FORM A

Mark the best choice in the computer sheet:

1. The plane that divides the body into a large E. Chorionic cavity
right part and a small left part is: 9. The wall of chorionic vesicle is made of:
A. Median A. Cytotrophoblast + syncytotrophoblast
B. Right parasagittal B. Cytotrophoblast + exocoelomic membrane
C. Left parasagittal C. syncytotrophoblast + exocoelomic membrane
D. Coronal D. Trophoblast + extraembryonic somatic mesoderm
E. Transverse E. Trophoblast + extraembryonic splanchnic mesoderm
2. Responsible for growth of bone in length: 10. The major source of intraembryonic mesoderm is:
A. Epiphyseal plate A. Primitive streak
B. Epiphysis B. Ectoderm
C. Diaphysis C. Endoderm
D. Periosteum D. Prechordal plate
E. Endosteum E. Neurenteric canal
3. An example of secondary cartilaginous joint: 11. The normal volume of amniotic fluid at birth is:
A. Sacroiliac A. 100 ml
B. Symphysis pubis B. 200 ml
C. Costochondral C. 500 ml
D. Sternoclavicular D. 1000 ml
E. Sternocostal E. 1500 ml
4. An example of unipennate muscles: 12. A syndrome caused by chromosomal monosomy:
A. Sartorius A. Down’s
B. Palmar interosseus B. Turner’s
C. Dorsal interosseus C. Kleinfelter’s
D. Rectus femoris D. Edward’s
E. Deltoid E. Cri du chat
5. The part of spinal nerve without motor fibers: 13. Lymphatics from the upper medial quadrant of
A. Ventral ramus breast drain into:
B. Ventral root A. Subdiaphragmatic plexus
C. Nerve trunk B. Parasternal lymph nodes
D. Dorsal root C. Pectoral group of axillary lymph nodes
E. Dorsal ramus D. Subscapular group of axillary lymph nodes
6. An example of anatomical end arteries: E. Lymphatics in anterior wall of rectus sheath
A. Coronary 14. Pierces the clavipectoral fascia:
B. Cerebral A. Lateral pectoral nerve
C. Renal B. Medial pectoral nerve
D. Mesenteric C. Lateral thoracic artery
E. Central retinal D. Basilic vein
7. The commonest site of ectopic pregnancy is: E. Long thoracic nerve
A. Internal os 15. Passes deep to the extensor retinaculum:
B. Ovary A. Superficial radial nerve
C. Peritoneal sac B. Posterior interosseous artery
D. Uterine tube C. Anterior interosseous nerve
E. Cervix D. Anterior interosseous artery
8. The blastocoele becomes the: E. Dorsal branch of ulnar nerve
A. Amniotic sac 16. The branch of axillary artery that shares in the
B. Yolk sac anastomosis around the scapula:
C. Extraembryonic coelom A. Thoracoacromial
D. Intraembryonic coelom B. Lateral thoracic

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FORM A
C. Subscapular 24. Infected pin prick of which finger may spread to
D. Anterior circumflex humeral the ulnar bursa?
E. Posterior circumflex humeral A. Thumb
17. Insufficient blood flow the deep palmar arch is B. Index
due to partial occlusion of which artery? C. Middle
A. Ulnar D. Ring
B. Radial E. Little
C. Anterior interosseous 25. The medial boundary of the femoral ring is:
D. Posterior interosseous A. Pectineus
E. Common palmer digital B. Symphysis pubis
18. An artery sharing in the anastomosis behind the C. Lacunar ligament
medial epicondyle of humerus: D. Femoral vein
A. Superior ulnar collateral E. Inguinal ligament
B. Radial recurrent 26. Does not pass through the subsartorial canal:
C. Anterior branch of inferior ulnar collateral A. Articular branch of posterior division of
D. Interosseous recurrent obturator nerve
E. Anterior ulnar recurrent B. Nerve to vastus lateralis
19. A branch of the posterior cord of brachial plexus: C. Femoral artery
A. Ulnar D. Saphenous nerve
B. Musculocutaneous E. Femoral vein
C. Axillary 27. Passes through the lesser sciatic foramen:
D. Median A. Inferior gluteal nerve
E. Lateral pectoral B. Inferior gluteal vessels
20. Loss of skin sensation over hypothenar C. Nerve to quadratus femoris
eminence is due to lesion of which nerve? D. Nerve to obturator internus
A. Recurrent branch of median E. Pudendal nerve
B. Palmer cutaneous of median 28. Present in the 2nd layer of sole:
C. Palmer cutaneous of ulnar A. Tendon of peroneus longus
D. Superficial branch of ulnar B. Tendon of extensor hallucis longus
E. Deep branch of ulnar C. Tendon of flexor digitorum longus
21. Deformity due to injury of lower trunk of D. Plantar interossei
brachial plexus: E. Dorsal interossei
A. Wrist drop 29. The plantaris muscle is supplied by which nerve?
B. Ape-like hand A. Sciatic
C. Claw hand B. Superficial peroneal
D. Flat shoulder C. Deep peroneal
E. Policeman’s tips hand D. Tibial
22. Loss of supination during elbow flexion E. Common peroneal
indicates paralysis of: 30. To avoid injury of the sciatic nerve, intramuscular
A. Biceps brachii injection should be done in which part of gluteal
B. Brachialis region?
C. Brachioradialis A. Upper medial quadrant
D. Supinator B. Upper lateral quadrant
E. Pronator teres C. Center
23. Which of the following muscles does NOT rotate D. Lower medial quadrant
the arm medially? E. Lower lateral quadrant
A. Subscapularis 31. Loss of eversion and dorsiflexion indicates lesion of:
B. Supraspinatus A. Femoral nerve
C. Latissimus dorsi B. Sciatic nerve
D. Pectoralis major C. Common peroneal nerve
E. Anterior fibers of the deltoid D. Superficial peroneal nerve

