CAT 3 - Mock

CAT - QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE (Set of 34 Questions with solutions)
Q1. If the product of the integers a,b,c and d is 3094 and if 1 < a < b < c < d, what is the product of b and
c?
a)26 b)91 c)133 d)221
Q2. If the product of n positive integers is nᶯ , then their sum is
a)A negative integer b)Equal to n c)Equal to n + 1/n d)Never less than n*n
Q3. 900 distinct ‘n’ digit numbers are to be formed by using only 3 digits 2,5,7. Find the smallest value of
‘n’ for which this is possible.
a)5 b)6 c)7 d)8
Q4. Ronaldo and Messi were warming up for a match practise. So both of them were taking a round of
the cricket stadium which had a circumference of 1000 m. If they both maintain a uniform speed
throughout the run and Ronaldo crosses Messi for the first time in 3.5 mins., then what is the time taken
by Ronaldo to cover 4 laps of the ground ? Both have the same speed as per coach’s orders both have to
complete 4 laps of the ground. Also Ronaldo being a fast sprinter runs at twice speed of Messi.
a)20min b)15min c)10min d)7min
Q5. Let a,b,c,d,e,f,g and h be distinct elements in the set {-7, -5, -3, -2, 2, 4, 6, 13}. What is the minimum
possible value of (a+b+c+d)²+(e+f+g+h) ² ?
a)34 b)50 c)30 d)40
Q6. Shyam bought 9 oranges, 7 apples and 5 guavas. Rajan bought 18 oranges, 11 apples and 10 guavas
for an amount which was three fourth more than what Shyam had paid. What percent of the total
amount paid by Shyam was paid for the apples ?
a)37.5% b)62.5% c)58.3% d)45%
Q7. In how many ways may the numbers { 1,2,3,4,5,6} be ordered such that no two consecutive terms
have a sum which is divisble by 2 or 3 ?
a)6 b)12 c)15 d)14
Q8. How many numbers are there between 100 and 1000, which have exactly one of their digits as 7?
a)300 b)1444 c)225 d)729
Q9. A girl wished to purchase m roses for n rupees where m and n are integers. The shopkeeper offered
to give the remaining 10 flowers also if she paid him a total of Rs 2. This would have resulted in a saving
of 80 Paise per dozen for her. How many flowers did she wish to buy initially ?
a)4 b)5 c)6 d)7

