APTITUDE

1. Who became the first Indian to win three medals in successive ISSF shooting world cup held recently?
(1) Abhinav Bindra (2) Gagan Narang
(3) Jitu Rai (4) Vijay Kumar

2. Recently, the plan to build the world most powerful and largest telescope ‘ATLAST’ to analyse the environment of other
planets and to track the existence of aliens life, was unveiled. This is planned by:
(1) FKA & RKA (2) ESA (3) ISRO (4) NASA

3. Who bagged the FIDE World Rapid Chess Championship title recently held in Dubai?
(1) Fabiani Caruana (2) Vishwanathan Anand
(3) Magnus Carlsen (4) Vladimir Kramnik

4. Who won the world food prize for the year 2014?
(1) Dr. Sanjaya Rajaram (2) Dr. Aditi Mukherji
(3) Dr. Charity Kawira Mutegi (4) Dr. Norman Borlaug

5. India’s first ‘one stop crisis centre’ for women who are victims of violence named ‘Gauravi’ was launched recently by
......... in ........?
(1) Film Actor Amir Khan, Bhopal (2) Film Actor Shahrukh Khan, Mumbai
(3) Film Actor Amitabh Bachhan, Allhabad (4) Film Actress Hema Malini, Agra

6. The world first electric plane named E-Fan first flight was carried successfully recently in:
(1) U.S.A. (2) U.K.
(3) Germany (4) France

7. Which one of the following plants yield bio diesel or bio fuels?
(1) Hevea brasiliensis (2) Jatropha Curcas
(3) Juniperus Verginiana (4) Parthenium orgenatum

8. ‘The Argumentative Indian’ is a book written by

(1) Amartya Sen (2) Chetan Bhagat
(3) Vikram Seth (4) Arundhati Roy

9. Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve is located in which Indian state?

(1) Arunachal Pradesh (2) Assam
(3) Manipur (4) Uttarakhand

10. Who has recently won 2014 Pultizer prize in the poetry category:
(1) Gobind Beharilal (2) Jhumpa Lahiri
(3) Vijay Seshadri (4) Siddharath Mukherjee

11. Clean water would have BOD value of less than:

(1) 5 ppm (2) 19 ppm
(3) 25 ppm (4) 50 ppm

12. Identify the Shakespearean play in which we have a death by poisoning:

(1) As You Like It (2) Hamlet
(3) The Merchant of Venice (4) None of these

13. Who will have its leader elected as leader of opposition and given the status & facilities to the rank of cabinet ministers?
(1) The opposition party with the largest number of MPs
(2) The opposition party with the largest number of MPs and whose number is at least 1/10 of the total house
(3) The opposition party with the largest number of MPs and whose number is at least 1/5 of the total house
(4) None of the above is correct

14. Which one of the following is most likely to occur if the Reserve bank of India lowers the Cash Reserve Ratio?
(1) An Increase in aggregate savings (2) A rise in Budget Deficit
(3) A rise in aggregate money supply (4) A rise in the use of credit cards

[1] [Asstt./Company Secretary]

15. The Reports of the comptroller and auditor General of India relating to the accounts of the Union shall be submitted to:
(1) The President of India (2) The Prime minister of India
(3) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha (4) The Finance Minister of India

16. One star is going away from the Earth. Then the observer on the Earth will experience:
(1) Decrease in wave length (2) Increase in wave length
(3) No change in wave length (4) None of these

17. Who among the British Generals defeated Peshwa Baji Rao II:
(1) Autram (2) Malcom
(3) Elphinstone (4) Kitchner

18. Which one is not written by Munshi Prem Chand:

(1) Rangbhoomi (2) Prem Pachisi
(3) Vishkanya (4) Kayakalp

19. A B is a tangent to the circle. The radius of the circle is 2 cm. Then the area of the shaded portion is:

π π
(1) 2 – (2) –2
2 2
π
(3) 4– (4) None of these
2

20. Two cylinders have the same volume. The heights are in the ratio of 1 : 2, then the ratio of the radii will be:
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 :1

21. If the ath part of 49 is 7 and bth part of 63 is 9 and cth part of 112 is 16. Then which of the following is true:
1
(1) abc = (2) abc = a3
7
1
(3) abc = (4) None of these
49

22. Five persons are standing in a queue. One of the two persons at the extreme end is a professor and the other is a
businessman. An advocate is standing to the right of the student. An author is to the left of the businessman. The
student is standing between the professor and the advocate. Counting from the left the author is at which place:
(1) 1st (2) 2nd
(3) 3rd (4) 4th

23. P is standing to the east of Q at a distance of 4 Km. P stands still while Q goes north for 4 Km. In which direction must Q
now look to see P:
(1) East (2) South East
(3) South (4) South West

24. If AM=3, ARE=4, and NEVER=8, then

“INDIA IS A GREAT NATION” =:
(1) 32 (2) 29 (3) 28 (4) None of these

DIRECTIONS: Complete the following series.

25. AZBZ_ABA_A_B_BA
(1) A Z B Z (2) B Z A Z (3) B Z Z Z (4) Z A Z Z
2
26. If one side and one diagonal of a rhombus are 5 cm and 8 cm respectively, then its area (in cm ) is:
(1) 22 (2) 20
(3) 24 (4) 25

[2] [Asstt./Company Secretary]

27. One acute angle of a right angled triangle is double the other. If the length of its hypotenuse is 10 cm, then its area is:
75 2 2
(1) cm (2) 25 cm
2
25 2
(3) 3 cm (4) None of these
2

28. The average age of the boys in a class of 30 boys is 14.5 years. What will be the average age if 10 new boys come whose
average is 15.2 years, and joins them?
(1) 15.5 years (2) 14.68 years
(3) 16.25 years (4) None of these

29. In a certain code language ‘PROPORTION’ is written as ‘PORPRONOIT’. How is ‘CONVERSION’ written in that code
language?
(1) VNOCERONIS (2) VNCORENOIS
(3) VNOCRENOIS (4) VNOCREIONS

30. Three men or eight boys can do a piece of work in 17 days. How many days will two men and six boys together take to
finish the same work?
(1) 11 days (2) 17 days
(3) 12 days (4) None of these

31. Twelve solid spheres of the same size are made by melting a solid metallic cylinder of base diameter 2 cm and height 16
cm. The diameter of each sphere is:
(1) 2 cm (2) 3 cm
(3) 4 cm (4) 6 cm
32. There are some girls and buffalos at a place. If total number of heads is 15 and total number of legs is 46, then how many
girls and how many buffalos are there?
(1) 8 girls and 7 buffalos (2) 9 girls and 6 buffalos
(3) 7 girls and 8 buffalos (4) 6 girls and 9 buffalos

33. Given two positions of the dice as being.

When 2 is at the bottom which number is at the top:

(1) 5 (2) 4
(3) 1 (4) 6

2 ×2 – 2 ×2
65 70 97 38
34. Simplify:
(1) 1 (2) 0
(3) –1 (4) None of these

35. The average of 5 consecutive numbers A, B, C, D and E is 48. What is the product of A and D?
(1) 2300 (2) 2204
(3) 2208 (4) 2254

36. Among five friends–Brijesh, Feroz, Jai, Kamal and Vinod each having a different weight. Feroz is heavier than only Jai.
Brijesh is heavier than Feroj and Vinod but not as heavy as Kamal. Who is the third heaviest among them?
(1) Kamal (2) Brijesh
(3) Vinod (4) Data inadequate

37. Select the suitable alternative to complete the series.

2401, 49, 7; __ , 36, 6:
(1) 1296 (2) 216
(3) 7776 (4) 1378

38. If in a certain code language ‘BALE’ is written as ‘+ ÷ & ×’ and ‘SKIP’ is written as ‘– @ √ %’. How is ‘LIFE’ written in that
code?
(1) @ + ÷ √ (2) √ % T &
(3) × & % $ (4) @ & × +

[3] [Asstt./Company Secretary]

DIRECTIONS: (Question No. 39 & 40) In a certain code language–
i. ‘Cod dex nom’ stands for ‘banana is sweet’
ii. ‘Zip dex nux’ stands for ‘apple is good’
iii. ‘Cod nux elp’ stands for ‘banana and apple’ and
iv. ‘pa reb nom’ stands for ‘oranges are sweet’.

39. Which word in that language stands for ‘apple’.

(1) Elp (2) Nux (3) Zip (4) None of these

40. What does ‘Zip’ stand for?

(1) Apple (2) And
(3) Good (4) None of these

41. You have come across a case wherein your retired colleague is unable to submit his life certificate and claim pension to
meet his treatment expenses. You will
(1) Go strictly as per the procedures
(2) Take initiative to help him and ask for arranging for alternative documents
(3) Assist colleague with some money on your own but do not compromise on procedures.
(4) Avoid some procedural steps since you understand the necessity of the colleague

42. You along with your brother’s family have planned for a vacation tour to a place where you are likely to meet your family
members and your ailing mother. You have got permitted leave from the office for this trip. While at the time of going to station
for the trip, you receive a message from your one of the subordinate staff that Managing Director of the company needs you in
the meeting with a foreign customer who landed without program:
(1) You will ignore the message of your subordinate and ask him to tell a lie that you were in train .
(2) You will speak to your immediate boss and tell him that your mother is ailing and you are with your family, hence can not
come
(3) You will explain the situation to your brother’s family and get your ticket cancelled and shall go to the office, attend the
meeting
(4) You will speak to your immediate boss and say that you have advance permitted leave and it is urgent to see the ailing
mother, hence can not come immediately

43. You are working as a stores purchase officer of Indian railways. There is a sudden demand of some safety items due to
emergency. You have floated a limited tender with a short notice. After opening the tender, you sense that there is a
cartel among the bidders due to emergent situation and all of them have quoted nearly five time more than the last
purchase price. You will
(1) Award the order to the lowest bidder as this is an emergent situation
(2) Immediately report the matter to the higher authorities explaining the factual situation and wait for their further orders.
(3) Negotiate with any bidder and bring down the rates as low as possible and award it to that bidder
(4) Submit your report to your bosses and request them to float open tender instead of limited tender

44. You come to know of some clandestine bogus and fake purchase activities going on in the office. The culprits are your
colleagues and they ensure that no overt or direct signs of such activities are visible. From among the following
alternatives, which one you will choose:
(1) Leave things as they are
(2) Organize an immediate raid on the suspected
(3) Ask the colleagues to immediately stop it
(4) Begin collecting evidence and after collecting evidence bring the matter to the higher authorities submitting evidences
45. You are the sanctioning authority for the travelling and conveyance bills of your department. You find that there is a
dedicated staff who stays long hours in the office to dispose off his daytoday back log work. You find him submitting
huge conveyance claims for late hours to you which otherwise is not permissible without pre approval of stay by higher
authorities as per Company policy. What would you do under such a situation:
(1) You will pass his claims considering his dedication and sincerity.
(2) You will strictly go by rules and do not pass his claims.
(3) You will ask him and say that he should take back the conveyance bills submitted and submit a fresh bill of the same amount
for normal working hours
(4) You will call him and ask him to finish the work within office time and if there is extra work load, you will ask him to get a
preapproval of stay for processing of such bills and ask him to withdraw the bills submitted

[4] [Asstt./Company Secretary]

 TECHNICAL APTITUDE (75 Questions)
(Questions are indicative only and does not mean that it follows the same composition of topics)
46. The period of limitation for instituting a summary suit is ...... from the date on which the debt becomes due:
(1) 1 year (2) 2 years
(3) 3 years (4) None of these

47. In which of the following case, the Supreme Court made it clear that Parliament cannot alter the basic structure of the
Constitution of India:
(1) I.C. Golak Nath vs. State of Pubjab (2) Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala
(3) Shankari Prasad vs. Union of India (4) Indira Gandhi vs. Raj Narain

48. Doctrine of sufficient cause under section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963 will apply on:
(1) Suits (2) Appeals and applications
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) None of these

49. Any person aggrieved by any decision or order of the Cyber Regulations Appellate Tribunal may appeal to the:
(1) Civil Judge (2) District Judge
(3) District Magistrate (4) High Court

50. The relief of cancellation of a written instrument is available under the Specific Relief Act, 1963:
(1) When an instrument is void or voidable at the option of plaintiff
(2) When the plaintiff may apprehend serious injury if the instrument is left outstanding
(3) Where the instrument requires registration but is not registered
(4) Where the conditions (1) & (2) mentioned above are fulfilled

51. Where possession of the property is to be given to the mortgagee, the mortgage is called:
(1) Usufructuary mortgage (2) Simple mortgage
(3) Anomalous mortgage (4) None of these

52. Summary trials will apply to those offences which are not punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding:
(1) 2 Years (2) 1 Year
(3) 60 Days (4) 90 Days

53. The definition of ‘decree’ as given under section 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 includes:
(1) An ‘award’ passed by the arbitral tribunal under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
(2) Rejection of plaint under Order 7, Rule 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(3) Adjudication of any question raised by any party to the decree during execution proceedings under section 47 of the Code of
Civil Procedure, 1908
(4) An order of which appeal lies like an order

54. The nature of remedy under the law of torts is:

(1) Criminal (2) Civil
(3) Quasi-criminal (4) Quasi-civil

55. A magistrate of the first class may pass a sentence of:

(1) Imprisonment for a term not exceeding 10 years or of fine upto `10,000 or of both
(2) Imprisonment for a term not exceeding 5 years or of fine upto `20,000 or of both
(3) Imprisonment for a term not exceeding 7 years or of fine upto `15,000 or of both
(4) Imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 years or of fine upto `5,000 or of both

56. The amount of dividend declared will have to be deposited in a separate bank account within:
(1) 5 Days from the date of declaration of dividend
(2) 7 Days from the date of declaration of dividend
(3) 15 Days from the date of declaration of dividend
(4) 21 Days from the date of declaration of dividend

57. No person can hold office of a director in more than:

(1) 10 public companies at a time (2) 15 public companies at a time
(3) 20 public companies at a time (4) 50 public companies at a time
[5] [Asstt./Company Secretary]
58. DIN will be allotted by the Central Government within:
(1) 1 Month from the receipt of application for the same
(2) 3 Months from the receipt of application for the same
(3) 6 Months from the receipt of application for the same
(4) 12 Months from the receipt of application for the same

59. Under Section 75, whenever a company having a share capital makes any allotment of shares, it must file a return of
allotment with the Registrar of Companies within:
(1) 7 Days (2) 15 Days
(3) 30 Days (4) 60 Days

60. Certified copy of the special resolutions passed in the meeting will have to be filed with the Registrar of Companies within:
(1) 30 Days (2) 60 Days
(3) 15 Days (4) 7 Days

61. Section 149(1) provides that in case of a public company, borrowing powers are not exercisable until the company is
entitled to:
(1) Commence business (2) Incorporate business
(3) Start business (4) None of these

62. Out of the following statements, which one is correct with regard to listing of securities:
(1) The shares and debentures of a public company may be quoted on a stock exchange
(2) The shares and debentures of a private company may be quoted on a stock exchange
(3) Only the shares and not the debentures of a public company may be quoted on a stock exchange
(4) Only the shares and not the debentures of a private company may be quoted on a stock exchange

63. Section 125 requires a company to file prescribed particulars of charge after the date of creation of a charge with the
Registrar of Companies within:
(1) 30 Days (2) 60 Days
(3) 90 Days (4) None of these

64. Change of registered office of a company from one city to another city in the same State but falling under the jurisdiction
of two Registrars of Companies is required to be approved by the:
(1) Central Government (2) Registrar of Companies
(3) Regional director (4) Company Law Board

65. In a government company, the government shareholding must not be less than:
(1) 25% of the paid-up share capital (2) 50% of the paid-up share capital
(3) 51% of the paid-up share capital (4) 100% of the paid-up share capital

66. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a statutory corporation in India:

(1) It is owned by the State
(2) Its employees are civil servants and are governed by government regulations in respect of conditions of service
(3) It is created by a special law of the Parliament or State legislature
(4) It is a body corporate and therefore it can sue and be sued

67. Forfeited shares can be re-issued by a company by way of passing:

(1) An ordinary resolution at the general meeting
(2) A special resolution at the general meeting
(3) A Board resolution
(4) None of these

68. The merger of subsidiary company into its parent company is called:
(1) De facto merger (2) Up stream merger
(3) Down stream merger (4) Reverse merger

69. Which of the following committees is a non-mandatory under the listing agreement:
(1) Remuneration committee (2) Share transfer committee
(3) Shareholders/investors grievance committee (4) Audit committee

[6] [Asstt./Company Secretary]

70. Under the approval route, the foreign investor or the Indian company requires prior approval from:
(1) Securities and Exchange Board of India (2) Reserve Bank of India
(3) Company Law Board (4) Foreign Investment Promotion Board

71. When a charge on the assets of a company is created or modified, which one of the following forms is required to be
filed with the Registrar of Companies:
(1) Form No. 21 (2) Form No. 12
(3) Form No. 8 (4) Form No. 15

72. All companies to which Companies (Compliance Certificate) Rules, 2001 apply are required to file with the Registrar of
Companies the compliance certificate within:
(1) 60 Days from the date on which its AGM is held (2) 45 Days from the date on which its AGM is held
(3) 30 Days from the date on which its AGM is held (4) 90 Days from the date on which its AGM is held

73. As per compliances under the listing agreement, the Audit Committee shall meet in a year atleast:
(1) Two times (2) Three times
(3) Four times (4) Five times

74. According to SEBI guidelines relating to issue of capital, the draft prospectus is required to be filed with SEBI at least:
(1) 30 days prior to the filling of prospectus with the Registrar of Companies
(2) 45 days prior to the filling of prospectus with the Registrar of Companies
(3) 60 days prior to the filling of prospectus with the Registrar of Companies
(4) 90 days prior to the filling of prospectus with the Registrar of Companies

75. Shareholders can apply for winding-up of the company under section 397 read with section 399 of the Companies Act,
1956 in case of:
(1) Oppression and mismanagement (2) Misbehaviour of managing director with shareholders
(3) Company insolvency (4) Failure to pay debts

76. Questions arising out of orders made by CESTAT are appealable to High Court except those relating to:
(1) Classification and valuation (2) Duty drawback
(3) Refund of excise duty (4) Advance ruling

77. The term ‘authorised representative’ under section 35Q of the Central Excise Act, 1944 includes, among others:
(1) All Company Secretaries
(2) Company Secretaries with 10 years post qualification experience
(3) Company Secretaries with certificate of practice
(4) Physics graduates

78. Which of the following reflects the correct position regarding the binding powers of the Central Board of Direct Taxes
(CBDT):
(1) The instructions of the CBDT are binding on the department and the assessee
(2) Courts are bound by the instructions of the CBDT
(3) The instructions are binding on the department, but not on the assessee
(4) The instructions by the CBDT may impose a burden on the assessee

79. The CENVAT credit can be carried forward and utilized upto:
(1) 1 Year (2) 5 Years
(3) 10 Years (4) No time limit

80. A director appointed by the Board to hold the office untill the conclusion of next annual general meeting is known as:
(1) Additional director (2) Nominee director
(3) Alternate director (4) Director retiring by rotation

81. As per the provisions of the Companies Act, 1956, the form of proxy must be deposited with the company at least:
(1) 24 Hours before the time of annual general meeting
(2) 36 Hours before the time of annual general meeting
(3) 48 Hours before the time of annual general meeting
(4) 72 Hours before the time of annual general meeting

[7] [Asstt./Company Secretary]

82. A person who is a Company secretary and director of a company is:
(1) Employee director
(2) Non-executive director
(3) Executive director
(4) Independent director

83. In a listed company with 11 directors, what is the quorum for the Board meeting:
(1) 2 Directors
(2) 3 Directors
(3) 4 Directors
(4) 5 Directors

84. Non-executive directors of a public company may get remuneration on quarterly basis if such basis of payment is
approved by/under:
(1) Articles of association of the company
(2) General meeting of the company
(3) Central Government
(4) Schedule XIII to the Companies Act, 1956

85. On striking off the name of a company considered defunct, the Registrar of Companies is required to:
(1) Publish notice thereof in the official gazette
(2) Inform the State Government
(3) Inform the Central Government
(4) Inform the Ministry of Corporate Affairs

86. A Vakalatnama remains in force until:

(1) Withdrawn by the client or the pleader with the court’s leave
(2) The client or pleader dies
(3) All proceedings in the suit have ended
(4) All of these

87. Every pleading must defence:

(1) Material facts as the basis of claim or fence
(2) Law or legal pleas as the basis of claim or defence
(3) Evidence of alleged facts
(4) All of these

88. Agreement without consideration is valid:

(1) When made out of love and affection due to near relationship
(2) When made to compensate a person who has already done something voluntarily
(3) When made to pay a time barred debt
(4) All of these

89. If the time of performance of the contract is the essence of the contract and the promisor fails to perform the contract by
the specified time:
(1) The contract becomes void
(2) The contract remains valid
(3) The contract becomes voidable at the instance of the promisee
(4) The contract becomes unenforceable

90. A change of nature of obligation of a contract is known as:

(1) Novation (2) Rescission
(3) Alteration (4) Repudiation

91. A party to a contract can be discharged from performing it, if it has become:
(1) Expensive
(2) Onerous
(3) Commercially inviable
(4) None of these

[8] [Asstt./Company Secretary]

92. If notice at the entrance of an automatic car-park is an offer, it can be accepted by:
(1) Applying for a ticket
(2) Driving in
(3) Making inquires about the facilities available
(4) None of these

93. Under section 73 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872:

(1) Special damages cannot be claimed
(2) Special damages can be claimed if the party breaking the contract is made known of the special circumstances at any time
before the breach
(3) Special damages can be claimed if the party breaking the contract is made known of the special circumstances at the time of
contract
(4) None of these

94. A contract based on the happening or non-happening of a future event under Section 31 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872:
(1) A contingent contract
(2) A wagering contract
(3) A contract marked with uncertainty and hence void
(4) None of these

95. Bank guarantee is independent contract between:

(1) Creditor and debtor
(2) Bank and beneficiary
(3) Buyer and seller
(4) None of these

96. The request for the correction or interpretation of the award by the arbitral Tribunal has to be made by the party:
(1) Within 60 days
(2) Within 30 days
(3) Within 90 days
(4) None of these

97. As per Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 provision for setting aside the arbitral award is laid down under:
(1) Section 32 of the Act
(2) Section 34 of the Act
(3) Section 36 of the Act
(4) None of these

98. The petition under Article 32 of Constitution:

(1) Subject to the Indian Limitation Act
(2) Not subject to any of the Acts of India
(3) Limitation at the direction of the Court
(4) None of these

99. The power of judicial review in India is enjoyed by:

(1) By the Supreme Court alone
(2) By all Courts
(3) By the Supreme Court as well as High Court
(4) By Parliament

100. Which one of the following Writs can be issued against a private individual by High Court?
(1) Mandamus (2) Quo Warranto
(3) Habeas Corpus (4) None of these

101. An exception to the doctrine of constructive notice is a:

(1) Doctrine of ultra vires
(2) Doctrine of indoor management
(3) Lifting the corporate veil
(4) None of these

[9] [Asstt./Company Secretary]

102. A bails 100 bales of cotton marked with a particular mark to B. B, without A’s consent, mixes the 100 bales with other
bales of his own, bearing a different mark. A files a suit against B:
(1) B is not liable at all
(2) A is entitled to have his 100 bales returned and B is bound to bear all the expenses incurred in the separation of the bales
and any other incidental damages
(3) The agreement is devoid of consideration and hence not binding on B
(4) None of these

103. When a person is holding a public office for which he is not legally entitled, which of the following writ can be issued:
(1) Writ of Mandamus
(2) Writ of Quo Warranto
(3) Writ of Prohibition
(4) Writ of Habeas Corpus

104. If a custom is against the public policy, it is:

(1) Voidable
(2) Void
(3) Valid
(4) Legal and valid

105. The rule of the doctrine of 'indoor management' is opposed to the rule of:
(1) Perpetuity
(2) Constructive notice
(3) Ultra virus
(4) Royal British Bank v. Turquand

106. Minimum number of subscribers required to form a public company is:

(1) 2 (2) 5
(3) 7 (4) 10

107. The leading case in which principle that the company is distinct from its members is:
(1) Foss v. Harbottle
(2) Solomon v. Soloman & Co.
(3) Dishaw Manekjee Patit, Re.
(4) Barnes v. Andrews

108. If a company does something beyond the scope of objects contained in the memorandum of association, the act is:
(1) Ultra virus to the company and being capable of ratification
(2) Can be validated by calling special meeting
(3) Can be validated by Company Law Board
(4) None of the above

109. Auditor of a ……company does not have right to visit foreign branches of the company:
(1) Unlimited liability (2) Manufacturing
(3) Banking (4) Non-profit making

110. The budget that is prepared first of all is?

(1) Cash budget (2) Flexible budget
(3) Master budget (4) Budget for the key factor

111. The budget which commonly takes the form of budgeted profit and loss account and balance sheet is?
(1) Functional budget (2) Master budget
(3) Flexible budget (4) Cash budget

112. Which section of the Companies Act prescribes cost audit:

(1) Section 233A
(2) Section 233B
(3) Section 209 (1) (d)
(4) Section 224

[ 10 ] [Asstt./Company Secretary]
113. The cost auditor submits its report to:
(1) Shareholders
(2) Central Government with copy to company
(3) Board of Directors
(4) Company Law Board

114. Forfeited shares can be re-issued by a company by way of passing:

(1) An ordinary resolution at the general meeting
(2) A special resolution at the general meeting
(3) A Board resolution
(4) None of these

115. The merger of subsidiary company into its parent company is called:
(1) De facto merger
(2) Up stream merger
(3) Down stream merger
(4) Reverse merger

116. "Shareholder wealth" in a firm is represented by:

(1) The number of people employed in the firm
(2) The book value of the firm's assets less the book value of its liabilities
(3) The amount of salary paid to its employees
(4) The market price per share of the firm's common stock

117. The market price of a share of common stock is determined by:

(1) The board of directors of the firm
(2) The stock exchange on which the stock is listed
(3) The president of the company
(4) