Solution handbook for Time-Harmonic Electromagnetic

Fields by R. F. Harrington

Tobias Plüss

January 1, 2015
Contents

1 Symbols and units used in this document 3

1.1 Symbols . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3
1.2 Units . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3
1.3 Acknowledgement . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3

2 Fundamental concepts 4

3 Introduction to Waves 13

2
1 Symbols and units used in this
document

1.1 Symbols
In this document, a few different symbols are used than in the book. Instead of E , D and so on for
instantaneous values of the electric field strength or the electric flux density, just E and D is used.
The complex vectors are then denoted by D and E and so forth.
For the differential operatos, ’rot’ is used for the curl, ’div’ for the divergence and ’grad’ for the
gradient. If possible, the notation using the Nabla operator is avoided, since the other notations
seems more clear in the author’s oppinion. So we have:

rot F = ∇ × F (1.1)
div F = ∇ · F (1.2)
grad f = ∇ f (1.3)

1.2 Units
Sometimes the term ’nS’ or ’µS’ can be seen, meaning ’Nanoseconds’ or even ’Microseconds’.
Generally, this is wrong, since the SI unit symbol for the second is a small ’s’. The large ’S’ stands
for Siemens, which is the unit for electric conductance. We have:
1
1S =
Ω
Further, where applicable, meters, kilograms and so on are used here instead of inches and stuff.

1.3 Acknowledgement
I would like to thank Prof. Marcel Joss of the Lucerne University of Applied Sciences and Arts,
who supports me with my work in electromagnetic field subjects.

3
2 Fundamental concepts

1-1:
First write down Stoke’s and Gauss’ theorem:
¨ ˛
rot F · d A = F · dr
G ∂G

Where G is any area and ∂G is the contour of that area. Gauss:

˚ ‹
div F dV = F · dA
G ∂G

here only in 3 dimensions. G is any volume, and ∂G is the closed surface of that volume. We then
have our 4 Maxwell equations in differential form:

∂B
rot E = −
∂t
div B = 0
∂D
rot H = +J
∂t
div D = qv

For the first and the third equation, Stokes looks adequate. We integrate over any surface G on
both sides. We get ¨ ˛
rot E · dA = E · dr
G ∂G

and ¨ ˛
rot H · dA = H · dr
G ∂G

respectively, on the left side, where ∂G is the contour of the area G. On the right side we get
¨ ¨
∂ d
− B · dA = − B · dA
∂t dt
G G

for the first equation. Note that the double integral is no longer dependent on x, y or z; instead
it is only a function of time, so the time derivative can be moved out of the integral. The same
applies for ¨ ¨ ¨ ¨
∂ d
D · dA + J · dA = D · dA + J · dA
∂t dt
G G G G

4
Therefore, we have
˛ ¨
d
E · dr = − B · dA
dt
∂G G
˛ ¨ ¨
d
H · dr = D · dA + J · dA
dt
∂G G G

for the first and the third Maxwell equation. For the second and the fourth we get
˚ ‹
div B dV = B · dA = 0
G ∂G

and ˚ ‹ ˚
div D dV = D · dA = qv dV
G ∂G G

respectively. 2

1-2:
The Hall effect formula is:
J = σ E + σ2 h E × B
The current density J may be divided into two different contributions as follows:

J = Jc + Ji

The two contributions result from the conduction current (Jc ), and from the electrons being
deflected by the Lorentz force (Ji ). The Lorentz force acting on a single electron is

F = q (v × B)

and the Coulomb force (also for a single electron) is:

F = q E0

The field E0 results from the electrons being deflected because of the field B. Electrons are deflected
such, that the Coulomb force equals the Lorentz force:
0

q E =
q (v × B)
E0 = v × B

From physics, we know that the electron velocity is given by

1
v = Jc ·
nq
where n is the carrier density. We insert that into the above derived formula:
1
E0 = · Jc × B
nq
We know that the current density Jc is given by

Jc = σ E

so we get:
σ
E0 = ·E×B
nq

5
Assuming an isotropic media, we can multiply this on both sides with σ to get the current density:
σ2
Ji = σ E0 = ·E×B
nq
And therefore we have the full current density
J = Jc + Ji
σ2
= σE+ ·E×B
nq
= σ E + σ2 h E × B
where we have used the shorthand
1
h=
nq
for the last step. 2

1-3:
We have the fields    
y 2 sin ω t 0
   
E=
 0 
 H=
x cos ω t

0 0
given and shall now compute Jt as well as Mt . We have:
Jt = rot H Mt = − rot E
from which we easily get
     