Q10. Samir went to the market with Rs 100. If he buys three pens and six pencils he uses up all his
money. On the other hand if he buys three pencils and six pens he would fall short by 20%. If he wants
to buy equal number of pens and pencils, how many pencils can he buy ?
a)4 b)5 c)6 d)7
Q11. Two sisters go up 40-step escalators. The older sister rides the up escalator, but can only take 10
steps up during the ride since it is quite crowded. The younger sister runs up the empty down escalator,
arriving at the top at the same time as her sister. How many steps do the younger sister take ?
a)70 b)60 c)80 d)90
Q12. The sides of a triangle have 4,5 and 6 interior points marked on them respectively. The total
number of traingles that can be formed using any of these points
a)371 b)415 c)286 d)421
Q13. The number of ways in which three distinct numbers in AP can be selected from 1, 2, 3, 4, ...., 24 is
a)144 b)276 c)572 d)132
Q14. In a peculiar chessboard containing 12 X 12 squares, what is the greates number of 5 X 5 squares
that can be traced ?
a)8 b)16 c)64 d)32
Q15. Find the remainder when 2 ⁶⁵⁰ is divisble by 224 ?
a)300 b)1444 c)225 d)729
Q16. The crew of an 8-member rowing team is to be choosen from 12 men (M₁, M₂, M₃…M₁₂) and 8
women (W₁, W₂, ……W₈). There have to be 4 people on each side with at least one woman on each side.
Further it is also known that on the right side of the boat (while going forward) W₁ and M₇ must be
selected while on the left side of the boat M₂, M₃ and M₁₀ must be selected. What is the number of ways
in which rowing team can be arranged ?
a)1368 X 4! X 4! b)1200 X 4! X 4! C)1120 X 4! X 4! d)728 X 4! X 4!
Q17. Aman while getting bored in his school to draw lines on a fixed pattern.First, he draws a line 10mm
long. Then he constructs a square with this line as its diagonal. He then draws another square with a side
of the first square as its diagonal. This process is repeated ‘x’ times, untill the perimeter of the xᵀᴴ square
is less than 1 / 12.5 mm. What is the value of ‘n’?
a)16 b)18 c)20 d)22
Q18. In a bombing of the nathula pass, the indian troops have to destroy a bridge on the pass. The
bridge is such that it is destroyed when exactly 3 bombs hit it. Flt Lt. Salman Khan for his extraordinary
skills is given the responsibility to drop the bomb again. If he drops a maximum of 5 bombs and he
knows that when he drops a bomb on the bridge the probability of the bomb hitting the bridge is 90%.
What will be the probability that the bridge would have been destroyed ? (assuming the bridge is visible
to Flt Lt Khan this time).
a)0.98348 b)0.98724 c)0.99144 d)0.99348
Q19. In a community of 20 families, every family is expected to have the number of offsprings in an AP
with a common difference of 2, starting with 2 offsprings in the first family. Further for every child in the
family every family is expected to deposit the same number of gold coins as there are children in the
family towards a community contribution for each child the family has. What will be the total number if
gold coins collected in the community ?
a)11480 b)11280 c)10880 d)10280
Q20. A boy plays a mathematical game wherein he tries to write the number 1998 into th sum of 2 or
more consecutive positive even numbers (e.g. 1998 = 998+1000). In how many different ways can he do
so ?
a)5 b)6 c)7 d)8
Q21. What is the maximum value of the function y = min (12-x, 8+x) ?
a)12 b) 10 c)11 d)8
Q22. How many real solutions exist for the equation 3ᵡ - 2x – 1=0 ?
a)2 b)3 c)5 d)1
Q23. How many even three-digit integers have the property that their digits, read left to right, are not in
a strictly increasing order ?
a)420 b)416 c)412 d)422
Q24. A book contain 20 chapters. Each chapter has a different number of pages ( each under 21). The
first chapter starts on page 1 and each chapter starts on a new page. What is the largest possible
number of chapters that can be begin on odd page numbers ?
a)19 b)15 c)10 d)11
Q25. Works W1 and W2 are done by Priayanka and Kareena. Priyanka takes 80% more time to do the
work W1 alone than she takes to do it together with Kareena. How much percent more time Kareena
will take to do the work W2 alone than she takes to do it together with Priyanka ?
a)125% b)180% c)20% d)80%
Q26. Consider the set Tᵪ = { x, x+1, x+2, x+3, x+4, x+5}. For x = 1, 2, 3, 4……..999. How many of these sets
do not contain any 7 or any integral multiple of 7 ?
a)121 b)143 c)144 d)145
Q27. Two schools play against each other in a grass court tennis tournament. Each school is represented
by 8 students. Every game is a doubles game, and every possible pair from the first school must play one
game against every possible pair from the second school. How many games will each student play ?
a)196 b)180 c)192 d)164
Q28. How many integral values for the set (x,y) would exist for the expression | x-4 | + | y-2 |+ = 5 ?
a)16 b)14 c)12 d)20
Q29. Abhishek Das travels from Delhi to Kolkata at a speed of 100kmph and returns to Delhi at a speed
of 50kmph. He again leaves for Kolkata immediately at a speed of 30kmph and goes back to Delhi at a
speed of 60kmph. What is his average for the entire journey ?
a)54kmph b)48kmph c) 56kmph d)50kmph
Q30. At 9 PM, Divya is driving her car at 100 km/hr. At this velocity she has enough petrol to cover a
distance of 80 km. Unfortunately the nearest petrol pump is 100 km away. The amount of petrol her car
uses per km is proportional to the velocity of the car. What is the earliest time that Divya can arrive at
the petrol pump ?
a)10:12 pm b)10:15 pm c)10:20 pm d)10:25pm
Q31. The letter of the word HASTE are written in all possible orders and these words are written out as
in dictionary. Then the dictionary rank of the world HEATS is :
a)52 b)54 c)56 d)58
Q32. X, Y are integers belonging to { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5,….., 15 }. How many possible ratios of x/y can you get
such that x/y in an integer ?
a)22 b)40 c)42 d)44
Q33. Problems A, B and C were posed in a mathematical contest. 25 competitors solved at least one of
the three. Amongst those who did not solve A, twice as many solved B as C. The number solving only A
was one more than the number solving A and at least one other. The number solving just A equalled the
number solving just B plus the number solving just C. How many solved just C ?
a)2 b)4 c)6 d) can not be determined
Q34. If q, r > 0, then roots of the equation x² + qx – r = 0 are
a)Both negative b)Both positive c)of opposite sign but equal magnitude d)of opposite sign
Solutions
Sol 1. The key in this question is to lookk for factor pairs of 3094. If we do a prime factor search of 3094,
we get 3094 = 2 x 7 x 13 x 17. These are clearly the values of a,b,c and d in that order. Thus, the values of
the product of b and c is 13 x 7 = 91. Hence, Option (b) is correct.
Sol 2. Since we are talking about the calculation of the sum of n positive integers, it cannot be negative
or a fraction. Thus, Options (a) and (c) are ruled out. Further, Option (b) can be rejected by taking a
sample value of n as 4- it gives us nᵑ as 256. A possible value of the 4 integers could be : 1, 2, 16 and 8.
Obviously their sum is not equal to the value of n and hence we can also reject option (b). This leaves us
only with Option (d) as a possible answer. Hence. Option (d) is correct.
Sol 3. We have to find the value of n for which 3ᵑ > 900 n > 7. Hence, option (c) is correct.
Sol 4. The ratio of the speeds of Ronaldo and Messi is 2:1. Hence they should meet at only one point on
the circumference i.e. the starting point (As the difference in the ratio in reduced form is 1). For the two
of them to meet for the first time, Ronaldo should have completed one complete round over Messi.
Since two of them meet for the first time after 3.5 mins, Ronaldo should have completed 2 rounds (i.e.
2000 m) and Messi should have completed 1 round. (i.e. 1000 m) in this time. Thus, Ronaldo would
complete the race (i.e. 4000 m ) in 7 min. Hence, Option (d) is correct.
Sol 5. The sum of the positives is 25 and the negatives is 17. The best way to distribute the +8 is 5 and 3
by taking 13, 2, -5 and -7 in the first bracket and the remaining values 4, 6, -2 and -3 in the second
bracket. The required answer would be 34. Hence, Option (a) is correct.
Sol 6. Let us look at the two equations. Let (7 A + 9 O + 5 G) cost Rs. X…..eqn (1).
Hence, 11 A + 18 O + 10 G will cost Rs. 1.75X………….eqn (2).
Had, in the second case, Rajan decided to buy 14 A’s instead of 11, the quantity of each one of them
would have doubled over the first case and hence it would have cost me Rs 2X. So, 14 A + 18 O + 10 G =
Rs. 2X………eqn(3).
Now, subtracting the eqn (2) from eqn (3), we get A cost Re. 0.25X. Since, 3 A cost Re. 0.25X, 7 of them
will cost Re. 0.583X. This is the amount that Shyam spent on A. Hence, fraction of the total amount paid
= 0.583 = 58.3%. Hence, Option (c) is correct.
Sol 7. Each of the numbers from 1 to 6 can only have two possible neighbours to avoid sum divisible by 2
or 3. For example, 5 may neighbour only 2 or 6. If we write the numbers 1, 4, 3, 2, 5 and 6 in that order
in a ring then each number will be next to its two possible neighbours. Therefore, to order the six
numbers successfully we need only start at any point along the ring (6 choices) and list the numbers as
they appear around the ring in either direction (2 choices) for a total of 12 possible orderings. Hence,
Option (b) is correct.
Sol 8. Consider a three digit number in which 7 comes exactly once i.e from 107 to 997. If you fix seven
at the units place and use the other digits for filling in the other 2 places you will get 72 numbers in
which 7 comes at unit place i.e. 8 X 9 X ₇ . Similarly, at the ten’s place there would be i.e 8 X ₇ X 9 = 72
ways. And also at the hundred’s place there would be ₇ X 9 X 9 = 81 ways. So, the total numbers from
100 to 1000, there are 72 + 72 + 81 = 225 numbers in which they have exactly one of their digit is 7.
Hence, Option (c) is correct.
Sol 9. n = 1; since n is an integer < 2. Therefore, 100 / m - 200 / m+10 = 80/12. Hence, m = 5.
Sol 10. 9 pens + 9 pencils would cost him Rs. 225. Hence, he can buy 4 pens and 4 pencils for Rs. 100.
Hence, Option (a) is correct.
Sol 11. In the time it takes the older sister to reach the top, the up escalatro has carried her forward 30
steps, because the total length of the escalator is 40 steps and she took 10 steps herself. Therefore, in
the same time the down escalator pushes the younger sister back 30 steps. To make up this set back and
cover the original 40 steps seperating her from the top the younger sister must make a total of 70 steps.
Hence, Option(a) is correct.
Sol 12. You can form traingles by taking 1 point from each side, or by taking 2 points from any 1 side and
the third point from either of the other two sides.
This can be done in : 4 X 5 X 6 + ⁴C₂ X ¹¹C₁ + ⁵C₂ X ¹⁰C₁ + ⁶C₂ X ⁹C₁ = 120 + 66 + 100 + 135 = 421. Hence,
Option (d) is correct.
Sol 13. If we take common difference (c.d.) = 1, then (1,2,3), (2,3,4),………,(22,23,24). There will be 22
combinations. If we take common difference = 2, then total 20 combinations are possible i.e. (1,3,5),
(2,4,6), (3,5,7),……..,(20,22,24).
If we take c.d. = 3, 18 combinations are possible.
If we take c.d. = 4, 16 combinations are possible.
And, there will be two combinations in last i.e. (1,12,23) and (2,13,24) with c.d. = 11. So, total number of
combinations are : 22 + 20 + 18 + 16 +……+ 4 + 2 + = 2 X(1 + 2 + 3 + 4….+ 11) = 2 X (11 X 12 / 2 ) = 132.
Hence, Option (d) is correct.
Sol 14. The required answer would be given by 8 X 8 = 64 (because if you take the top side of the square
on the top side of the chess board, you would be able to trace out 8 squares. Similarly, you would get
exactly 8 squares in each row when you move to the next row of the chess board). This would continue
till 8th row of the chess board is taken as the top row of the 5 X 5 squares. Hence, 8 X 8 = 64). Hence,
Option (c) is correct.
Sol 15. 2⁶⁵⁰ = 25. (2.2.2)²¹⁵ = 32 X 8²¹⁵ / 224 = 8²¹⁵ / 7 gives us a remainder of 1. Since, we have cut the
numerator and denominator by 32 in the process, the actual remainder must be 32. Hence, Option (c) is
correct.
Sol 16. We have to first complete the selection of 4 people for either side and then arrange the rowers
on each ( which would be done by using 4!). The solution would be given by : ¹²C₂ X 4! X ⁸C₁ X 4! + ¹²C₁ X
⁸C₁ X 4! X ⁷C₁ X 4! + ⁸C₂ X 4! X ⁶C₁ X 4! = 1368 X 4! X 4!. Hence, Option (a) is correct.
Sol 17. Diagonal of first square = 10mm. Side of first square = 10/√2. Side of second square = 10 X 1 /
(√2)²….Side of xth square = 10 X 1 / (√2)ᵡ . 4 X 10 X 1 / (√2)ᵡ < 0.08 i.e. 1 / (√2)ᵡ < 0.002. Therefore, (1 /
2)ᵡ ² < 2 / 1000 . Hence, x should be at least 18. Option (b) is correct.
Sol 18. The bridge would be destroyed under the following conditions : In 3 bombs OR In 4 bombs OR In
5 bombs Hit, Hit and Hit OR One miss and 3 hits (3 ways) OR 2 misses and 3 hits (⁴C₂ = 6ways) = (0.9)³ +
3 X (0.9) ³ X (0.1)¹ + 6 X (0.1)² = 0.729 + 3 X 0.0729 + 6 X 0.00729 = 0.99144. Hence, Option(c) is correct.
Sol 19. The number of children in the family would be : 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12,….., 40. Hence, the number of
gold coins selected would be : 2X2 + 4X4 + 6X6 + ……. + 40X40 = 4 + 16 + 36 + 64 + 100 + 144 + 196 + 256
+ 324 + 400 + 484 + 576 + 676 + 784 + 900 + 1024 + 1156 + 1296 + 1444 + 1600 = 11480. Hence, Option
(a) is correct.
Sol 20. 1998 = 2 X (3X3X3) X 37 16 factors viz. 1 X 1998, 2 X 999, 3 X 666, 6 X 333, 9 X 222, 18 X 111,
27 X 74, 54 X 37. Thus we could form 7 AP’s as follows : (1)An AP with 2 terms and average 999. (2)An AP
with 3 terms and average 666 and so on 7 ways. Hence, Option (c) is correct.
Sol 21. Equate 12 - x = 8 + x to give you the intersection point between the two lines 12 - x and 8 + x. The
intersection occurs at a value of x as 2. It can be visualized by plotting both these lines that the
maximum value of the given function would occur at x = 2. Hence, Option (b) is correct i.e 10.
Sol 22. It can be seen by plotting the graph of this expression that function y = 3ᵡ - 2x – 1 would cut the x
axis twice. Hence, the equation would have 2 real solutions. Option (a) is correct.
Sol 23. In the 100s, the first numbers are 124, 126, 128, 134, 136, 138, 146, 156, 168, 178. In the 200s,
the values would be 234, 236, 238, 246, 248, 256, 258, 268, 278. In the 300s, the values would be 346,
348, 356, 358, 368, 378. In the 400s, the values would be 456, 458, 468, 478. In the 500s, the values
would be only 2 values. In the 600, there is only 1 value and no value after that. Hence, 34 values. But,
in all there are 450 even three digit numbers starting from 100, 102, 104,….., 998. Hence, the required
answer is 450 – 34 = 416. Hence, Option (b) is correct.
Sol 24. There would be 10 chapters with even number of pages. Place them to start with - each of them
would start on an odd numbered page. After that start to place the chapters with an odd number of
pages – the first one would start on an odd numbered page, the second on an even numbered page, the
third on an odd numbered page and so on. Thus, there would be 10 + 5 = 15 chapters out of 20 which
can at the maximum start on an odd numbered page. Hence, Option (b) is correct.
Sol 25. Let P be the amount of work Priyanka can do per day and K be the amount of work Kareena can
do per day. According to the given statement…. ( ( W1 / P ) – (W1 / ( P + K ) ) ) / (W1 / (P + K)) = 0.8 this
gives K = 0.8 P, what we were asked is, ( ( W2 / K) – (W2 / (P + K) ) ) / (W2 / (P + K) ) substituting K =
0.8P, we get the required value as 1.25 i.e 125%. Hence, Option (a) is correct.
Sol 26. In this case you would get the sets like : { 1,2,3,4,5,6}, {8,9,10,11,12,13}, {15,16,17,18,19,20}….As
we can see the starting digits for each of these sets consists of an AP as 1, 8, 15…. The next step is to find
the number of terms in the series before 999. This can be done as : Series is 1, 8, 15, 22,……, 995 ….. And
this series would be [ ( 995 – 1 ) / 7 ] + 1 = 143 terms. Hence, Option (b) is correct.
Sol 27. Total matches being played = 8C2 * 8C2 = 28² = 784. Thus, a total of 784 X 4 = 3136 people are
part of these 784 matches. Each of the 16 players would play in the same number of matches = 3136 /
16 = 196. Hence, Option (a) is correct.
Sol 28. For making the value of 5 : 0 + 5 This would happen if we take the values of x as 4 and y can
take the values of 7 or -3. Hence, there would be 2 sets of integral (x, y) values giving us 0 + 5 = 5. 1+ 4
(5,6), (5,-2), (3,6), (3,-2) i.e 4 solutions. Similarly, 2 + 3 can give 4 solutions. 3 + 2 can give 4 solutions. 4 +
1 can give 4 solutions and 5 + 0 can give 2 solutions. Hence, Option (d) is correct.
Sol 29. Let the distance between Delhi and Kolkata be 300 kms. The total time take would be 3 + 6 + 10 +
5 = 24 hrs. The total distance would be 1200 kms. Hence, the average speed is given by Average speed =
(total distance / total time) = 1200 / 24 = 54 kmph. Hence, Option (d) is correct.
Sol 30. Divya need to travel 100 km at the rate of 80 km/hr. Henc, time taken would be 5 / 4 hrs. Hence,
Sol 31. The letter available to us are : A, E, H, S and T in their alphabetical order. When we form 5 letter
words out of these, the following order of appearing in the dictionary would hold…..
Words starting with A___4! = 24
Words starting with E___4! = 24
Words starting with HA___3! = 6
Words starting with HE……. Completes description : First word : HEAST, Second word = HEATS….. Hence,
the 56th word in the list would be HEATS. So, Option (c) is correct.
Sol 32. If we take x as 2, we will get 2 integers,
If we take x as 3, we will get 2 integers,
If we take x as 15, we will get 4 integers. Thus there would be total of 44 such integral ratios. Hence,
Option (d) is correct.
Sol 33. Let a solve just A, b solve just B, c solve just C and d solve B and C but not A. Then 25 – a – b – c –
d solve A and at least one of B or C. The conditions give : b + d = 2 (c + d); a = 1 + 25 – a – b – c – d ; a = b
+ c. Eliminating a and d, we get : 4b + c = 26. But, d = b – 2c > = 0. So, b = 6, c =2. Hence, Option (a) is
correct.
Sol 34. The roots would be of opposite sign as the product of roots is negative. Hence, Option (d) is
correct.
DILR
Sub: LR
Topic: Mixed
Created by: Intekhab Aslam
Difficulty Level: 3
MCQ
DIRECTIONS for the question from (Q1- Q4): Read the information given below and answer the
question that follows.
Junction Stall is a fast food joint which sells three items which are burgers, French-fries and ice cream.
The two employees Avik and Banik prepare the items ordered by the customers. Preparation time is 10
minutes for a burger and 2 minutes for an order of ice cream. An employee can prepare only one of
these items at a time. French- fries are fried in a fryer which is automatic in function and can cook up to
3 portions of fires at a time and takes 5 minutes regardless of the number of the quantity. As the fryer is
automatic so we can ignore the time taken by the staff to start and stop the fryer, hence, an employee
can work in cooking other items while the frying is on. French- fries cannot be prepared in anticipation
of future orders. Junction Stall core idea is to serve customer efficiently and quickly. The individual items
when ordered are served as quickly as it gets prepared. However, the order is considered to be
completely served only when all the items of that order are served. The table below gives the orders of
three clients and the times at which they placed their orders:
Customer Number Clock Time Given Order

