451mock 3 Ques.

CP/18/C03
MOCK CLAT-3
Section – I: English
Directions for Questions 1 to 5: Arrange the following statements to form a coherent passage:
1. i. from the Democratic party during the presidential campaign.

ii. Imagine also that the TV station was a byword for bias and slanted coverage
iii. by claiming he, not the Russian government, had leaked thousands of emails
iv. and that as recently as May this year it falsely besmirched the name of a murdered
Democratic staff member
A. iii–iv–ii–i B. iv–i–ii–iii C. iv–iii–ii–i D. ii–iv–iii–I
2. i. has been running their work through the Luftdaten website,

ii. lets people upload their findings online.
iii. an open data project that gives advice on how to get monitoring kits and
iv. Apparent UK, a project in Bristol monitoring local area quality,
A. iv–i–iii–ii B. i–ii–iii–iv C. iii–i–iv–ii D. ii–iv–iii–i
3. i. wooded hills give way to a coastline of coves, dunes and secret beaches,
ii. an hour north of Porto,
iii. of which Praia Forte do Paço is the best.
iv. In Portugal’s north–western district of Viana do Castelo,
A. i–ii–iii–iv B. iv–ii–i–iii C. ii–iv–i–iii D. iii–i–ii–iv
4. i. But Brand is different.

ii. And he’s still funny.
iii. His mind still fires faster than a machine gun, and his speech is just as packed with flowery
words and detailed explanations, peppered with references to what he’s read (Jung, Harari,
life coach Tony Robbins).
iv. He still looks amazing: tall, long–haired, Gypsy–George–Best handsome; a dandy
highwayman in black leather trousers and goth jewellery.
A. iii–iv–i–ii B. i–ii–iii–iv C. iv–iii–ii–i D. ii–iv–iii–i
5. i. While the details on the naming of the device codenamed “D22” are sketchy
ii. it could be called the iPhone 8, iPhone Pro, or perhaps the iPhone X
iii. a leak from Apple of the HomePod software revealed much about its design and features.
iv. if it is named after the Apple smartphone’s 10th anniversary –
A. ii–iv–iii–i B. iv–ii–i–iii C. iii–ii–iv–i D. i–ii–iv–iii
Clat Possible .All rights reserved. Unauthorized copying, sale, distribution or circulation of any of the
contents of this work is a punishable offence under laws of India
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Directions for Questions 6 to 10: Identify the meaning of the given words:
6. Insinuation
A. poison B. implication C. action D. reaction
7. Vicarious
A. legal B. poisoned C. second hand D. virtual
8. enthralled
A. poverty B. awed C. usury D. evil
9. forlorn
A. excited B. angry C. irritated D. despondent
10. flabbergasted
A. reality B. laughing C. shocked D. pleased
Directions for Questions 11 to 15: Identify the meaning of the given foreign words:
11. SCHADENFREUDE
A. philosophy B. pain
C. anger D. pleasure at someone’s misfortune
12. CAVEAT VIATOR
A. traveller beware B. reader beware C. listener beware D. jeweler beware
13. HAUTE COUTURE
A. high fashion B. stylish C. old fashioned D. tawdry
14. KOSHER
A. misfit B. right fit C. religious D. inappropriate
15. MUTATIS MUTANDIS
A. no changes B. necessary changes C. rigorous D. simple
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Directions for Questions 16 to 20: Identify the incorrect part from the given statement and mark that
as your answer:
16. What is more important is (A) that there is going to be (B) two women in the CCS. (C) / No error
(D).
17. Women of a remote village in Haryana have sent U.S. President Donald Trump (A) 1,001 sacred
threads to mark the festival of Raksha Bandhan (B) which celebrates the brother–sister bond.
(C)/ No error (D).
18. Ever encountered a screaming four–year old looking (A) for his soft toy while on board (B) a
flight to your much–awaited holiday? (C)/ No error (D).
19. Right now, the shoes are available (A) in two silhouettes — a rounded (B) and a pointed–toe
version. (C)/ No error (D).
20. Imagine India preparing to put a man on Mars. He–who–has–your–best–interests–at–heart then

go on national television (A) to announce the three reasons for doing so: to prove that Mars is
inhabited by Indians, to bring back all the gold stashed away there (B) by people not sympathetic
to his philosophy, and finally, to arrest all the fake Martians and throw them into jail on Jupiter.
(C)/ No error (D).
Directions for Questions 21 to 25: Fill in the blanks with the appropriate words:
21. By putting up a united front at the BRICS summit, and proposing a revival of the Panchsheel
principles of peaceful cooperation, Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Chinese President Xi
Jinping have _____________ they are trying to put the bitterness of the past few months
_____________ them.
A. said, before B. recorded, in front of

C. signalled, behind D. asked, over
22. The player auctions often witness franchises _____________ their respective ___________.
A. breaking, banks B. breaking, accounts C. closing, banks D. opening, banks
23. For a change, ________________, and not political ______________, seems to have dictated the
nature and extent of the shuffle in the Council of Ministers.
A. necessity, idiosyncrasy B. affirmation, result

C. performance, expedience, D. negativity, renewal
24. Independence from the ____________ of the Luxembourg court had all along been equated
with the _____________ of national sovereignty by the Leave campaign.
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A. request, removal B. perjury, refulgence

C. law, reversal D. jurisdiction, assertion
25. On Sunday, it tested what it claims was a “hydrogen bomb”, its sixth nuclear weapons test,
___________ at non–proliferation and international test ban laws, as well as at U.S.
A. turning the corkscrews B. crossing the threshold

C. looking askance D. cocking a snook
Directions for Questions 26 to 30: Identify the odd one out and mark that as your answer:
26. A. Puissance B. Pulchritude C. Pedantic D. Pusillanimous
27. A. tantalising B. enticing C. alluring D. repulsive
28. A. corpus juris B. de jure C. jurisprudence D. corpulent
29. A. bedazzled B. flummoxed C. stupify D. stupid
30. A. comely B. gregarious C. pulchritude D. gorgeous
Directions for Questions 31 to 36: Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow:
The continuing failure of the Myanmar government to act decisively and urgently to protect civilians
from the raging crossfire between the security forces and insurgents is shocking. The recent clashes in
the western State of Rakhine have claimed over 70 lives and forced thousands of Rohingya to flee across
the border into Bangladesh, in a rapidly deteriorating humanitarian crisis. Most of the victims are
women and children, according to the UN’s International Organisation for Migration, which has called
for additional aid to cope with Dhaka’s refugee situation. The latest flare–up began last Friday when
militants suspected to be from the Arakan Rohingya Salvation Army attacked military and police
outposts. That should have served as a caution against an excessive counter–insurgency operation, a
real possibility given the history of systematic persecution of the Muslim minorities in Rakhine. The
military crackdown that followed has been widely condemned as disproportionate and the government
accused of being an onlooker. The UN High Commissioner for Human Rights has even rebuked Aung San
Suu Kyi’s office for what he described as irresponsible statements that could disrupt aid and relief
activity. Ms. Suu Kyi is not just the foreign minister; as a Nobel peace prize winner she has also failed to
exert any moral pressure to secure humane treatment and humanitarian assistance for the
systematically persecuted Rohingya. She has rightly come under criticism for her continued silence over
the army brutalities.
In fact, the UN agency’s report in February, based on a study of the military crackdown, had described
the slaughter of thousands and displacement of even larger numbers as crimes against humanity. But
the reactions of the radical Buddhist nationalists, who have traditionally resisted recognition of the
Rohingya as citizens of Myanmar, have been predictable. They have demanded even tougher action
from the government in the wake of the terror unleashed over the past week, and rubbished the
findings of the officially appointed Advisory Commission on Rakhine State, headed by former UN
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Secretary General Kofi Annan. The Myanmar government has an obligation to act on the
recommendations of the Commission, on the guarantee of citizenship rights to the Rohingya, freedom
of movement and enforcement of the rule of law. It is inconceivable that the country’s yearning for
peace and normal life could be fulfilled in the absence of these minimum prerequisites. The ruling
National League for Democracy, which takes legitimate pride in its heroic defiance of the military junta,
has a largely unfinished agenda on democratic transition. Enormous powers are vested in the military.
The further consolidation of the hard–won freedoms from dictatorship will remain an arduous task so
long as a large minority of the population is systematically excluded from the political process.
31. Does the writer agree with Suu Kyi’s action over the Rohingya’s?
A. yes B. no C. he is undecided D. the passage does not say
32. What is the meaning of the word ‘insurgents’?
A. rebellion B. revolutionary C. sedition D. iconoclast
33. Does the Government of Myanmar want to help the Rohingyas?
A. yes, the writer feels so.