∂
0 0
 ∂x 
Jt =
   
∂ ×
x cos ω t =  0
  
 ∂y  
∂
∂z
0 cos ω t

as well as:      
∂
y 2 sin ω t 0
 ∂x 
Mt =
   
− ∂  × =
 ∂y   0   0 

∂
∂z
0 2 y sin ω t
Next, we shall compute i and k through the disk G
x2 + y 2 = 1, z = 0
for which these formulas
¨ ˛
i= J · dA = H · dr
G ∂G
¨ ˛
k= M · dA = − E · dr
G ∂G

apply. Note the usage of Stoke’s theorem to come from the left side to the right side. It seems more
convenient in this case to calculate the contour integral over ∂G instead of the double integral over
G. Since the disk G is the unit circle, we can parametrise every point on it using the vector
 
cos u
 
r(u) = 
 sin u 

0

6
which describes the whole unit circle’s contour for 0 ≤ 0 < 2 π. The tangent vector dr is:
 
− sin u
 
dr = 
 cos u  du

0
In order to calculate i, we need the vectors H(r) as well as the scalar product H(r) · dr. We find:
 
0
H(r) · dr = cos2 u · cos ω t · du
 
H(r) = cos u · cos ω t

0
So, the contour integral is
˛
i= H · dr =
∂G
ˆ2 π
cos ω t · cos2 u du =
0
 2 π
u sin 2 u
cos ω t · + =
2 4 0
 
2 π sin 4 π
cos ω t · + −0−0 =
2 4
π cos ω t

In order to calculate k, we need to do the same calculations. We have:

 
0
E(r) · dr = cos u · sin2 u · sin ω t du
 
E(r) =  2
sin u · sin ω t

0
Now the contour integral evaluates to the value
˛
k=− E · dr =
∂G
ˆ2 π
− sin ω t · cos u · sin2 u du =
0
2 π
sin3 u

− sin ω t · =
3 0
 3 
sin 2 π
− sin ω t · −0 =
3
0
for k. 2

1-4:
The fields given are:    
y 2 sin ω t 0
   
E=
 0 
 H=
x cos ω t

0 0

7
We calculate the Ponyting vector:
     
y 2 sin ω t 0 0
     
S=E×H=  0  × x cos ω t = 
    0 

0 0 x y 2 sin ω t · cos ω t

Next, we have Eq. 1-26 from the book:

div S = E · J + H · M = 0

We calculate the divergence of our S and get:

   
∂
0
 ∂x   
div S = ∂ · 0 =0
 ∂y   
∂
∂z
x y 2 sin ω t · cos ω t

So, the left side of Eq. 1-26 is satisfied. Is it the right side as well? We have
   
y 2 sin ω t 0
   
E·J=  0 · 0 =0
  
0 cos ω t

and    
0 0
   
x cos ω t · 
H·M=   0 =0

0 2 y sin ω t
And thus, we see
div S = E · J + H · M = 0
and Eq. 1-26 is indeed fulfilled. 2

1-7:
The first equation is:
Re A + Re B = Re (A + B)
with
A = a0 + j a00 B = b0 + j b00
we have
Re A = a0 Re B = b0
and thus
Re A + Re B = a0 + b0
but we also have

Re (A + B) = Re (a0 + j a00 + b0 + j b00 ) = Re ((a0 + b0 ) + j (a00 + b00 )) = a0 + b0

This is the proof for the first equation.

The second one is:
Re α A = α Re A
again, we let
A = a0 + j a00

8
and thus we have
Re α A = Re (α a0 + j α a00 ) = α a0 = α Re A
which is the proof of the second equation.
Third equation:  
∂ ∂A
Re A = Re
∂x ∂x
We set
A = f (x) + j g(x)
and therefore is
Re A = f (x)
It is evident that
∂
Re A = f 0 (x)
∂x
and when we apply the sum rule of differential calculus, we also see that

∂A
= f 0 (x) + j g 0 (x)
∂x
The real part of that is:
∂A
Re = f 0 (x)
∂x
and so the third equation is also proven.
Fourth and last equation: ˆ ˆ
Re A dx = Re A dx

If
A = f (x) + j g(x)
then we have
Re A = f (x)
and from that: ˆ ˆ
Re A dx = f (x) dx

When integrating A, we can apply the sum rule of integral calculus

ˆ ˆ ˆ
A dx = f (x) dx + j g(x) dx

from which we can clearly see that

ˆ ˆ ˆ
Re A dx = f (x) dx = Re A dx

which is the proof of the last equation. 2

1-11:
The electrical field given is  
0
 
E=
 0 

100 sin π y

9
and the magnetic field:  
0
 π 
H= j 6
 e sin π y 

0
This leads to the complex Poynting vector:

S = E × H?
  
0 0
 × e−j π6 sin π y 
   
=
 0   
100 sin π y 0
 π

−e−j 6 sin π y
 
= 0 

0

Now, the (complex) power dissipated within the cube is:

‹
P = S · dA

It can easily be shown, that all cube surfaces are parallel to S, except the back wall of the cube.
So the scalar product S · dA vanishes on all surfaces, except on that back wall mentioned. We
then can simplify this surface integral to the following:

ˆ1 ˆ1
P = S · dA
z=0 y=0

The surface normal for that back wall is:

 
−1
 
 0  dy dz
dA =  
0

Therefore:
ˆ1 ˆ1
π
−j
P = 100 e 6 sin2 π y dy dz
z=0 y=0

First we calculate the inner integral by means of an integral table:

ˆ1  1
y sin 2 π y 1
sin2 π y dy = − =
2 4π 0 2
0

Then we calculate the outer integral:

ˆ1
dz 1
=
2 2
0

Thus, the total complex power is:

1 π π
P = · 100 e−j 6 = 50 e−j 6
2

10
The imaginary part is the reactive power, which we are not interested in. But the dissipated power
is the real part, which gives us
Pd = Re P ≈ 43.301 W
of power dissipated within the cube.
Note: the power could also be calculated using Gauss’ theorem:
‹ ˚
S · dA = div S dV

But this is a bit more subtle. We have

div S = 0
everywhere, except on the back wall of the cube, where the field abrubtly changes to zero due to
the perfectly conducting walls of the cube. 2

1-13:
Given fields:    
5 0
   
E=
0
 H=
2

0 0

and σ = 10−4 , ˆ = 8 0 −j 10−2 0 , µ̂ = 14 µ0 −j µ0 and ω = 107 . We have the following types of

|{z} | {z } | {z } |{z}
0 00 µ0 µ00
current:

type of current electric magnetic

conduction current J = σE —
displacement current J = j ω ˆ E J = j ω µ̂ H
polarisation current  − 0 ) E
J = j ω (ˆ J = j ω (µ̂ − µ0 ) H
00
dissipative current J = (σ + ω  ) E J = ω µ00 H
reactive current J = j ω 0 E J = j ω µ0 H
induced current J = (σ + j ω 0 + ω 00 ) E J = (ω µ00 + j ω µ0 ) H

Now these currents can easily be calculated by just plugging the appropriate numbers in. 2

1-14:
The AC admittance is:
1 I
Y = = = (2000 + 4 j) nS
Z V
The admittance is defined as:
I
Y =
V
Assuming the current density and electric field strength
I V
J= = ŷ E E=
A d
then we get:
I V
= (σ + j ω 0 + ω 00 ) ·
A d
I
On the left hand side, solve for Y = V . Neglecting conductor losses means σ = 0. This yields:
I A
= (j ω 0 + ω 00 ) ·
V d

11
From the DC capacitance of 300 pF we know:
0 A A CDC
CDC = =
d d 0
And therefore:
CDC CDC
(2000 + 4 j) nS = ω 00 + j ω 0
0 0
The real part on the left side equals the real part on the right side, same applies for the imaginary
part. So there is:

ω 00 CDC
= 2000 nS
0
ω 0 CDC
= 4 nS
0

Solving for 0 and 00 yields: 0 = 118.1 · 10−18 As

Vm and 00 = 59.03 · 10−15 As
Vm. Further,

ŷ = j ω 0 + ω 00

yields ŷ = (59 030 + 118, 1 j) pS. 2

12
3 Introduction to Waves

2-1:
Given field:  
0
 
E=
 0 

E0 e−j k z

This is only a possible field, if it either satisfies

rot rot E − k 2 E = 0

or
∇2 E + k 2 E = 0
and
div E = 0

We have:     
∂
0 0
 ∂x     
rot E = ∂ × 0  = 0
   
 ∂y 
∂
∂z
E0 e−j k z 0

And this
rot rot E = 0
and the first equation (Eq. 2-3 in the book) is not satisfied.
Further, we have
   
0 0
∂2 ∂2 ∂2
 
∇2 E =
   
2
+ 2+ 2 E= 0 = 0 
∂x ∂y ∂z 
2
  
(−j k) E0 e−j k z −k 2 E0 e−j k z

and from here we see that

∇2 E + k 2 E = 0
is satisfied. However, the divergence

div E = −j k E0 e−j k z 6= 0

and thus, this is not a possible wave. 2

13
2-2:
We shall derive the wave equations for inhomogenous media:

rot ẑ −1 rot E + ŷ E = 0

rot ŷ −1 rot H + ẑ H = 0

Start with the field equations

rot E = −ẑ H
rot H = ŷ E

From the first equation, we obtain

ẑ −1 rot E = −H
and now, take the curl on both sides

rot ẑ −1 rot E = − rot H

and substitute the right hand side by the second equation:

rot ẑ −1 rot E = −ŷ E rot ẑ −1 rot E + ŷ E = 0

⇔

This is the derivation of the electric wave equation.

Now, we derive the magnetic wave equation. From

rot H = ŷ E

we obtain
ŷ −1 rot H = E
and taking the curl on both sides yields

rot ŷ −1 rot H = rot E

in which we may substitute the right hand side with the electric field equation

rot E = −ẑ H

so we get
rot ŷ −1 rot H = −ẑ H rot ŷ −1 rot H + ẑ H = 0



⇔
which is the derivation of the magnetic wave equation. 2

2-3:
We have a lossless nonmagnetic dielectric. The impedivity and admittivity are thus given by

ẑ = j ω µ0 + 
ωµ
00

and
ŷ = j ω 0 +  00 
ω  +σ
and
µ0 = µ0
since the dielectric is nonmagnetic. For the dielectric constant,

0 = 0 r

holds.

14
For the wave number k we have:
p p √ √
k = −ẑ ŷ = ω 2 µ0 0 r = ω µ0 0 · r
| {z }
k0

For the intrinsic impedance η we have:

s s r
ẑ ω µ0
j µ0 1
η= =  = ·√
ŷ jω 
 0 r 0 r
| {z }
η0

For the wave length λ we have:

2π 2π 2π 1
λ= = √ √ = ·√
k ω µ0 0 · r k0 r
| {z } |{z}
k0 λ0

And for the phase velocity vph we have:

ω ω 1
vph = = √ √ =c· √

k ω µ0 0 r r
| {z }
c

2-8:
Show that a wave is circularly polarised if
E1
= ±j
E2

Assume  
E0 e−j k z
 
E= −j k z 
±j E0 e 
0
from that, the above condition is met. Now calculate the time function:
√   
2 E0 cos (ω t − k z) cos (ω t − k z)
√
 √
E = 2 Re E ej ω t = 
  
∓ 2 E0 sin (ω t − k z) = K ∓ sin (ω t − k z)
  
0 0

Now, we compare this with the vector representation of a circle. A circle with radius R may be
represented with  
cos t
 
R  sin t 

0
For t ranging from 0 to 2 π, a full circle is described in counter clock-wise direction. Substituting t
by −t yields    
cos (−t) cos t
   
R  sin (−t)  = R − sin t
  
0 0

15
which is a full circle in clock-wise direction for t ranging from 0 to 2 π. Thus, E is right-hand
circularly polarised, if
E2 = −j E1
and it is left-hand circularly polarised if

E2 = j E1

2-9:
We have  
A e−j k z
 
E= −j k z 
B e 
0
and shall now show that this is a superposition of a LH and an RH circularly polarised wave. To
show the circular polarisation, we must show that

E2 = ±j E1

After some try and error, we find the following:

   
1
2 A − 12 j B 1
2 A + 12 j B
    −j k z
E= 1 1   1 1
 2 j A + 2 B  + − 2 j A + 2 B  e

0 0

For the x component of that, we find:

1 1 1 1
A − jB + A + jB = A
2 2 2 2
Similarly, for the y component:
1 1 1 1
jA + B − jA + B = B
2 2 2 2
On the other hand, we have  
1 1
A− jB
2 2 
1 1

2 jA + 2 B

0
from which we see that
E2 = j E1
so this is the LH circular polarised part, and
 
1
A + 12 j B
 2 
− 1 j A + 1 B 
 2 2 
0

where
E2 = −j E1
which is an RH circular polarisation. 2

16
2-17:
The intrinsic impedance is: s
ẑ
η=
ŷ
Since the material is a nonmagnetic conductor, this equals
r
j ω µ0
η=
σ + j ω 0

but the term j ω 0 is very small compared to σ, so it may be neglected. Thus we have:
r r √ √  r
j ω µ0 p 2 π f µ0 2 2 2 π f µ0
η≈ = j· = +j ·
σ σ 2 2 σ

and the intrinsic resistance is given by

R = Re η
which is √ r r r r
2 2 π f µ0 2 · 2 π f µ0 π f µ0 p π µ0
R≈ · = = = f·
2 σ 4σ σ σ
This formula gives us the values shown in the following table:
 MS  √
Material σ m R/ f