1 10 am 3 fries, 1 veg-burger + 1 ice
cream
2 10:05 am 1 ice cream + 2 fries
3 10:07 am 1 fries + 1 veg-burger
Q1. Assuming that only single customer's order can be prepared at any given time. So, Avik or Banik
cannot start processing a new order while the last one is in progress.
Find the time is the order placed by customer 1 completely served?
a) 10:18
b) 10:24
c) 10:10
d) 10:19
Ans (c)
Solution:
As the item which take the maximum time is burger, fries will be prepared in automatic fryer and
will be cooked in 5 mins while burger preparation will be on and also ice cream will be prepared by
then in 2 minutes.
Customer 1 will be completely served by 10.00 + 10 minutes = 10:10.
Q2. Assuming that only single customer's order can be prepared at any given time. So, Avik or Banik
cannot start processing a new order while the last one is in progress.
a) 10:25
b) 10:18
c) 10:23
d) 10:27
Ans. (a)
Solution:
Read the table as order 2 does not have burger.
The time taken for the different customer are as follows:
Customer 1 – 10 – 10:10 (burger)
Customer 2 – 10:10 – 10:15 (fries)
Customer 3 – 10:15 – 10:25 (burger)
Q3. Assume that the staff are allowed to prepare multiple orders at a time, but the priority would be
to finish orders of clients who placed their orders earlier.
a) 10:27
b) 10:10
c) 10:16
d) 10:19
Ans (b)
Solution:
When the staffs are allowed to prepare multiple orders.
The time taken would be:
Customer 1 – 10:00 – 10:10 (Avik)
Customer 2 – 10:05 – 10:10 (Banik).
The second customer can be served by 10:10.
Q4. Assuming that the staffs are allowed to prepare multiple orders at a time, but the priority would
be to finish orders of customers who placed their orders earlier.
Also assume that the fourth customer came in only at 10:35. Between 10:00 and 10:30, find for how
many minutes is exactly one of the staff was idle?
a) 23
b) 15
c) 7
d) 10
Ans. (d)
Solution:
The time for which exactly one staff would be free would be:
10:02 – 10:05 – (Banik) – 3 Minutes.
10:10 – 10:17 (Avik / Banik) – 7 minutes (depending on who prepares the order for customer 3.
After 10:17 both of them would be free.
∴ Either of the staff will be free for (3 + 7) = 10 minutes.
Sub: DI
Topic: Tabular type
Difficulty Level: 2
Non-MCQ
DIRECTIONS for the question (Q5-Q8): Study the table given below and answer the question that
follows:
A research to observe at the early teaming of rural kids was carried out in few of villages covering three
states, chosen from the North East (NE), the West (W) and the South (S). 50 four-year old kids each were
taken as sample from each of the 150 villages from NE, 250 villages from each of W and 200 from each
of the villages from S. the research showed that out of the 30,000 surveyed pupil, 55% studied in
primary level Government (G) school, 37% in privately run schools (P) and the rest 8% did not go to
school at all (O). The surveyed sample pupil was further divided into two groups based on their mother’s
primary level education is complete or not. Below is the table attached which gives the number of kids
in different types of schools for mothers who left school before completing primary education.
G P O Total
NE 4200 500 300 5000
W 4200 1900 1200 7300
S 5100 300 300 5700
Total 13500 2700 1800 18000
It is stated that:
1. In the Southern part, 60% of the students who were surveyed and were sample were m G. As well in
S, all surveyed students whose mothers had completed primary level of education were in school.
2. In the north eastern part, among the O students, 50% had mothers who left schooling before primary
level of education.
3. Number of students in Government school “G” in north eastern part was equal to the number of kids
in G in western part.
Q5. Calculate the percentage of kids from S were studying in P.
Ans________
Ans. 37%
Solution:
Below is the table given for students in separate schools whose mothers left school and on adding
another value for each value already present and the new value will represent the number of students
in different types of schools for kids whose mothers finished primary level of schooling.
G P O
Dropped Completed Dropped Completed Dropped Completed Total
Out Out Out
NE 4200 1050 500 1150 300 300 7500
W 4200 1050 1900 3850 1200 300 12500
S 5100 900 300 3400 300 0 10000
Total 13500 3000 2700 8400 1800 600 30000
 We calculate that =300 + 3400 = 3700 students out of 10,000 students from S were studying in P
which = 37%
Q6. Among the students in Western part whose mothers had completed primary schooling.
Find how many were not in school?
Ans______
Ans. 300
Solution:
Below given is the table given for students in different schools whose mothers had quit school. On
adding another value, each value already present and the new value will depict the number of
students in different types of schools for kids whose mothers had finished primary schooling.
G P O
Out Out Out
NE 4200 1050 500 1150 300 300 7500
W 4200 1050 1900 3850 1200 300 12500
S 5100 900 300 3400 300 0 10000
Total 13500 3000 2700 8400 1800 600 30000
 In the Western part, 300 student’s mothers had finished primary schooling were not in
school.
Follow up research followed for the same students two years later and it was noticed that all the
students were now in school. Of the students who were not in school previously, in one region, 25%
were in G currently and the rest were enrolled in P. The second region, all such students were in G now.
Third region, 50% of such students had now joined G while the rest enrolled in P. As a result, in all three
regions put together, 50% of the students who were earlier out of school enrolled in G. It was also
noticed that none of the students switched schools.
Q7. Calculate number of the surveyed students now were in G in W?
Ans____
Ans. 6000
Solution:
adding another value, each value already present and the new value will depict the number of students
in different types of schools for kids whose mothers had finished primary schooling.
G P O
Out Out Out
NE 4200 1050 500 1150 300 300 7500
W 4200 1050 1900 3850 1200 300 12500
S 5100 900 300 3400 300 0 10000
Total 13500 3000 2700 8400 1800 600 30000
Since there were initially 2400 students who were not in school and now half of them which is 1200 of
them are in G, with the given percentages the only chance is 50% of students in W.
25% of students in North eastern and 100% of students in Southern who were not going to school
shifted to G.
∴ 50% of W = 50% of 1500 = 750.
25% of NE = 25% of 600 = 150
100% of S = 100% of 300 = 300
Total = (750+150+300) = 1200
∴ Currently = 4200 + 1050 + 750 = 6000 students were in G is W.
Follow up research followed for the same students two years later and it was noticed that all the
students were now in school. Of the students who were not in school previously, in one region, 25%
were in G currently and the rest were enrolled in P. The second region, all such students were in G now.
Third region, 50% of such students had now joined G while the rest enrolled in P. As a result, in all three
regions put together, 50% of the students who were earlier out of school enrolled in G. It was also
noticed that none of the students switched schools.
Q8. Calculate the percentage of the surveyed sample of students in S, whose mothers had quit before
primary schooling, were in G now?
Ans_____
Ans. ≈ 95%
Solution:
adding another value, each value already present and the new value will depict the number of students
in different types of schools for kids whose mothers had finished primary schooling.
G P O
Out Out Out
NE 4200 1050 500 1150 300 300 7500
W 4200 1050 1900 3850 1200 300 12500
S 5100 900 300 3400 300 0 10000
Total 13500 3000 2700 8400 1800 600 30000
Duly explained in the previous part, all 300 in S who were not going to school, now started going to G.
Now out of the 5700 students whose mothers had quit in S regions, 5400 are in G.
𝟓𝟒𝟎𝟎
The required % = = 94.7% ≈ 95%
𝟓𝟕𝟎𝟎
Sub: DI
Topic: Venn Diagram
Difficulty Level: 2
MCQ
DIRECTIONS for the question (Q9-Q12): Study the table given below and answer the question that
follows:
Applicants for the PhD programs of Amby Institute of Engineering (AIE) and Bambit Institute of
Engineering (BIE) have to take Common Entrance Test (CET). The test was divided into three sections:
Physics (P), Chemistry (C), and Math (M). From those taking CET, those who are at or above the 80th
percentile in at least two sections and at or above the 90th percentile overall is selected for Advanced
Entrance Test (AET) conducted by AIE directly. AET is used by AIE for final stage selection. From those
200 test takers ≥ 90th percentile overall based on CET, additional information about their performance
in CET are given below:
1. None is below the 80th percentile in all the 3 sections.
2. In exactly two section 150 scored 80 and above percentile.
3. Number of test takers at or above the 80th percentile only in Physics is equal to the number of test
takers at or above the 80th percentile only in Chemistry. It is the same in the number of test takers at or
above the 80th percentile only in Math.
4. Number of test takers below 80th percentile in Physics: Number of test takers below 80th percentile
in Chemistry: Number of test takers below 80th percentile in Math is given in the ratio of 4:2:1.
BIE uses a different method for selection. If any test taker is appearing in the AET by AIE, BIE gives
weightage to their AET score for final selection provided the candidate is at or above the 80th percentile
in Physics. Any other test taker at or above the 80th percentile in Physics in CET, but the ineligible test
taker for the AET is required to take a separate test to be conducted by BIE for being considered for final
selection. In total, there are 400 candidates this year who are at or above the 80th percentile in Physics.
Q9. Derive the best conclusion of the number of test takers taking the separate test for BIE who were ≥
90th percentile overall in CET?
a) 3 or 10
b) 7 or 10
c) 5
d) 12
Ans. (a)
Solution:
In the given numerical, 200 candidates scored above 90th percentile overall in CET.
Say the following Venn diagram represent the number of test takers who scored above 80
percentiles in CET in each of the given three sections:
From condition 1, h = 0.
From condition 2, d + e + f = 150.
From condition 3, a = b = c.
Since there are a total of 200 candidates,
3a + g = 200 – 150 = 50.
From condition 4, (2a + f) : (2a + e) : (2a + d) = 4 : 2 : 1
Hence, 6a + (d + e + f) is divisible by 4 + 2 + 1 = 7.
Since d + e + f = 150, 6a + 150 is divisible by 7, i.e., 6a + 3 is divisible by 7.
Hence, a = 3, 10, 17, . . .
We know that 3a + g = 50, a must be < 17.
Hence, only two cases are possible for the value of a.
i.e. 3 or 10.
We can calculate the values of the other variables for the two cases.
a = 3 or 10, d = 18 or 10, e = 42 or 40, f = 90 or 100, g = 41 or 20.
Among the test taker who are at or above 90th percentile, the test taker who are at or above 80th
percentile in at least two sections are selected for AET.
Hence, the test taker represented by d, e, f and g are selected for AET. BIE will consider the test
taker who are appearing for AET and are at or above 80th percentile in P.
BIE will consider the test taker represented by d, e and g, which can be 104 or 80. BIE will conduct a
separate test for the other students who are at or above 80th percentile in P.
As per numerical there are a total of 400 test takers at or above 80th percentile in P.
Since there are 104 or 80 test takers at or above 80th percentile in P and are at or above 90th
percentile in total, so there must be 296 or 320 test takers at or above 80th percentile in P who
scored less than 90th percentile overall.
Test Takers sitting for BIE is 3 or 10.
Sub: DI
Topic: Venn Diagram
Difficulty Level: 2
Non-MCQ
Q10. Calculate number of test takers who ≥ 90th percentile in all and also ≥ 80th percentile in all the given
three sections in CET is basically a multiple of 5. Find the number of test takers who are ≥ 90th percentile
overall and ≥ 80th percentile in Physics and Math in CET?
Ans_____
Ans. 60
Solution:
3a + g = 200 – 150 = 50.
Hence, a = 3, 10, 17, . . .
i.e. 3 or 10.
Since there are 104 or 80 test takers at ≥ 80th percentile in P and are at ≥ 90th percentile in total, so
there must be 296 or 320 test takers at or above 80th percentile in P who scored less than 90th
percentile overall.
As per the given scenario, g is a multiple of 5.
Hence, g = 20.
Number of test takers ≥ 90th percentile in all ≥ 80th percentile in both Physics and Math
= e + g = 60.
Sub: DI
Topic: Venn Diagram
Difficulty Level: 2
Non-MCQ
Q11. Number of test taker ≥ 90th percentile overall and also ≥ 80th percentile in three sections in CET is
actually a multiple of 5, then find the number of test takers were shortlisted for the AET for AIE?
Ans_______
Ans. 170
Solution:

3a + g = 200 – 150 = 50.
Hence, a = 3, 10, 17, . . .
i.e. 3 or 10.
there must be 296 or 320 test takers at or above 80th percentile in P who scored less than 90th
percentile overall.
Given scenario, g = 20.
Number of test takers shortlisted for AET = d + e + f + g = 10 + 40 + 100 + 20 = 170

Sub: DI
Topic: Venn Diagram
Difficulty Level: 2
Non-MCQ
Q12. If the number of test takers who are ≥ 90th percentile in all and also are ≥ 80th percentile in Physics
in CET is > 100. Find how many test takers had to sit for the separate test for BIE?
Ans_____
Ans. 299
Solution:
3a + g = 200 – 150 = 50.

Hence, a = 3, 10, 17, . . .
i.e. 3 or 10.
there must be 296 or 320 test takers ≥ 80th percentile in P who scored less than 90th percentile
overall.
As per the given scenario, the number of test takers ≥ 90th percentile overall and ≥ 80th percentile in
Physics in CET = 104.
The number of test takers who have to sit for separate test = 296 + 3 = 299
Sub: DI
Topic: Bar Graph
Difficulty Level: 3
Non-MCQ
DIRECTIONS for the question (Q12-Q15): Analyze the graph depicted below and solve the question that
follows.
For a West African country simple happiness index (SHI) is calculated on the basis of social support (S),
freedom of life choice (F) and perception towards corruption (C). Each of these three parameters is
measured on a Likert scale of 0 to 8 (integers only). A country is then classified based on the total score
obtained by summing the scores of ail the three parameters, as shown in the following table:
Total Score 0-4 5-8 9-13 14-19 20-24

Category Very Unhappy Unhappy Neutral Happy Very Happy
Following diagram depicts the frequency distribution of the scores in S, F and C of 10 countries - Amdar,
Bengao, Callar, Delmao, Eppal, Varsav, Wannab, Xandar, Yangal and Zoornam:
The following information are known:
1. Amdar and Callar jointly scored the lowest total score 7 with same scores in all the three parameters.
2. Zoornam had net score of 17.
3. The given 3 countries, which are categorized as happy, have the highest score in exactly one
parameter.
Q12. What is Amdar score in F?
Ans______
Ans. 1
Solution:
Below table represents the given data:
Score S F C
0
1 2 1
2 1 3
3 3 2 4
4 3 1 1
5 2 3
6 1 1
7 1 1
Total 10 10 10
A and C have net score of 7 with same scores in all these parameters.
Therefore, it can only be 1, 2 and 4 or 3, 3 and 1.
As Zoornam has a score of 17 and all three countries in the happy category have the highest score in
exactly one parameter, it can only get 7 in F, 6 in S and 4 in C as a score of 7 in S and 6 in C would be the
scores of the other two countries and it cannot have a 7. 7 and 5 as there are no country which scored a
5 in C.
Amdar can have a distribution of 3, 3, 1 or 4, 2, 1.
Amdar score in F is 1.
In either case the only possible score of F is 1 as no other parameter has a score of 1 for two countries.
Sub: DI
Topic: Bar Graph
Difficulty Level: 3
Non-MCQ
Q13. Find Zoornam score in S.
Ans_______
Ans. 6
Solution:
Score S F C
0
1 2 1
2 1 3
3 3 2 4
4 3 1 1
5 2 3
6 1 1
7 1 1
Total 10 10 10
5 in C.
In the previous explanation Zoornam score in C has to be 6.
Sub: DI
Topic: Bar Graph
Difficulty Level: 3
MCQ
Q14. Bengao and Delmao are the two countries categorized as happy and are tied with the same total
score. Calculate the maximum score they can have?
a) 17
b) 14
c) 15
d) 16
Ans (c)
Solution:
Score S F C
0
1 2 1
2 1 3
3 3 2 4
4 3 1 1
5 2 3
6 1 1
7 1 1
Total 10 10 10
5 in C.
Given table, among the highest scores, a score of 7 in F, 6 in S and 4 in S were the score of Zoornam. The
best possible scores remaining for Bengao and Delmao would be:
Bengao Delmao
S–5 S–7
C–6 C–3
F-5 F – 15
16 15
As it is shown that both had the same net score it can only be 15 for both, i.e. Bengao score in S or F was
one less than the maximum possible.
Sub: DI
Topic: Bar Graph
Difficulty Level: 3
Non-MCQ
Q15. Say Bengao gets 16 and Delmao gets 15, then what is the highest number of countries with a score
of 13?
Ans_______
Ans. 1
Solution:
Score S F C
0
1 2 1
2 1 3
3 3 2 4
4 3 1 1
5 2 3
6 1 1
7 1 1
Total 10 10 10
5 in C.
Taking the score of Zoornam, Bengao and Delmao as 17, 16 and 15, we get
S F C Total
Zoornam 6 7 4 17
Bengao 5 5 6 16
Delmao 7 5 3 15
Suppose Bengao score 16 and Delmao score 15 (depicted in the previous example) the maximum
possible values remaining are:
Score S F C
3 3 2 3
4 3 1 0
5 1 1 0
Sub: DI
Topic: Table
Difficulty Level: 2
MCQ
DIRECTIONS for the question (Q16-Q19): Read the information given below and answer the question
that follows.
The square layout of size in meter scale of (5 × 5) = 25 have equal sized square platforms of variable
heights are constructed. The heights of individual platforms are as shown below is:
6 1 2 4 3
9 5 3 2 8
7 8 4 6 5
3 9 5 1 2
1 7 6 3 9
People having same height are seated on these platforms.
We can say a person A can reach the person B if all the three following conditions are fulfilled:
(i) Both A and B are in the same row or column

(ii) B is at a higher height than A
(iii) Say that there are people between A and B, such people must be at a height lower than
that of A.
In the table given above, take the person seated at height 8 on 3rd row and 2nd column. He or she
can be reached by four people. He or she can be reached by the person on his her left at height 7, by
the two people on his/her right at heights of 4 and 6 and by the people above at height 5. Rows in
the layout are numbered from top to bottom and columns are numbered from left to right.
Q16. How many people in this layout can be reached by just one person?
a) 7
b) 8
c) 16
d) 9
Ans. (a)
Solution:
Below is the given height of the platform:
6 1 2 4 3
9 5 3 2 8
7 8 4 6 5
3 9 5 1 2
1 7 6 3 9
Number of people who can be reached by just one person is colored:
6 1 2 4 3
9 5 3 2 8
7 8 4 6 5
3 9 5 1 2
1 7 6 3 9
Altogether 7 people can be reached by just one person.

Sub: DI
Topic: Table
Difficulty Level: 2
MCQ
Q17. Identify from the following which holds true for any person at a platform of height 1m in this
layout?
a) They cannot be reached by anyone

b) They can be reached by at least 4 persons
c) They can be reached by at least one person
d) They can be reached by all the people in their own row and column
Ans. (a)
Solution:
Heights of the platforms is stated below:
6 1 2 4 3
9 5 3 2 8
7 8 4 6 5
3 9 5 1 2
1 7 6 3 9
For a person at a platform of height 1, they cannot be reached by anyone as condition as condition
(II) will be violated.
Sub: DI
Topic: Table
Difficulty Level: 2
MCQ
Q18. Find the two people who cannot be reached by anyone in?
a) the middle column

b) the fourth column
c) the fourth row
d) the last row
Ans. (c)
Solution:
6 1 2 4 3
9 5 3 2 8
7 8 4 6 5
3 9 5 1 2
1 7 6 3 9
Notice that in fourth column can we see two persons who cannot be reached by anyone. In the
fourth column the person at height 2 and the person at height 1 cannot be reached by anyone.
Sub: DI
Topic: Table
Difficulty Level: 2
MCQ
Q19. Identify the correct statement about this layout?
a) Each row has a person who can be reached by 5 or more person

b) Each row has a person who cannot be reached by anyone
c) Each row has at least two people who can be reached by an equal number of people
d) All person at the height of 9 m can be reached by at least 5 persons
Ans. (c)
Solution:
6 1 2 4 3
9 5 3 2 8
7 8 4 6 5
3 9 5 1 2
1 7 6 3 9
Statement 1 is invalid as no person in row 1 can be reached by 5 or more person.
Statement 2 is invalid as row 3 has no person who cannot be reached by anyone.
Statement 4 is invalid as the person at height 9 in column 1 can be reached by only 4 people
Sub: LR
Topic: mixed type
Difficulty Level: 3
Non-MCQ
Q20. A new bus agency plans to start operations. The agency has shortlisted ten different cities which
they plan to connect by the road network to start with. The travel duration between any 2 cities will be
less than an hour. To start the service, the agency has to decide on a daily schedule.
The core mantra that they are working on is the following:
Any individual staying in any of the covered 10 cities will be able to make a trip to the other city in the
morning return by evening on that very day.
If the core mantra is to be fulfilled in such a way that the journey between any two cities can be
performed using only direct travel. Find the minimum number of direct buses to be scheduled?
Ans_______
Ans 180
Solution:
For any 2 cities, A and B, to fulfill the core mantra, there has to be a morning bus from A to B, an evening
bus from B to A and a morning bus from B to A and an evening bus from A to B.
Then and only then a person from A or B travel to B or A and return the same day.
Hence, there must be four buses between any pair of cities.
𝟏𝟎 ×𝟗
Number of ways of selecting two cities from ten cities = = 45
𝟒
Therefore, least number of buses that must be scheduled = 45 × 4 = 180.
Sub: LR
Topic: mixed type
Difficulty Level: 3
Non-MCQ
Assume three of the ten cities are to be developed as hubs. A hub is connected with every other
destination by direct buses each way, in the morning as well as in the evening.
The only direct buses which will be scheduled are originating and/or terminating in one of the hubs.
Then the minimum number of direct buses that need to be scheduled so that the core mantra of the
agency to serve all the ten cities is met without visiting more than one hub during one trip is?
Ans______
Ans. 96
Solution:
Assume ten cities be denoted by A through J. Among these ten, consider A, B and C to be hubs and the
remaining seven to be non-hub.
It is given that any direct bus should originate and/or terminate at a hub.
Take city D, which not a hub. D should be connected to each of A, B and C. Between D and each of A, B
and C, there must be four buses.
Hence, from D, there must be 4 × 3 = 12 buses to the three hubs, A, B and C.
Hence, for each of the other six non-hub cities, there must be 12 buses connecting each non-hub with
the three hubs.
Hence, a total of 12 × 7 = 84 buses will connect a non-hub city with a hub.
Also, the three hubs must be connected amongst themselves.
Since there must be four buses between any pair of cities, there must be a total of 4 × 3 = 12 buses
connecting any pair of hubs.
The total least number of buses that should be scheduled = 84 + 12 = 96.
Sub: LR
Topic: mixed type
Difficulty Level: 3
MCQ
Suppose the 10 cities are divided into 4 distinct groups G1, G2, G3, G4 having 3, 3, 2 and 2 cities
respectively and that G1 consists of cities named A, B and C.
Also, suppose that direct buses are allowed only between two cities satisfying one of the followings:
a) Both cities are in G1

b) Between A and any city in G2
c) Between B and any city in G3
d) Between C and any city in G4
Ans. (d)
Solution:
Given that the cities in G2 will be assigned to G3 or G4.
However, by virtue of itself will not result in any reduction in the number of buses because the cities in
G2 will still have to be connected to either B or C.
Also given that there are now no buses between A and C.
That is why, the 4 buses that would have been scheduled in the previous case, will now not be
scheduled.
Hence, the reduction in the number of buses can be a maximum of 4.
Sub: LR
Topic: mixed type
Difficulty Level: 3
MCQ
DIRECTIONS for questions 23 to 25: Answer the following questions based on the information given
below.
A, B and C are three traders who trade in shares of a company MNO Ltd. A believes in the strategy of
buying at the opening at 10 am and selling the whole lot at the close at 3 pm. B believes in the strategy
of buying at every hour intervals like 10 am, 11 am, 12 noon, 1 pm and 2 pm and selling the whole lot at
the close. He buys an equal number of shares in each purchase. C believes similar pattern as B but his
strategy is little different. C’s total investment is divided equally among his purchases. The profit or loss
made by each investor is the difference between the sale value at the close of the day less the
investment in purchase. The "return" for each investor is defined as the ratio of the profit or loss to the
investment amount expressed as a percentage.
Q23. If it’s a "boom" day the share price of MNO Ltd. keeps rising throughout the day and peaks at the
close of the day. Which trader got the minimum return on that day?
a) C
b) A
c) B
d) Can’t say
Ans. (c)
Solution:
If it is a boom day, as per that A buys at 10 am, the lowest price and sells at 3 pm, the highest price.
He will make the maximum profit.
B and C, are investing with different strategies, one with equal units and other will equal
investment.
In that approach the person with equal investment at all the prices always will have the lower
average price.
Hence, C will have higher profits and returns.
Therefore, lowest return will be of that of B.
Sub: LR
Topic: mixed type
Difficulty Level: 3
MCQ
Q24. When it is a fluctuating market prices day, share price of MNO Ltd. ends with a profit, i.e. it is
higher at the close of the day compared to the opening value. Which trader got the maximum return on
that day?
a) Can’t say
b) B
c) A
d) C
Ans. (a)
Solution:
On the given day the prices were fluctuating as per question, no value is given about the direction of
the prices.
Secondly it is not known that when B and C bought whether the prices were more than the opening
price or lesser than the opening price.
Hence, cannot be determined.
Sub: LR
Topic: mixed type
Difficulty Level: 3
MCQ
Q25. Identify the correct statement?
a) A will not be the one with the minimum return

b) Return for C will be higher than that of B
c) Return for C cannot be higher than that of A
d) None
Ans. (d)
Solution:
Suppose the price of shares remains same throughout the day then all the three given statements
would not hold true.
Sub: DI
Topic: Tabular type
Difficulty Level: 3
MCQ
DIRECTIONS for questions 26 to 28: Answer the following questions based on the information given
below.
Out of 100 staffs in a firm which has five departments. The table below gives the department-wise
distribution of average age, average basic pay and allowances. The gross pay of a staff is the sum of
his/her basic pay and allowances.
Dept. No. of Staffs Avg. Age Avg. Basic Pay Allowances (% of

basic pay)
HR 5 45 5000 70
Marketing 30 35 6000 80
Finance 20 30 6500 60
BD 35 42 7500 75
Maintenance 10 35 5500 50
The company considered only few staffs for transfer promotion in each of its department.
When a person is transferred/promoted from a department of lower average age to a department of

higher average age, he/she will get an increment in allowance of 10% of basic pay over and above
his/her present allowance.
However, pay remain constant in case a person is transferred from department of higher age to that of
lower average age.
Questions below are independent of each other.

Q26. Because of mutual transfer of a staff between Marketing and Finance departments and transfer of
one staff from Marketing to HR. Consequence was that the average age of Finance department
increased by one year and that of Marketing department remained the same. Find the new average age
of HR department?
a) 35
b) 40
c) 30
d) 50
Ans (b)
Solution:
For the increment in the average of Finance by one we need to transfer a man from marketing to
finance of age of 50 years.
For compensating, the man who is being transferred to marketing from finance has to be 30 only.
Final effect goes to HR department where person who is being transferred to HR has to be age of
age 35 – 20 = 15.
(𝟓 ×𝟒𝟓)+(𝟏×𝟏𝟓)
So final average age of HR department = = 40 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠
(𝟓+𝟏)
Sub: DI
Topic: Tabular type
Difficulty Level: 3
Non-MCQ
Q27. Find the approximate percentage change in the average gross pay of the HR department due to
transfer of a 40-year old person with basic pay of Rs.8000 from the Marketing department?
Ans_____
Ans. 13%
Solution:
Net pay of Marketing man of age 40 years when he is transferred to HR department will be = 8000 +
90% of 8000 = 15200.
Total pay of HR Department will be (5000 + 70% of 5000)  5 = 42500.
Total pay of HR Department after inclusion of marketing man = 42,500 + 15,200 = 57,700.
57700
Average gross salary of HR Department = 6
= 9616
Change in average salary = 9616 – 8500 = 1116.
1116
Hence percentage change = 8500 × 100 = 13%
Sub: DI
Topic: Tabular type
Difficulty Level: 3
MCQ
Q28. If two employees (each with a basic pay of Rs.6000) are transferred from Maintenance department
to HR department and one person whose basic pay of Rs.8000 was shifted from department of
marketing to the department of Human resources, calculate the percentage change in average basic pay
department of human resources?
a) 15%
b) 10.5%
c) 12.5%
d) 16%
Ans. (c)
Solution:
2 Person transferred from maintenance department to HR department will contribute = 2  6000

12000.
One person transferred from Marketing Department will contribute = 8000.
Total basic salary of HR Department = 5000  5 + 12000 + 8000 = 45,000.
45000
Average basic salary of HR Department = 8
= 562
Change in Average salary is = Rs. 625
625
Percentage change = 5000 × 100 = 12.5%
Sub: LR
Topic: AGE
Difficulty Level: 2
MCQ
Q29. In a village there were 2 boys who were aging less than 10 years. Younger boy’s age is the cube
root of the product of the ages of the younger and older one. The number formed by placing the
younger boy's age to the left of the elder boy's age represents the age of the younger boy's father.
When we divide the number formed by placing the older boy's age to the left of the younger boy's age,
by two, we get the age of the younger boy's mother. Father of the younger boy is 3 years elder to
mother. Find the age of the younger boy?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 5
d) None
Ans (b)
Solution:
Check using the options in this type of sum.
The age of the husband and wife come to be 24 and 21.
So younger boy is 2 years old.
There are two possible age of the two brothers.
Either (2 and 4) or (3 and 9).
Only 2 and 4 satisfies the case.
Sub: LR
Topic: Ratio
Difficulty Level: 2
MCQ
Q30. Trains A and B has the same capacity and are scheduled to start off from the station. Waiting hall
has a capacity of 200 passenger who are waiting. It is currently having 10% of the seats free.
𝟒
40% of the waiting passengers are female. Both the train's altogether have a total capacity equal to 𝑟𝑑
𝟑
of the total passengers who are waiting. 50% of the passengers who board train A are female. After the
boarding of train A, 60% of the seats in the hall are unoccupied. To attend to every 20 passengers now in
the hall, there is a waiter in train A. Calculate the ratio of empty seats in train B to the number of waiters
in train A?
a) 10:1
b) 5:1
c) 20:1
d) 1:1
Ans. (a)
Solution:
In total of 180 people in the hall.

Total capacity is 240 as per condition.
After train A people left, 80 people remain.
Capacity of train A is 120, so that of B is also 120.
No of seats vacant in B is 40.
80
No of waiter in A is 20 = 4.
Therefore, ratio of vacancies to waiter is 10:1
Sub: LR
Topic: Venn Diagram
Difficulty Level: 3
MCQ
Q31. While walking through the park, Hana collected 50 colored leaves, all either tendu or oak. While
sorting it out categorically she noticed the following:
Number of oak leaves bearing spots are positive and even by nature.
Number of red oak leaves without any spot equals the number of red tendu leaves without spots.
Oak leaves which are not red in color bear spots and they are five time to that of red color oak leaves in
number.
All spotted tendu leaves are red in color.
Red spotted tendu leaves are exactly 6 in number.
22 tendu leaves are exactly are neither spotted nor red in color.
How many oak leaves did she collect?
a) 22
b) 48
c) 17
d) 28
Ans. (c)
Solution:
For Oak leaves:
For tendu leaves:
C must be even and positive, d = h, a = 0, b =5c
f = 0, g = 6, e = 22
Given: a + b + c + d + e + f + g + h = 50
Using above data in the above equation: d + 3c = 11.
Since c is even positive so c must be 2.

c = 2 and d = 5.
Total Oak leaves = a + b + c + d = 17
Sub: LR
Topic: Mixed
Difficulty Level: 3
MCQ
Q32. Ashu, Bashi, Chimra and Deep went for shopping. Ashu has less money than three times the
amount that Bashi has. Bashi had less money than Chimra. Deep’s money was equal to the difference of
amounts with Bashi and Chimra. Deep had one-third money to that of Ashu. Each one of them have to
buy at least one shirt or one shawl or one sweater or one jacket that are priced Rs. 200, Rs. 400, Rs. 600,
and Rs. 1000 per piece respectively. Ashu lends Chimra Rs 300 to buy jacket. Ashu is left with no money
after lending Bashi Rs 100 to buy a sweater. Three shirts were purchased by Ashu.
What is the costliest item that Deep could buy with his own money?
a) One shirt
b) One jacket
c) One shawl
d) One sweater
Ans. (a)
Solution:
As per sum:
A < 3B,
C > B,
D = C-B,
A = 3D
Bashi has net amount = Rs. 500 (because he bought a sweater costing Rs. 600 and borrowed Rs. 100
from Ashok and left with no amount).
So, Ashok has total less than Rs. 1500 (A < 3B).
Ashok has at least Rs 1000 amount.
So, we can write (333.34 < D < 500).
Therefore, Deepak can buy a Shirt.
Verbal Ability
ENSHLISH
COMPREHENSION
Direction (1-5) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow
correctly.
For the last 10 years , all exports of pulses have been banned . This was presumably for food security
and price stability . But this export ban has hurt farmers , who couldn’t take advantage of high prices . It
got worse , because when prices shoot up , the government panicked and started importing at zero
duty. The imports didn’t stop despite a record harvest . When prices of food crops go up , the Central
Government swings into action , clamping down on exports , bringing in zero duty imports , imposing
stocking and storage limits . But when the opposite happens , That is when prices crash , often , there is
no corresponding reverse rescue . This is an example of the inherent urban bias in India’s agriculture
policy , which persists to this day . Indeed among all WTO members , India is among a handful of
countries with negative protection of agriculture .
Lastly , one more policy lesson is that pulses continue to be in the Agriculture Produce Marketing
Committee (APMC) Act . Thus farmers are not free to sell to any buyer they wish but go through the
APMC . Pulses are an important source of protein in India . Almost one – fifth of the total acreage is used
to grow them . They are also an important source of soil fertility since they provide nitrogen through
fixation . Indeed a pulses plant is called a mini fertilizer factory . Pulses were part of the six technology
missions created in the 1980s , to greatly enhance their production , use of technology and processing .
But despite the mission mode approach , India is still not sufficient in pulses production . And farmers
continue to be at the mercy o nature , markets , pests and government policies.
The story of pulses is repeated across various crops. In cashew , India’s Kollam used to be the world’s
capital , but has lost out to Vietnam due to its failure to adopt technology and due to excessive
government control . India pioneered the Green Revolution , but scores very poorly in the global hunger
index . The monolithic nationwide policies of promoting and procuring wheat and rice have ultimately
proved harmful to health , nutrition and environment . Coarse cereals , the staple of most rural folk ,
were largely ignored by the public distribution system , and are only now being introduced in the
midday meal schemes .
Q1. Choose the most suitable title for the given passage .
(a) Yet another reaction to policy induced indebtedness

(b) Advantage of higher prices
(c) Enhancing the production
(d) Unshackle Indian agriculture
(e) None of the above
Ans – (d)
Q2. Which of the following is not true according to the passage ?
(a) The nationwide policies of procuring wheat and rice have proved harmful to health .
(b) The nationwide policies of procuring wheat and rice have proved harmful to nutrition.
(c) Coarse cereal , the staple of most rural folk , were largely ignored by public distribution system.
(d) Coarse cereals are not only now being introduced in the midday meal schemes.
Ans – (d)
Q3. What according to the passage happens when prices of food crops go up?
(a) Clamping down on exports

(b) Imposing stocking and storage limits
(c) The Central government swings into action
(d) Bringing in zero duty imports
(e) All of the above
Ans – (e)
Q4. Where do the farmers continue to be at?
(a) The mercy of nature

(b) Government policies
(c) Pests
(d) Markets
(e) All of the above
Ans – (e)
Q5. Why India’s Kollam which used to be the world’s capital has lost to Vietnam in cashew ?
1. Due to its failure to adopt technology

2. Due to excessive government control
3. Due to excessive usage of pesticides
(a) Both ( 1) and ( 2)
(b) Only (2)
(c) Both (1) and (3)
(d) Only (3)
(e) Only (1)
Ans – (a)
Direction (6-10) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow
correctly.
The crucial question about how and where auditors should get access to GST data continues to hang
fire, even as hundreds of CAG auditors are being put through specialised training in anticipation of the
implementation of the new tax regime from July 1. Various government officials, including ministers,
have been insisting that the proposed tax
ministers, have been insisting that the proposed tax regime will come into force as scheduled. The GST
Network (GSTN), which is the nationwide electronic backbone of the tax regime, will go live for testing in
early May.
For full implementation of the GST regime, to decide the compensation for States and to determine
their revenue share, auditors of the CAG (Comptroller and Auditor General) will require access to two
different datasets, which are proving difficult to come by. One of them is data pertaining to revenue that
would accrue to States from alcohol and petrochemicals, both of which are outside GST for now. The
second issue of where and how CAG auditors will get access to the GST data continues to vex officials.
Senior officials say the government needs to quickly settle it.
An official pointed out that the GSTN has refused to give the CAG access to its network, saying it is only
holding the data in a fiduciary capacity since the tax data originally belongs to the Centre and States.
Officials also pointed out that the GSTN is owned by a private company, and thus cannot be audited by
CAG. “The government will have to sort it out, or we would have serious problem on our hands,”
another senior official said.
The GSTN claims it is a private company as 51% stake in the company is held by private companies such
as HDFC and ICICI Bank. The CAG has pointed out in official communications in recent times that under
the new Companies Act, GSTN can be counted as government-controlled company since its strategic
control will be with the government. Like any PSU, the CAG could depute chartered accountants to audit
GSTN. “But that is a minor issue. The real issue is where would auditors get access to the data,” he said.
“We are not so much interested in auditing GSTN, but the real issue to be sorted out is the massive tax
data from all over the country that GSTN’s network will have,” he said. Accessing the data at various
points — point of manufacture, point of sale etc. —would make the GST audit a complicated and almost
impossible task, and will hamper other functions, which would include CAG certification about the share
of GST for States.
Centralised location
“There is no way out, other than auditors getting access to the entire GST data in a centralised location.
Don’t forget the fact that all that tax data, whether it belongs to States or Centre, is already available to
CAG under existing constitutional provisions,” the official said. Meanwhile, the auditors would be using
data available from individual States to assess their share of taxes earned from alcohol and
petrochemicals, which would be kept out of GST.
Under the agreed terms, the States will be given full compensation for the first five years for any
shortfall in revenue because of GST. The States’ revenue in 2015-16 will be used as the basis for
calculating the compensation, with an assumption of 14% revenue growth in the subsequent five
years.The total revenue of a State would be the total of income of States and local bodies from sales tax,
value added tax, purchase tax, central sales tax, octroi etc.
Q6. GSTN has refused to give the CAG access to its network because
a) GSTN is owned by State Government.
b) GSTN is owned by a private company.

d) GSTN had won a case in Delhi High Court against sharing of its network with government
organizations.
e) None of the above
Ans – (b)
Q7. Why auditors of the CAG need access to GST data?

I. To decide the compensation for States.
II. To determine their revenue share.
III. To determine the reliability of data.
Select the correct statement/statements using the code given below.
a) None of the above
b) I only
c) II only
d) Both I and II
e)III only
Ans – (d)
Q8. Why CAG Auditors are going through specialized training?
a) Due to notice given by senior CAG officers.
b) Due to the implementation of new tax regime in India i.e. GST.
c) Due to the request of private companies to understand new business rules.
d)Due to incompetency of CAG Auditors.
Ans – (b)
Q9. CAG wants data of revenue of States accrued from

I. Alcohol
II. Pharmaceuticals
III. Petrochemicals
Select the correct option using the code given below.
a) I and III only
b) All are Correct
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e)None of the above
Ans – (a)
Q10. Which year will be used as the basis for calculating the compensation of States?
a) 2015-2016
b) Not decided yet
c) 2014-2015
d) 2016-2017
Ans – (a)
Direction ( 11-15) : Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Goldman Sachs predicted that crude oil price would hit $ 200 and just as it appeared that alternative
renewable energy had a chance of becoming an economically viable option, the international price of oil
fell by over 70%. After hitting the all-time high of $147 a barrel, a month ago, crude fell to less than $40
a barrel. What explains this sharp decline in the international price of oil? There has not been any major
new discovery of a hitherto unknown source of oil or gas. The short answer is that the demand does not
have to fall by a very sizeable quantity for the price of crude to respond as it did. In the short run, the
price elasticity of demand for crude oil is very low. Conversely, in the short run, even a relatively big
change in the price of oil does not immediately lower consumption. It takes months, or years, of high oil
price to inculcate habits of energy conservation. World crude oil price had remained at over $60 a barrel
for most of 2005-07 without making any major dent in demand. The long answer is more complex. The
economic slowdown in the US, Europe and Asia along with dollar depreciation and commodity
speculation have all had some role in the downward descent in the international price of oil. In recent
years, the supply of oil has been rising but not enough to catch up with the rising demand, resulting in
an almost vertical escalation in its price. The number of crude oil futures and options contracts have also
increased manifold, which has led to significant speculation in the oil market. In comparison, the role of
the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) in fixing crude price has considerably
weakened. OPEC in often accused of operating as a cartel restricting output, thus keeping prices
artificially high. It did succeed in setting the price of crude during the 1970s and the first half of the ‗80s.
But, with increased futures trading and contracts, the control of crude pricing has moved from OPEC to
banks and markets that deal with futures trading and contracts. It is true that most oil exporting regions
of the world have remained politically unstable, fuelling speculation over the price of crude. But there is
little evidence that the geopolitical uncertainties in west Asia have improved to weaken the price of oil.
Threatened by the downward slide of oil price, OPEC has, in fact, announced its decision to curtail
output. However, most oil importers will heave a sigh of relief as they find their oil import bills decline
except for those who bought options to import oil at prices higher than market prices. Exporting
nations, on the other hand, will see their economic prosperity slip. Relatively low price of crude is also
bad news for investments in alternative renewable energy that cannot compete with cheaper and non-
renewable sources of energy.
Q11. Which of the following factors is contributes to the rise in speculation in crude oil markets?
(A) OPEC has not been able to restrict the oil output and control prices.
(B) The supply of oil has been rising to match demand.
(C) Existence of large number of oil futures and oil contracts
(a) Only A
(b) Both A and B
(c) Only C
(d) All A, B and C
(e) None of these
Ans – (c)
Q12. What has the impact of the drop in oil prices been?
(a) Economic depression in oil importing countries.
(b) Drastic fall in demand for crude oil .
(c) OPEC has decided to restrict its production of oil.
(d) Exploration for natural gas resources has risen.
(e) The dollar has fallen sharply .
Ans – (c)
Q13. Which of the following is the function of OPEC?
(a) Monitoring inflation in oil prices and taking necessary steps to lower it.
(b) Guaranteeing political instability in oil exporting countries does not impact output.
(c) Controlling speculation in oil.
(d)Ensuring profits are equally distributed among all its members.
(e) Determining prices of crude oil.
Ans - (e)
Q14. Which of the following word have a similar meaning to that of the word given below in bold as
used
in the passage.
INCULCATE
(a) Instill
(b) Deprive
(c) Steal
(d) Flounder
Ans – (a)
Q15. Which of the following word have an opposite meaning to that of the word given below in bold as
used in the passage .
SPECULATION
(a) Conjecture
(b) Hypothesis
(c) Supposition
(d) Surmise
Ans – ( e)
Direction ( 16-20) : Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The age of the Renaissance man is long gone. No one thinks it is possible anymore for an individual to
grasp, fully, all areas of science and technology. The popular software contains millions of lines of code.
Mechanisms of the immune response for just one kind of lymphocyte take up thousands of pages of
scholarly journals. An iPod's elegantly simple appearance masks underlying technology that is
understood by only a tiny percentage of its users.
But, despite the vast incompleteness of our knowledge, recent research suggests that most people think
that they know far more than they actually do. We freely admit to not knowing everything about how a
helicopter flies or a printing press prints, but we are not nearly modest enough about our ignorance.
The easiest way to show this is to have people to rate the completeness of their knowledge on a seven-
point scale. For any question, a "7" denotes the equivalent of a perfectly detailed mental blueprint, and
a "1" implies almost no sense of a particular mechanism at all, just a vague image. People happily, and
reliably, assign numbers to their understandings of everything from complex machines to biological
systems to natural phenomena such as the tides; but these ratings are usually far higher than their
actual knowledge.
We can measure the discrepancy between what we think we know and what we actually know by simply
asking people, after they have given their initial ratings, to tell us how some things work in as much
detail as they can and then to rate their knowledge again in light of their attempt to explain.
Similarly, we can ask them to answer critical diagnostic questions (for example, "How does a helicopter
go from hovering in place to flying forward?") Or we can simply provide them with a concise but meaty
expert explanation. In all of these cases, people somewhat sheepishly confess that their level of
understanding was far worse than they originally thought.
People are often surprised and dismayed at their ignorance, but we are not generally bad at estimating
how much we know. Instead, we have a special deficit with regard to our explanatory understandings.
We are good at estimating how well we know simple facts, procedures, and narratives. But we seem to
have a specific "illusion of explanatory depth"—the belief that we possess a more profound causal
understanding than we really do. We can be appropriately modest about our knowledge of other things,
but not so about our ability to explain the workings of the world.
Several factors converge to create this illusion of knowledge. When Leon Rozenblit and I uncovered the
illusion and its specificity, we ran an extensive series of studies exploring why explanatory
understanding is so vulnerable to a false sense of knowing. All of the factors that we identified are less
influential for facts, procedures, and narratives.
One important factor underlying the illusion of explanatory depth arises from the
richly hierarchical nature of most complex systems, which means that they can be understood at several
levels of analysis. One can understand how a computer "works" in terms of the high-level functions of
the mouse, the hard drive, and the display while not having any understanding of the mechanisms that
enable a cursor to move when a mouse is moved, or allow information to be stored and erased, or
control pixels on a screen. This hierarchical structure of complex causal systems seduces us into a sense
of understanding at a high level, which is then mistaken for having an understanding at a lower level.
A second factor is a false comfort we derive from seeing the parts of a system. The more parts you can
see, the more you think you know how those parts actually work. Thus, the illusion is stronger for
objects with easy-to-inspect parts than it is for objects with more invisible, inaccessible, or microscopic
parts. For example, we may think that we understand the mind much better than we do when we see
images of glowing brain regions.
Finally, we often figure out things on the fly when they are in front of us, but then falsely assume that
we came iodic object with a full understanding in our heads rather than using and manipulating the
object to decipher its mechanism.
There may be a silver lining to our inflated sense of understanding. The world is, of course, far too
complex for any lone person to fully grasp. If a gnawing sense of ignorance kept us diving deeper in our
quest to understand everything we encountered, we might suffocate in the details in one area and miss
other areas completely.
The illusion of explanatory depth may stop us at just about the right level of understanding, one that
enables us to know how to get more information from others when we really need it without being
overwhelmed. It would perhaps be better if we recognized the limits our own explanatory ability, but
there may be some adaptive value of those limits as well.
Q16.It can be inferred from the passage that a rating of "7" indicated___________.
a) That the person was an expert in the subject.
b) That the person was lying.
c) That the person had a clear understanding of the answer to the question.
d) That once explanations were provided the person was likely to rate himself lower.
e) That the person may be actually 4, 5, or 6 (lower than 7)
Ans – (c)
Q17. According to the passage, the most likely reason for the discrepancies between what people think
they know and their actual knowledge is___________.
a) That people generally do not realize that they do not know everything.
b) That people are generally quite modest about their knowledge.
c)That people are generally quite modest about their ignorance.
d) That people are not generally quite modest about their ignorance.
e)That people are not generally bad at estimating how much they know.
Ans – (d)
Q18. According to the passage, which of the following contribute/s to an 'illusion of explanatory depth'?
A. Hierarchical structure of causal systems.
B. Systems with concealed parts.
C. Images of unknown objects.
D. Things that are discovered on the fly.
a).A only
b). B and D only
c). A, B, and C
d). A and C only
e). All of the above
Ans-(c)
Q19. The last paragraph of the passage implies that____________.

a)The writer considers it mandatory for people to realize the limits of their explanatory ability.
b)Illusion of knowledge may be of significance in the process of evolution
c)Lack of explanatory depth prevents us from getting information from others.
d)We are overwhelmed by our own lack of explanatory depth.
e)We are unable to get more information from others in the absence of illusion of knowledge.
Ans – (b)
Q20. Which of the following is most nearly opposite in meaning of the word sheepishly as used in the
passage?
a). abashed
b). bold
c). timorous
d). sovereign
e). animal
Ans – (b)
Direction ( 21-25) : Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow
Interest in Smart Antenna Technology for wireless communication systems is increasing in recent years.
Considerable amount of research and fields trials is being conducted to improve the performance of the
system in terms of increasing the capacity and range.
Antenna is an electronic device mostly known as transducer that is designed to receive and transmit
electromagnetic waves and can be very effective in the telecommunication systems. It was the most
neglected section of all the personal communication systems. But with the rapid evolution of the
technology, communication is expected to be transmitted and received quickly and with fewer errors
whether it is through wireless networks or otherwise, thus antennas can solve this problem.
Actually it is not the Antennas which are smart but the smart system that makes it work are smart.
Smart antennas consist of many other antennas which when combine together would produce or
receive signals faster and more efficient. Normally this set of antennas is called MIMO which means
multiple inputs -multiple outputs. Beamforming is a technique where signals are processed and send to
the direction of the receiver or vice-versa. The signal is either a fix pattern or adaptive pattern that is
modified to make maximum usage of signal.
As all other system, Smart Antennas also has some constraints. Lots of faults or problems can occur
which can be very hard to diagnose as Smart Antenna is much more complicated than the traditional
one. And also though there will be a reduction in the cost factor with the frequency reuse when the
system is already implemented but while implementing this complex system, they are far more
expensive than the traditional antenna. Furthermore, due to the antenna arrays which are utilized by
smart antenna systems, they are much larger in size than traditional systems. This can be a problem in a
social context as antennas can be seen as ugly or unsightly. Smart Antennas need to have the best
location to operate because of the direct radiation and not as the traditional one. For example, in a road
context, smart antennas are better situated away from the road, unlike normal antennas which are best
situated along the road.
Even though Smart Antennas has some limitations, it has proved that it is the latest technology to bring
an excellent future to wireless communication. With the adaptive array system, the communication
would be clearer with better signal and also the frequency reuse is of great advantage to cost reduction.
Furthermore, MIMO is one of the latest discussed and the IEEE 802.11n wireless standard is expected in
2009. So it can be concluded that Smart Antennas has a great future.
Q21. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

a) The transmission of the signal uses directed beams to avoid environmental interferences such as
noise and at the same time hiding transmitted data from enemies.
b) Earlier Antennas were very much neglected but as technology has advanced, the communication
via antennas has become very advanced.
c) Antennas which were not a great subject of discussion recently become the most important
category in wireless communication.
d) Fading refers to the distortion of intensity over certain propagation media and Inter-symbol
interference (ISI) occurs when there is reflection caused by other remote objects.
e) None of these
Ans. (b)
Q22. According to the passage, how do smart antennas function?

a) The signal gives its best performance by switching from one beam to another when the user of
the mobile moves through their cell.
b) The transmitted signal, at the receiver end are overlapped and delayed. To overcome this
problem, we use MIMO architecture, Orthogonal Frequency-Division Multiplexing (OFDM) modulation
and Low-Density Parity-Check (LDPC) coding.
c) They consist of many other antennas called MIMO which when combine together would produce
or receive signals faster and more efficient.
d) For a fixed bandwidth of spectrum, there is a fundamental limit on the number of radio channels
that are realized by a mobile communication system operating over this bandwidth.
e) None of these
Ans.(c)
Q23. What are the benefits of a smart antenna?

a) Smart Antennas provide the facility to reuse the frequencies which can increase the number of
users.
b) With Smart Antennas signal are transmitted while targeting the communication device which
can also be used to determine the accurate geographic information of the device.
c) As Smart Antennas receive signal from several antennas, this increase the power for higher gain
of signal.
d) With the adaptive array system, the communication would be clearer with better signal and also
the frequency reuse is of great advantage to cost reduction.
e) All of the above
Ans. (e)
Q24. Which of the following are the limitations of a smart antenna?

a) With the frequency reuse there in an increase in the bandwidth as Smart Antennas provide
diversity.
b) Faults or problems can occur which can be very hard to diagnose as Smart Antenna is much
more complicated than the traditional one.
c) The use of two or more antennas that are spaced sufficiently apart such that they can receive
signals from independent signal paths are involve in a Simple Receive Diversity.
d) A basic way to select an optimal receive antenna from an array of antennas is Selection
Combining, whereby the receiver switches to another antenna whenever it detects weak signals or a
high noise level from the current receiving antenna.
e) None of these
Ans.(b)
Q25. Which of the following has been correctly stated from the passage?
a) Smart Antennas need not have the best location to operate because of the direct radiation and
majorly as the traditional one.
b) The target receiver must implement a corresponding de-multiplexing algorithm to recover the
original information stream from multiple antennas.
c) Beamforming is a technique where signals are processed and send to the direction of the receiver
or vice-versa.
d) To be more precise, with Smart Antennas the network providers will not require as many
antennas/base stations to provide coverage.
e) Both B) and C)
Ans. (c)
Direction (26-29) : In each question, there are five sentences. Each sentence has a pair of words that
are italicized and highlighted. From the italicized and highlighted words, select the most appropriate
words (A or B) to form correct sentences. The sentences are followed by options that indicate the
words, which may be selected to correctly complete the set of sentences. From the options given,
choose the most appropriate one.
Q26. Anita wore a beautiful broach (A)/brooch(B) on the lapel of her jacket.
If you want to complain about the amenities in your neighbourhood, please meet your
councillor(A)/counselor(B).
I would like your advice(A)/advise(B) on which job I should choose.
The last scene provided a climactic(A)/climatic(B) ending to the film.
Jeans that flair(A)/flare(B) at the bottom are in fashion these days.
a) ABABA
b) BAABA
c) BABAB
d) BABAA
e) BAAAB
Ans –(e)
Q27. The cake had lots of currents(A)/currants(B) and nuts in it.
If you engage in such exceptional(A)/exceptionable(B) behaviour,
I will be forced to punish you. He has the same capacity as an adult to consent(A)/assent(B) to
surgical treatment.
The minister is obliged(A)/compelled(B) to report regularly to a parliamentary board.
His analysis of the situation is far too sanguine(A)/genuine(B).
a) BBAAA
b) BBABA
c) ABBAB
d) BBBBA
e) BABAB
Ans – (a)
Q28. She managed to bite back the ironic(A)/caustic(B) retort on the tip of her tongue.
He gave an impassioned and valid(A)/cogent(B) plea for judicial reform.
I am not adverse(A)/averse(B) to helping out.
The coupe(A)/coup(B) broke away as the train climbed the hill.
They heard the bells peeling(A)/pealing(B) far and wide.
a) BBABA
b) BBBAB
c) BAABB
d) ABBAA
e) BBBBA
Ans – (b)
Q29. We were not successful in defusing(A)/diffusing(B) the Guru’s ideas.
The students baited(A)/bated(B) the instructor with irrelevant questions.
The hoard(A)/horde(B) rushed into the campus.
The prisoner’s interment(A)/internment(B) came to an end with his early release.
The hockey team could not deal with his unsociable(A)/unsocial(B) tendencies.
a) BABBA
b) BBABB
c) BABAA
d) ABBAB
e) AABBA
Ans – (a)
Directions : Each of the following questions has a sentence with two blanks. Given below each question
are five pairs of words. Choose the pair that best completes the sentence.
Q30. The genocides in Bosnia and Rwanda, apart from being mis-described in the most sinister and
________ manner as ‘ethnic cleansing’, were also blamed, in further hand-washing rhetoric, on
something dark and interior to ___________ and perpetrators alike.
a) innovative; communicator
b) exigent; exploiters
c) enchanting; leaders
d) tragic; sufferers
e) disingenuous; victims
Ans –(c)
Directions: In each of the questions a word has been used in sentences in five different ways. Choose
the option in which the word has been used correctly.
Q31. Buckle
a) After the long hike our knees were beginning to buckle.
b) The horse suddenly broke into a buckle.
c) The accused did not buckle under police interrogation.
d) Sometimes, an earthquake can make a bridge buckle.
e) People should learn to buckle up as soon as they get into the car.
Ans -(b)
Directions(32-34) : Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which the last sentence has
been emitted. Choose the sentence that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
Q32. Trade protectionism, disguised as concern for the climate, is raising its head. Citing
competitiveness concerns, powerful industrialized countries are holding out threats of a levy on imports
of energy intensive products from developing countries that refuse to accept their demands. The actual
source of protectionist sentiment in the OECD countries is, of course, their current lackluster economic
performance, combined with the challenges posed by he rapid economic rise of China and India – in that
order.
a) Climate change is evoked to bring trade protectionism through the back door.
b) OECD countries are taking refuge in climate change issues to erect trade barriers against these two
countries.
c) Climate change concerns have come as a convenient stick to beat the rising trade power of China and
India.
d) Defenders of the global economic status quo are posing as climate change champions.
e) Today’s climate change champions are the perpetrators of global economic inequity.
Ans –(d)
Q33. Relations between the factory and the dealer are distant and usually strained as the factory tries to
force cars on the dealers to smooth out production. Relations between the dealer and the customer are
equally strained because dealers continuously adjust prices - make deals - to adjust demand with supply
while maximizing profits. This becomes a system marked by a lack of long-term commitment on either
side, which maximize feelings of mistrust. In order to maximize their bargaining positions, everyone
holds back information - the dealer about the product and the consumer about his true desires.
a) As a result, ‘deal making’ becomes rampant, without concern for customer satisfaction.
b) As a result, inefficiencies creep into the supply chain.
c) As a result, everyone treats the other as an adversary, rather than as an ally.
d) As a result, fundamental innovations are becoming scarce in the automobile industry.
e) As a result, everyone loses in the long run.
Ans –(e)
Q34.In the evolving world order, the comparative advantage of the United States lies in its military
force. Diplomacy and international law have always been regarded as annoying encumbrances, unless
they can be used to advantage against an enemy. Every active player in world affairs professes to seek
only peace and to prefer negotiation to violence and coercion.
a) However, diplomacy has often been used as a mask by nations which intended to use force.
b) However, when the veil is lifted, we commonly see that diplomacy is understood as a disguise for the
rule of force.
c) However, history has shown that many of these nations do not practice what they profess.
d) However, history tells us that peace is professed by those who intend to use violence.
e) However, when unmasked, such nations reveal a penchant for the use of force.
Ans – (b)

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CAT - QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE (Set of 34 Questions with solutions)

a)26 b)91 c)133 d)221

Q2. If the product of n positive integers is nᶯ , then their sum is

a)5 b)6 c)7 d)8

a)20min b)15min c)10min d)7min

a)34 b)50 c)30 d)40

a)37.5% b)62.5% c)58.3% d)45%

a)6 b)12 c)15 d)14

a)300 b)1444 c)225 d)729

a)4 b)5 c)6 d)7

a)4 b)5 c)6 d)7

a)70 b)60 c)80 d)90

a)371 b)415 c)286 d)421

a)144 b)276 c)572 d)132

a)8 b)16 c)64 d)32

Q15. Find the remainder when 2 ⁶⁵⁰ is divisble by 224 ?

a)300 b)1444 c)225 d)729

a)1368 X 4! X 4! b)1200 X 4! X 4! C)1120 X 4! X 4! d)728 X 4! X 4!

a)16 b)18 c)20 d)22

a)11480 b)11280 c)10880 d)10280

a)5 b)6 c)7 d)8

a)12 b) 10 c)11 d)8

a)2 b)3 c)5 d)1

a)420 b)416 c)412 d)422

a)19 b)15 c)10 d)11

a)125% b)180% c)20% d)80%

a)121 b)143 c)144 d)145

a)196 b)180 c)192 d)164

a)54kmph b)48kmph c) 56kmph d)50kmph

a)10:12 pm b)10:15 pm c)10:20 pm d)10:25pm

a)52 b)54 c)56 d)58

a)22 b)40 c)42 d)44

a)2 b)4 c)6 d) can not be determined

Q34. If q, r > 0, then roots of the equation x² + qx – r = 0 are

If we take c.d. = 3, 18 combinations are possible.

If we take c.d. = 4, 16 combinations are possible.

Words starting with E___4! = 24

Words starting with HA___3! = 6

Sol 32. If we take x as 2, we will get 2 integers,

If we take x as 3, we will get 2 integers,

If we take x as 4, we will get 3 integers,

If we take x as 5, we will get 2 integers,

If we take x as 6, we will get 4 integers,

If we take x as 7, we will get 2 integers,

If we take x as 8, we will get 4 integers,

If we take x as 9, we will get 3 integers,

If we take x as 10, we will get 4 integers,

If we take x as 11, we will get 2 integers,

If we take x as 12, we will get 6 integers,

If we take x as 13, we will get 2 integers,

If we take x as 14, we will get 4 integers,

Customer Number Clock Time Given Order

Find the time is the order placed by customer 1 completely served?

Customer 1 will be completely served by 10.00 + 10 minutes = 10:10.

Find the time is the order placed by customer 3 completely served?

Read the table as order 2 does not have burger.

The time taken for the different customer are as follows:

Customer 1 – 10 – 10:10 (burger)

Customer 2 – 10:10 – 10:15 (fries)

Customer 3 – 10:15 – 10:25 (burger)

Find the time is the order placed by customer 2 completely served?

When the staffs are allowed to prepare multiple orders.