d. cDNA s. Synthetic Oligo-
on the bacterial surface.
nucleotides of
b. Tail contracts and genetic material (DNA)
17-30 nucleotides.
is injected.
(1) a - s b - p c - q d - r
c. Host starts forming viral DNA and proteins. (2) a - p b - s c - q d - r
d. The process virion assembly occurs which (3) a - p b - s c - r d-q
takes about 20 minutes to complete. (4) a - s b - q c - p d - r
e. Phages are released with the help of an 117. Identify the CORRECT statement -
enzyme named as exolysin. (1) Restriction endonuclease cleaves DNA by
(1) only a (2) b & c (3) b & e (4) d & e hydrolyzing the hydrogen bonds.
115. Identify the process from the following features (2) In PCR for polymerisation, the temperature
a. This is used in DNA based phylogeny is raised to 70 0C.
b. This process involves an enzyme which (3) Sticky ends can form phosphodiester
bonded base pair with complementary
adds dNTPs behind the primer on ssDNA.
sticky ends.
c. It involves the pairing of primers at a
(4) Restriction endonuclease requires Mg ++
temperature of 55 0 c.
ions for DNA cleavage.
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118. Among these, a variety of chilli is 124. Match the following -
(1) Pusa Sawni Column - I Column - II
(2) Pusa Sadabahar a. Phosphoglycero p. 3PGA 2 PGA
kinase
(3) Pusa Shubra
b. Phosphoglycero q. 2 CH3CHO +
(4) Pusa Gaurav
mutase 2NADH 2C2H5OH
119. Among these, which crop is enriched with + 2NAD
vitamin C? c. Dehydrogenase r. Isocitrate + NAD
(1) Bathua (2) Spinach Oxalo-succinate
(3) Garden peas (4) Pumpkin + NADH2
120. Fusogenic agent used for somatic d. Isocitrate s. 1, 3-di PGA + ADP
hybridization is ________. dehydrogenase 3PGA + ATP
(1) PEG (2) Auxin (1) a - s, b - q, c - p, d - r
(3) Cytokinin (4) Agar (2) a - s, b - p, c - q, d - r
121. Select the INCORRECT combination. (3) a - p, b - s, c - q, d - r
Plant Product (4) a - q, b - r, c - p, d - s
125. Which of the following is not a TRUE
(1) Daucus carota Anthocyanin
statement?
(2) Datura stramoneum Tropane
(1) Hot ethanol was used to kill algal cells &
(3) Catharanthus roseus Menthol
are studied for Calvin cycle.
(4) Nicotiana tobacum Nicotine (2) PEP carboxylase can function even if
122. Which group of microbials are weedicides? the concentration of CO2 is low as 10 ppm
(1) Fusarium, Pseudomonas, Nosema locustae, (3) During second CO2 fixation, pyruvic acid
Alternaria crassa produced due to decarboxylation of malic
(2) Phytophthora palmivora, NPV, Beauveria acid and is transported to mesophyll cells.
bassiana (4) Gums and resins are the products of
(3) Bacillus thuringiensis, NPV, Nosema photosynthesis.
locustae, Beauveria bassiana 126. Which of the following is a CORRECT match?
(4) Agrobacterium, Xanthomonas, Fusarium, (1) Glycine (2C) Glycerate + CO2
Alternaria crassa (Peroxisome) (Mitochondria)
123. Identify the INCORRECT combination. (2) PGA (3C) + Phosphoglycolate (2C)
A B (Chloroplast) Glycolate + H2O2
(1) NPV Grasshopper (Mitochondria)
(2) Erythromycin Streptomyces erythrus
(3) Serine Glycine
(3) Neurospora gossypii Vitamin B2
(Mitochondria) (Peroxisome)
(4) Paddy straw Volvariella volvacea
mushroom (4) Glyoxylate (2C) + H2O2 Glycine
(Peroxisome) (Peroxisome)
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127. Fill in the blanks - 132. OAA + NADPH 2 + A B Aspartic acid +
In an experiment, isolated chloroplast from ___
NADP + H2O
leaves was suspended in water which was
without CO2 . Then ___ salts were added as What is 'A' & 'B'?
hydrogen acceptor and the suspension was (1) CO2 , Malate dehydrogenase
exposed to sunlight. (2) NH3 , Malate dehydrogenase
(1) Spinach, Ferrous (2) Spinach, Ferric (3) CO2, Transaminase
(3) Lettuce, Cupric (4) Lettuce, Cuprous (4) NH3, Transaminase
128. Identify the chlorophyll molecule which is 133. Connecting link between glycolysis and Kreb's
predominant and found in green algae as well cycle is ______.
as bryophytes. (1) pyruvate
(1) C55 H72 O5 N4Mg (2) C55 H70 O6 N5Mg (2) acetyl Co-A
(3) C55 H70 O6 N4Mg (4) C55 H72 O6 N4Mg (3) citrate
129. Complete the following reaction - (4) oxaloacetate
A + NAD + B C Succinyl CoA + NADH2 + CO2 134. Identify the plant, which shows the following
(1) Isocitrate, H2 O, Isocitrate dehydrogenase characteristics -
(2) Oxalosuccinate, Co-A, Oxalosuccinate Needle like pollen grains lacking exine, bearing
decarboxylase same specific gravity as that of water, pollen
(3) -ketoglutarate, Co-A, -ketoglutarate grains when come in contact with stigma, they
dehydrogenase coil around it and germinate.
(4) Oxaloacetate, Acetyl Co-A, Oxalosynthetase (1) Vallisneria
130. Which one is the correct sequence in glycolysis? (2) Salvia
(1) G6-P PEP 3-PGAL 3-PGA (3) Zostera
(2) G6-P 3-PGAL 3-PGA PEP
(4) Cestrum
(3) G6-P PEP 3-PGA 3-PGAL
135. Aggregate fruit develops from _____
(4) G6 3-PGA 3-PGAL PEP
(1) polycarpellary, apocarpous ovary
131. Identify the CORRECT combination -
(2) polycarpellary ovary
(1) Decarboxylation - 2CH3 COCOOH
Pyruvate decarboxylase
(3) polycarpellary, syncarpous ovary
TPP + Mg++ 2CH3CHO + 2CO2 (4) monocarpellary ovary
(2) Reduction - 2CH3COCOOH + 2NADH2 136. A type of endosperm, shows the wall formation
Dehydrogenase
2 CH3CHOHCOOH+2NAD after the first division of primary endosperm
nucleus resulting in two cells of unequal size.
(3) Glycolysis - C6H12O6 + 2NAD + 2ADP +
This is occuring in :-
2iP 2(CH3)2 COCOOH +
(1) Helobiae series of monocots
2NADH2 + 2ATP (2) Endosperm in dicots
(4) ATP generation II - PEPA + ADP + CO2
(3) Cycas
Pyruvate glycerokinase Pyruvate + ATP (4) Pinus
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137. Identify the plant from the following flower 142. Production of Cg/m 2/day expresses.
characters. (1) Secondary productivity
a. Fermenting fruity odour from flowers (2) Net productivity/net community production
(3) Net primary productivity
b. Large number of stamens with large pollen
(4) Net secondary productivity
grains. 143. Identify the substance which is lipophillic and
(1) Butea (2) Bombax can get deposited in fatty tissues of organisms.
(3) Salvia (4) Kigelia pinata (1) Plastic waste
138. Michelia avoids self pollination by - (2) Organic fertilizers
(1) Protandry (3) DDT
(2) Protogyny (3) Fertilizers
(3) Dichogamy 144. Identify the CORRECT sequence in the
process of decomposition.
(4) Self incompatibility
(1) Detrivores Salt precipitation Partially
139. In which type of pollination, pollen grain is
decomposed organic matter Fungal
transferred through insects ? degradation of detritus
(1) Entomophily (2) Ornithophily (2) Detrivores Salt precipitation Fungal
(3) Chiropterophily (4) Hydrophily degradation Partially decomposed
140. How many of the given statement/s is/are organic matter
CORRECT? (3) Detrivores Salt precipitation Releasing
a. Fragmentation, leaching and catabolism of inorganic nutrients Fungal degradation
operates simultaneously on detritus. (4) Salt precipitation Detrivores Releasing
b. Decomposition is reduced with higher O2 of inorganic nutrients Fungal degradation
concentration. 145. Government of India has introduced a concept
c. Humus decomposition is sensitive to to work closely and effectively with local
microbial actions. communities for protecting forests.
d. Moist environment increases rate of What is the concept known as?
decomposition. (1) Amrita Devi Bishnoi Wildlife Protection Award
(1) both a & d (2) both b & c (2) Chipko movement
(3) only d (4) only a (3) Montreal Protocol
141. Which of the following statement is TRUE? (4) Joint Forest Management
(1) Reaction of UV rays on CFC generates ozone. 146. Succession starts in an area, where due to
(2) CFC's get discharged and reach to the certain natural calamity, all organisms which
trophosphere were once existing, got lost. This is a faster
(3) In global warming, methane contributes process which had occured and is known as
15% of increase in temperature. (1) secondary succession
(4) In year 2000, average temperature of earth (2) primary succession
was 10.6 ºC and CO2 concentration was (3) xerarch succession
316.8 ppm. (4) hydrach succession
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147. Study the food chain for sea condition as given 151. Match the following :
below - Column - I Column - II
Phytoplankton Zooplankton Small fish a. Agaricus bisporus I. Pseudomonas
Large fish denitrificans
Which is the CORRECT feature for the biomass b. SCP obtained by II. Saccharomyces-
pyramid in this food chain? cerevisiae var.
(1) Upright, as top level consumers is least. ellipsoideus
(2) Upright and can never be inverted c. Vitamin B12 III. White button
(3) Inverted, as biomass of fishes is more than mushroom
that of phytoplankton. d. Used in industrial IV. Candida and
(4) Inverted, as top level consumers is least. production of wines Chlorella
148. Find the odd one out - beer
(1) Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) (1) a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II (2) a-IV, b-II, c-I, d-III
(2) Red green colour blindness (3) a-III, b-I, c-II, d-IV (4) a-I, b-IV, c-II, d-III
(3) Hypertrichosis 152. Which one is an INCORRECT feature for
(4) Haemophilia sewage treatment?
149. Which of the following is not associated with (1) Filtration and sedimentation is a physical
Down's syndrome. process for the removal of large pieces of
(1) non-disjunction during meiosis in female. floating debris, oily substances etc.
(2) an extra X-chromosome. (2) Secondary treatment is also known as
(3) a disease which is represented by (2n+1) biological treatment.
chromosome (3) Trickling filter method and activated
(4) an extra chromosome number from sludge methods are tertiary treatment.
group-G. (4) Tertiary treatment are also called chemical
150. Which of the following is a TRUE statement? treatment.
(1) The part of chromosome beyond nucleolar 153. Which one is an INCORRECT option?
organizer is short, spherical and is called (1) Biogas mainly contains methane.
telomere. (2) The biogas contain about 50-80% methane,
(2) Surface of chromosome bears number of 15-45% CO2 .
small swellings called chromomeres, helps (3) B i o g a s p r o d u c t i o n i s d o n e b y t h e
in attachment to nucleolus. methanogenesis and aerobic microbes.
(3) Metaphase chromosome has 0.1 to 0.33 µm (4) Acetic acid is transformed to biogas in the
length. p r e s e n c e o f Methanococcus and
(4) In Metacentric chromosome, it shows only Methanobacillus.
one arm and appears rod shaped.
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154. Read the following statement and choose the (3) Wings of birds are the modification of
CORRECT option/s. forelimb while wings of Periplanata are
(a) Increase in melanized moths after industria modification of skin.
lization was proof for natural selection. (4) In Periplanata, inhalation is a passive
(b) According to 'self assembly theory of origin phenomenon while exhalation is an active
of life' the first life came into the existence phenomenon.
by constant physiochemical reactions over 157. Choose the INCORRECT match linking human
the long period of time. evolution to brain size and dietary preference.
(c) Genetic drift may lead to disturbance in Hominid Brain Dietary
Hardy Weinberg's equilibrium species volume preference
(d) In Urey and Miller's spark chamber (1) Australopithecus 450 c.c. Nuts, fruits
experiment, the CH4, NH3, H ratio is 1:2:1. (2) Homo habilis 700 c.c Fruits, roots
(1) only (a) (3) Homo erectus 900 c.c Meat
(2) only (c) (4) Neanderthal man 850 c.c Meat
(3) (a) and (c) 158. Darwin's theory of natural selection to explain
(4) (b) and (d) both organic evolution was based on
155. Given below image indicates - (1) modifications of organs through use and
disuse.
(2) prodigality of reproduction, struggle for
existence and survival of the fittest or
natural selection.
(3) inheritance of acquired characters and
vestigeal organs.
(4) appearance of sudden large variations, then
inheritance and survival of those having
these variation.
159. Rheumatoid arthritis is characterised by
(1) convergent and divergent evolution
(1) deposition of Sodium Urate crystals in soft
(2) divergent evolution
tissues such as kidneys and in the cartilage
(3) vestigeal organ of joints.
(4) convergent evolution (2) due to the hyperactivation of IgA antibody
156. Which one is an INCORRECT statement? (3) an age-related disorder in which bone mass
(1) Connecting link between birds and reptiles is decreased and there are increased chances
is Archaeopteryx. of fractures.
(2) In Archaeopteryx, scales were present on (4) an autoimmune attack in which erosion
the body but bones were pneumatic. of cartilage and joint as well as formation
of abnormal granules.
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160. Match the following - c. sporozoites infect RBC
Column-I Column-II d. Plasmodium falcifarum, infects only mature
(1) Microgial cell a. Lungs RBC.
(2) Kupffer's cell b. Lymph node (1) a, b & d (2) b only
(3) Dust cell c. Skin (3) a, c & d (4) a, b, c & d
(4) Osteoclast d. Liver 163. Match the following -
(5) Langerhan's e. Brain Column - I Column-II
dendritic cell A. Atropa belladona p. Hashish
(6) Follicular f. Bone B. Claviceps purpurea q. LSD
dendritic cell g. Spleen C. Cannabis sativus r. Heroine
(1) 1-e 2-d 3-a 4-f 5-g 6-c D. Papaver s. Atropine
(2) 1-e 2-a 3-d 4-g 5-b 6-c (1) A-s B-p C-q D-r
(3) 1-e 2-d 3-a 4-f 5-c 6-b (2) A-r B-s C-q D-p
(4) 1-f 2-d 3-b 4-e 5-c 6-b (3) A-q B-s C-r D-p
161. Origin, maturation and differentiation site for (4) A-s B-q C-p D-r
T-lymphocyte and B-lymphocyte are respectively 164. The following table shows certain diseases, their
(1) in bone marrow only. causative organisms and symptoms. Choose
(2) T and B-lymphocyte originates in bone the option which correctly fills the gaps in the
marrow while matures and differentiates in table.
thymus gland. Name of Causative Symptoms
(3) T and B-lymphocyte originates in bone disease organisms
marrow, T-lymphocyte differentiate in (i) Ascariasis Ascaris, _______(A)
thymus gland while B-lymphocyte mature (ii) ________(B) Trichophyton Appearance
and differentiate in bone marrow. of dry, scaly
(4) T and B-lymphocyte originate in bone lesions on
marrow. But T-lymphocyte mature and various parts
differentiate in bone marrow while of body
B-lymphocyte mature and differentiate in (iii) _______(C) Rhino virus Nasal
thymus gland and lymph node. congestion &
162. INCORRECT set for the life cycle of malarial discharge,
parasite is - sore throat,
a. sexual life cycle occurs inside the hepatic cough,
cell while asexual in the gastric mucosa of headache
mosquito. (iv)Filariasis ______(D) Inflammation
b. sexual life cycle occur in gastric / intestinal of lymphatics
mucosa of mosquito while asexual in of lower limbs
hepatocytes and erythrocytes.
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(1) A - Internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, 167. Adolescence abuse is well defined as
anaemia and blockage of intestinal passage. (1) period of psychological, social and physical
C - Pneumonia transitional stage between childhood and
(2) B - Ringworm adulthood.
D - Wuchereria (2) adolescence is a transitional stage of human
(3) A - High fever, stomach pain, constipation, in which juvenile mature into an adult.
headache and loss of appetite. (3) adolescence is a period of life between 12
C - Common cold to 18 years of age.
(4) B - Athlete's foot (4) the habits such as smoking, taking drug or
D - Dracunculus medinensis. alcohol are more likely to be taken up at a
165. Which one of the following diseases is caused teen age and more during adolescence.
by virus?
168. The pulmonary trunk is connected to the aorta
(1) Pneumonia
by the during embryonic stage by the B that
(2) Syphilis
is represented by A after birth.
(3) Genital warts
A B
(4) Gonorrhoea
166. Match the following - (1) Foramen ovale Ductus arteriosus
Column - I Column - II (2) Foramen ovale Fossa ovalis
a. Inbreeding p. Mating of male and (3) Ligamentum Ductus arteriosum
female of two arteriosum
different breeds of (4) Ductus arteriosum Ligamentum
different species. arteriosum
b. Outbreeding q. Breeding between
169. Which of the following is INCORRECT with
animals of the same
respect to Angina pectoris?
breed.
(1) Acute chest pain appears when not enough
c. Outcrossing r. Cross between
oxygen is reaching heart muscle.
different breeds.
d. Cross breeding s. Helps to overcome (2) Angina can occur in men of any age but
inbreeding not in women.
depression. (3) It occurs due to conditions that affect the
(1) a - q, b - p, c - s, d - r blood flow to heart muscles.
(2) a - r, b - q, c - s, d - p (4) Nitroglyceride tablets which release nitric
(3) a - q, b - s, c - r, d - p oxide are given in the treatment of angina
(4) a - p, b - q, c - r, d - s pectoris.

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170. Lubb-Dubb sounds during heart beat are due to
(1) closing of AV valve and opening of
semilunar valve respectively.
(2) closing of AV valve and closing of
semilunar valve respectively.
(3) closing of tricuspid valve and closing of
bicuspid valve respectively.
(4) opening of AV valve and closing of
semilunar valve respectively.
171. T-wave in ECG, represents
(1) repolarization of atria
(2) return of atria from excited to normal state
(3) repolarisation of ventricles
(4) ventricular depolarization
172. Which of the following is a powerful
vasoconstrictor and increases the glomerular
blood pressure and GFR?
(1) Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF)
(2) Angiotension-II
(3) Renin
(4) Erythropoietin
173. Glomerular filtration rate decreases when there is
(1) increase in renal blood flow
(2) elevated blood pressure
(3) dilation of afferent arteriole
(4) contraction of smooth muscle in the walls
of afferent arteriole.
174. Podocytes are
(1) modified simple cuboidal epithelial cells
in the visceral layer of Bowman's capsule.
(2) modified simple squamous epithelial cells
in the parietal layer of Bowman's capsule
(3) modified simple squamous epithelial cells
in the visceral layer of Bowman's capsule
(4) modified simple cuboidal epithelial cells
in the parietal layer of Bowman's capsule.
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175. All of the following are the functions of human
kidney, except
(1) regulation of water and inorganic ion
balance, removal of metabolic waste from
the blood and their excretion in the urine.
(2) removal of foreign chemical from the
blood and their excretion in the urine.
(3) kidneys help in excretion and osmoregulation.
(4) PCT, DCT and collecting duct help to
maintain the pH and ionic balance of the
body fluids by tubular secretion which
always occurs passively.
176. Read the following statements.
A. Scapula is a large triangular bone situated
in the ventral part of the thorax between
the second and the seventh ribs.
B. Each limb is made of 60 bones
C. Skin, lungs and liver assist in excretion.
D. Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney
occurs in Bright's disease.
(1) A and B statement are correct.
(2) C & D statements are correct.
(3) C & D statements are incorrect
(4) A & C statement are incorrect
177. Read the following functions carefully.
a. Stimulate bladder contraction for voiding
urine.
b. Heart beat increases.
c. Secretion of salivary gland decreases.
d. Action of gastric muscle increases.
How many of the following is/are not a function
of parasympathetic nervous system?
(1) only a & d (2) only b
(3) only b & c (4) a, c & d
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178. Read the following statements with respect to A
nerve impulse transmission. Stim u lu s

a. During resting state, axonal membrane is

comparatively more permeable for K+ ions
R e sp on se B
and nearly impermeable to Na+ ions. C

b. During active state, ionic gradient across

the membrane is maintained by the Na+-K+
pump in which influx of 3Na+ into the Identify the structures labelled as A, B, C & D
axoplasm and 2K+ eflux into the ECF. and choose the INCORRECT option w.r.t. their
function.
c. During resting state, axoplasm inside the
(1) A : Muscle spindles - Receptors
axon contains high concentration of K+ and
(2) B : Motor end plate - Effector
negatively charged protein and low (3) C : Efferent pathway - It carry the impulse
concentration of Na+. towards nervous system.
d. During active state, axolemma is (4) D : Dorsal root ganglion - Pseudounipolar
impermeable for negatively charged protein 181. Mark the INCORRECT combination.
and Na+. Nerve Distribution Function
Find out the incorrect statements ? (1) Facial Posterior part of Taste, swallo-
(1) a and c (2) b and d tongue wing
(2) Hypog- Muscles of Movement of
(3) b and c (4) c and d
lossal tongue tongue
179. Given below is a diagrammatic representation
(3) Pathetic Two muscles Rotation of
of the knee jerk. of eye ball eyeball
(4) Auditory Cristae and Equilibrium
maculae
182. Which of the labelled structure is a unique
characterstics of mammalian brain?