B. no, the writer does not believe in helping anyone.
C. no, it appears that the government does not want to help the Rohingyas.
D. the passage does not mention any such thing.
34. Does the Myanmar govt have to help the Rohingyas?
A. No, there is no obligation on their part to help the Rohingyas.

B. Yes, because they are the original inhabitants of Myanmar.
C. Yes, The govt. of Myanmar needs to take care of the Rohingyas.
D. The passage does not mention any such thing.
35. Which of the following are true according to the passage?

i. The writer feels that Myanmar cannot have peace and normal life till such time as they don’t
ensure citizenship to rohingyas, freedom of movement and ensure rule of law.
ii. The writer feels that if the Rohingyas are not brought into the mainstream, it will be difficult
for the govt to consolidate the freedom it has won.
iii. The writer feels that the govt is not doing enough to help the rohingyas.
A. i, ii, iii B. ii and iii C. i and ii D. None of these
36. Who are the Rohingyas?
A. they are rebels B. they are a minority citizen group

C. they are soldiers D. they are members of UN commission
Directions for Questions 37 to 40: Identify meaning of the given idioms:
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37. a straw man
A. important person B. unimportant person

C. useless person D. irritating person
38. a heads up
A. help B. reject C. trouble D. harrass
39. from frying pan into the fire
A. from one difficult situation to other B. to choose the worse of the two
C. to choose the better of the two D. the easiest solution
40. jam on your face
A. insult B. aggravation C. temerity D. praise
Section – II: General Knowledge

41. The United Nations (UN) has launched which global campaign for 2017 World Humanitarian Day
(WHD)?
A. #Share Humanity B. #Not A Target

C. #Help D. #Protect Civilians
42. The God who is the most prominent in 'Rigaveda' is
A. Indra B. Agni C. Pasupati D. Vishnu
43. Who has taken charge as new Executive Director of Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India
(IBBI)?
A. A Unnikrishnan B. Ajay Tyagi C. G. S. Yadav D. Mamta Suri
44. Which early ruler of Magadha murdered his father to ascend the throne and, in turn, was
murdered by his own son?
A. Bimbisara B. Ajatasatru C. Udayan D. Nagadashak
45. Who of the following have been selected for the 2017 Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award?
A. Brij Bhushan Mohanty and Syed Shahid Hakim

B. Varun Singh Bhati and SV Suni
C. Devendra Jhajharia and Sardar Singh
D. Harmanpreet Kaur and P N Prakash
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46. 'Satyartha Prakash' was written by
A. Raja Ram Mohan Roy B. Mahatma Gandhi

C. Swami Vivekananda D. Swami Dyanand Saraswati
47. Who has been appointed as the new Chairman of Railway Board?
A. Ashwani Lohani B. A K Mittal

C. P S Thakur D. Neelmani Reddy
48. Gandhiji took up Dandi March as a Civil Disobedience Movement on
A. 31st December 1929 B. 26th January 1930

C. 12th March, 1930 D. 6th April, 1930
49. The Union government has recently hiked OBC creamy layer ceiling limit to how much for central
government jobs?
A. Rs 6 lakh B. Rs 8 lakh C. Rs 7 lakh D. Rs 11 lakh
50. Match List–I with List–II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List–I (Person) List–II (Associate Party)
A. Sarojini Naidu 1. Muslim League
B. MA Jinnah 2. Indian National Congress
C. Tej Bahadur Sapru 3. Hindu Mahasabha
D. VD Savarkar 4. Liberal Party
Codes:
A B C D
A. 2 1 4 3
B. 2 1 3 4
C. 2 4 1 3
D. 4 1 3 2
51. The constitution bench of Supreme Court has declared right to privacy as Fundamental right
under constitution. The bench was headed by whom?
A. D Y Chandrachud B. A M Sapre C. JS Khehar D. R F Nariman
52. Name of the country which bans transgender recruits from military on 25th Aug 2017.
A. UK B. Cuba C. France D. US
53. Who has won bronze in the 2017 women’s singles World Badminton championships (WBC)?
A. Ashwini Ponnappa B. Jwala Gutta C. P V Sindhu D. Saina Nehwal
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54. Name the village which has emerged as the ‘100% computer literate’ in the entire North East
announced on 24th August 2017?
A. Chandel Khulbul B. Khoijuman Khullen

C. Thamnapokpi D. Nungthaang Tampak
55. Eighth edition of World Para Athletics Championships was held from 14th to 23rd July, 2017 in:
A. Beijing, China B. Moscow, Russia C. London, UK D. Paris, France
56. Who has sworn in as the Deputy Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu on August 21, 2017?
A. TTK Dhinakaran B. M.K.Stalin C. O Panneerselvam D. Nanjil Sampath
57. The world’s first full–scale floating wind farm has started to take shape off coast of:
A. Sydney, Australia B. Cape Town, South Africa

C. Scotland, UK D. Goa, India
58. ……………… flows from India to Bangladesh and is one of the main rivers of Bangladesh.
A. Karuna B. Jamuna C. Ganga D. Kaveri
59. On July 18, 2017, who among the following resigned from the Rajya Sabha for not being allowed
to speak about atrocities against Dalits?
A. Mayawati B. Raj Babbar C. Ramdas Athawale D. Renuka Chowdhury
60. The Aravalli Range run accross which of the following Indian states of ……………………
A. Gujarat, Rajasthan, Punjab and Delhi B. Nepal, Rajasthan, Haryana and Delhi
C. Gujarat, Rajasthan, Haryana and Delhi D. Gujarat, Rajasthan, UP and Delhi
61. Where was the ‘Swasth Bachche, Swasth Bharat’ programme launched by Union Minister for
Human Resource Development Shri. Prakash Javadekar?
A. Kochi B. Hyderabad C. Bangalore D. Mumbai
62. Name of the City in which police inducts 5 Harley Davidson Street 750 bikes in their fleet.
A. Mumbai B. Delhi C. Chennai D. Kolkata
63. Which among the following site in Austria has been put in UNESCO’s list of sites ‘in danger’ due
to a nearby high–rise construction project?
A. Semmering Railway B. Historic Center of Vienna
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C. Wachau Cultural Landscape D. Palace and Gardens of Schönbrunn
64. Who was the chief architect of Green Revolution that significantly improved the agricultural
yield in the country?
A. MS Swaminathan B. VR Krisha Aiyyar