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FORM A
E. Tibial nerve B. Superficial circumflex iliac
32. Loss of cutaneous sensation on the lateral side C. Deep external pudendal
of the foot is due to damage of: D. 2nd perforating branch of profunda
A. Superficial peroneal nerve. E. Medial and lateral circumflex femoral
B. Deep peroneal nerve. 40. Which of the following muscles acts on hip and
C. Medial plantar nerve. knee joints?
D. Saphenous nerve A. Gracilis
E. Sural nerve B. Adductor longus
C. Adductor brevis
33. Which is NOT a branch of common peroneal D. Adductor magnus
nerve? E. Obturator extenus
A. Sural 41. Transverse arch of the foot is maintained by the
B. Sural communicating tendon of which muscle?
C. Lateral cutaneous of leg A. Tibialis posterior
D. Deep peroneal B. Abductor hallucis
E. Superficial peroneal C. Peroneus longus
34. Lurching gait may be due to injury of which D. Flexor hallucis longus
nerve? E. Flexor digitorum longus
A. Sciatic 42. Hyperextension of the hip joint is prevented by:
B. Femoral A. Obturator internus tendon
C. Obturator B. Iliofemoral ligament
D. Superior gluteal C. Tensor fascia latae muscle
E. Inferior gluteal D. Iliotibial tract
35. The circumflex scapular artery is a branch of: E. Ligamentum teres
A. Profunda femoris 43. The caval opening of diaphragm lies at level of:
B. Popliteal A. T4
C. Anterior tibial B. T6
D. Posterior tibial C. T8
E. Peroneal D. T10
36. Does not share in the cruciate anastomosis: E. T12
A. Inferior gluteal 44. The left 2nd posterior intercostal vein drains into:
B. Medial circumflex femoral A. Azygos
C. Lateral circumflex femoral B. Hemiazygos
D. Deep circumflex iliac C. Accessory hemiazygos
E. First perforator of profunda D. Left superior intercostal
37. Does not drain into the medial group of E. Internal thoracic venae commitantes
superficial inguinal lymph nodes: 45. Attached to the inner border of first rib:
A. infraumbilical part of anterior abdominal wall A. Scalenus anterior
B. Perineum B. Scalenus medius
C. Lower part of anal canal C. Serratus anterior
D. Glans penis D. Suprapleural membrane
E. Gluteal region E. Costoclavicular ligament
38. Posterior tibial artery is best felt in: 46. Inferior margin of pleura lies at which rib level in
A. In front and below of medial malleolus the midaxillary line?
B. Behind and below medial malleolus A. 6th
C. In front and below of lateral malleolus B. 8th
D. Behind and below lateral malleolus
C. 9th
E. Midway between the two malleoli
39. In adults, the chief arterial supply to the head of D. 10th
femur is from the: E. 12th
A. Superficial epigastric

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FORM A
47. A tumor in the posterior part of the lung hilum 54. In comparison to the right bronchus, the left
most likely arises from: bronchus is:
A. Pulmonary artery A. Narrower
B. Superior pulmonary vein B. Shorter
C. Inferior pulmonary vein C. Vertical
D. Bronchopulmonary lymph nodes D. In line with the trachea
E. Bronchus E. Divides before entering the hilum
48. The segments of middle lobe of the right lung 55. The lumen of the esophagus is constricted at:
are: A. 10 cm from incisor teeth
A. Superior & inferior B. 15 cm from incisor teeth
B. Anterior & posterior C. 20 cm from incisor teeth
C. Medial & lateral D. 30 cm from incisor teeth
D. Apical & basal E. 50 cm from incisor teeth
E. Anterosuperior & posteroinferior 56. The left horn of sinus venosus gives:
49. The mitral valve lies at the level of: A. Coronary sinus
A. Third costal cartilage B. Sinus venarum
B. Third intercostal space C. Lower part of superior vena cava
C. Fourth costal cartilage D. Crista terminalis
D. Fourth intercostal space E. Oblique vein of left atrium
E. Fifth costal cartilage 57. The annulus ovalis is derived from which septum?
50. In comparison to the left ventricle, the right A. Spurium
ventricle has: B. Primum
A. Thicker wall C. Secundum
B. Circular lumen D. Intermedium
C. Two papillary muscles E. Membranous interventricular
D. Vestibule 58. Transposition of the great vessels results from …
E. Moderator band aorticopulmonary septum:
51. The right coronary artery arises from: A. Absent
A. Right posterior aortic sinus B. Perforated
B. Left posterior aortic sinus C. Non-spiral
C. Anterior aortic sinus D. Deviated
D. Coronary sinus E. Spiral
E. Orifice of pulmonary trunk 59. The right 4th aortic arch gives which artery?
52. A content of the superior and middle A. Right common carotid
mediastina: B. Right internal carotid
A. Ascending aorta C. Right external carotid
B. Pulmonary trunk D. Part of the arch of aorta
C. Superior vena cava E. Part of the right subclavian
D. Azygos vein 60. After birth, the umbilical vein forms:
E. Esophagus A. Medial umbilical ligament
53. Does not lie inferior to arch of aorta: B. Lateral umbilical ligament
A. Left pulmonary artery C. Ligamentum venosum
B. Right bronchus D. Ligamentum teres
C. Superficial cardiac plexus E. Ligamentum arteriosum
D. Left recurrent laryngeal nerve
E. Ligamentum arteriosum

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