Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Nursing Management and Leadership
Nursing Management and Leadership
Nursing Management and Leadership
1. Ms. Caputo is newly-promoted to a patient care manager position. She updates her knowledge on the
theories in management and leadership in order to become effective in her new role. She learns that some
managers have low concern for services and high concern for staff. Which style of management refers to
this?
A. Organization Man
B. Impoverished Management
C. Country Club Management
D. Team Management
2. Her former manager demonstrated passion for serving her staff rather than being served. She takes
time to listen, prefers to be a teacher first before being a leader, which is characteristic of
A. Transformational leader
B. Transactional leader
C. Servant leader
D. Charismatic leader
3. On the other hand, Ms. Caputo notices that the Chief Nurse Executive has charismatic leadership style.
Which of the following behaviors best describes this style?
A. Possesses inspirational quality that makes followers gets attracted of him and regards him with reverence
B. Acts as he does because he expects that his behavior will yield positive results
C. Uses visioning as the core of his leadership
D. Matches his leadership style to the situation at hand.
2
4. Which of the following conclusions of Ms. Caputo about leadership characteristics is TRUE?
A. There is a high correlation between the communication skills of a leader and the ability to get the job done.
B. A manager is effective when he has the ability to plan well.
C. Assessment of personal traits is a reliable tool for predicting a manager’s potential.
D. There is good evidence that certain personal qualities favor success in managerial role.
5. She reads about Path Goal theory. Which of the following behaviors is manifested by the leader who
uses this theory?
6. One leadership theory states that “leaders are born and not made,” which refers to which of the
following theories?
A. Trait
B. Charismatic
C. Great Man
D. Situational
7. She came across a theory which states that the leadership style is effective dependent on the situation.
Which of the following styles best fits a situation when the followers are self-directed, experts and are
matured individuals?
A. Democratic
B. Authoritarian
C. Laissez faire
D. Bureaucratic
8. She surfs the internet for more information about leadership styles. She reads about shared leadership
as a practice in some magnet hospitals. Which of the following describes this style of leadership?
3
A. Leadership behavior is generally determined by the relationship between the leader’s personality and the
specific situation
B. Leaders believe that people are basically good and need not be closely controlled
C. Leaders rely heavily on visioning and inspire members to achieve results
D. Leadership is shared at the point of care.
9. Ms. Caputo learns that some leaders are transactional leaders. Which of the following does NOT
characterize a transactional leader?
10. She finds out that some managers have benevolent-authoritative style of management. Which of the
following behaviors will she exhibit most likely?
11. Henry is a Unit Manager I the Medical Unit. He is not satisfied with the way things are going in his
unit. Patient satisfaction rate is 60% for two consecutive months and staff morale is at its lowest. He
decides to plan and initiate changes that will push for a turnaround in the condition of the unit. Which of
the following actions is a priority for Henry?
12. He knows that there are external forces that influence changes in his unit. Which of the following is
NOT an external force?
4
13. After discussing the possible effects of the low patient satisfaction rate, the staff started to list down
possible strategies to solve the problems head-on. Should they decide to vote on the best change strategy,
which of the following strategies is referred to this?
A. Collaboration
B. Majority rule
C. Dominance
D. Compromise
14. One staff suggests that they review the pattern of nursing care that they are using, which is described
as a:
A. job description
B. system used to deliver care
C. manual of procedure
D. rules to be followed
17. He raised the issue on giving priority to patient needs. Which of the following offers the best way for
setting priority?
18. Which of the following is the best guarantee that the patient’s priority needs are met?
19. When Henry uses team nursing as a care delivery system, he and his team need to assess the priority
of care for a group of patients, which of the following should be a priority?
20. He is hopeful that his unit will make a big turnaround in the succeeding months. Which of the
following actions of Henry demonstrates that he has reached the third stage of change?
21. Joey is a newly-appointed nurse manager of The Holy Spirit Medical Center, a tertiary hospital
located within the heart of the metropolis. He thinks of scheduling planning workshop with his staff in
order to ensure an effective and efficient management of the department. Should he decide to conduct a
strategic planning workshop, which of the following is NOT a characteristic of this activity?
6
A. Long-term goal-setting
B. Extends to 3-5 years in the future
C. Focuses on routine tasks
D. Determines directions of the organization
22. Which of the following statements refer to the vision of the hospital?
A. The Holy Spirit Medical Center is a trendsetter in tertiary health care in the next five year
B. The officers and staff of The Holy Spirit Medical Center believe in the unique nature of the human person
C. All the nurses shall undergo continuing competency training program.
D. The Holy Spirit Medical Center aims to provide a patient-centered care in a total healing environment.
23. The statement, “The Holy Spirit Medical Center aims to provide patient-centered care in a total
healing environment” refers to which of the following?
A. Vision
B. Goal
C. Philosophy
D. Mission
24. Joey plans to revisit the organizational chart of the department. He plans to create a new position of a
Patient Educator who has a coordinating relationship with the head nurse in the unit. Which of the
following will likely depict this organizational relationship?
A. Box
B. Solid line
C. Broken line
D. Dotted line
25. He likewise stresses the need for all the employees to follow orders and instructions from him and not
from anyone else. Which of the following principles does he refer to?
A. Scalar chain
B. Discipline
7
C. Unity of command
D. Order
26. Joey orients his staff on the patterns of reporting relationship throughout the organization. Which of
the following principles refer to this?
A. Span of control
B. Hierarchy
C. Esprit d’ corps
D. Unity of direction
27. He emphasizes to the team that they need to put their efforts together towards the attainment of the
goals of the program. Which of the following principles refers to this?
A. Span of control
B. Unity of direction
C. Unity of command
D. Command responsibility
28. Joey stresses the importance of promoting ‘esprit d corps’ among the members of the unit. Which of
the following remarks of the staff indicates that they understand what he pointed out?
29. He discusses the goal of the department. Which of the following statements is a goal?
30. He wants to influence the customary way of thinking and behaving that is shared by the members of
the department. Which of the following terms refer to this?
A. Organizational chart
B. Cultural network
C. Organizational structure
D. Organizational culture
31. He asserts the importance of promoting a positive organizational culture in their unit. Which of the
following behaviors indicate that this is attained by the group?
32. Stephanie is a new Staff Educator of a private tertiary hospital. She conducts orientation among new
staff nurses in her department. Joseph, one of the new staff nurses, wants to understand the channel of
communication, span of control and lines of communication. Which of the following will provide this
information?
A. Organizational structure
B. Policy
C. Job description
D. Manual of procedures
33. Stephanie is often seen interacting with the medical intern during coffee breaks and after duty hours.
What type of organizational structure is this?
A. Formal
B. Informal
C. Staff
D. Line
9
34. She takes pride in saying that the hospital has a decentralized structure. Which of the following is
NOT compatible with this type of model?
A. Flat organization
B. Participatory approach
C. Shared governance
D. Tall organization
35. Centralized organizations have some advantages. Which of the following statements are TRUE?
1. Highly cost-effective
2. Makes management easier
3. Reflects the interest of the worker
4. Allows quick decisions or actions.
A. 1 & 2
B. 2 & 4
C. 2, 3& 4
D. 1, 2, & 4
36. Stephanie delegates effectively if she has authority to act, which is BEST defined as:
37. Regardless of the size of a work group, enough staff must be available at all times to accomplish
certain purposes. Which of these purposes is NOT included?
38. Which of the following guidelines should be least considered in formulating objectives for nursing
care?
39. Stephanie considers shifting to transformational leadership. Which of the following statements best
describes this type of leadership?
40. As a manager, she focuses her energy on both the quality of services rendered to the patients as well
as the welfare of the staff of her unit. Which of the following management styles does she adopt?
Answers and rationale are given below for this exam. Check your correct answers and read the rationales for
additional learning. Tell us your scores on the comments section.
Country club management style puts concern for the staff as number one priority at the expense of
the delivery of services. He/she runs the department just like a country club where everyone is happy including
the manager.
Servant leaders are open-minded, listen deeply, try to fully understand others and not being judgmental
3. Answer: A. Possesses inspirational quality that makes followers gets attracted of him and regards him
with reverence
Charismatic leaders make the followers feel at ease in their presence. They feel that they are in good hands
whenever the leader is around.
4. Answer: C. Assessment of personal traits is a reliable tool for predicting a manager’s potential.
It is not conclusive that certain qualities of a person would make him become a good manager. It can only
predict a manager’s potential of becoming a good one.
5. Answer: A. Recognizes staff for going beyond expectations by giving them citations
Path Goal theory according to House and associates rewards good performance so that others would do the
same
Leaders become leaders because of their birth right. This is also called Genetic theory or the Aristotelian theory
12
Laissez faire leadership is preferred when the followers know what to do and are experts in the field. This
leadership style is relationship-oriented rather than task-centered.
Shared governance allows the staff nurses to have the authority, responsibility and accountability for their own
practice.
Inspires others with a vision is characteristic of a transformational leader. He is focused more on the day-to-day
operations of the department/unit.
Benevolent-authoritative managers pretentiously show their trust and confidence to their followers
11. Answer: A. Call for a staff meeting and take this up in the agenda.
This will allow for the participation of every staff in the unit. If they contribute to the solutions of the problem,
they will own the solutions; hence the chance for compliance would be greater.
Low morale of staff is an internal factor that affects only the unit. All the rest of the options emanate from the
top executive or from outside the institution.
Majority rule involves dividing the house and the highest vote wins. 1/2 + 1 is a majority.
A system used to deliver care. In the 70’s it was termed as methods of patient assignment; in the early 80’s it
was called modalities of patient care then patterns of nursing care in the 90’s until recently authors called it
nursing care systems.
Functional nursing is focused on tasks and activities and not on the holistic care of the patients
When the functional method is used, the psychological and sociological needs of the patients are neglected; the
patients are regarded as ‘tasks to be done ‘
This option follows the framework of the nursing process at the same time applies the management process of
planning, organizing, directing and controlling
18. Answer: B. Preparing a nursing care plan in collaboration with the patient
The best source of information about the priority needs of the patient is the patient himself. Hence using a
nursing care plan based on his expressed priority needs would ensure meeting his needs effectively.
In setting priorities for a group of patients, those who need the most care should be number-one priority to
ensure that their critical needs are met adequately. The needs of other patients who need less care ca be attended
to later or even delegated to assistive personnel according to rules on delegation.
Integrate the solutions to his day-to-day activities is expected to happen during the third stage of change when
the change agent incorporate the selected solutions to his system and begins to create a change.
Strategic planning involves options A, B and D except C which is attributed to operational planning
22. Answer: A. The Holy Spirit Medical Center is a trendsetter in tertiary health care in the next five
years
A vision refers to what the institution wants to become within a particular period of time.
This is a staff relationship hence it is depicted by a broken line in the organizational structure
The principle of unity of command means that employees should receive orders coming from only one manager
and not from two managers. This averts the possibility of sowing confusion among the members of the
organization
Hierarchy refers to the pattern of reporting or the formal line of authority in an organizational structure.
Unity of direction means having one goal or one objective for the team to pursue; hence all members of the
organization should put their efforts together towards the attainment of their common goal or objective.
28. Answer: A. “Let’s work together in harmony; we need to be supportive of one another”
The principle of ‘esprit d’ corps’ refers to promoting harmony in the workplace, which is essential in
maintaining a climate conducive to work.
An organizational culture refers to the way the members of the organization think together and do things around
them together. It’s their way of life in that organization
Organizational structure provides information on the channel of authority, (i.e., who reports to whom and with
what authority) the number of people who directly reports to the various levels of hierarchy and the lines of
communication whether line or staff.
Tall organizations are highly centralized organizations where decision making is centered on one authority
level.
Centralized organizations are needs only a few managers hence they are less expensive and easier to manage
Authority is a legitimate or official right to give command. This is an officially sanctioned responsibility
Providing a pair of hands for other units is not a purpose in doing an effective staffing process. This is a
function of a staffing coordinator at a centralized model.
Staff preferences should be the least priority in formulating objectives of nursing care. Individual preferences
should be subordinate to the interest of the patients.
Team management has a high concern for services and high concern for staff.
17
1. Katherine is a young Unit Manager of the Pediatric Ward. Most of her staff nurses are senior to her,
very articulate, confident and sometimes aggressive. Katherine feels uncomfortable believing that she is
the scapegoat of everything that goes wrong in her department. Which of the following is the best action
that she must take?
A. Identify the source of the conflict and understand the points of friction
B. Disregard what she feels and continue to work independently
C. Seek help from the Director of Nursing
D. Quit her job and look for another employment.
2. As a young manager, she knows that conflict occurs in any organization. Which of the following
statements regarding conflict is NOT true?
3. Katherine tells one of the staff, “I don’t have time to discuss the matter with you now. See me in my
office later” when the latter asks if they can talk about an issue. Which of the following conflict resolution
strategies did she use?
A. Smoothing
B. Compromise
C. Avoidance
D. Restriction
18
4. Kathleen knows that one of her staff is experiencing burnout. Which of the following is the best thing
for her to do?
5. She knows that performance appraisal consists of all the following activities EXCEPT:
A. Informing the staff about the specific impressions of their work help improve their performance.
B. A verbal appraisal is an acceptable substitute for a written report
C. Patients are the best source of information regarding personnel appraisal.
D. The outcome of performance appraisal rests primarily with the staff.
7. There are times when Katherine evaluates her staff as she makes her daily rounds. Which of the
following is NOT a benefit of conducting an informal appraisal?
8. She conducts a 6-month performance review session with a staff member. Which of the following
actions is appropriate?
9. Alexandra is tasked to organize the new wing of the hospital. She was given the authority to do as she
deems fit. She is aware that the director of nursing has substantial trust and confidence in her
capabilities, communicates through downward and upward channels and usually uses the ideas and
opinions of her staff. Which of the following is her style of management?
A. Benevolent –authoritative
B. Consultative
C. Exploitive-authoritative
D. Participative
10. She decides to illustrate the organizational structure. Which of the following elements is NOT
included?
A. Level of authority
B. Lines of communication
C. Span of control
D. Unity of direction
11. She plans of assigning competent people to fill the roles designed in the hierarchy. Which process
refers to this?
A. Staffing
B. Scheduling
C. Recruitment
D. Induction
12. She checks the documentary requirements for the applicants for staff nurse position. Which one is
NOT necessary?
13. Which phase of the employment process includes getting on the payroll and completing documentary
requirements?
A. Orientation
B. Induction
C. Selection
D. Recruitment
14. She tries to design an organizational structure that allows communication to flow in all directions and
involve workers in decision making. Which form of organizational structure is this?
A. Centralized
B. Decentralized
C. Matrix
D. Informal
16. She decides to have a decentralized staffing system. Which of the following is an advantage of this
system of staffing?
17. Aubrey thinks about primary nursing as a system to deliver care. Which of the following activities is
NOT done by a primary nurse?
18. Which pattern of nursing care involves the care given by a group of paraprofessional workers led by
a professional nurse who take care of patients with the same disease conditions and are located
geographically near each other?
A. Case method
B. Modular nursing
C. Nursing case management
D. Team nursing
19. St. Raphael Medical Center just opened its new Performance Improvement Department. Ms.
Valencia is appointed as the Quality Control Officer. She commits herself to her new role and plans her
strategies to realize the goals and objectives of the department. Which of the following is a primary task
that they should perform to have an effective control system?
20. Ms. Valencia develops the standards to be followed. Among the following standards, which is
considered as a structure standard?
21. When she presents the nursing procedures to be followed, she refers to what type of standards?
A. Process
B. Outcome
C. Structure
D. Criteria
22. The following are basic steps in the controlling process of the department. Which of the following is
NOT included?
24. She wants to ensure that every task is carried out as planned. Which of the following tasks is NOT
included in the controlling process?
25. Ms. Valencia prepares the process standards. Which of the following is NOT a process standard?
A. Initial assessment shall be done to all patients within twenty four hours upon admission.
B. Informed consent shall be secured prior to any invasive procedure
23
C. Patients’ reports 95% satisfaction rate prior to discharge from the hospital.
D. Patient education about their illness and treatment shall be provided for all patients and their families.
26. Which of the following is evidence that the controlling process is effective?
27. Ms. Valencia is responsible to the number of personnel reporting to her. This principle refers to:
A. Span of control
B. Unity of command
C. Carrot and stick principle
D. Esprit d’ corps
28. She notes that there is an increasing unrest of the staff due to fatiguebrought about by shortage of
staff. Which action is a priority?
29. Kevin is a member of the Nursing Research Council of the hospital. His first assignment is to
determine the level of patient satisfaction on the care they received from the hospital. He plans to include
all adult patients admitted from April to May, with average length of stay of 3-4 days, first admission,
and with no complications. Which of the following is an extraneous variable of the study?
A. Date of admission
B. Length of stay
C. Age of patients
D. Absence of complications
24
30. He thinks of an appropriate theoretical framework. Whose theory addresses the four modes of
adaptation?
A. Martha Rogers
B. Sr. Callista Roy
C. Florence Nightingale
D. Jean Watson
31. He opts to use a self-report method. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about this method?
32. Which of the following articles would Kevin least consider for his review of literature?
33. Which of the following variables will he likely EXCLUDE in his study?
A. Competence of nurses
B. Caring attitude of nurses
C. Salary of nurses
D. Responsiveness of staff
35. He checks if his instruments meet the criteria for evaluation. Which of the following criteria refers to
the consistency or the ability to yield the same response upon its repeated administration?
A. Validity
B. Reliability
C. Sensitivity
D. Objectivity
36. Which criteria refer to the ability of the instrument to detect fine differences among the subjects
being studied?
A. Sensitivity
B. Reliability
C. Validity
D. Objectivity
37. Which of the following terms refer to the degree to which an instrument measures what it is supposed
to be measure?
A. Validity
B. Reliability
C. Meaningfulness
D. Sensitivity
38. He plans for his sampling method. Which sampling method gives equal chance to all units in the
population to get picked?
A. Random
B. Accidental
C. Quota
D. Judgment
39. Raphael is interested to learn more about transcultural nursing because he is assigned at the family
suites where most patients come from different cultures and countries. Which of the following designs is
appropriate for this study?
26
A. Grounded theory
B. Ethnography
C. Case study
D. Phenomenology
A. Dorothea Orem
B. Madeleine Leininger
C. Betty Newman
D. Sr. Callista Roy
27
Here are the answers and rationales for the exam. This exam is out of this world difficult so don’t feel bad if
you got a low score but be sure to read the rationales below. If you need clarifications, direct them to the
comments below.
1. Answer: A. Identify the source of the conflict and understand the points of friction
This involves a problem solving approach, which addresses the root cause of the problem.
3. Answer: C. Avoidance
This strategy shuns discussing the issue head-on and prefers to postpone it to a later time. In effect the problem
remains unsolved and both parties are in a lose-lose situation.
4. Answer: D. Let the staff ventilate her feelings and ask how she can be of help.
Reaching out and helping the staff is the most effective strategy in dealing with burn out. Knowing that
someone is ready to help makes the staff feel important; hence her self-worth is enhanced.
6. Answer: C. Patients are the best source of information regarding personnel appraisal.
The patient can be a source of information about the performance of the staff but it is never the best source.
Directly observing the staff is the best source of information for personnel appraisal.
9. Answer: B. Consultative
A consultative manager is almost like a participative manager. The participative manager has complete trust and
confidence in the subordinate, always uses the opinions and ideas of subordinates and communicates in all
directions.
17. Answer: B. Provides care to a group of patients together with a group of nurses
This function is done in team nursing where the nurse is a member of a team that provides care for a group of
patients.
20. Answer: B. Rotation of duty will be done every four weeks for all patient care personnel.
Structure standards include management system, facilities, equipment, materials needed to deliver care to
patients. Rotation of duty is a management system.
24. Answer: A. Instructing the members of the standards committee to prepare policies
Instructing the members involves a directing function.
25. Answer: C. Patients’ reports 95% satisfaction rate prior to discharge from the hospital.
This refers to an outcome standard, which is a result of the care that is rendered to the patient.
NURSING RESEARCH
2. Reviews of the literature are conducted for PURPOSES OF RESEARCH as well as for the
CONSUMER OF RESEARCH. How are these reviews similar? Select all that apply.
3. What are characteristics of the literature review required for a quantitative research study? Select all
that apply.
A. The review is exhaustive and must include all studies conducted in the area
B. Doctoral dissertations and masters’ theses are excellent sources of information
C. Computer-accessed materials are acceptable
D. Primary sources are not as important as secondary sources
5. What is the best source to use when conducting a level I systematic meta-analysis of the literature?
33
A. An electronic database
B. Doctoral dissertations
C. The Cochrane Statistical Methods
D. An electronic database and Doctoral dissertations
A. Databased literature
B. Secondary Sources
C. Are more difficult to analyze than written reports.
D. Are not useful because they are not published
A. Data analysis
B. Sample
C. Review of literature
D. Study design
8. Which mode of clinical application for qualitative research is considered to be the sharing of
qualitative findings with the patient?
A. Insight or empathy
B. Anticipatory guidance
C. Assessment of status or progress
D. Coaching
9. Which research process steps may be noted in an article’s abstract? Select all that apply.
F. Legal-ethical issues
G. Data-collection procedure
10. What does a level-of-evidence model use to evaluate the strength of a research study and its findings?
Select all that apply.
A. Creativity
B. Quality
C. Quantity
D. Consistency
E. Efficiency
11. What are the critiquing criteria used to judge the worth of a research study? Select all that apply.
A. Measures
B. Objectives
C. Standards
D. Effectiveness
E. Evaluation guides
F. Questions
12. Which statement best describes qualitative research? Select all that apply.
13. What does a critique of a research study always include? Select all that apply.
14. For which of the following research questions would qualitative methods be most appropriate?
A. Which pain medications decrease the need for sleep medication in elderly patients?
B. What is the meaning of health for migrant farm-worker women?
C. Under what conditions does a decubitus ulcer heal most quickly?
D. How does frequency of medication administration impact the degree of painexperienced following knee
replacement surgery?
15. Which of the following phrases would be found in a report of a qualitative study?
16. Which of the following phrases would be found in a report of a quantitative study?
17. Which of the following hypotheses are indicative of an experimental research design? Select all that
apply.
A. Frequent irrigation of Foley catheters will be positively related to urinary tract infections.
B. The incidence of urinary tract infections will be greater in patients whose Foley catheters are irrigated
frequently than in those whose Foley catheters are irrigated less frequently.
C. Frequent irrigation of Foley catheters is associated with urinary tract infections.
D. The incidence of urinary tract infections will not differ between patients with or without Foley catheters.
18. Which statements are part of the criteria used to judge the soundness of a stated research question?
Select all that apply.
36
19. Which criteria are used to determine testability of a hypothesis? Select all that apply.
20. What are the advantages to using directional hypotheses? Select all that apply.
1. Answer: C, D
2. Answer: B, C
3. Answer: B, C
4. Answer: D. A journal article about a study that used large, previously unpublished databases
generated by the United States census
Audio and video recordings of research presentations are examples of databased literature.
Review of literature is the 1st step in the qualitative research process. Data analysis is the sixth step in the
qualitative research process. Sampling is the third step in the qualitative research process. The study design is
the second step in the qualitative research process.
Anticipatory guidance is the sharing of qualitative findings with the patient. Other options are not considered to
be the sharing of qualitative findings with the patient.
9. Answer: A, B, D
10. Answer: B, C, D
11. Answer: A, C, E, F
38
12. Answer: A, D
13. Answer: A, C
14. Answer: B. What is the meaning of health for migrant farm-worker women?
Data collected were perceptions of pain, not numeric data. Other options are found in a report of a quantitative
study.
When a sample of convenience is chosen, the study is a quantitative study. Qualitative studies explore
phenomena. Data collected in qualitative studies are “interpreted.” Qualitative studies explore the meaning of
human experience.
17. Answer: B, D
18. Answer: A, C, D
19. Answer: A, B
Quantifiable words increase the testability of a hypothesis (A). The more clearly the hypothesis is stated, the
easier it will be to accept or reject it based on study findings (B). Hypotheses should not have value-laden words
(C). Data-collection processes are not part of the criterion used to evaluate the testability of hypotheses (D).
20. Answer: A, B
39
NURSING RESEARCH
A. Hypotheses represent the main idea to be studied and are the foundations of research studies.
B. Hypotheses help frame a test of the validity of a theory.
C. Hypotheses provide the means to test nursing theory.
D. A hypothesis can also be called a problem statement.
2. A nurse wants to study the effectiveness of meditation on people with anxiety disorder. Which variable
would be most relevant to explore in the literature on this topic?
6. When should a hypothesis be developed by the researcher during the research process?
A. It is a null hypothesis.
B. It predicts a positive relationship among variables.
C. It is a complex hypothesis.
D. It describes data-analysis methods.
10. Which level is characteristic of the strength of the evidence provided by the results of a quasi-
experimental study?
41
A. Level I
B. Level II
C. Level III
D. Level IV
11. A researcher wants to discover why patients of certain ethnic backgrounds are reluctant to ask
for pain medication. Because there are little data in the literature on this topic, the researcher designs a
study to explore the relationships between cultural belief systems, the experience of pain, and the
effective use of medication to relieve pain. The researcher plans to use the findings of this study to
formulate hypotheses for a future study. What is a characteristic of this study?
A. It is a quasi-experimental study.
B. It will lead to level II data.
C. It has a directional hypothesis.
D. It is a hypothesis-generating study.
12. The nurse develops the following hypothesis: Elderly women receive less aggressive treatment for
breast cancer than do younger women. Which variable would be considered to be the dependent
variable?
13. The nurse develops the following hypothesis: Elderly women receive less aggressive treatment for
breast cancer than do younger women. Which variable would be considered to be the independent
variable?
14. The following are considered steps in the qualitative research process, except?
42
A. Literature review
B. Hypothesis
C. Sample
D. Data collection
15. Which of the following could be considered the “context” of a study? Select all that apply.
16. Which beliefs guide the constructivist paradigm? Select all that apply.
17. Which of the following are consistent with the constructivist paradigm? Select all that apply.
A. Subjectivism is valued.
B. Natural laws exist.
C. Time and place are important.
D. Generalizability is valued.
A. Qualitative research
B. Ethnographic research
C. Quantitative research
D. Case studies
20. Which type of research study can be affected by detracting values of the researcher?
A. Qualitative
B. Naturalistic
C. Ethnographic
D. Quantitative
44
Although theories cannot be tested directly, hypotheses provide a bridge between theory and the real world. It is
the research question that represents the main idea to be studied (A). Theories cannot be tested directly (C). The
research question is also called the problem statement (D).
The independent variable is manipulated by the researcher and has a presumed effect on the dependent variable.
It is the dependent variable that is predicted to change (A). The independent variable is presumed to change the
dependent variable (B). The independent variable is manipulated by the researcher and is identified at the
beginning of the study (D).
Hypotheses are statements about the relationships between two or more variables that suggest an answer to the
research question. Hypotheses are not concerned with operationally defining the variables involved in the study
(A). The independent variable is not affected or changed by the dependent variable (C). Hypotheses are not
concerned with operationally defining the variables involved in the study, including treatments or interventions
(D).
A hypothesis implies a causative or associative relationship. A hypothesis guides the research design and
collection of data (A). Operational definitions are not included in the hypothesis (B). The hypothesis indicates
the dependent variable (C).
7. Answer: D. The ability to meditate causes lower anxiety in patients with anxiety disorder than those
who do not meditate.
Statistical hypotheses, called null hypotheses, state that there is no relationship between the independent and
dependent variables.
Because the null hypothesis states that there is no relationship between the independent and dependent
variables, it is rejected if they are related.
Evidence provided by quasi-experimental studies is level III. Level I evidence is obtained from a systematic
review of all randomized, controlled trials. Level II evidence is obtained from at least one well-designed
randomized, controlled trial. Level IV evidence is obtained from nonexperimental studies.
Not enough is known in this area at this time to formulate hypotheses, so the researcher will conduct this
qualitative study and use the findings to generate hypotheses for future studies. This is a qualitative study, not a
quasi-experimental study. Level II evidence is obtained from at least one well-designed randomized, controlled
trial. This study has no hypothesis.
A hypothesis is the tool of quantitative studies, and is only found in such studies.
15. Answer: A, B
16. Answer: A, D
17. Answer: A, C
The paradigm that provides the basis for qualitative research is constructivism.
In qualitative research, researchers are never considered neutral (A). In ethnography, a type of qualitative
research, researchers are never considered neutral (B). In case studies, a type of qualitative research, researchers
are never considered neutral (D).
The values of the researcher must be acknowledged in qualitative research (A). The values of the researcher
must be acknowledged in naturalistic research (B). The values of the researcher must be acknowledged in
qualitative research (C).
47
NURSING RESEARCH
3. Which conceptual analysis point of the framework for rigor used for interpretive phenomenology
refers to how the study findings will continue to have meaning for the reader?
A. Resonance
B. Concreteness
C. Actualization
D. Openness
A. Is the strategy used for analysis compatible with the purpose of the study?
B. What is the projected significance of the work to nursing?
C. Are the informants who were chosen appropriate to inform the research?
D. What are the philosophic underpinnings of the research method?
A. Is the strategy used for analysis compatible with the purpose of the study?
B. What is the projected significance of the work to nursing?
48
C. Are the informants who were chosen appropriate to inform the research?
D. What are the philosophic underpinnings of the research method?
A. Is the strategy used for analysis compatible with the purpose of the study?
B. What is the projected significance of the work to nursing?
C. Are the informants who were chosen appropriate to inform the research?
D. What are the philosophic underpinnings of the research method?
A. Is the strategy used for analysis compatible with the purpose of the study?
B. Does the researcher document the research process?
C. Are the researcher’s conceptualizations true to the data?
D. Has adequate time been allowed to understand fully the phenomenon?
A. Is the strategy used for analysis compatible with the purpose of the study?
B. Does the researcher document the research process?
C. Are the researcher’s conceptualizations true to the data?
D. Has adequate time been allowed to fully understand the phenomenon?
A. Is the strategy used for analysis compatible with the purpose of the study?
B. Does the researcher document the research process?
C. Are the researcher’s conceptualizations true to the data?
D. Has adequate time been allowed to fully understand the phenomenon?
10. What are the uses of qualitative research methods? Select all that apply.
11. What are scientific criteria appropriate for qualitative research? Select all that apply.
A. Auditability
B. Credibility
C. Fittingness
D. Reliability
12. What are ethical concerns for qualitative researchers? Select all that apply.
A. Because the study emerges over time, the researcher may not anticipate and inform the participants of a
potential threat.
B. To maintain a naturalistic environment for interviews, formal documents such as consent forms are not used.
C. Because there are so few participants in a qualitative study, no participant can opt out of the study.
D. Because the researcher and participant interact over a period of time, relationships developed between them
may change the focus of the interaction
13. Which of the following is most accurate regarding the grounded-theory method?
14. What is the term used for the coding and clustering of data to form categories in the grounded-theory
method?
A. Theoretical sampling
B. Constant-comparative method
C. Emic method
D. Metasynthesis
18. How can qualitative outcome analysis be used? Select all that apply.
19. When critiquing a qualitative study, which of the following questions are helpful in determining the
study’s auditability? Select all that apply.
The grounded theory method refers to a qualitative approach of building theory about a phenomenon about
which little is known.
2. Answer: B. The research method that best meets intended purpose of the study should be used.
Different research methods accomplish different goals and offer different types and levels of evidence that
inform practice.
3. Answer: C. Actualization
4. Answer: C. Are the informants who were chosen appropriate to inform the research?
5. Answer: A. Is the strategy used for analysis compatible with the purpose of the study?
7. Answer: D. Has adequate time been allowed to understand fully the phenomenon?
9. Answer: A. Is the strategy used for analysis compatible with the purpose of the study?
10. Answer: A, C, D
11. Answer: A, B, C
12. Answer: A, D
Data are collected using the emic perspective (A). The grounded-theory method is a process of constructing
theory from human experience (B). In grounded-theory only primary sources (the participants) are used (C).
Credibility is the truth of findings as judged by the participants (A). Auditability assists the reader to judge the
appropriateness of the interview questions posed (B). Auditability assists the reader to judge the adequacy of the
coding system used (D).
18. Answer: B, C, D
19. Answer: B, C
NURSING RESEARCH
A. dependent variable.
B. extraneous variable.
C. independent variable.
D. confounding variable.
A. 2
B. 1
C. 3
D. 4
A. 4
B. 2
55
C. 0.05
D. 1
A. standard deviation
B. kurtosis
C. skewness
D. mode
A. the left of the median and the median usually lies to the left
of the mode.
B. the right of the median and the median usually lies to the
right of the mode.
A. skewness
B. Range
C. Z-score
D. mode
A. -1 to +1
B. 0 and 1.
C. -3 to + 3
D. 0.05 to 0.01
A. Histogram
B. Frequency polygon
C. Frequency curve
D. Scatter plot
A. 0.01 to 0.05
B. 0 to 1
C. -1 to +1
D. -3 to +3
A. t-statistic
B. correlation coefficient
C. variance
D. chi-squire statistic
A. is positively skewed
B. is negatively skewed
D. is left-skewed
58
A. Relationships
B. Analysis
C. Variables
D. Hypothesis
A. Observer bias
B. Observer effect
C. participant observation
D. Representative sampling
A. Sample
B. Experiment group
C. Sample
D. Controls
59
B. Perceiving a question.
C. Drawing conclusion.
D. Testing hypothesis.
Answer Key
1. C 2. A 3. A 4. D 5. B
6. A 7. A 8. C 9. B 10. A
11. C 12. D 13. C 14. D 15. A
16. A 17. D 18. B 19. C 20. B
60
NURSING RESEARCH
A. polygon
B. histogram
C. normal curve
D. line graph
A. polygon
B. histogram
C. normal curve
D. distribution
B. Sample size
D. Standard deviation
61
A. 0-2
B. 0.5
C. 0.8
D. 1.0
A. Eta-squared
B. Correlation coefficient
C. Standard Error
D. Chi-squire value
A. Repeated-measures ANOVA
B. Friedman test
C. Paired t-test
A. Validity
B. reliability
C. Internal consistency
D. Effect size
A. Reliability
B. Sample size
C. Internal consistency
D. Predictive validity
A. ANOVA
B. T-test
63
C. Correlation analysis
D. Chi-squire test
A. Mann-Whitney U test
C. Kruskal-Wallis test
D. Friedman's test
A. Difference in proportions
1. C 2. B 3.D 4. D 5. C
6. A 7. C 8. D 9. A 10. D
11. B 12. A 13.C 14. A 15. D
64
NURSING RESEARCH
A. Validity
B. Reliability
C. Sensitivity
D. Objectivity
A. Stability
B. Internal consistency
C. Efficiency
D. Equivalence
A. Internal consistency
B. Validity
C. Stability
D. Sensitivity
A. Interrater reliability
B. Internal consistency
C. Crombach's alpha
D. Test-retest reliability
65
A. Test-retest reliability
B. Internal consistency
C. Equivalence
D. Validity
A. Validity
B. Internal consistency
C. Sensitivity
D. Equivalence
A. Predictive validity
B. Content validity
C. Concurrent validity
D. Construct validity
E. Homogenous validity
A. Predictive validity
B. Cocurrent validity
C. Content validity
D. Construct validity
66
A. Internal consistency
B. Interrater reliability
C. Construct validity
D. Content validity
A. Known-group technique
B. Factor analysis
C. MTMM
D. Crombach's alpha
A. Likert scale
C. Checklists
D. Thurstone scale
Answer Key
NURSING RESEARCH
1. A sampling process where each element of the population that is sampled is subjected to
an independent Bernoulli trial which determines whether the element becomes part of the sample
during the drawing of a single sample:
C. Poisson sampling
D. Multistage Sampling
2. Data collection about everyone or everything in group or population and has the advantage of
accuracy and detail:
A. Census
B. Survey
C. Probability sampling
D. Cluster sampling
4. A sampling method which involves a random start and then proceeds with the selection of every
kth element from then onwards (where k= population size/sample size):
C. Systematic sampling
D. Snowball sampling
B. Method of sampling
A. Test statistic
B. Standard error
C. Confidence interval
D. Test of signaifiance
7. Sampling bias or the error resulting from taking a non-random sample of a population include:
A. Pre-screening
B. Self-Selection Bias
D. Exclusion bias
1. C 2. A 3. A, B, C, D, E 4. C 5. D
6. B 7. E
70
NURSING RESEARCH
A. Directional hypothesis=
B. Non-directional hypothesis
C. Statistical hypothesis
D. Null hypothesis
B. Power analysis
C. Deductive Reasoning
B. Effect Size
C. Power of a test (1 − β)
D. z = (xbar - µ) / (σ / √n)
71
A. .001
B. 1.96
C. 2.58
D. 3.29
1. A 2. B 3. D 4. C 5. A
6. E 7. B
72
NURSING RESEARCH
B. Panel study
C. Prospective study
D. Retrospective study
A. Randomization
B. Manipulation
C. Research control
D.
A. Crossover design
A. Deductive Reasoning
B. Delimitation
C. Manipulation
D. Meta-analysis
74
A n s w e r K e y copyright@ currentnursing.com
1. D 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. D
6. A 7. C
75
NURSING THEORIES
A. Virginia Henderson
B. Betty Neuman
C. Imogene King
D. Dorothea Orem
A. Imogene King
B. Virginia Henderson’s
C. Faye G.Abedellah
D. Lydia E. Hall
A. Hildegard Peplau
B. Jean watson
D. M. Rogers
76
A. Focal Stimuli
B. Cognator Subsystem
C. Role function
A. Regulator Subsystem
B. Cognator Subsystem
C. Physiologic Mode
A. Rogers (1970)
C. Nightingale (1860)
D. Neuman (1972)
A. Need theories
B. Interaction theories
C. Outcome theories
D. Humanistic theories
D. Neuman's model
A. Joyce Travelbee
C. Madeleine Leininger
A. Reconstitution
B. Lines of resistance
78
C. Primary prevention
D. Secondary Prevention
A. Affiliation
B. Dependency
C. Achievement
D. Energy fields
A. Pattern
B. Integrality
C. Resonancy
D. Helicy
B. Instilling faith-hope
1. D 2. C 3. C 4. A 5.B
6.D 7.B 8. A 9. B 10. D
11. C 12.A 13. D 14. B 15. D
79
NURSING THEORIES
A. Propositions
B. Assumptions
C. Predictions
D. Process
A. Dependency subsystem
C. Achievement subsystem
D. Aggressive subsystem
A. Perceived Susceptibility
B. Perceived severity
C. Perceived benefits
D. Perceived interaction
80
A. Orientation
B. Identification
C. Restoration
D. Exploitation
A. Lydia Hall
C. Betty Neuman
D. Hildegard Peplau
A. Patricia Benner
C. Lydia Hall
D. Jean Watson
81
B. Jean Watson
C. Dorothea Orem
D. Florence Nightingale
B. Environment
C. Health
D. Nursing
ANSWER KEY
1. D 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. C
6. B 7. C 8. D 9. B 10. B
82
NURSING THEORIES
1. Which of the following nursing theory is based on the general systems framework?
A. Pattern
B. Rhythmicity
C. Dependency
D. Open system
3. According to Roy's Adaptation Model, the adaptive modes includes all the following, EXCEPT:
A. Physiologic Needs
B. Self Concept
C. Role Function
D. Interdependence
E. Achievement
5. Which of the following in NOT a concept related to personal system in Imogene King's Theory?
A. Perception
B. Self
C. Body image
D. Organization
83
6. Which nursing theory states that 'nursing is the interpersonal process of action, reaction, interaction and transaction"?
7. All the following are concepts related to Levin's Conservation Principles, EXCEPT:
A. Historicity
B. Specificity
C. Helicy
D. Redundancy
8. Which of the following is an organismic response as per Levin's Four Conservation Principles?
A. Flight or fight
B. Adaptation
C. Communication
D. Transaction
9. When applying Roy's Adaptation Model in caring a patient, the type of stimuli which needs to be assessed as per are all the
following, EXCEPT;
A. Focal Stimulus
B. Contextual Stimulus
C. Perceptual Stimulua
D. Residual Stimulus
10. Who described about 5 levels of nursing experience from novice to expert?
A. Patricia E. Benner
B. Ernestine Wiedenbach
ANSWER KEY
1.D 2. D 3. E 4. B 5. D
6. C 7. C 8.A 9. C 10. A
B. self concept
C. learning
D. judgment
E. emotion
3. Each subsystem in Johnson's Behavioural System model is composed of four structural characteristics, except:
A. Drives
B. Set
C. Choices
D. Observable behavior
E. Demands
4. "The practice of activities that individual initiates and perform on their own behalf in maintaining life, health and well being" is:
B. Self care
D. Nursing systems
85
5. Category of self care requisites according to Orem's theory of nursing includes all, except:
A. Universal
B. Developmental
C. Health deviation
D. Fundamental
6.
Nursing is “an external regulatory force which acts to preserve the organization and integration of the patients behaviors at an
optimum level under those conditions in which the behaviors constitutes a threat to the physical or social health, or in which
illness is found”
A. Orem
B. Neuman
C. Imogene King
D. Johnson
E. Rogers
7.
"The unique function of the nurse is to assist the individual, sick or well, in the performance of those activities contributing to
health or its recovery (or to peaceful death) that he would perform unaided if he had the necessary strength, will or knowledge. And
to do this in such a way as to help him gain independence as rapidly as possible"
A. Nightingale
B. Neuman
C. Imogene King
D. Henderson
E. Rogers
8. Which level of needs in Maslow’s hierarchy includes love, friendship, intimacy, and family?
A. Self-actualization
B. Esteem
C. Belongingness
86
D. Safety
E. Physiological
A. Conceptual model
B. Hypothesis
C. Proposition
D. Construct
ANSWER KEY
1. C 2. B 3. E 4.B 5. D.
6. D 7. D 8. C 9. C 10. A
87
NURSING
1. “Each human being perceives the world as a total person in making transactions with individuals and things in environment”.
B. Nightingale's theory
A. Virginia Henderson
B. Betty Neuman
C. Imogene King
D. Dorothea Orem
E. Florence Nightingale
4. A system of nursing care in which patients are placed in units on the basis of their needs for care as determined by the degree of
illness rather than on the basis of a medical specialty is:
A. Primary nursing
B. Team nursing
D. Case method
5. Which of the following terms refers to the branch of philosophy that deals withquestions concerning the nature, scope, and
sources of knowledge?
A. Epistemology
88
B. Epidemiology
C. Metaphysics
D. Ontology
E. Etymology
6. A theory of knowledge emphasizing the role of experience, especially experience based on perceptual observations by
the senses is:
A. Constructivism
B. Empiricism
C. Rationalism
D. Infinitism
B. Theory of knowledge
C. Moral philosophy
8. According to Peplau's interpersonal model, during which phase of nursing process, the patient participates in goal setting and
has a feeling of belonging and selectively responds to those who can meet his or her needs?
A. Orientation
B. Identification
C. Exploitation
D. Resolution
A. Hildegard Peplau
B. Dorothea Orem
D. Patricia Benner
89
B. "Environment could be altered to improve conditions so that the natural laws would allow healing to occur".
C. The goal of nursing is “to put the patient in the best condition for nature to act upon him”.
D. "Human beings are open systems in constant interaction with the environment ".
ANSWER KEY
1. D 2. E 3. A 4. C 5. A
6. B 7. D 8. B 9. C 10. D
90
NURSING THEORIES
1. Which nursing theorist defines environment as "the totality of the internal and external forces which surround a person and with
which they interact at any given time"?
A. Dorothy Johnson
B. Martha Rogers
C. Dorothea Orem
D. Imogene King
E. Betty Neuman
A. Joyce Travelbee
C. Madeleine Leininger
A. Madeleine Leininger
B. Florence Nightingale
C. Hildegard Peplau
A. Hildegard Peplau
B. John Bowlby
C. Sigmond Frued
D. Kurt Lewin
A. Lydia E. Hall
B. Neuman
C. D. Orem
91
D. Rosemary Parse
A. Helicy
B. Meaning
C. Rhythmicity
D. Cotranscendence
A. B. F. Skinner
B. Patricia Benner
C. Callista Roy
D. Leon Festinger
8. A paradigm refers to
A. A model that explains the linkages of science, philosophy, and theory accepted and applied by the discipline
9. According to Behavour System Model, “predisposition to act with reference to the goal, in certain ways rather than the other
ways” refers to
A. Drive
B. Goal
C. Set
D. Scope of action
10. The study of feedback and derived concepts such as communication and control in living organisms, machines and
organisations is termed as:
A. Cybernetics
B. Ontology
C. Epistemology
92
D. Philosophy
ANSWER KEY
1. E 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. D
6. A 7. B 8. A 9. C 10. A
93
NURSING THEORIES
1. General Systems Theory was first proposed by:
B. Kurt Lewin
C. Melanie Klein
D. Margaret Mahler
A. Abraham Maslaw
B. Jean Piaget
C. Erik Erikson
D. Melanie Klein
A. Phallic stage
B. Pleasure principle
C. Oedipus complex
5. The term used to describe the understanding of beliefs, desires, motivations, and emotions as mental states that are ascribed to
one’s self and others: (Tasman 3rd, P 139; 2008)
A. Theory of mind
B. Attribution theory
C. Self-verification theory
94
C. Interpersonal model
7. Which theory explains how exposure to trauma that is impossible to avoid may lead to apathy, passivity, and a conviction that
escaping future traumatic events is also impossible?
A. Attribution theory
8. Nursing is defined as “action which assist individuals, families and groups to maintain a maximum level of wellness, and the
primary aim is stability of the patient/client system, through nursing interventions to reduce stressors.’’
A. Orem
B. Peplau
C. Neuman
D. Rogers
9. According to Piaget, the term used to describe the awareness that objects continue to exist even when they are no longer visible:
A. Oedipal complex
B. Object permanence
C. Theory of mind
D. Inferior complex
A. Sensory-motor stage
95
B. Preoperational stage
ANSWER KEY
1. A 2. D 3. D 4. E 5. A
6. B 7. D 8. C 9. B 10. A
96
NURSING THEORIES
1. A theory that has accrued such persuassive empirical support that is accepted as truth:
A. Rule
B. Model
C. Law
D. Framework
2. A broad theory aimed at describing large segments of the physical, social or behavioural world:
A. Grand theory
B. Middle-range theory
C. Utility theory
D. Philosophy
3. Health is a word symbol that implies forward movement of personality and other ongoing human
processes in the direction of creative, constructive, productive, personal and community living.
A. Peplau's theory
D. McGill Model
4. "A homeostatic body system is constantly in a dynamic process of input, output, feedback, and
compensation, which leads to a state of balance."
A. Peplau
B. Neuman
C. Rogers
97
D. Henderson
A. Inductive reasoning
B. Deductive reasoning
C. Critical thinking
D. Synectics
A. Axiology
B. Epistemology
C. Methodology
D. Ontology
ANSWER KEY
1. C 2. A 3. A 4. B 5. B
6. D
98
PNLE EXAM 1
1. A woman in a child bearing age receives a rubella vaccination. Nurse Joy would give her which of the
following instructions?
A. WBC count
B. Urinalysis
C. ELISA
D. Peripheral blood smear
7. The Nurse supervisor is planning for patient’s assignment for the AM shift. The nurse supervisor avoids
assigning which of the following staff members to a client with herpes zoster?
A. At once
B. During 2nd trimester
C. During 3rd trimester
D. After the delivery of the baby
9. A female child with rubella should be isolated from a:
A. Nutrition
B. Vitamins
C. BCG vaccination
D. DPT vaccination
11. A bacteria which causes diphtheria is also known as?
A. Amoeba
B. Cholera
C. Klebs-loeffler bacillus
D. Spirochete
12. Nurse Ron performed mantoux skin test today (Monday) to a male adult client. Which statement by the
client indicates that he understood the instruction well?
A. Negative
B. Uncertain and needs to be repeated
C. Positive
D. Inconclusive
14. Tony will start a 6 month therapy with Isoniazid (INH). Nurse Trish plans to teach the client to:
A. Sore eyes
100
B. Sore throat
C. Chancroid
D. Chancre
16. What is the fast breathing of Jana who is 3 weeks old?
A. Drinks eagerly
B. Restless and irritable
C. Unconscious
D. A and B
18. What is the first line for dysentery?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Tetracycline
C. Cefalexin
D. Cotrimoxazole
19. In home made oresol, what is the ratio of salt and sugar if you want to prepare with 1 liter of water?
A. Wound
B. Umbilical infections
C. Ear infections
D. Burn
21. Which of the following is a live attenuated bacterial vaccine?
A. BCG
B. OPV
C. Measles
D. None of the above
22. EPI is based on?
A. 100
B. 99
101
C. 80
D. 90
24. Temperature of refrigerator to maintain potency of measles and OPV vaccine is:
A. -3c to -8c
B. -15c to -25c
C. +15c to +25c
D. +3c to +8c
25. Diptheria is a:
A. Bacterial toxin
B. Killed bacteria
C. Live attenuated
D. Plasma derivatives
26. Budgeting is under in which part of management process?
A. Directing
B. Controlling
C. Organizing
D. Planning
27. Time table showing planned work days and shifts of nursing personnel is:
A. Staffing
B. Schedule
C. Scheduling
D. Planning
28. A force within an individual that influences the strength of behavior?
A. Motivation
B. Envy
C. Reward
D. Self-esteem
29. “To be the leading hospital in the Philippines” is best illustrate in:
A. Mission
B. Philosophy
C. Vision
D. Objective
30. It is the professionally desired norms against which a staff performance will be compared?
A. Job descriptions
B. Survey
C. Flow chart
D. Standards
31. Reprimanding a staff nurse for work that is done incorrectly is an example of what type of reinforcement?
A. Feedback
B. Positive reinforcement
C. Performance appraisal
102
D. Negative reinforcement
32. Questions that are answerable only by choosing an option from a set of given alternatives are known as?
A. Survey
B. Close ended
C. Questionnaire
D. Demographic
33. A researcher that makes a generalization based on observations of an individuals behavior is said to be
which type of reasoning:
A. Inductive
B. Logical
C. Illogical
D. Deductive
34. The balance of a research’s benefit vs. its risks to the subject is:
A. Analysis
B. Risk-benefit ratio
C. Percentile
D. Maximum risk
35. An individual/object that belongs to a general population is a/an:
A. Element
B. Subject
C. Respondent
D. Author
36. An illustration that shows how the members of an organization are connected:
A. Flowchart
B. Bar graph
C. Organizational chart
D. Line graph
37. The first college of nursing that was established in the Philippines is:
A. Fatima University
B. Far Eastern University
C. University of the East
D. University of Sto. Tomas
38. Florence nightingale is born on:
A. France
B. Britain
C. U.S
D. Italy
39. Objective data is also called:
A. Covert
B. Overt
C. Inference
103
D. Evaluation
40. An example of subjective data is:
A. Size of wounds
B. VS
C. Lethargy
D. The statement of patient “My hand is painful”
41. What is the best position in palpating the breast?
A. Trendelenburg
B. Side lying
C. Supine
D. Lithotomy
42. When is the best time in performing breast self examination?
A. Semi fowlers
B. Low fowlers
C. Side lying, unaffected side
D. Side lying, affected side
46. The degree of patients abdominal distension may be determined by:
A. Auscultation
B. Palpation
C. Inspection
D. Percussion
47. A male client is addicted with hallucinogen. Which physiologic effect should the nurse expect?
A. Bradyprea
B. Bradycardia
C. Constricted pupils
104
D. Dilated pupils
48. Tristan a 4 year old boy has suffered from full thickness burns of the face, chest and neck. What will be the
priority nursing diagnosis?
A. Greenish discharge
B. Brown exudates at incision edges
C. Pallor around sutures
D. Redness and warmth
50. Nurse Ronald is aware that the amiotic fluid in the third trimester weighs approximately:
A. 2 kilograms
B. 1 kilograms
C. 100 grams
D. 1.5 kilograms
51. After delivery of a baby girl. Nurse Gina examines the umbilical cord and expects to find a cord to:
A. November 4
B. November 11
C. April 4
D. April 18
53. Which of the following is not a good source of iron?
A. Butter
B. Pechay
C. Grains
D. Beef
54. Maureen is admitted with a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following would you anticipate?
A. NPO
B. Bed rest
C. Immediate surgery
D. Enema
55. Gina a postpartum client is diagnosed with endometritis. Which position would you expect to place her
based on this diagnosis?
A. Supine
B. Left side lying
105
C. Trendelinburg
D. Semi-fowlers
56. Nurse Hazel knows that Myrna understands her condition well when she remarks that urinary frequency is
caused by:
A. 100
B. 500
C. 200
D. 400
58. Which of the following hormones stimulates the secretion of milk?
A. Progesterone
B. Prolactin
C. Oxytocin
D. Estrogen
59. Nurse Carla is aware that Myla’s second stage of labor is beginning when the following assessment is noted:
A. Pink
B. Violet
C. Green
D. Blue
61. After amniotomy, the priority nursing action is:
A. Perineal lacerations
B. Frequent internal examination (IE)
C. CS
D. Uterine atomy
63. On 2nd postpartum day, which height would you expect to find the fundus in a woman who has had a
caesarian birth?
A. 1 finger above umbilicus
106
A. Measles
B. OPV
C. BCG
D. Tetanus toxoid
66. Asin law is on which legal basis:
A. RA 8860
B. RA 2777
C. RI 8172
D. RR 6610
67. Nurse John is aware that the herbal medicine appropriate for urolithiasis is:
A. Akapulco
B. Sambong
C. Tsaang gubat
D. Bayabas
68. Community/Public health bag is defined as:
A. An essential and indispensable equipment of the community health nurse during home visit
B. It contains drugs and equipment used by the community health nurse
C. Is a requirement in the health center and for home visit
D. It is a tool used by the community health nurse in rendering effective procedures during home visit
69. TT4 provides how many percentage of protection against tetanus?
A. 70
B. 80
C. 90
D. 99
70. Third postpartum visit must be done by public health nurse:
A. Pills
107
B. Tubal ligation
C. Lactational Amenorrhea method (LAM)
D. IUD
72. Which of the following is not a part of IMCI case management process
A. After 2 days
B. In the afternoon
C. After 4 days
D. After 5 days
74. It is the certification recognition program that develop and promotes standard for health facilities:
A. Formula
B. Tutok gamutan
C. Sentrong program movement
D. Sentrong sigla movement
75. Baby Marie was born May 23, 1984. Nurse John will expect finger thumb opposition on:
A. April 1985
B. February 1985
C. March 1985
D. June 1985
76. Baby Reese is a 12 month old child. Nurse Oliver would anticipate how many teeth?
A. 9
B. 7
C. 8
D. 6
77. Which of the following is the primary antidote for Tylenol poisoning?
A. Narcan
B. Digoxin
C. Acetylcysteine
D. Flumazenil
78. A male child has an intelligence quotient of approximately 40. Which kind of environment and
interdisciplinary program most likely to benefit this child would be best described as:
A. Habit training
B. Sheltered workshop
C. Custodial
D. Educational
79. Nurse Judy is aware that following condition would reflect presence of congenital G.I anomaly?
A. Cord prolapse
108
B. Polyhydramios
C. Placenta previa
D. Oligohydramios
80. Nurse Christine provides health teaching for the parents of a child diagnosed with celiac disease. Nurse
Christine teaches the parents to include which of the following food items in the child’s diet:
A. Rye toast
B. Oatmeal
C. White bread
D. Rice
81. Nurse Randy is planning to administer oral medication to a 3 year old child. Nurse Randy is aware that the
best way to proceed is by:
A. 6 years
B. 7 years
C. 5 years
D. 8 years
83. Ribivarin (Virazole) is prescribed for a female hospitalized child with RSV. Nurse Judy prepare this
medication via which route?
A. Intra venous
B. Oral
C. Oxygen tent
D. Subcutaneous
84. The present chairman of the Board of Nursing in the Philippines is:
A. BON
B. ANSAP
C. PNA
D. RN
86. A male nurse was found guilty of negligence. His license was revoked. Re-issuance of revoked certificates
is after how many years?
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 4 years
109
87. Which of the following information cannot be seen in the PRC identification card?
A. Registration Date
B. License Number
C. Date of Application
D. Signature of PRC chairperson
88. Breastfeeding is being enforced by milk code or:
A. EO 51
B. R.A. 7600
C. R.A. 6700
D. P.D. 996
89. Self governance, ability to choose or carry out decision without undue pressure or coercion from anyone:
A. Veracity
B. Autonomy
C. Fidelity
D. Beneficence
90. A male patient complained because his scheduled surgery was cancelled because of earthquake. The
hospital personnel may be excused because of:
A. Governance
B. Respondent superior
C. Force majeure
D. Res ipsa loquitor
91. Being on time, meeting deadlines and completing all scheduled duties is what virtue?
A. Fidelity
B. Autonomy
C. Veracity
D. Confidentiality
92. This quality is being demonstrated by Nurse Ron who raises the side rails of a confused and disoriented
patient?
A. Responsibility
B. Resourcefulness
C. Autonomy
D. Prudence
93. Which of the following is formal continuing education?
A. Conference
B. Enrollment in graduate school
C. Refresher course
D. Seminar
94. The BSN curriculum prepares the graduates to become?
A. Nurse generalist
B. Nurse specialist
C. Primary health nurse
110
D. Clinical instructor
95. Disposal of medical records in government hospital/institutions must be done in close coordination with
what agency?
A. Department of Health
B. Records Management Archives Office
C. Metro Manila Development Authority
D. Bureau of Internal Revenue
96. Nurse Jolina must see to it that the written consent of mentally ill patients must be taken from:
A. Nurse
B. Priest
C. Family lawyer
D. Parents/legal guardians
97. When Nurse Clarence respects the client’s self-disclosure, this is a gauge for the nurses’
A. Respectfulness
B. Loyalty
C. Trustworthiness
D. Professionalism
98. The Nurse is aware that the following tasks can be safely delegated by the nurse to a non-nurse health
worker except:
A. Do not resuscitate
B. Assist client to perform ADL
C. Encourage to exercise
D. Assist client towards a peaceful death
101. The Nurse is aware that the ability to enter into the life of another person and perceive his current feelings
and their meaning is known:
A. Belongingness
B. Genuineness
C. Empathy
D. Respect
102. The termination phase of the NPR is best described one of the following:
111
A. Haloperidol (Haldol)
B. Imipramine (Tofranil)
C. Benztropine (Cogentin)
D. Diazepam (Valium)
104. The nurse is aware that cocaine is classified as:
A. Hallucinogen
B. Psycho stimulant
C. Anxiolytic
D. Narcotic
105. In community health nursing, it is the most important risk factor in the development of mental illness?
A. Separation of parents
B. Political problems
C. Poverty
D. Sexual abuse
106. All of the following are characteristics of crisis except
A. The client may become resistive and active in stopping the crisis
B. It is self-limiting for 4-6 weeks
C. It is unique in every individual
D. It may also affect the family of the client
107. Freud states that temper tantrums is observed in which of the following:
A. Oral
B. Anal
C. Phallic
D. Latency
108. The nurse is aware that ego development begins during:
A. Toddler period
B. Preschool age
C. School age
D. Infancy
109. Situation: A 19 year old nursing student has lost 36 lbs for 4 weeks. Her parents brought her to the hospital
for medical evaluation. The diagnosis was ANOREXIA NERVOSA. The Primary gain of a client with anorexia
nervosa is:
A. Weight loss
B. Weight gain
C. Reduce anxiety
D. Attractive appearance
110. The nurse is aware that the primary nursing diagnosis for the client is:
112
A. She tells the nurse that she had no idea that she is thin
B. She arrives earlier than scheduled time of group therapy
C. She tells the nurse that she eat 3 times or more in a day
D. She gained 4 lbs in two weeks
112. The nurse is aware that ataractics or psychic energizers are also known as:
A. Anti manic
B. Anti depressants
C. Antipsychotics
D. Anti anxiety
113. Known as mood elevators:
A. Anti depressants
B. Antipsychotics
C. Anti manic
D. Anti anxiety
114. The priority of care for a client with Alzheimer’s disease is
A. Infancy
B. 3 years old
C. 5 years old
D. School age
116. The common characteristic of autism child is:
A. Impulsitivity
B. Self destructiveness
C. Hostility
D. Withdrawal
117. The nurse is aware that the most common indication in using ECT is:
A. Schizophrenia
B. Bipolar
C. Anorexia Nervosa
D. Depression
118. A therapy that focuses on here and now principle to promote self-acceptance?
A. Gestalt therapy
113
B. Cognitive therapy
C. Behavior therapy
D. Personality therapy
119. A client has many irrational thoughts. The goal of therapy is to change her:
A. Personality
B. Communication
C. Behavior
D. Cognition
120. The appropriate nutrition for Bipolar I disorder, in manic phase is:
A. Chess
B. Basketball
C. Swimming
D. Finger painting
122. The nurse is aware that clients with severe depression, possess which defense mechanism:
A. Introjection
B. Suppression
C. Repression
D. Projection
123. Nurse John is aware that self mutilation among Bipolar disorder patients is a means of:
A. Water
B. Orange juice
C. Coffee
D. Mango juice
125. In caring for clients with renal calculi, which is the priority nursing intervention?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Elevated creatinine
D. Decreased hemoglobin
128. Tony with infection is receiving antibiotic therapy. Later the client complaints of ringing in the ears. This
ototoxicity is damage to:
A. 4th CN
B. 8th CN
C. 7th CN
D. 9th CN
129. Nurse Emma provides teaching to a patient with recurrent urinary tract infection includes the following:
A. Prednisone (Deltasone)
B. Colchicines
C. Aspirin
D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
132. Information in the patients chart is inadmissible in court as evidence when:
A. Planning
B. Implementation
C. Diagnosing
D. Evaluation
134. When examining a client with abdominal pain, Nurse Hazel should assess:
115
A. 3 minutes
B. 1 minute
C. 8 minutes
D. 15 minutes
136. The one filing the criminal care against an accused party is said to be the?
A. Guilty
B. Accused
C. Plaintiff
D. Witness
137. A male client has a standing DNR order. He then suddenly stopped breathing and you are at his bedside.
You would:
A. 1994
B. 1992
C. 2000
D. 2001
139. When is the first certification of nursing informatics given?
A. 1990-1993
B. 2001-2002
C. 1994-1996
D. 2005-2008
140. The nurse is assessing a female client with possible diagnosis of osteoarthritis. The most significant risk
factor for osteoarthritis is:
A. Obesity
B. Race
C. Job
D. Age
141. A male client complains of vertigo. Nurse Bea anticipates that the client may have a problem with which
portion of the ear?
A. Tymphanic membranes
B. Inner ear
C. Auricle
116
D. External ear
142. When performing Weber’s test, Nurse Rosean expects that this client will hear
A. On unaffected side
B. Longer through bone than air conduction
C. On affected side by bone conduction
D. By neither bone or air conduction
143. Toy with a tentative diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is admitted for diagnostic make up. Myasthenia gravis
can confirmed by:
A. Kernigs sign
B. Brudzinski’s sign
C. A positive sweat chloride test
D. A positive edrophonium (Tensilon) test
144. A male client is hospitalized with Guillain-Barre Syndrome. Which assessment finding is the most
significant?
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Cardiac arrest
C. Thrombus formation
D. Myocardial infarction
148. Linda, A 30 year old post hysterectomy client has visited the health center. She inquired about BSE and
asked the nurse when BSE should be performed. You answered that the BSE is best performed:
A. 60 gtts/min.
B. 21 gtts/min
C. 30 gtts/min
D. 15 gtts/min
150. Mr. Gutierrez is to receive 1 liter of D5RL to run for 12 hours. The drop factor of the IV infusion set is 10
drops per minute. Approximately how many drops per minutes should the IV be regulated?
A. 13-14 drops
B. 17-18 drops
C. 10-12 drops
D. 15-16 drops
118
Answers
1. C. Don’t get pregnant at least 3 months
2. A. Increased urinary output
3. D. Incubation period varies depending on the site of the bite
4. B. Cover IV bottle with brown paper bag
5. C. Rumpel-leede test
6. D. Peripheral blood smear
7. A. Nurse who never had chicken pox
8. D. After the delivery of the baby
9. B. 18 year old sister who recently got married
10. C. BCG vaccination
11. C. Klebs-loeffler bacillus
12. D. I will come back on Wednesday, same time, to read the result
13. C. Positive
14. B. Avoid vitamin supplements while o therapy
15. D. Chancre
16. A. 60 breaths per minute
17. D. A and B
18. D. Cotrimoxazole
19. C. 1 tsp. salt and 8 tsp. sugar
20. B. Umbilical infections
21. A. BCG
22. C. Epidemiological situation
23. D. 90
24. B. -15c to -25c
25. A. Bacterial toxin
26. D. Planning
27. B. Schedule
28. A. Motivation
29. C. Vision
30. D. Standards
31. D. Negative reinforcement
32. B. Close ended
33. A. Inductive
34. B. Risk-benefit ratio
35. A. Element
36. C. Organizational chart
37. D. University of Sto. Tomas
38. D. Italy
39. B. Overt
40. D. The statement of patient “My hand is painful”
41. C. Supine
42. A. 7 days after menstrual period
43. B. Preparation of the patient
44. C. Kardex
45. C. Side lying, unaffected side
46. D. Percussion
47. D. Dilated pupils
48. A. Ineffective airway clearance related to edema
119
149. B. 21 gtts/min
150. A. 13-14 drops
122
PNLE EXAM 2
1. A 10 year old who has sustained a head injury is brought to the emergency department by his
mother. A diagnosis of a mild concussion is made. At the time of discharge, nurse Ron should
instruct the mother to:
A. Albumin
B. D5W
C. Lactated Ringer’s solution
D. 0.9% sodium chloride solution with 2 mEq of potassium per 100 ml
11. During the first 48 hours after a severe burn of 40% of the clients body surface, the nurse’s
assessment should include observations for water intoxication. Associated adaptations include:
A. Sooty-colored sputum
B. Frothy pink-tinged sputum
C. Twitching and disorientation
D. Urine output below 30ml per hour
12. After a muscle biopsy, nurse Willy should teach the client to:
13. Before a client whose left hand has been amputated can be fitted for a prosthesis, nurse Joy is
aware that:
A. Angina
B. Chest pain
C. Heart block
D. Tachycardia
17. When administering pancrelipase (Pancreases capsules) to child with cystic fibrosis, nurse Faith
knows they should be given:
A. Meningeal irritation
B. Subdural hemorrhage
C. Medullary compression
D. Cerebral cortex compression
21. After a lateral crushing chest injury, obvious right-sided paradoxic motion of the client’s chest
demonstrates multiple rib fraactures, resulting in a flail chest. The complication the nurse should
carefully observe for would be:
A. Mediastinal shift
B. Tracheal laceration
C. Open pneumothorax
D. Pericardial tamponade
22. When planning care for a client at 30-weeks gestation, admitted to the hospital after vaginal
bleeding secondary to placenta previa, the nurse’s primary objective would be:
A. Suction equipment
B. Humidified oxygen
C. A nonelectric call bell
D. A cold-stream vaporizer
25. Nurse Oliver interviews a young female client with anorexia nervosa to obtain information for
the nursing history. The client’s history is likely to reveal a:
A. A boggy uterus
B. Multiple vaginal clots
C. Hypotension and tachycardia
127
A. Expulsion pattern
B. Slow paced pattern
C. Shallow chest pattern
D. blowing pattern
33. Nurse Ronald should explain that the most beneficial between-meal snack for a client who is
recovering from the full-thickness burns would be a:
A. flexed extremities
B. Cyanotic lips and face
C. A heart rate of 130 beats per minute
D. A respiratory rate of 40 breath per minute
35. The laboratory calls to state that a client’s lithium level is 1.9 mEq/L after 10 days of lithium
therapy. Nurse Reese should:
A. Notify the physician of the findings because the level is dangerously high
B. Monitor the client closely because the level of lithium in the blood is slightly elevated
C. Continue to administer the medication as ordered because the level is within the therapeutic
range
D. Report the findings to the physician so the dosage can be increased because the level is below
therapeutic range
36. A client has a regular 30-day menstrual cycles. When teaching about the rhythm method,
Which the client and her husband have chosen to use for family planning, nurse Dianne should
emphasize that the client’s most fertile days are:
A. Days 9 to 11
B. Days 12 to 14
C. Days 15 to 17
D. Days 18 to 20
37. Before an amniocentesis, nurse Alexandra should:
44. After a mastectomy or hysterectomy, clients may feel incomplete as women. The statement that
should alert nurse Gina to this feeling would be:
A. Hyperactive reflexes
B. An increased pulse rate
C. Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
D. Leg weakness with muscle cramps
47. When assessing a newborn suspected of having Down syndrome, nurse Rey would expect to
observe:
A. Ears
B. Eyes
C. Liver
D. Brain
49. A disturbed client is scheduled to begin group therapy. The client refuses to attend. Nurse Lolit
should:
50. Because a severely depressed client has not responded to any of the antidepressant medications,
the psychiatrist decides to try electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). Before the treatment the nurse
should:
56. A client is diagnosed with cancer of the jaw. A course of radiation therapy is to be followed by
surgery. The client is concerned about the side effects related to the radiation treaments. Nurse Ria
should explain that the major side effects that will experienced is:
A. Fatigue
B. Alopecia
C. Vomiting
D. Leucopenia
57. Nurse Katrina prepares an older-adult client for sleep, actions are taken to help reduce the
likelihood of a fall during the night. Targeting the most frequent cause of falls, the nurse should:
A. Suspicious feelings
B. Continuous pacing
C. Relationship with the family
D. Concern about working with others
63. When planning care with a client during the postoperative recovery period following an
abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, nurse Frida should include the
explanation that:
A. Not talking about the fact that the client is not eating
B. Stopping all of the client’s priviledges until food is eaten
C. Telling the client that tube feeding will eventually be necessary
D. Pointing out to the client that death can occur with malnutrition.
65. A pain scale is used to assess the degree of pain. The client rates the pain as an 8 on a scale of
10 before medication and a 7 on a scale of 10 after being medicated. Nurse Glenda determines that
the:
A. Keeping the baby awake for longer periods of time before each feeding
B. Assisting the parents to stimulate their baby through touch, sound, and sight.
C. Encouraging parental contact for at least one 15-minute period every four hours.
D. Touching and talking to the baby at least hourly, beginning within two to four hours after birth
67. Before formulating a plan of care for a 6 year old boy with attention deficit hyperactivity
disorder (ADHD), nurse Kyla is aware that the initial aim of therapy is to help the client to:
A. It involves providing home care to sick people who are not confined in the hospital
B. Services are provided free of charge to people within the catchment area.
C. The public health nurse functions as part of a team providing a public health nursing services.
D. Public health nursing focuses on preventive, not curative, services.
74. Which of the following is the mission of the Department of Health?
A. Effectiveness
B. Efficiency
C. Adequacy
D. Appropriateness
76. Lissa is a B.S.N. graduate. She want to become a Public Health Nurse. Where will she apply?
A. Department of Health
B. Provincial Health Office
C. Regional Health Office
D. Rural Health Unit
77. As an epidemiologist, Nurse Celeste is responsible for reporting cases of notifiable diseases.
What law mandates reporting of cases of notifiable diseases?
A. Act 3573
B. R.A. 3753
C. R.A. 1054
D. R.A. 1082
78. Nurse Fay is aware that isolation of a child with measles belongs to what level of prevention?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Intermediate
D. Tertiary
79. Nurse Gina is aware that the following is an advantage of a home visit?
82. Nurse Cathy learns that some leaders are transactional leaders. Which of the following does
NOT characterize a transactional leader?
A. Scalar chain
B. Discipline
C. Unity of command
D. Order
86. Nurse Joey discusses the goal of the department. Which of the following statements is a goal?
A. Smoothing
136
B. Compromise
C. Avoidance
D. Restriction
89. Nurse Bea plans of assigning competent people to fill the roles designed in the hierarchy.
Which process refers to this?
A. Staffing
B. Scheduling
C. Recruitment
D. Induction
90. Nurse Linda tries to design an organizational structure that allows communication to flow in all
directions and involve workers in decision making. Which form of organizational structure is this?
A. Centralized
B. Decentralized
C. Matrix
D. Informal
91. When documenting information in a client’s medical record, the nurse should:
A. Hand washing
B. Nasogastric tube irrigation
C. I.V. cannula insertion
D. Colostomy irrigation
94. The nurse is performing wound care using surgical asepsis. Which of the following practices
violates surgical asepsis?
95. On admission, a client has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) values: PaO2, 50 mm Hg;
PaCO2, 70 mm Hg; pH, 7.20; HCO3–, 28 mEq/L. Based on these values,
the nurse should formulate which nursing diagnosis for this client?
A. Stream seeding
B. Stream clearing
C. Destruction of breeding places
D. Zooprophylaxis
97. In Integrated Management of Childhood Illness, severe conditions generally require urgent
referral to a hospital. Which of the following severe conditions DOES NOT always require urgent
referral to a hospital?
A. Mastoiditis
B. Severe dehydration
C. Severe pneumonia
D. Severe febrile disease
98. A mother brought her daughter, 4 years old, to the RHU because of cough and colds. Following
the IMCI assessment guide, which of the following is a danger sign that indicates the need for
urgent referral to a hospital?
A. Inability to drink
B. High grade fever
C. Signs of severe dehydration
D. Cough for more than 30 days
99. Food fortification is one of the strategies to prevent micronutrient deficiency conditions. R.A.
8976 mandates fortification of certain food items. Which of the following is among these food
items?
A. Sugar
B. Bread
C. Margarine
D. Filled milk
100. The major sign of iron deficiency anemia is pallor. What part is best examined for pallor?
A. Palms
B. Nailbeds
C. Around the lips
D. Lower conjunctival sac
138
16. C. Heart block. This is the primary indication for a pacemaker because there is an interfere
with the electrical conduction system of the heart.
17. A. With meals and snacks. Pancreases capsules must be taken with food and snacks because it
acts on the nutrients and readies them for absorption.
18. B. Put a hat on the infant’s head. Oxygen has cooling effect, and the baby should be kept warm
so that metabolic activity and oxygen demands are not increased.
19. C. Wear an Ultra-Filter mask when they are in the client’s room. Tubercle bacilli are
transmitted through air currents; therefore personal protective equipment such as an Ultra-Filter
mask is necessary.
20. D. Cerebral cortex compression. Cerebral compression affects pyramidal tracts, resulting in
decorticate rigidity and cranial nerve injury, which cause pupil dilation.
21. A.Mediastinal shift. Mediastinal structures move toward the uninjured lung, reducing
oxygenation and venous return.
22. C. Prevent situations that may stimulate the cervix or uterus. Stimulation of the cervix or uterus
may cause bleeding or hemorrhage and should be avoided.
23. C. Severe shortness of breath. This could indicate a recurrence of the pneumothorax as one side
of the lung is inadequate to meet the oxygen demands of the body.
24. A. Suction equipment. Respiratory complications can occur because of edema of the glottis or
injury to the recurrent laryngeal nerve.
25. A. Strong desire to improve her body image. Clients with anorexia nervosa have a disturbed
self image and always see themselves as fat and needing further reducing.
26. B. Attempting to reduce or limit situations that increase anxiety. Persons with high anxiety
levels develop various behaviors to relieve their anxiety; by reducing anxiety, the need for
these obsessive-compulsive action is reduced.
27. C. Becomes fussy when frustrated and displays a shortened attention span. Shortened attention
span and fussy behavior may indicate a change in intracranial pressure and/or shunt
malfunction.
28. B. Maintaining the ordered hydration. Promoting hydration maintains urine production at a
higher rate, which flushes the bladder and prevents urinary stasis and possible infection.
29. C. Taking the client’s pedal pulse in the affected limb. Monitoring a pedal pulse will assess
circulation to the foot.
30. A. “Where are you?”. “Where are you?” is the best question to elicit information about the
client’s orientation to place because it encourages a response that can be assessed.
31. D. Bleeding from the venipuncture site. This indicates a fibrinogenemia; massive clotting in the
area of the separation has resulted in a lowered circulating fibrinogen.
32. D. blowing pattern. Clients should use a blowing pattern to overcome the premature urge to
push.
33. A. Cheeseburger and a malted. Of the selections offered, this is the highest in calories and
protein, which are needed for increased basal metabolic rate and for tissue repair.
34. B. Cyanotic lips and face. Central cyanosis (blue lips and face) indicates lowered oxygenation
of the blood, caused by either decreased lung expansion or right to left shunting of blood.
35. A. Notify the physician of the findings because the level is dangerously high. Levels close to 2
mEq/L are dangerously close to the toxic level; immediate action must be taken.
140
36. C. Days 15 to 17. Ovulation occurs approximately 14 days before the next menses, about the
16th day in 30 day cycle; the 15th to 17th days would be the best time to avoid sexual
intercourse.
37. C. Assure that informed consent has been obtained from the client. An invasive procedure such
as amniocentesis requires informed consent.
38. D. Prevent development of respiratory distress. Respiratory distress or arrest may occur when
the serum level of magnesium sulfate reaches 12 to 15 mg/dl; deep tendon reflexes disappear
when the serum level is 10 to 12 mg/dl; the drug is withheld in the absence of deep tendon
reflexes; the therapeutic serum level is 5 to 8 mg/dl.
39. A. Obtaining the child’s daily weight. Weight monitoring is the most useful means of assessing
fluid balance and changes in the edematous state; 1 liter of fluid weighs about 2.2 pounds.
40. C. Reduces the inflammatory response of tissues. Corticosteroids act to decrease inflammation
which decreases edema.
41. D. An audible click on hip manipulation. With specific manipulation, an audible click may be
heard of felt as he femoral head slips into the acetabulum.
42. B. Allow the denial but be available to discuss death. This does not remove client’s only way
of coping, and it permits future movement through the grieving process when the client is
ready.
43. B. Divide food into four to six meals a day. The volume of food in the stomach should be kept
small to limit pressure on the cardiac sphincter.
44. B. “I feel washed out; there isn’t much left”. The client’s statement infers an emptiness with an
associated loss.
45. A. Vitamin K is not absorbed. Vitamin K, a fat soluble vitamin, is not absorbed from the GI
tract in the absence of bile; bile enters the duodenum via the common bile duct.
46. D. Leg weakness with muscle cramps. Impulse conduction of skeletal muscle is impaired with
decreased potassium levels, muscular weakness and cramps may occur with hypokalemia.
47. D. Simian lines on the hands. This is characteristic finding in newborns with Down syndrome.
48. B. Eyes. Rheumatoid arthritis can cause inflammation of the iris and ciliary body of the eyes
which may lead to blindness.
49. A. Accept the client’s decision without discussion. This is all the nurse can do until trust is
established; facing the client to attend will disrupt the group.
50. D. Provide a simple explanation of the procedure and continue to reassure the client. The nurse
should offer support and use clear, simple terms to allay client’s anxiety.
51. D. If I have difficulty in inserting the irrigating tube into the stoma”. This occurs with stenosis
of the stoma; forcing insertion of the tube could cause injury.
52. C. Blood loss of 850 ml after a vaginal birth. Excessive blood loss predisposes the client to an
increased risk of infection because of decreased maternal resistance; they expected blood loss
is 350 to 500 ml.
53. A. Provide frequent saline mouthwashes. This is soothing to the oral mucosa and helps prevent
infection.
54. B. “Society makes people react in old ways”. The client is incapable of accepting responsibility
for self-created problems and blames society for the behavior.
55. A. Taste and smell. Swelling can obstruct nasal breathing, interfering with the senses of taste
and smell.
141
56. A. Fatigue. Fatigue is a major problem caused by an increase in waste products because of
catabolic processes.
57. A. Offer the client assistance to the bathroom. Statistics indicate that the most frequent cause of
falls by hospitalized clients is getting up or attempting to get up to the bathroom unassisted.
58. D. Turn completely over, sit momentarily without support, reach to be picked up. These
abilities are age-appropriate for the 6 month old child.
59. D. Feed the baby on the unaffected breast first until the affected breast heals. The most
vigorous sucking will occur during the first few minutes of breastfeeding when the infant
would be on the unaffected breast; later suckling is less traumatic.
60. D. Place sterile cotton loosely in the external ear of the client. This would absorb the drainage
without causing further trauma.
61. D. Airing their feelings regarding the transmission of the disease to the child. Discussion with
parents who have children with similar problems helps to reduce some of their discomfort and
guilt.
62. A. Suspicious feelings. The nurse must deal with these feelings and establish basic trust to
promote a therapeutic milieu.
63. A. Surgical menopause will occur. When a bilateral oophorectomy is performed, both ovaries
are excised, eliminating ovarian hormones and initiating response.
64. D. Pointing out to the client that death can occur with malnutrition. The client expects the nurse
to focus on eating, but the emphasis should be placed on feelings rather than actions.
65. B. Medication is not adequately effective. The expected effect should be more than a one point
decrease in the pain level.
66. B. Assisting the parents to stimulate their baby through touch, sound, and sight. Stimuli are
provided via all the senses; since the infant’s behavioral development is enhanced through
parent-infant interactions, these interactions should be encouraged.
67. D. Recognize himself as an independent person of worth. Academic deficits, an inability to
function within constraints required of certain settings, and negative peer attitudes often lead to
low self-esteem.
68. B. Monitoring the child’s blood pressure. Because the tumor is of renal origin, the rennin
angiotensin mechanism can be involved, and blood pressure monitoring is important.
69. A. Nursing unit manager. Controlled substance issues for a particular nursing unit are the
responsibility of that unit’s nurse manager.
70. D. Encourage coughing, deep breathing, and range of motion to the arm on the affected
side. All these interventions promote aeration of the re-expanding lung and maintenance of
function in the arm and shoulder on the affected side.
71. A. For people to attain their birthrights of health and longevity. According to Winslow, all
public health efforts are for people to realize their birthrights of health and longevity.
72. C. Swaroop’s index. Swaroop’s index is the percentage of the deaths aged 50 years or older. Its
inverse represents the percentage of untimely deaths (those who died younger than 50 years).
73. D. Public health nursing focuses on preventive, not curative, services.. The catchment area in
PHN consists of a residential community, many of whom are well individuals who have greater
need for preventive rather than curative services.
74. B. Ensure the accessibility and quality of health care. Ensuring the accessibility and quality of
health care is the primary mission of DOH.
142
75. B. Efficiency. Efficiency is determining whether the goals were attained at the least possible
cost.
76. D. Rural Health Unit. R.A. 7160 devolved basic health services to local government units
(LGU’s ). The public health nurse is an employee of the LGU.
77. A. Act 3573. Act 3573, the Law on Reporting of Communicable Diseases, enacted in 1929,
mandated the reporting of diseases listed in the law to the nearest health station.
78. A. Primary. The purpose of isolating a client with a communicable disease is to protect those
who are not sick (specific disease prevention).
79. B. It provides an opportunity to do first hand appraisal of the home situation. Choice A is not
correct since a home visit requires that the nurse spend so much time with the family. Choice C
is an advantage of a group conference, while choice D is true of a clinic consultation.
80. B. Should minimize if not totally prevent the spread of infection. Bag technique is performed
before and after handling a client in the home to prevent transmission of infection to and from
the client.
81. A. Recognizes staff for going beyond expectations by giving them citations. Path Goal theory
according to House and associates rewards good performance so that others would do the same.
82. D. Inspires others with vision. Inspires others with a vision is characteristic of a
transformational leader. He is focused more on the day-to-day operations of the
department/unit.
83. A. Psychological and sociological needs are emphasized. When the functional method is used,
the psychological and sociological needs of the patients are neglected; the patients are regarded
as ‘tasks to be done”
84. B. Preparing a nursing care plan in collaboration with the patient. The best source of
information about the priority needs of the patient is the patient himself. Hence using a nursing
care plan based on his expressed priority needs would ensure meeting his needs effectively.
85. C. Unity of command. The principle of unity of command means that employees should
receive orders coming from only one manager and not from two managers. This averts the
possibility of sowing confusion among the members of the organization.
86. A. Increase the patient satisfaction rate. Goal is a desired result towards which efforts are
directed. Options AB, C and D are all objectives which are aimed at specific end.
87. A. Uses visioning as the essence of leadership. Transformational leadership relies heavily on
visioning as the core of leadership.
88. C. Avoidance. This strategy shuns discussing the issue head-on and prefers to postpone it to a
later time. In effect the problem remains unsolved and both parties are in a lose-lose situation.
89. A. Staffing. Staffing is a management function involving putting the best people to accomplish
tasks and activities to attain the goals of the organization.
90. B. Decentralized. Decentralized structures allow the staff to make decisions on matters
pertaining to their practice and communicate in downward, upward, lateral and diagonal flow.
91. D. end each entry with the nurse’s signature and title. The end of each entry should include the
nurse’s signature and title; the signature holds the nurse accountable for the recorded
information. Erasing errors in documentation on a legal document such as a client’s chart isn’t
permitted by law. Because a client’s medical record is considered a legal document, the nurse
should make all entries in ink. The nurse is accountable for the information recorded and
143
therefore shouldn’t leave any blank lines in which another health care worker could make
additions.
92. A. Allergies and socioeconomic status. General background data consist of such components as
allergies, medical history, habits, socioeconomic status, lifestyle, beliefs, and sensory deficits.
Urine output, gastric reflex, and bowel habits are significant only if a disease affecting these
functions is present.
93. C. I.V. cannula insertion. Caregivers must use surgical asepsis when performing wound care or
any procedure in which a sterile body cavity is entered or skin integrity is broken. To achieve
surgical asepsis, objects must be rendered or kept free of all pathogens. Inserting an I.V.
cannula requires surgical asepsis because it disrupts skin integrity and involves entry into a
sterile cavity (a vein). The other options are used to ensure medical asepsis or clean technique
to prevent the spread of infection. The GI tract isn’t sterile; therefore, irrigating a nasogastric
tube or a colostomy requires only clean technique.
94. B. Pouring solution onto a sterile field cloth. Pouring solution onto a sterile field cloth violates
surgical asepsis because moisture penetrating the cloth can carry microorganisms to the sterile
field via capillary action. The other options are practices that help ensure surgical asepsis.
95. C. Impaired gas exchange. The client has a below-normal value for the partial pressure of
arterial oxygen (PaO2) and an above-normal value for the partial pressure of arterial carbon
dioxide (PaCO2), supporting the nursing diagnosis of Impaired gas exchange. ABG values
can’t indicate a diagnosis of Fluid volume deficit (or excess) or Risk for deficient fluid volume.
Metabolic acidosis is a medical, not nursing, diagnosis; in any event, these ABG values
indicate respiratory, not metabolic, acidosis.
96. A. Stream seeding. Stream seeding is done by putting tilapia fry in streams or other bodies of
water identified as breeding places of the Anopheles mosquito.
97. B. Severe dehydration. The order of priority in the management of severe dehydration is as
follows: intravenous fluid therapy, referral to a facility where IV fluids can be initiated within
30 minutes, Oresol/nasogastric tube, Oresol/orem. When the foregoing measures are not
possible or effective, tehn urgent referral to the hospital is done.
98. A. Inability to drink. A sick child aged 2 months to 5 years must be referred urgently to a
hospital if he/she has one or more of the following signs: not able to feed or drink, vomits
everything, convulsions, abnormally sleepy or difficult to awaken.
99. A. Sugar. R.A. 8976 mandates fortification of rice, wheat flour, sugar and cooking oil with
Vitamin A, iron and/or iodine.
100. A. Palms. The anatomic characteristics of the palms allow a reliable and convenient basis for
examination for pallor.