Silver 61.4 253 · 10−9

Copper 58 260 · 10−9
Gold 44 299 · 10−9
Aluminum 36.6 328 · 10−9
Brass 15.5 504 · 10−9

One may easily verify that these values exactly correspond to the values given in the book. 2

2-21:
Refraction index of water: n = 9 We have the reflection coefficient as follows:
η2 − η1
Γ=
η2 + η1

The refraction index itself is defined as the value

√
n= r

for nonmagnetic materials. Thus we have

r = n 2

the dielectric constant of water, which appears to be 81. The intrinsic impedances of the individual
media are r
µ0
η1 =
0
for the air and r
µ0
η2 =
0 r

17
so the reflection coefficient is q q
µ0 µ0
0 r − 0
Γ= q q
µ0 µ0
0 r + 0

for which we get the value Γ = −0.8. The reflected power is then
Sref l 2
= |Γ|
Sinc

which is 0.64. Thus, 64 % of the power is reflected, and 36 % is transmitted. 2

2-22:
The polarising angle is defined as follows:
r
2
α = arctan
1

and the critical angle: r

2
β = arcsin
1
This is because in both cases we were able to cancel out the µ’s, since the materials of interest in
this exercise are nonmagnetic.
Using these formulas, we may get the following angle values:

Media α1 [◦ ] α2 [◦ ] β [◦ ]

air and water (r = 81) 83.6 6.34 6.38

air and glass (r = 9) 71.6 18.4 19.5
air and polystyrene (r = 2.56) 57.9 32 38.7

2-25:
Show that
ω 00 e 00 η
G= C =
0 Z0
on a transmission line.
We have the characteristic impedance
s √
R + jωL R + jωL
Z0 = =√
G + jωC G + jωC

and the propagation constant:

√ √ p p
γ= Z Y = R + jωL G + jωC

Divide γ by Z0 . This yields:

√ √
γ R + jωL G + jωC
= √ = G + jωC
Z0 √ R+j ω L
G+j ω C

On the other hand, for any plane wave we have k instead of the propagation constant
√ p
γ → j k = ẑ ŷ

18
and we have the intrinsic impedance instead of the characteristic impedance
√
ẑ
Z0 → η = √
ŷ
with
ẑ = j ω µ̂
and
ŷ = j ω ˆ
we divide j k by η and get: √ √
jk ẑ ŷ
= √ = ŷ = j ω ˆ
η √ẑ
ŷ

Note that we have set σ = 0 in ŷ because the insulation material shall be a perfect dielectric.
We find:
jk
= ω 00 + j ω 0
η
but on the other hand we have
γ
= G + jωC
Z0
To compare coefficients, we must multiply the first equation by C and divide by 0 , so we get
ω 00
C + jωC
0
and from coefficient comparison we see that
ω 00
G= C
0
what we had to show.
jk
From γ = j k and η = ŷ we see that
γ = ŷ η
and therefore
γ ŷ η j ω 0 η + ω 00 η ω 00 η ω 0 η
= = = +j
Z0 Z0 Z0 Z0 Z0
But remember that
γ
= G + jωC
Z0
so we can directly compare coefficients, from which we find:
ω 00 η 0 η
G= C=
Z0 Z0
2

2-27:
Verify:
1
E = η H × uz H= uz × E
η
This holds for TEM waves. Assume
 
E
 1  −j k z
E = E2 

e
0

19
we must find H according to
1
H=− rot E
ẑ
we find      
∂
E1 e−j k z j k E2
 ∂x      −j k z
rot E = ∂ × −j k z  = 
E2 e  −j k E1  e

 ∂y 
∂
∂z
0 0

and from that    

−j k E2 −E2
1   −j k z 1  E1  e−j k z
 
H=  e
j k E1  =
ẑ  η  
0 0

Let us now verify

E = η H × uz
To do that, we find  
−E2
  −j k z
ηH = 
 E1  e

0

and      
−E2 0 E
  −j k z    1  −j k z
η H × uz = 
 E1  e
 ×
0 = E2  e
   =E
0 1 0

So the first relationship holds. Let us now verify

1
H= uz × E
η

To do that, we calculate
     
0 E −E2
   1  −j k z 1  E1  e−j k z = H
 
 0  × E2  e =
    η  
1
η 0 0

So the second relationship also holds. 2

2-28:
For the TE wave we have:  
E0 e−γ z sin n πb y
 
E=
 0 

0

The boundary condition for this field is that the x component must vanish at the conductors. So
we have:
n π y 
E1 = E0 e−γ z sin =0
b y=0


and
n π y 
E1 = E0 e−γ z sin =0
b y=b


20
so both boundary conditions are met and thus this field may exist within the parallel-plate
waveguide. Also we can see that there is no z component of the electric field, so this is a TE mode
wave.
For the TM wave we have:  
H0 e−γ z cos n πb y
 
H=
 0 

0
To see whether this field can exist within the waveguide, we must find the corresponding E from
the given H. From
rot H = j ω  E
we see that
1
E= rot H
jω
and we get      
∂
H0 e−γ z cos n πb y 0
 ∂x     
rot H = ∂ × 0  = −γ H0 e−γ z cos n π y 
 ∂y     b 
∂
∂z
0 H0 nbπ e−γ z sin n πb y
and now we have E from our H, which is
   
0 0
 jγ   jγ 
E=  ω  H0 e
−γ z
cos n πb y  =  ω  H0 e
 −γ z
cos n πb y 

1 n π −γ z nπy nπ −γ z nπy
jω H0 b e sin b jωb H0 e sin b

We can see that the x component of E is always zero, which means the boundary condition for
zero tangential electric field at the conductor walls is satisfied. Further, we have no z component
of H, that’s why this is a TM mode wave.

2-29:
Transmitted power in the waveguide:
s
2
b |E0 | fc2
P = 1−
2η f2

for the TE modes, and s

2
b |H0 | η fc2
P = 1−
2 f2
for the TM modes.
For the TE mode, we have:  
E0 e−γ z sin kc y
 
E=
 0 

0
To calculate the transmitted power, we must find H from the given E which yields
 
0
 
rot E =  −γ z
−γ E0 e sin kc y 

kc E0 e−γ z cos kc y

21
and from that
γ
H2 = E0 e−γ z sin kc y
ẑ

and since Z0 = γẑ , we have

f racγ ẑ = Z10 . Thus:
1
H2 = E0 e−γ z sin kc y
Z0

The transmitted power is then

ˆb ˆy
P = E1 H2? dx dy
y=0 x=0

ˆb ˆy
1 ? γ
= e−γ
E0  
 z
sin kc y · E e z sin kc y dx dy
Z0? 0
y=0 x=0

ˆb ˆ1
E0 E0?
= sin2 kc y dx dy
Z0?
y=0 x=0

2
We may replace E0 E0? by |E0 | . Since Z0 is real, we have Z0? = Z0 , and thus the following integral:

2 ˆb ˆ1
|E0 |
P = sin2 kc y dx dy
Z0
y=0 x=0

From an integral table, we find the integral to have a value of 2b , and therefore the transmitted
power is
2
b |E0 |
P =
2 Z0

From table 2-4, we find:

η
Z0 = q
fc2
1− f2

And we can substitute that into the equation for P , from which we get
s
2
b |E0 | fc2
P = 1−
2η f2

which exactly equals the formula given in the book.

For the TM mode, we have

H1 = H0 e−γ z cos kc y

and to calculate the power, we must find E2 , which is:

1 ∂H1 γ
E2 = =− H0 e−γ z cos kc y
j ω  ∂z jω

22
Now, we calculate the transmitted power

ˆb ˆ1
P =− E2 H1? dx dy
y=0 x=0

ˆb ˆ1
γ
= H0 e−γ z cos kc y · H0? eγ z cos kc y
jω
y=0 x=0

ˆb ˆ1
γ H0 H0?
= cos2 kc y dx dy
jω
y=0 x=0

From an integral table, we find the value of the integral to be 2b . Thus, the transmitted power is:

b γ H0 H0?
P =
2jω
2
we substitute γ = j β and also H0 H0? = |H0 | , and get
2
b j β |H0 |
P =
2jω
But s
fc2 jk
β=k 1− ŷ = j ω  =η
f2 ŷ
from that we see
s s s
2 2 2
b j k |H0 | f2 b j k |H0 | f2 b |H0 | η fc2
P = 1 − c2 = 1 − c2 = 1−
2jω f 2 ŷ f 2 f2

23