C. V Kurien D. Jawaharlal Nehru
65. Headquarters of Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) is located in:
A. New Delhi B. Mumbai C. Bengaluru D. Chennai
66. Which of the following estimates the National Income in India?
A. Central Statistical Organization B. National Income Committee

C. Planning commission D. Reserve Bank of India
67. Which among the following mission of NASA has completed a close flyby of Jupiter’s Great Red
Spot?
A. Discover B. Endeavour C. Voyager D. Juno
68. India’s first Uranium Mine is located at which among the following places?
A. Jadugauda B. Tummalapalle C. Pichli D. Dalbhum
69. Nirmala Sitharaman, who has become the new Defence Minister of India, is currently a
representative of which state in Rajya Sabha?
A. Karnataka B. Kerala C. Tamil Nadu D. Maharashtra
70. Which city is hosting the 9th edition of BRICS summit–2017?
A. Tianjin B. Xiamen C. Chongqing D. Beijing
71. Which city has been formally accorded the status of India’s first World Heritage City by UNESCO?
A. Udaipur B. Mathura C. Ujjain D. Ahmadabad
72. The model code of conduct for Political parties and candidates to be followed during election is:
A. Laid down in the constitution of India

B. Specified in the representation of the People Act. 1951
C. Enjoined by the Supreme Court
D. A voluntary agreement among recognized political parties.
73. Who has been appointed as the new Chairperson of Central Board of Secondary Education
(CBSE)?
A. Tina Joshi B. Pritam Chaturvedi C. Sohail Mahmood D. Anita Karwal

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74. The Chief Election Commissioner of India holds office for a period of
A. six years
B. for six years or the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier
C. during pleasure of the President
D. for five years or the age of 60 years, whichever is earlier
75. __________ has decided to impose a heavy family tax per dependent per month on expatriates.
The “dependent fee” will be implemented from July 1 and is expected to pose a financial burden
on the over 41 lakh Indian families living in that country.
A. Saudi Arabia B. UAE C. Oman D. Kuwait
76. Who among the following did not serve as the Vice president before becoming president of
India?
A. Dr. S Radhakrishnan B. Dr. Zakir Hussain

C. Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy D. R. Venkataraman
77. Who will be the new Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India?
A. Anita Pattanayak B. Rajiv Mehrishi

C. Shashi Kant Sharma D. Rajiv Gauba
78. Who has been appointed as the new Election Commissioner (EC)?
A. Gautam Jain B. Sunil Arora C. Neelam Joshi D. Satinder Nangia
79. On June 19, 2017, India’s Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM), also referred to as Mangalyaan,
completed ________ Earth days in Martian orbit
A. 500 B. 750 C. 1000 D. 1100
80. According to Which articles of the Indian Constitution is Hindi, In devnagari script the official
language of the Union?
A. Article 243 B. Article 343 C. Article 223 D. Article 123
81. Which of the following is example of igneous, sedimentary and metamorphic rock, respectively?
A. Basalt, gneiss, granite B. Granite, lime–stone, schist

C. shale, gabbro, marble D. Lignite, bituminous, gneiss
82. Formic acid is obtained from
A. Red Ants B. Cats C. Vinegar D. Orange
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83. Recently 'Bhartiya Mahila Bank' is merged in which bank?
A. SBI B. ICICI C. HDFC D.PNB
84. Which of the following metals is not a pollutant?
A. Mercury B. Arsenic C. Lead D. Aluminium
85. The world’s oldest fossil mushroom — dating back to about 115 million years — has been
discovered in:
A. Argentina B. Peru C. Chile D. Brazil
86. Bats can fly in dark because they
A. Have strong wings B. Have night vision power

C. Produce ultrasonic waves D. Produce X–rays
87. Indian and Russia have agreed to soon conduct the first ever Tri–services exercise which will be
called:
A. MEGHDOOT–2017 B. INDRA–2017 C. SURYAKIRAN–2017 D. GARUDA–2017
88. The administrative relations between the union and states are mentioned:
A. Part XI Chapter I B. Part XI Chapter II C. Part XIV Chapter II D. Part XII Chapter IV
89. 'Listen to the young voices' was the theme of which International Day celebrated in 2017?
A. World Environment Day B. Zero Discrimination Day

C. International Day of Forests D. World Wildlife Day
90. Which of the following is included in concurrent list?
A. Fisheries B. Intestate trade and commerce

C. Agriculture D. Protection of wildlife animal and birds
Section – III: Quantitative Aptitude

91. Bhanu is travelling in a car. His car moves at 50 km per hour for first hour. Then he takes a
stoppage of 15 min for tea. He travelled with 55 km/hr during next hour and reached its
destination. During return journey, he followed the same travelling plan. Find his average speed
of the total journey.
A. 36.66 km/hr B. 52.5 km/hr C. 52 km/hr D. 46.66km/hr

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92. Sam has a farm house, around which he grows apples. During this season, he got very healthy
crop. He calculated the investment per the production of the crop and realized that for every
apple he grew, his investment was Rs 20. He sold one third of the lot at the cost price. Half of the
lot at 25 % profit. At what price per apple, he should sell the remaining lot, in order to ensure
30% profit in the business.
A. 25 B. 35 C. 41 D. 45
93. Samuel and Jackson are childhood friends. When they turned 20, Samuel opened a Garment
store with the investment of Rs 20000. After 4 Months,Jackson joined him with capital of Rs
50,000.Now they own a bigger store. At the end of the year, their gross profit is Rs 40,000. If
government charges 18 % GST over gross profit, then what will be the share of Jackson in Net
profit? (Net profit = Gross profit – GST).
A. 20500 B. 19500 C. 250000 D. 22500
94. The number of animals die per week on a particular road (hit by vehicle) is “n”. Value of n lies
between 24 and 33. The number of factors of “n” is 8. How many animals must have died during
Feb 2017 on that road? (approx)
A. 120 B. 128 C. 100 D. 116
95. A petrol tanker is cylindrical in shape, with two hemispherical bulging at both of its ends. The
total length of the tank (including bulging) is 25 mt. If the diameter of cylindrical part is 7 mt, find
the volume of the tank.
A. 762.5m3 B. 666.6 m3 C. 568.6 m3 D.872.6m3
96. Shaima is fond of chocolate milk. Her bottle (capacity 250 ml) is full of Liquid Chocolate. She
takes a sip of 20 ml. After taking each sip, she adds 20 ml pure milk to the bottle. Find the
quantity of chocolate in her bottle after two such sips.
A. 210 B. 209.5 C. 232.6 D. 211.6
97. What will be the remainder when 1744 is divided by 290.
A. 16 B. 1 C. 289 D. 0
98. 11 players of a team are sitting around a circular table. Each of them is wearing a T– shirt with
exactly one letter printed over it from the word ‘BRIDGESTONE’. In how many ways, all these 11
players can be arranged around circular table?
A. 10!/2! B. 10! C. 11!/2! D. 11!
99. The difference between CI and SI over a sum at 5% interest per annum for 3 years is Rs 152.5.
What is the Principle?
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A. 20,000 B. 20,0000 C. 250000 D. 40000
1
 5a3  3c3  7e3  3
100. a/b = c/d = e/f = 6/7 then what will be the value of  3 3 
 5b  3d  7f 
3
A. 216/ 343 B. 6/7 C. 36/49 D. Cannot be determine
101. A fool salesman sells a bucket at 7% loss. One day a wise man advised him to sell it at Rs 360
more than the price he was charging. Now he earns 5 % profit over that article. What is his new
selling price?
A. 2500 B. 3250 C. 3150 D. 4210
102. Fresh watermelon contains 90 % water. Keeping it under the sun for 7 days, it dried up. Now
dried watermelon contains 25% water. If the weight of dried watermelon is 2 kg, what was the
weight of fresh one?
A. 12.5 kg B. 15 kg C. 18 kg D. 20 kg
103. 80% of class passed in History. 70 % passed in Geography. 2% failed in Both. If class has total 400
students, how many passed in both subjects.
A. 198 B. 200 C. 208 D. 230
104. 12 men or 36 women can do a job in 40 days. 5 men and 9 women can do the same job in how
many days?
A. 60 B. 120 C. 45 D. 80
105. 4A= 5B; 3B = 5C; 2C = 3D. D is what percent of A?
A. 37.5% B. 50% C. 60% D.32%
106. A and B together can do a work in 24 days. A is twice as efficient as B. In how many days, B can
do this work alone.
A. 72 B.60 C. 36 D. 48
107. What is the probability of getting a king or a red card, on drawing a card randomly from the
A. 2/13 B. 6/13 C. 7/13 D.5/13
108. Length of a rectangle increases by 25% and breadth decreases by 10%. What will be the
percentage change in the area?
A. 10% increase B. 12.5% increase C. 12.5 % decrease D. 10% decrease
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109. A man died leaving Rs 93000. In his will, he ask this money to distribute among his son, daughter
and wife in such a way that twice the share of son must be equal to thrice the share of daughter,
which must be equal to five time the share of wife. Find the share of wife.
A. 15000 B. 45000 C. 30000 D. 18000
110. A boat goes 240 Km upstream and 240 km downstream in 50 hrs. Speed of flow of current of
water is 2 km/hr, what is the speed of Boat in still water.
A. 12 km/hr B. 10 km/hr C. 8 km/hr D. 15 km/hr
Section – IV: Legal Reasoning

Principles for Q. No. 111–120
A. Free Consent is required for a valid contract
B. Wilful breach of contract is a breach of contract liable for compensation
C. In case of a Joint Promise, the liability is joint and several
D. There is no liability for impossibility of performance
111. Which one of the following is relevant in normal circumstances in determining the amount of
damages from breach of contract?
A. Normally expected loss

B. Difference between market price and contract price
C. Sudden closure price of production
D. Additional expenses for procuring the goods
112. A party who does not suffer any loss in case of breach of contract is entitled to:
A. Statutory damages B. Liquidated damages

C. Exemplary damages D. Nominal damages
113. W, a singer enters into a contract with M, the manager of a theatre, to sing at his theatre for two
nights in every week during the next two months and M engages to pay her Rs.5 Lacs for each
night‘s performance. On the 7th night, W willfully absents herself from the theatre:
A. M cannot put an end to the contract

B. The contract is unlawful
C. M is at liberty to put an end to the contract
D. The contract is left at the liberty of W
114. A mother owes RS.10,000 to her daughter. But this debt has become barred by the Limitation
Act. The mother signs a written promise to pay Rs.3,000 on account of the debt. In such a case
which one is correct:
A. There is no contract as the debt is already barred by Limitation and so it cannot be revived by
as subsequent promise
B. There is no contract because the mother has promised to give only a part of time debt
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C. This is enforceable against the mother because such a promise is valid and binding under the
Indian Contract Act
D. None
115. X and Y contract that Y shall build a house for X for Rs.20 Lacs. Y‘s ready and willing to construct
the house but X prevents him from doing so. In such case:
A. Y is entitled to recovers compensation for any loss suffered by him

B. Y can opt to rescind the contract
C. (A) or (B)
D. (A) and (B)
116. X sold to Y by sample and Y thinking that they were old rice purchased them, but the rice was
new. In this case:
A. Y is not bound by the contract B. Y is bound by the contract

C. Y can recover damages from X D. Y can sue for replacement of new rice with old rice
117. A enters into a contract with B for dancing at his theatre for three nights for a fee of Rs.2,00,000.
A dances for two nights and is taken ill. What remedy is available to B?
A. B can repudiate the contract B. B can claim damages from A

C. B is not bound to pay fees D. B cannot claim damages from A
118. A servant is employed for one year on a monthly salary of Rs.1800, the whole salary to be paid at
the end of the year. The servant wrongfully leaves the service after six months. Is he entitled to
any salary?
A. He is entitled to the whole salary

B. He is entitled to the salary of six months.
C. He is entitled to the salary which his master thinks suitable
D. He is not entitled to any salary
119. A, B and C jointly promise to pay D a sum of Rs.90,000. C is compelled to pay the whole of the
amount to D. Can he recovers anything form A and B when both A and B were solvent?
A. Yes, C can recover Rs.60,000 from A

B. Yes, C can recover Rs.90,000 from A
C. Yes, C can recover Rs.30,000 each from A and B
D. No C cant recover anything from A and B
120. A lets out a theatre to B for a series of drama for certain days. The theatre was completely
destroyed by fire before the scheduled dates. In the case:
A. The contract is discharged by impossibility of performance

B. The contract is void ab initio
C. The contract is voidable at the option of B
D. A cannot be discharged of the contract
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121. Principle: For a breach of contract, compensation can be claimed for the personal inconvenience
suffered by a party by reason of the breach, which naturally arose in the usual course of things
from such breach, or which the parties knew, when they made the contract to be likely to result
from the breach of the contract.
Facts: Mr. Anil and Mrs. Seema Shah purchased bus tickets from a private bus company for a
journey from Rainager to Baruch via Amreli. The bus driver, by mistake, took them in a wrong
direction and dropped them at a distance of 3 miles from Amreli on the state highway. Mr. and
Mrs. Shah had to walk the distance of 3 miles as there was no mode of transport available and it
was midnight.
Mr. and Mrs. Shah filed a suit against the bus company and claimed Rs.2500/– as damages for
inconvenience suffered for walking and Rs.5000/– in respect of Mrs. Seema Shah’s catching cold
during that night.
A. The bus company is liable to pay both the amounts claimed because the loss was suffered by
Mr. and Mrs. Shah for no fault of theirs.
B. The bus company is liable to pay Rs.2500/– only
C. The bus company is not liable to pay anything.
D. The bus company is not liable as there was no breach of contract.
122. Principle: Same as above
Facts: Mr. Anil and Mrs. Seema Shah purchased bus tickets from a private bus company for a
journey from Rainager to Baruch via Amreli to enjoy the chilly winters in the desert. The bus
driver, by mistake, took them in a wrong direction and dropped them at a distance of 3 miles
from Amreli on the state highway. Mr. and Mrs. Shah had to walk the distance of 3 miles as
there was no mode of transport available and it was midnight on a particularly chilly night.
Mr. and Mrs. Shah filed a suit against the bus company and claimed Rs.2500/– as damages for
inconvenience suffered for walking and Rs.5000/– in respect of Mrs. Seema Shah’s catching cold
during that night.
A. The bus company is liable to pay both the amounts claimed because the loss was suffered by
Mr. and Mrs. Shah for no fault of theirs.
B. The bus company is liable to pay Rs.2500/– only
C. The bus company is not liable to pay anything.
D. The bus company is not liable as there was no breach of contract.
123. Principle: When due to natural disaster or war it becomes impossible to perform a contract,
non–performance of such contract shall not make either of the parties liable for breach of
contract but this does not include commercial impossibility.
Facts: Rakesh is a merchant based in Kolkata deals in almonds, which he procures from Indian as
well as foreign markets. Vimlesh enters into a contract with Rakesh for supply of 500 kilograms
of almonds @ Rs.400 per kilogram. The relations between India and Pakistan turned sour and
both countries snapped business ties soon after Rakesh agreed to supply almonds to Vimlesh.
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Rakesh did not deliver almonds to Vimlesh because he mostly procured almonds from Pakistan,
which were comparatively cheaper. When asked by Vimlesh, Rakesh said that it is due to no
trade and war like conditions between India and Pakistan, that he is not in a position to supply
him almonds. Vimlesh files a suit for breach of contract.
A. Vimlesh will succeed

B. Rakesh will succeed
C. None of them will succeed
D. Both of them will partially succeed
124. Principle: When due to natural disaster or war it becomes impossible to perform a contract,
non–performance of such contract shall not make either of the parties liable for breach of
contract but this does not include commercial impossibility.
Facts: In the earlier facts if Rakesh used to procure almonds only from Pakistan and this fact was
known what would be your answer?
A. Vimlesh will succeed B. Rakesh will succeed

C. None of them will succeed D. Both of them will partially succeed
125. Principle: Same as above
Facts: Assume that Vimlesh wanted Rakesh to supply the almonds from Pakistan as they were of
a very high quality.
A. Vimlesh will succeed B. Rakesh will succeed

C. None of them will succeed D. Both of them will partially succeed
126. Principles:
I. For a valid contract to be formed, there must be an intention to create legal obligations.
II. For a contract to be formed, it is essential that there be reciprocity of consideration.
Facts: When the married parents of an illegitimate child, Carol, split up, the father wrote to the
mother as follows: ‘I am prepared to let you have Carol and pay you up to $1 a week allowance
for her providing you can prove that she will be well looked after and happy and also that she is
allowed to decide for herself whether or not she wishes to come and live with you.’ The child
went to live with the mother and the father paid the $1 a week for seven months until the
mother married. She brought an action against him for the $1 a week. Will the claim succeed?
A. Yes, as the mother’s looking after the child constituted good consideration for the father’s
promise.
B. No, as there was no intention of the part of the father and the mother (husband and wife) to
create legal obligations.
C. No, because the mother was now married and therefore the father is not required to pay the
maintenance any more.
D. None of these.
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Principles for Ques. No.: 27–28:
A. When two or more persons make a joint promise, the promise may, in the absence of express
agreement to the contrary, compel any one or more of such joint promisors to perform the
whole of the promise.
B. Each of two or more joint promisors may compel every other joint promisor to contribute
equally with himself to the performance of the promise, unless a contrary intention appears
from the contract.
C. If any one or two or more joint promisors make default in such contribution, the remaining joint
promisors must bear the loss arising from such default in equal shares.
127. Facts: A, B and C jointly promise to pay D the sum of 3,000 rupees. C is compelled to pay the
whole. A is insolvent, but his assets are sufficient to pay one–half of his debts. How much is C
entitled to from A and B, if at all he is entitled to get anything?
A. He is not entitled to receive anything from A and B.

B. He can claim Rs. 500 from A, and Rs. 1000 from B.
C. He can claim nothing from A, but can seek 1500 from B.
D. He can claim Rs. 1000 from both of A and B.
128. Facts: A, B and C are under a joint promise to pay D 3000 rupees, A and B being only sureties for
C. C fails to pay. A and B are compelled to pay the whole sum. Can they recover it from C?
A. Yes, they can recover it from C.

B. No, they cannot recover it from C.
C. No, as they are only sureties and therefore, cannot recover from C.
D. Both B and C.
Principle for Ques. No.: 29–30:

The performance of any promise may be made in any manner, or at any time which the promisee
prescribes or sanctions.
129. Facts: B owes A 2,000 rupees. A desires B to pay the amount to A’s account with C, a banker. B,
who also banks with C, orders the amount to be transferred from his account to A’s credit, and
this is done by C. Afterwards and before A knows of the transfer, C fails. Has there been good
payment by B?
A. Yes, there has been good payment by B.

B. No, there hasn’t been good payment by B.
C. No, as B should have ensured that A knew about the payment being credited to his account.
D. Both b and c.
130. Facts: A and B are mutually indebted. A and B settle an account by setting off one item against
another, and B pays A the balance found to be due from him upon such settlement. Does this
amount to payment by A and B?
A. No, as the balance paid by B to A after the exchange of an item was not part of the payment.
B. Yes, as both A and B have settled the account and B further paid the remaining amount.
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C. No, as B alone paid the amount properly, whereas A has not discharged his part of the debt in
accordance with the settlement.
D. None of these.
Principle: The master shall be held liable for the acts of his servant done in the course of and out of
employment under the doctrine of Vicarious Liability.
131. A is an employee with the bank C. B was a client with the bank for the past 25 years. In these 25
yearshe had developed a friendly relationship with A. He would always make the deposit at the
counter from where A used to operate.
One day he comes to know that A had misappropriated some of the funds.
He brings a case against the Bank and A.
A. Bank alone is liable B. A alone is liable

C. Both the bank and A are liable D. None of them are liable
yearshe had developed a friendly relationship with A. Since B was an elderly man, he would at
times hand over money to B, who also happened to be his neighbour at his house to get it
deposited.
Later he learns that B has had misappropriated the money.
She sues the bank and A

yearshe had developed a friendly relationship with A. B was old and feeble and so he asked the
bank manager to send A to his house to collect money and deposit it. The manager sanctioned
the request and A started collecting money from B's house.
A misappropriated the money.
Who shall be held liable?

Principle: The master shall be held liable for the acts of his servant done in the course of and out of
employment.
Principle: Independent Contractors do not fall under the category of servants
134. A owns a hospital. B works as a surgeon at the hospital and C is a staff nurse. Due to the
negligence of B and C, D dies in the operation theatre.
D's family sue the hospital owner A. Decide:
A. A is liable B. A is not liable C. Only B is liable D. Only C is liable.
135. A owns a hospital. B works as a visiting surgeon at the hospital and C is a staff nurse on the rolls
of the hospital. Due to the negligence of B, D dies in the operation theatre.
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A. A is liable B. A is not liable

C. Only B is liable D. Both A and B are liable vicariously.
136. A owns a hospital. B works as a visiting surgeon at the hospital and C is a staff nurse on the rolls
of the hospital. Due to the negligence of C, D dies in the operation theatre.
A. A is liable B. A is not liable C. Only B is liable D. Only C is liable
137. In question 136, if the rule for who shall be treated as the master is ‘One who has supervision
and control and gives directions to his servant’, will the answer change?
a. Yes b. No c. Cannot be determined d. Nota
Principle: Injuria Sine Damnum
138. A was on his way to vote for the election for the president of the Golf Club he was a member of.
Some rowdy boys who were playing gully cricket on the street disrupted his way due to which he
turned up late for the elections and the ballot had been sealed. B, in whose favour A was to cast
his vote, however won by a margin of 500 votes. A brings a case in tort against the boys.
A. The boys shall be held liable

B. The boys shall not be held liable because their act is very trivial
C. The boys shall not be held liable because A’s candidate anyway won the elections
D. Nota
139. In the question above, had B lost by a margin of 1 vote only, would the answer change?
A. Yes B. No C. Cannot be determined D. Nota
140. In question number 8, had the rowdy boys been planted on purpose by B’s contender C as he
knew A would cast his vote in B’s favour, decide:
A. Boys shall be held liable only B. The boys and C both shall be held liable
C. Only C shall be held liable D. Neither shall be held liable.
Principle: Audi Alterm Partem
141. Facts: A was issued numerous summons by a court of law but decided not to turn up for any of
the hearings before the court. The court therefore, without hearing A rules against him.
Is the rule mentioned in the Principle flouted?
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142. Had A instead of not showing up, at least have given reasons citing causes for his absence, will
the answer change?
Insanity is a defence in criminal law, if the person is deprived of the ability to distinguish between right
and wrong due to the insnity
143. Facts: A is addicted to gambling. He often steals money from his father and goes to casinos to
gamble, even after knowing that his father is going through a financial crisis When his father is
fed up of his habits, he feels there is some mental condition that makes him indulge in gambling
even after repeated warnings. He consults a doctor who diagnoses A with a mental condition
and puts him on medication to cure his addiction. A, even after being put on medication steals
money and now his father brings criminal case against his son. Decide:
A. A is liable
B. A is not liable
C. The case will be dismissed since a father cannot bring a case against his son for theft
D. Cannot be determined
144. Facts: Had it been the case that along with being a gambling addict, the doctor also diagnosed
that A suffered from Kleptomania. Decide:
A. A is liable
B. A is not liable
145. Facts: Had A been 10 years old, decide:
A. A is liable
B. A is not liable
Read the given Assertions(A) and Reasons(R ) and answer:

A. Both A & R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A & R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true and R is false.
D. A is false and R is true.
146. Assertion(A): Common intention implies a pre–arranged plan, prior meeting of minds and prior
consultation between all the persons committing the crime.
Reason(R): The law makes no distinction between the persons or the part played by them in
doing the criminal act.
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147. Assertion(A): Culpable homicide becomes murder when the act causes death and is done with
the specific intention of causing death.
Reason(R): One of the conditions to be satisfied for treating it murder provide the injury
intended to be inflicted is sufficient in the ordinary course of nature to cause death.
148. Assertion(A): Under Article 368, the Parliament can amend any provision of the Constitution
except the basic structure of the Constitution.
Reason(R): The Supreme Court has restricted the absolute power of Parliament to amend any
provision of the Constitution.
149. Assertion(A): The right to clean drinking water and right to pollution free air to breath are
attributes of “Right to Life”.
Reason(R): Because they are the basic elements which sustain life.
150. Assertion(A): International Law is not potent enough to restrain a powerful state which has no
respect for public opinion.
Reason(R): Sanctions behind International Law are weak.
151. The term ‘illegal’ means
A. Is prohibited by law B. Furnishes ground for a criminal action

C. Is an offence D. All of the above
152. Softwares in India are protected under:
A. Patents B. Trademark C. Copyright D. All of the above
153. If a person files an RTI at Reliance Communications, who will have to reply him within thirty
days:
A. Head of Realince Communications B. Any authorized representative of Reliance

C. Ministry of Communication D. None of the above
154. If a person doesn’t know the specific department where he wants to file an RTI, he can:
A. File it with the District Magistrate B. File it with the Supretendent of Police
C. File it with the Municipal Commissioner D. All of the above
155. Any patent in India is valid for:
A. 10 years B. 15 years C. 20 years D. 25 years
156. A Copyright in India is valid for:
A. Upto 20 Years after the death of the author

B. Upto 40 Years after the death of the author
C. Upto 60 Years after the death of the author
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D. Copyright is a perpetual right
157. Which of the following can be a registered non profitable organization in India.
A. A society B. A charitable trust

C. A not for profit company D. All of the above
158. Indian Muslim’s personal laws are based upon:
A. Quran B. Sharia C. Ijma D. All of the above
159. Which case put an end to jury trials in India?
A. A. K. Gopalan v State of Madras B. Keshvanandan Bharti v Union of India

C. K. M. Nanavati v State of Maharashtra D. Vishakha v State of Rajasthan
160. Who was the first finance minister of India?
A. John Mathai B. Liyakat Ali Khan C. Morarji Desai D. Jawaharlal Nehru
Section – V: Logical Reasoning

But the question still remains whether “nationality” and “citizenship” are interchangeable terms.
“Nationality” has reference to the jural relationship which may arise for consideration under
international law. On the other hand “citizenship” has reference to the jural relationship under
municipal law. In other words, nationality determines the civil rights of a person, natural or artificial,
particularly with reference to international law, whereas citizenship is intimately connected with civic
rights under municipal law. Hence, all citizens are nationals, but all nationals may not be citizens. All
citizens are Indians.
In other words, citizens are those persons who have full political rights as distinguished from nationals,
who may not enjoy full political rights and are still domiciled in that country.
161. Choose the option that best follows from the above premise.
A. Some citizens are not nationals. B. Some Indians are not nationals.
C. Some citizens are not Indians. D. All of the above.
162. Choose the option that is least probable.
A. No national is Indian. B. No Indian is national.

C. No national is citizen. D. All of the above.
163. Choose the option that necessarily follows.
A. Some Indians may not be citizens. B. Some Indians may not be nationals.
C. Both A and B. D. Neither A not B.
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164. If not all Indians are citizens then not all nationals are Indians. Choose the correct option.
A. The census shows that all nationals are Indians thus all Indians must be citizens.
B. The census shows that not all nationals are Indians thus all Indians must be citizens.
C. The census shows that all nationals are Indians thus not all Indians are citizens.
D. None of the above
165. Either all Indians are citizens or all nationals are Indians. Since not all nationals are Indians, it can
be safely concluded that–
A. Not all Indians are citizens. B. All Indians are citizens

C. Either A or B D. Neither A nor B
Compulsory voting has been seen across 28 countries of which only 6 countries have a history of well–
established democratic norms. Furthermore, countries are moving away from the strict enforcement of
the norm. Italy and Netherlands have abolished it completely. Moreover, statistically it has been seen
that compulsory voting does not in itself increase the turnout. Typically, over the last few elections, Italy
has had a voter turnout of over 80%, while the USA has a voter turnout of about 50%. It must also be
kept in mind that the impact of penalty must be seen in Indian context as very harsh measures which
may work in other countries will not work in India, with its poverty and unemployment.
166. Which of the following is the correct assumption underlying the above premise?
A. The norm of compulsory voting used to be considered as effective remedy for low voters
turn–out.
B. Democratic norms trump harsh policies.
C. World–wide analysis is the correct approach to formulate a voting policy for India.
D. None of the above.
167. Which of the following strengthens the given premise?
A. Given the complexity of the country and the large number of voters it would not be easy
making voting compulsory in India.
B. Compulsory voting was tried in the local elections in Gujarat and to take action against those
who did not vote was tough.
C. India is a huge country and it will not be easy enforcing the rule of compulsory voting.
D. All of the above
168. Which of the following is not the correct conclusion of the above premise?
A. Government of India should introduce compulsory voting and penalise those who failed to
exercise their franchise.
B. It may very well be the active decision of some voters to not engage with the democratic
process of casting vote.
C. Voters may be unable to reach the polling booths and/or for any other personal
circumstances be unable to cast vote.
D. Compulsory voting will be difficult to implement.
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In India, the right to vote is provided by the Constitution and the Representation of People’s Act, 1951,
subject to certain disqualifications. Article 326 of the Constitution guarantees the right to vote to every
citizen above the age of 18. Section 62 of the Representation of Peoples Act (RoPA), 1951 states that
every person who is in the electoral roll of that constituency will be entitled to vote. Thus, the
Constitution and the RoPA make it clear that every individual above the age of 18, whose name is in the
electoral rolls, and does not attract any of the disqualifications under the Act, may cast their vote. This is
a non–discriminatory, voluntary system of voting.
169. Which of the following can be inferred from the above passage?
A. India is a firm supporter of compulsory voting.

B. Voters in India should be given a NOTA (none of the above) choice.
C. India does not follow the principles of compulsory voting.
D. All of the above.
Directions for Questions 170 to 171:
I. “Issue of compulsory voting as prevalent in some countries has been a matter of discussion
earlier. We found the idea not so practical. …” Chief Election Commissioner Nasim Zaidi said.
II. “We have 85 crore voters. What if 30 crore out of them don’t turn up to vote, how do we deal
with them?”
III. The country’s voter population was the biggest hurdle in implementing compulsory voting.
IV. Compulsory voting needs to be taken seriously.
V. There should be moral pressure on the voters in the form of fine for not voting which can be
paid towards municipal tax.
170. Which of the following would strengthen the above premise?
A. I, II, and III B. I, II, III, IV, and V

C. IV and V D. None of the above
171. Which of the following would weaken the above premise?
A. I, II, and III B. I, II, III, IV, and V

C. IV and V D. None of the above
“Such “law creating” (“legislative”) activity is not reflection of judicial imperialism. It is an indication of
the uncertainty inherent in law itself. Law is not mathematics. Law is a normative system. So long as we
cannot predict the future, so long as language does not enable generalisations that extend to all
relevant situations, so long as we cannot overcome human limitation, we will have to live with
uncertainty in law…” However, “… society cannot attain the rule of law without measure of discretion.
Law without discretion ultimately yields arbitrariness.” “Instead of forcibly applying the law to a case
which may not have been foreseen by it, discretion, guided by principles, must be granted to judges.”
172. Which of the following is the correct assumption underlying the above passage?
A. No discretional powers shall be vested with the judges.

B. Discretion is necessary when the rule that is to be applied cannot be mechanically applied and
requires judgement.
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C. Language is certain and has only one meaning and thus judicial interpretation is redundant.
D. None of the above
173. Which of the following is an incorrect inference?
A. Discretion, like a hole in the doughnut, does not exist except as an area left open by a
surrounding belt of restriction. It is therefore a relative concept.
B. Although judicial discretion implies making of a choice, it does not mean that such choice can
be considered arbitrary and irrational.
C. Neither A nor B
D. Both A and B
174. Which of the following would strengthen the given premise?
A. Even when judicial discretion is not limited or guided with a specific Directions for Questions,
courts are still legally limited to decide what they think is best according to their beliefs and
values.
B. The judge must always invoke some general reasons.
C. The judge has discretion to act based on reasons the judge thinks are correct by imposing its
own personal choice and standards.
D. The discretion is not exercised in vacuum without any justification.
175. Which of the following would weaken the given premise?
A. Judicial process is to fill gaps in law.

B. The exercise of discretion is like a fork in the road, where there are two paths, each open,
though leading to different goals. Thus the judges have freedom to choose between
applicable principles/policies/legislative programs.
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Judicial discretion can be exercised by a court only when there are two or more possible lawful
solutions, and it cannot give any Directions for Questions contrary to the statute or rule made
thereunder in exercise of judicial discretion.(Quote from ‘Judicial Discretion’ by Aharon Barak)
176. Judicial discretion was exercised by the court. Thus,
A. The court gave Directions for Questions contrary to the statute

B. There were more than one possible lawful solution.
C. Neither A nor B
D. Both A and B
177. Writs can be refused when there is a more satisfactory and convenient remedy.
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It would be correct to say which of the following?
A. The counsel for the petitioners argued that grant of monetary compensation, which is more
convenient and satisfactory remedy, is available to the court and thus the writ should be
dismissed.
B. There is no alternate remedy and so writ should be allowed.
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
178. All companies registered under the Companies Act are legal persons. All properties belong to the
company. Some properties belong to the shareholders.
Some properties belong to the company.
A. False B. True C. Maybe D. None of the above
179. All legal persons are companies.

180. All shareholders are legal persons.
181. In a class test, Pallavi is placed 17th from top, whereas 19th from the bottom. How many
students took the test?
A. 35 B. 36 C. 37 D. 34
182. If the numbers from 1 to 80 which are exactly divisible by 4 are arranged in ascending order from
left, which would be the twelfth number from left?
A. 44 B. 48 C. 52 D. 40
183. If in a certain code language SKYLAND is coded as 1273154; STAR is coded as 1219, then how is
WATER coded in the same language?
A. 51259 B. 52159 C. 51295 D. 54124
184. Find the next term in the series: 3, 7, 13, 21, __
A. 30 B. 35 C. 38 D. 31
185. Find the next term in the series: 4, 11, 30, 67, 128, 219, ___
A. 344 B. 342 C. 346 D. 349
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Directions for Questions for Questions 186 to 188: In each of these questions find the shortest
distance between A and B.
186. Salman drives 30 m towards north from A. He turns left and drives 50 m. He turns left and drives
30 m. Finally he drives 20 m after turning to the left to reach B.
A. 20 m B. 30 m C. 40 m D. None of these
187. Raj starting from point A goes 25 m towards North and then after turning to his right he goes 10
km. Then he goes 10, 10 and 15 metres after turning to his left each time to reach B.
A. 20 m B. 25 m C. 30 m D. None of these
188. Sonu goes 24 km towards North from A and then he goes 16 km towards south from there. Then
he goes 6 km towards east to reach B.
A. 12km B. 5 km C. 10 km D. None of these
189. Find the ratio of the areas of the two circles?

Statement 1: The ratio of radii of two circles is 4 : 9.
Statement 2: The ratio of circumference of two circles is 5 : 6.
A. Only statement 1 is necessary is to answer the question

B. Only statement 2 is necessary is to answer the question
C. Both the statements together are necessary to answer the question
D. Either of statement 1 or statement 2 is necessary to answer the question
190. If in a certain code language Blue is called black, black is called is called red, red is called purple,
purple is called white and white is called blue, what is the color of sky in that language?
A. blue B. red C. black D. white
191. A is taller than B. C is taller than A. D is taller than C. E is the tallest of all. If they are made to sit
in the above order of their height, who will occupy the mid position?
A. A B. B C. C D. D
192. Four children are sitting in a row. A is occupying the seat next to B but not next to C. If C is not
sitting next to D, who is/are occupying seat/seats adjacent to D?
A. B B. A C. B and A D. Data insufficient
Directions for Questions s for Questions 193 to 195: These questions are based on information below.
A, B, C, D, E and F are members of a family. They are engineer, stenographer, doctor, teacher, lawyer
and judge (not in order). A, the engineer is married to the lady stenographer. The judge is married to
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the lawyer. F, the teacher is the son of B and brother of E. C, the lawyer is the daughter–in–law of D. E is
the unmarried doctor. D is the grandmother of F. There are two married couples in the family.
193. What is the profession of B?
A. Judge B. Lawyer C. Teacher D. Cannot be determined
194. Which of the following is a couple?
A. FE B. FC C. AD D. BD
195. What is the profession of D?
A. Judge B. Stenographer C. Doctor D. Cannot be determined
196. How many times are the two hands of a clock opposite to each other in a day?
A. 11 B. 22 C. 23 D. 24
197. In a code language if TELANGANA is written as LETGNAANA, then how is TAMILNADU coded in
same language?
A. TMANLIUDA B. MATNLIUDA C. UDANLIMAT D. MATNALIDU
198. The letters L, M, N, 0, P, Q, R, S and T in their order are substituted by nine integers 1 to 9 but
not in that order. 4 is assigned to P. The difference between P and T is 5. The difference between
N and T is 3. What is the integer assigned to N?
A. 7 B. 5 C. 4 D. 6
199. Four persons, A, B, C and D have a total of Rs. 1000 among themselves. A and B between them
have as much money as C and D between them, but A has more money than B; and C has only
half the money that D has. A has in fact Rs. 50 more than D has. Who has the maximum amount
of money?
A. A B. B C. C D. D
200. Sachin attends Music classes on Monday. He attends Mathematics classes on Wednesday. His
Literature classes are not on Friday. He attends History classes on the next day of Mathematics
classes. On Tuesday, he attends his Sports classes. If he attends just one subject in a day and his
Sunday is free, then he is also free on
A. Monday B. Thursday C. Saturday D. Friday
29

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CP/18/C03

1. i. from the Democratic party during the presidential campaign.

A. iii–iv–ii–i B. iv–i–ii–iii C. iv–iii–ii–i D. ii–iv–iii–I

2. i. has been running their work through the Luftdaten website,

A. iv–i–iii–ii B. i–ii–iii–iv C. iii–i–iv–ii D. ii–iv–iii–i

A. i–ii–iii–iv B. iv–ii–i–iii C. ii–iv–i–iii D. iii–i–ii–iv

4. i. But Brand is different.

A. iii–iv–i–ii B. i–ii–iii–iv C. iv–iii–ii–i D. ii–iv–iii–i

A. ii–iv–iii–i B. iv–ii–i–iii C. iii–ii–iv–i D. i–ii–iv–iii

A. poison B. implication C. action D. reaction

A. legal B. poisoned C. second hand D. virtual

A. poverty B. awed C. usury D. evil

A. excited B. angry C. irritated D. despondent

A. reality B. laughing C. shocked D. pleased

12. CAVEAT VIATOR

A. traveller beware B. reader beware C. listener beware D. jeweler beware

13. HAUTE COUTURE

A. high fashion B. stylish C. old fashioned D. tawdry

A. misfit B. right fit C. religious D. inappropriate

15. MUTATIS MUTANDIS

A. no changes B. necessary changes C. rigorous D. simple

20. Imagine India preparing to put a man on Mars. He–who–has–your–best–interests–at–heart then

A. said, before B. recorded, in front of

A. breaking, banks B. breaking, accounts C. closing, banks D. opening, banks

A. necessity, idiosyncrasy B. affirmation, result

A. request, removal B. perjury, refulgence

A. turning the corkscrews B. crossing the threshold

26. A. Puissance B. Pulchritude C. Pedantic D. Pusillanimous

27. A. tantalising B. enticing C. alluring D. repulsive

28. A. corpus juris B. de jure C. jurisprudence D. corpulent

29. A. bedazzled B. flummoxed C. stupify D. stupid

30. A. comely B. gregarious C. pulchritude D. gorgeous

A. yes B. no C. he is undecided D. the passage does not say

32. What is the meaning of the word ‘insurgents’?

A. rebellion B. revolutionary C. sedition D. iconoclast

33. Does the Government of Myanmar want to help the Rohingyas?

A. yes, the writer feels so.

34. Does the Myanmar govt have to help the Rohingyas?

A. No, there is no obligation on their part to help the Rohingyas.

35. Which of the following are true according to the passage?

A. i, ii, iii B. ii and iii C. i and ii D. None of these

36. Who are the Rohingyas?

A. they are rebels B. they are a minority citizen group

Directions for Questions 37 to 40: Identify meaning of the given idioms:

37. a straw man

A. important person B. unimportant person

A. help B. reject C. trouble D. harrass

39. from frying pan into the fire

40. jam on your face

A. insult B. aggravation C. temerity D. praise

Section – II: General Knowledge

A. #Share Humanity B. #Not A Target

42. The God who is the most prominent in 'Rigaveda' is

A. Indra B. Agni C. Pasupati D. Vishnu

A. A Unnikrishnan B. Ajay Tyagi C. G. S. Yadav D. Mamta Suri

A. Bimbisara B. Ajatasatru C. Udayan D. Nagadashak

A. Brij Bhushan Mohanty and Syed Shahid Hakim

46. 'Satyartha Prakash' was written by

A. Raja Ram Mohan Roy B. Mahatma Gandhi

A. Ashwani Lohani B. A K Mittal

48. Gandhiji took up Dandi March as a Civil Disobedience Movement on

A. 31st December 1929 B. 26th January 1930

A. Rs 6 lakh B. Rs 8 lakh C. Rs 7 lakh D. Rs 11 lakh