B

Which of the following labelled structure is

not always involved in a reflex arc?
D
(1) A (2) B C
(3) C (4) D E
180. Given below is a diagrammatic representation
of reflex action showing knee jerk (1) D (2) E (3) C and A (4) B
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183. All of the following hormones are secreted by 185. Given below is the diagrammatic representation
the structure D, except of human eye showing various parts as labelled
D structures, A to E.
E

C
A q u e ou s
L en s V itr e o u s
ch a m b e r c h a m b er
D

B B A
C
Which option includes set of two parts with
CORRECT identification along with their
A
(1) ADH (2) GnRH description?
(3) Coherin (4) Prolactin (1) A : Cornea - Composed of dense connective
184. Select the option which correctly matches the tissue.
endocrine gland with its hormone and its B : Choroid - Contains many blood vessels
function. and looks bluish in colour.
Endocrine Hormone Function (2) C : Sclera - External white layer of eye.
gland D : Blind spot - Photoreceptors are absent
(1) Sertoli cells Inhibin Concentrates in this region.
androgen in (3) A : Retina - Contains three layers from
seminiferous outside to inside - ganglionic cells,
tubules. bipolar cells and photoreceptors.
(2) Leydig cells ICSH Conversion of B : Ciliary body - Involved in accomo-
granulosa cells dation.
to progesterone (4) D : Yellow spot - Thinned out portion of
producing cells retina where rodes and cones are
(3) Anterior lobe LH In males, LH densely packed.
of pituitary stimulates the C : Choroid - Contains many blood vessels
synthesis and and looks bluish in colour.
secretion of 186. Given below is a diagrammatic representation
hormones of the sectional view of cochlea.
called
androgens
from testis. C
D
(4) Pituitary gland GnRH Promotes B
negative
A
feedback
of FSH
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Read the following paragraph carefully.
The vibrations are transmitted to oval window
which are transferred to the fluid of cochlea,
where they generate waves in lymphs.
The waves in the lymph induce a ripple in the
__(i)___. The movement of the
____(ii)____bends the hair cells, pressing them
against the _____(iii)__.
Choose the option which correctly fills the
graph with respect to labelled structure in
diagram.
(1) (i) D, (ii) B, (iii) A
(2) (i) A, (ii) A, (iii) B
(3) (i) A, (ii) B, (iii) D
(4) (i) C, (ii) B, (iii) A
187. Given below is a diagrammatic representation
of the mechanism of hormone action.
189. Which one is the CORRECT group?
Which of the following hormone acts by the
given mechanism?
(1) Follicle stimulating hormone
(2) Estrogen
(3) Testosterone
(4) Thyroxine
188. Fill in the blanks.
(I) The wall of scrotum consist smooth
muscles _____.
(II) The testis is connected to the wall of scrotum
by the fibromuscular band called _____.
(III) During 7th month of development ____.
(IV)Testis descends down in scrotal sac
through the _____.
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(1) (i) cremestor muscles
(ii) mesorchium ligament
(iii) descend permanently into the scrotal sac
(iv) spermatic cord
(2) (i) detrusor muscle
(ii) spermatic cord
(iii) the lumber region just below the kidney
(iv) inguinal canal
(3) (i) dartos tunic muscle
(ii) gubernaculum
(iii) descend permanently into the scrotal sac.
(iv) inguinal canal
(4) (i) dartos tunic muscle
(ii) mesorchium ligament
(iii) the lumbur region just below the kidney
(iv) inguinal canal
(1) (a) Testis is of mesodermal origin
(b) 4.5 cm long, 3 cm wide, 2.5 cm thick
(c) During foetal life, testis develop in just
below the kidney.
(2) (a) Outer layer is Tunica Albuginea
(b) Middle is Tunica vaginalis
(c) Inner layer is Tunica vascularis
(3) (a) Tunica vaginalis is incomplete peritoneal
covering of testis.
(b) In each testis, 200 to 800 seminiferous
tubules occur.
(c) Germ cell formed by cuboidal
epithelium while pyramidal cells by the
columnar epithelium.
(4) (a) Sperm bundles get attached to large
pyramidal cells.
(b) The testis is 4.5 cm long, 2.5 cm wide,
3 cm thick.
