Excel Review Center
Q: What is the ratio of a specific charge of a
proton and an alpha particle?
A: 1:2
Q: Between an electron, proton, neutron and
an alpha particle, which of the following is
not considered a fundamental particle?
A: alpha particle
Q: Between an electron, proton, neutron and
an alpha particle, which of the following is
has the largest charge?
A: alpha particle
Q: The difference between mass number
and atomic number is numerically equal
to ____.
A: the number of neutrons
Q: An atom of strontium-90 (atomic number
38) has how many neutrons and protons?
A: 52 neutrons and 38 protons (and 38
electrons if neutral)
Q: What are the two naturally occurring
isotopes of uranium?
A: U-235 and U-238
Q: It refers to the particle, if lost from the
nucleus, will not result in a change in
atomic number.
A: Neutron Excel Review
Center
Q: When alpha particles were shot at a metal
foil target to probe the structure of the
atom, most particles passed through
without any deflection in path. Some
particles were deflected at large angles.
This indicated to Rutherford that atoms
________.
A: were mostly empty space
Q: The energy of a photon is greatest in the
case of _____.
A: x-rays
Q: The energy of a photon is weakest in the
case of ______.
A: radio waves
Q: An atom has a valence shell electron
configuration on ns1. To which group of
elements in the periodic table does it
belong?
A: Alkali metals
Q: The number of unpaired electrons in a
gaseous selenium atom is ____.
A: 2
Q: What ground state electron configuration
is possible for an atom in the second
period?
A: 1s22s1
Q: Which electron transition in a hydrogen
atom is associated with the largest
emission of energy?
A: n = 2 to n = 1
Q: In neutral atoms, there are equal numbers
of _______.
A: electrons and protons
Q: Which element has an atomic number of
24 and average atomic mass close to 56?
A: Chromium
Q: Protons and _____ have most of the
mass of an atom but occupy very little of
the volume.
A: Neutrons
Q: It refers to the difference between the
mass number and the atomic number?
A: Number of neutrons
Q: Sodium ion differs from a sodium atom in
that the sodium ion _________.
A: has fewer electrons
Q: What term best characterizes the relation
of hydrogen to deuterium?
A: isotope (of hydrogen)
Q: It refers to the weighted average of the
mass numbers of all the naturally
occurring isotopes of an element
A: Atomic mass Excel Review Center
Q: The orbitals of 2p electrons are often
represented as ______-shaped.
A: dumbbell
Q: Helium has two electrons in the 1s orbital.
When it becomes singly ionized, forming
He+, its spectrum resembles that of the
_____ spectrum.
A: hydrogen
Q: What set of quantum numbers is correct
and consistent with n = 4?
A: l = 1, ml = -3, ms = +1/2
Q: Which emission line in the hydrogen
spectrum occurs at the highest
frequency?
A: n = 3 to n = 1
Q: The existence of discrete (quantized)
energy levels in an atom may be inferred
from ______.
A: atomic line spectra
Q: An atom of Fe has two 4s electrons and
six 3d electrons. How many unpaired
electrons would there be in the Fe+ ion?
A: 4
Q: The maximum number of electrons that
can occupy an orbital labeled dxy is ____.
A: 2
Q: What is the valence electron configuration
for the element in period 5, group 3A?
A: 5s25p1
Q: What significant information about atomic
structure came from the Millikan
experiment using charged oil drops?
A: Millikan determined the magnitude of the
charge of the electron
Q: In effecting nuclear changes by
bombarding target nuclei with positively-
charge alpha particles, it is necessary to
accelerate these particles to high speed
because it is necessary to ________.
A: overcome the force of repulsion of the
nucleus.
Q: At atom of the element of atomic number
84 and mass number 199 emits an alpha
particle. The residual atom after this
change has an atomic number of ___ and
a mass number of ____.
A: 82, 195
Q: The element X occurs naturally to the
extent of 20% X-12 and 80% X-13. What
is the atomic mass of element X?
A: 12.8
Q: When elements share the same number
of electrons, depending on varying
isotopes, they are considered to be
_____.
1
GEAS QA 2
A: isoelectronic
Q: Identities of an atom, which share the
elemental similarity, yet neutrons are
varying numbers/charges.
A: Isotopes
Q: What is the unit charge of an alpha
particle?
A: +2 Excel Review Center
Q: What is the unit charge of a beta particle?
A: - 1
Q: The weight of 1 hydrogen atom is _____.
A: 1.66x10-24 g
Q: What are the group 1A elements called?
A: Alkali metal group
Q: What are the group 2A elements called?
A: Alkali earth metals
Q: Ammonia will turn red litmus paper into
____.
A: blue
Q: A mass spectrometer may be used to
detect the presence of _____.
A: isotopes
Q: An electropositive atom gives up ______.
A: electrons
Q: Repulsion of 2 like pairs of electrons
cause what angle?
A: 104.5 degrees
Q: What are the properties of an ionic solid?
A: Crystalline, low conductivity, conductivity
is solid is fused
Q: What are the properties of covalent
solids?
A: Amorphous or crystalline, low
conductivity, low conductivity if fused
Q: Substances with high vapor pressures
have ____ surface tensions.
A: lower Excel Review Center
Q: It refers to the moles of solute divided by
the total moles of the solution.
A: Mole fraction
Q: An atom has a valence shell configuration
of 1s1. To which group of elements on the
periodic table does it belong?
A: 1a (alkali metals)
Q: Electron configuration rule that states
electrons do not pair until they have to.
A: Hund’s rule
Q: An experimental phenomena associated
with atoms having unpaired electrons,
which states such substances are
attracted to magnetic fields.
A: Paramagnetism
Q: What do the 4 quantum numbers stand
for?
A: n = energy level; l = (n – 1); ml (-l to l); mn
(1/2 or -1/2 or spin)
Q: Two or more compounds with the same
formula but a different arrangement of
atoms in the molecule and different
properties
A: isomer
Q: What makes up an alpha particle?
A: 2 protons and 2 neutrons
Excel Review Center
Q: Two or more different physical forms
which an element can exist (e.g. graphite,
charcoal and diamond are all _____ of
carbon)
A: allotropes
Q: It refers to properties that do not depend
on the amount of matter present.
A: Extensive properties
Q: It refers to the bond that would form
between an element with a low ionization
energy and an element with a high
electron affinity.
A: Ionic bond
Q: What does it mean when an element has
a low ionization energy?
A: It means that it can easily lose electrons.
Q: It refers to substances with pH less than
7.
A: Acid
Q: What does it mean when an electron has
a high electron affinity?
A: It means that it can easily accept
electrons to form negative ions
Q: It is the type of bond that results when
both elements contribute electrons to form
a shared pair.
A: Covalent bonds
Q: Boyle’s Law:
A: PV = constant Excel Review Center
Q: Charles’ Law:
A: V/T = constant
Q: Gay-Lusaac’s Law:
A: P/T = constant
Q: Which of the following properties of an
element is a whole number?
A: Atomic Number
Q: The atomic number and mass umber of
an element are 26 and 56, respectively.
The number of neutrons in the nucleus
will be:
A: 30
Q: Rutherford’s alpha scattering experiment
showed for the first time that the atom has
_____.
A: nucleus
Q: Sodium atom and sodium ion differ by
_______.
A: 1 electron
Q: An element X has the same mass number
and atomic number. This element must be
_____.
A: hydrogen
Q: Assuming the nucleus and atom to be
spheres such that the diameter of the
nucleus is of the order of 10-11 cm and
that of the atom is of the order of 10-8 cm,
the ratio of the volumes of atom to
nucleus is:
A: 109 : 1
Q: A neutral atom has a nucleus with a
nuclear charge 13 times and mass 27
times that of a hydrogen nucleus. How
many electrons would be present in the
stable positively charged ion?
A: 13
Q: What is the pH level of toilet soap?
A: 10
Q: What is the distance from the nucleus to
the outermost shell of an atom called?
A: Atomic radius
Q: It refers to the electrons in the last shell of
an atom.
A: Valence electrons
Q: It refers to the term used when the last
shell of an atom has 8 electrons.
A: Octet configuration
Q: Is energy absorbed or released to remove
an electron from the valence shell of a
neutral gaseous atom?
A: Absorbed
Q: The discovery of _____ proved that
atoms of the same element may be
different from each other.
A: isotopes
Q: Experiments with the cathode rays
showed for the first time that atoms are
______.
A: divisible
Q: The alpha scattering experiment showed
for the first time the existence of a _____
in the atom.
A: nucleus with positive charge
Q: The ratio of charge to mass of neutron is
__.
A: 0
Q: Atoms with the same mass number but
different atomic number are called _____.
A: isobars
Q: Atoms with different mass number but the
same atomic number are called _____.
A: isotopes
Q: Electrons in the orbit closest to the
nucleus have the _____ energy.
A: least
Q: The configuration of helium is called
_____.
A: duplet configuration
Q: In the periodic table, the element with
atomic number 38 belongs to _____.
A: Period 5 and Group 2A
Q: What is the defect in Mendeleev’s
Periodic Table?
A: The position of isotopes
Q: The elements of a group in the periodic
table have the same _______.
A: number of valence electrons
Q: The third period of the periodic table
contains how many elements?
A: 8
Q: The tenth element in the periodic table
resembles the element with atomic
number ___ and ____.
A: 2, 54
Q: Group number of elements in the periodic
table indicates ______.
A: the number of electrons in the outermost
shell
Q: The basis of the periodic law presented
by Mendeleev was _____.
A: atomic mass
Excel Review Center
2
GEAS QA 2
Q: The attraction that an atom exerts on a
pair of electrons that is being shared with
another atom for forming covalent bond is
referred to as its _______.
A: electronegativity
Q: What is the difference between ions and
atoms?
A: size, configuration and presence of
charge
Q: Why is a sodium Na+ ion smaller than a
sodium atom?
A: Because a sodium atom has 11 electrons
while a sodium ion only has 10 electrons
Q: Which elements exhibits lowest ionization
potential?
A: Alkali metals
Q: The elements on the right side of the
period table are ______.
A: non-metals
Q: Which elements exhibit the maximum
ionization potential in a given period?
A: Inert gases
Q: It refers to a group of three elements
where the average atomic weights of the
first and last elements is equal to the
atomic weight of the middle element?
A: Dobereiner’s Triads
Q: What law states that properties of the
elements are a periodic function of their
atomic masses?
A: Mendeleev’s Perioidic Law
Q: It refers to the repetition of properties
after specific intervals of elements in the
periodic table.
A: Periodicity
Q: Name three methods that can be used to
separate homogenous mixtures.
A: Chromatography, Crystallization,
Distillation
Q: It is a method of splitting a substance by
the input of electrical energy and is often
used to decompose a compound into its
elements.
A: Electrolysis
Q: It refers to the electrostatic forces of
attraction between oppositely charged
ions.
A: Ionic Bonding
Q: It refers to a covalent bond between two
atoms with different eletronegativities, so
that the electron density is
unsymmetrically distributed.
A: Polar Bond
Q: The volume of a gas is inversely
proportional to pressure provided that the
temperature remains constant.
A: Boyle’s Law
Q: It refers to matter that do not have definite
form or structure.
A: Amorphous
Q: It refers to the enthalpy change
associated with the condensation of
gaseous positive and negative ion into a
crystal.
A: Lattice Energy
Q: Electrons occupy all the orbitals of a
given subshell singly before pairing
begins. This is known as ______.
Excel Review Center
A: Hund’s Rule
Q: It refers to the scattering of light in
colloids.
A: Tyndall Effect
Q: What element is a requirement for organic
compounds?
A: Carbon
Q: If stress is placed on a system on
equilibrium whereby the equilibrium is
altered, that change will take place which
tends to relieve or neutralize the effect of
the added stress.
A: Le Chatelier’s Principle
Q: It refers to the energy possessed by a
substance that allows it to be change into
a new substance.
A: Chemical Energy
Q: If heat is absorbed by the system during a
chemical change, it is called ______.
A: endothermic
Q: It is the calculation of both energy
balances and material balances in a
chemical system.
A: Stoichiometry
Q: It is the energy change accompanying a
mole of electrons being added to a mole
of gaseous atoms or ions.
A: Electron affinity
Q: It states that if a process can be written
as the sum of several stepwise
processes, the enthalpy change of the
total process is equal to the sum of the
enthalpy changes of the various steps.
A: Hess Law
Q: The refers to a process that separates the
components of a mixture on the basis of
differences in particle size.
A: Filtration
Q: What element has the highest ionization
potential of its atom?
A: Polar Bond
Q: It refers to the minimum amount of
radioactive material needed to sustain a
nuclear chain reaction.
A: Critical Mass
Q: _______ states that the partial pressure
of a solvent over a solution is given by the
vapor pressure of the pure solvent times
the mole fraction of the solvent in the
solution.
A: Raoult’s Law
Q: What is the specific heat capacity of water
in terms of BTU?
BTU BTU
A: 1 or 1
lb − R lb − °F
Q: How much is 1 BTU in ft-lb, cal and J?
A: 1 BTU = 778 ft-lb = 252 cal = 1055 J
Q: What is the density of air at STP?
A: 0.00129 g/cc
Q: What is the specific heat capacity of air at
constant pressure?
cal
A: 0.238 Excel Review Center
g ⋅K
Q: Solid to gas change is phase refers to
______.
GEAS QA 2
A: Sublimation Excel Review Center Q: According to the First Law of
Thermodynamics, what is the work done
Q: The triple point of water occurs when by the system in an isochoric process?
water can co-exist in its three forms: A: W = 0
liquid, gas and solid. This can happen at a
temperature of ____ and a water vapor Q: According to the First Law of
pressure of _____. Thermodynamics, what is the work done
A: 273.16 degrees Celsius, 4.58 mmHg by the system in an isothermal process?
⎛V ⎞
Q: For a resistance thermometer, what is the A: W = −nRTln ⎜ 2 ⎟ Excel Review Center
relationship between the resistance of the ⎝ V1 ⎠
thermometer and temperature?
A: R is directly proportional to T Q: According to the First Law of
Thermodynamics, what is the work done
Q: What is the average kinetic energy in by the system in an adiabatic process?
electronvolts of a gas molecule at room 1
temperature? A: W = (
P V −PV
γ −1 2 2 1 1
)
A: 0.038 eV
Q: What are the processes involved in the
Q: What is the SI unit of the Boltzmann
Carnot Cycle?
Constant?
A: 2 isothermal processes and 2 adiabatic
A: J/K
processes
Q: What is the Boltzmann constant in eV per
Q: What are the processes involved in the
K?
Sterling Cycle?
A: 8.62x10-5 eV/K
A: 2 isothermal and 2 isochoric processes
Q: How many molecules are there in 1 cc of
Q: What are the processes involved in the
air?
Otto Cycle?
A: 2.5x1019 molecules
A: 2 adiabatic and 2 isochoric processes
Q: What is the average distance between
Q: What property of a thermodynamic
molecules in 1 cc of air?
system remains constant if no heat
A: 3.4x10-7 cm
enters/leaves the system but increase or
decreases in value when a small amount
Q: What is the rms speed of a gas molecule
of heat is applied?
at a certain temperature?
A: Entropy
3RT J
A: v rms = ; R = 8.314
MW mol⋅K Q: What refers to the amount of heat needed
to change the temperature of a unit mass
Q: What is the efficiency of an actual heat by a unit degree?
engine? A: Specific Heat or Specific Heat Capacity
Q W
A: 1− c or out Q: Which of the Thermodynamic Laws talk
Qh Qh
about thermal equilibrium?
A: Zeroth Law
Q: What is the efficiency of a Carnot heat
engine or the maximum theoretical Q: If the temperature of a gas is held
efficiency of an engine? constant, its volume varies inversely with
T absolute pressure. This is the ___ Law of
A: 1− c Excel Review Center Gases.
Th
A: Boyle’s (or Boyle’s Law)
Q: What is the ideal value of engine Q: It refers to the total energy stored in a
efficiency? system by virtue of the activity of all the
A: 1 or 100% molecules or the vibration of the atoms
within the molecules.
Q: What is the ideal value of the coefficient A: Internal Energy
of performance for heat pumps and
refrigerators Q: A heat engine is a device that converts
A: infinite heat into mechanical work. However, not
all of the heat absorbed by the engine is
Q: What is the coefficient of performance of converted into work. The inefficiency of
a heat pump? engines is a statement of which law of
Qh Q thermodynamics?
A: or h
Qh − Qc Win A: 2nd Law of Thermodynamics
Q: “The quantity of the substance entering
Q: What is the coefficient of performance of
the system is equal to the substance
a refrigerator?
leaving the system.” This refers to which
Qc Q natural law?
A: or c
Qh − Qc Win A: Law of Conservation of Mass
Q: It refers to the amount of energy needed Q: What is the transfer of energy from the
to change a given mass of ice to water at more energetic particles of a substance to
constant temperature. the adjacent less energetic ones as a
A: Heat of fusion result of interactions between particles?
A: Conduction
Q: According to the First Law of
Q: It indicates that the rate of heat
Thermodynamics, what is the work done
by the system in an isobaric process? conduction is proportional to the
temperature gradient in that direction.
A: W = ∫ pdV = pΔV
A: Fourier’s Law of Heat Conduction
3
Excel Review Center
Q: It refers to the transfer of energy between
a solid surface and the adjacent liquid or
gas that is in motion.
A: Convection
Q: It refers to the energy emitted by the
matter in the form of electromagnetic
waves as a result of the changes in the
electronic configurations of the atom or
molecules.
A: Radiation
Q: It states that energy can neither be
created nor destroyed.
A: 1st Law of Thermodynamics
m2
Q: kg ⋅ is the same as the unit ____.
s3
A: watt
Q: The thermal energy of a system
consisting of a thrown ball, Earth and the
air is most closely associated with _____.
A: motions of individual particles within the
ball and the air
Q: What is the charge of a hydrogen atom?
A: 0 Excel Review Center
Q: Alpha particles refer to the nuclei of
_____.
A: Helium
Q: Two light rays will interfere constructively
with maximum amplitude if the path
difference between them is _________.
A: one wavelength
Q: The idea that electrons revolved in orbits
around the nucleus of an atom without
radiating energy away from the atom was
postulated by ____.
A: Bohr Excel Review Center
Q: A system that can exchange neither
matter nor energy with its surroundings.
A: isolated system
Q: It represents the exchange of energy
between a system and its surroundings.
A: work
Q: A substance that losses electron during
an oxidation reduction process.
A: reducing agent
Q: The ratio of the number of moles per liter
of a solution.
A: molarity
Q: What color in the visible light has the
longest wavelength?
A: Red
Q: An ice cube is floating in water contained
in a beaker. When the ice melts, what will
happen to the level of water in the
beaker?
A: It will remain the same.
Q: An ice cube is floating in a denser liquid
contained in a beaker. The liquid is
completely filling the beaker up to the
brim. What happens when the ice melts?
A: Water will overflow.
Q: A watt-second is a unit of ____.
A: energy
Q: A kilowatt-hour is a unit of ____.
A: work
Q: Rutherford’s alpha scattering experiment
is related to the size of the _______.