(c) Tubules converge towards the posterior
surface of testis and form network of
irregular tubules called epididymis.

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190. Following is diagrammatic section view of (1) A - Decidua parietalis derived from
ovary. trophoectoderm and source of hormones.
D (2) B - Plug of mucus in cervix formed under
the influence of progesterone.
(3) C - Yolk sac
C
(4) D - Umbilical cord with its blood vessels
and forms foetal portion of placenta.
192. Read the statements carefully about the events
B
occuring during menstrual cycle
A (a) Menstruation Breakdown of
Select the option which gives the INCORRECT myometrium and
identification of A, B, C and D with function/ ovum not fertilised
characteristics. (b) Ovulation Release of mature
(1) A - Corpus luteum, secretes large amounts ovum from ovary
of progesterone for the maintenance of
(c) Development of In secretory phase
endometrium.
Corpus luteum and increased
(2) B - Ovum, released from the ovary after
secretion of
the completion of II-meiotic division.
progesterone.
(3) C - Graafian follicle, secretes estrogen to
maintain endometrium, in secretory phase (d) Proliferative Rapid regeneration
(4) D - Graafian follicle, containing primary phase of myometrium and
oocyte in meiosis-I maturation of
(1) only - A (2) A, C, D Graafian follicle.
(3) B, C, D (4) only A and D Which one of the following is INCORRECT
191. The figure shows the human foetus within the options?
uterus of mother. Select the option which gives (1) only b & d (2) only d
correct identification of labelled parts A,B, C (3) a, b & d (4) a,b, c & d
& D with function/characteristic. 193. Mark the statement that defines MTP best.
(1) Legalised method to get rid of any
unwanted pregnancies.
(2) Method that reduces total number of individuals
D 1
added to world population by th.
C
5
(3) Intentional or voluntary termination of
A pregnancy before full term
(4) A method of illegal female foeticide
B
reported high of India.

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194. Zero population growth is maintained at an 199. Read the following four statements A, B, C
existing level if the sum total of A and B is and D, which are the description of events in
higher / lower / equal to C and D . the life cycle of Plasmodium vivax.
A B C D Select the right option/s having both the
(1) Natality, Immigration > Mortality, Emigration CORRECT statements.
(2) Natality, Immigration = Mortality, Emigration
(a) Parasites reproduce asexually in the red
(3) Mortality, Immigration > Natality, Emigration
(4) Mortality, Emigration > Natality, Immigration blood cells, bursting the red blood cells
195. Find the incorrect with respect to contraceptive and causing cycles of fever and other
method. symptoms.
(1) Condom - Prevent STD (b) Sexual stages of gametocytes develop in
(2) Pills - Short term side effects may include stomach of mosquito.
nausea, weight gain. (c) Fertilisation and development takes place
(3) Surgical method - Reversibility is poor in the stomach/intestine of mosquito.
(4) Rhythm method - Total abstinence for any (d) Female mosquito takes up gametes with
seven days of the menstrual cycle. blood meal.
196. Which one is a correct reaction? (1) (a) and (b)
(1) Polymers Anaerobic bacteria Monomers + Dimers (2) (b) and (c)
(2) Monomers Acidogenic bacteria Organic acid + H2O (3) (a) and (c)
(3) Organic acid Methanogenic bacteria CH4 + CO2 (4) (c) and (d)
+ other gases 200. Mark the statements that are CORRECT about
Acidogenic bacteria
(4) Polymers Organic acid
infertility in males.
+ monomers
a. High scrotal temperature due to working
197. Which one is an INCORRECT statement?
in hot environment results in oligospermia.
(1) ANF is having antagonistic action to Renin
b. Failure of projection of testes into scrotum
angiotensin system
(2) ANF stimulates natriuresis. in 7th month of foetal life leads to infertility.
(3) ANF is steroid hormone. c. Deficiency of vitamin E and low fructose
(4) ANF causes dilation of blood vessels content are the causes of male infertility.
198. Which one is the CORRECT statement? d. Drugs, immunological factor or even
(1) Subdural space is filled with lymph like psychological factor can cause infertility.
watery fluid. (1) a is correct
(2) Subarachnoid space is filled with water like (2) a, b & d are correct
serous fluid. (3) a, b & c are correct
(3) Arachnoid matter is formed by the reticular
(4) a, b, c & d are correct
connective tissue.
(4) Subdural and subarachnoidal spaces are
filled by lymph like fluid.

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