A: nucleus Excel Review Center
Q: If system C is initially in thermal
equilbrium with system A and B, then A
and B are also in thermal equilibrium with
each other. This statement refers to
________.
A: Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
Q: Two systems are in thermal equilibrium if
and only if they have the same ______.
A: temperature
Q: A process carried out at constant
pressure.
A: Isobaric
Q: It is the heat absorbed or given off by a
substance that changes its temperature.
A: sensible heat
Q: It is the heat absorbed or given off by a
substance that changes its phase without
changing the temperature.
A: latent heat
Q: What is the name of the temperature and
pressure conditions at which water can be
in the solid, liquid and gas phases
simultaneously?
A: Triple point
Q: What is the relationship between the
coefficient of volume expansion and the
coefficient of linear expansion?
A: β = 3α
Q: Water, from 0 degrees Celsius up to 4
degrees Celsius, _____ in volume with
increasing temperature.
A: decreases (coefficient of volume
expansion is negative)
Q: Above 4 degrees Celsius, water _____
when temperature increases.
A: expands
Q: At what temperature is the density of
water greatest?
A: 4 degrees Celsius
Q: What is the latent heat of fusion of water
at normal atmospheric pressure?
A: 334x105 J/kg = 79.6 cal/g = 143 BTU/lb
Q: What is the latent heat of vaporization of
water at normal atmospheric pressure?
A: 2.256x106 J/kg = 539 cal/g = 970 BTU/lb
Q: What is the rate of heat transfer through
radiation (Stefan-Boltzmann Law)?
Q as its sole result the transfer of heat from
A: = σeAT4
t a cooler body to a hotter body”)
Q: What is the emissivity of a black body?
A: e = 1
Q: What is the rate of heat transfer through
conduction?
Q ΔT
A: = kA Excel Review Center
t L
Q: What is the value of the ideal gas
constant in SI units?
J Q: According to the 2nd law of
A: 8.314472
mol⋅K
Q: One ____ is the amount of substance that
contains as many elementary particles as
there are atoms in 12 g of carbon-12.
A: mole
4
GEAS QA 2
Q: The number of atoms and/or molecules in
a mole of any substance is called ______.
A: Avogadro’s number (6.022x1023
molecules/mole)
Q: It is a process that is defines as one with
no heat transfer into or out of a system, Q
= 0. This can be done by insulating the
system or carrying out the process so
quickly that there in not enough
appreciable heat flow.
A: Adiabatic process
Q: The internal energy of an ideal gas
depends only on ______.
A: temperature (it is not dependent on
pressure or volume)
Q: What is the ratio of the molar specific
heat capacity at constant pressure (cp) to
the molar specific heat capacity at
constant volume (cv) for an ideal
monoatomic gas?
c
A: γ = p = 1.67
cv
Q: What is the ratio of the molar specific
heat capacity at constant pressure (cp) to
the molar specific heat capacity at
constant volume (cv) for an ideal diatomic
gas?
c
A: γ = p = 1.40 Excel Review Center
cv
Q: It states that when heat is added to a
system while the system does work, the
internal energy of the system changes by
an amount equal to Q – W.
A: : 1st Law of Thermodynamics
Q: All thermodynamic process that occur in
nature are ________.
A: irreversible
Q: It is a device that takes in heat from a
cold place, has a work input and gives it
off to a warmer place.
A: Refrigerator
Q: “It is impossible for any system to
undergo a process in which it absorbs
heat from a reservoir at a single
temperature and converts the heat
completely into mechanical work, with the
system ending in the same state in which
it began”
A: 2nd law of Thermodynamics (Kelvin-
Planck Statement)
Q: “It is impossible for any process to have
A: 2nd law of Thermodynamics (Clausius
Statement)
Q: A gasoline engine operating on the _____
cycle has a theoretical maximum thermal
efficiency that depends on the
compression ratio r and the ratio of heat
1
capacitities ( e = 1− γ −1 )
r
A: Otto
Thermodynamics, the entropy of an
isolated system, which is a quantitative
measure of the disorder of the system,
may _____ but never _____.
A: increase,decrease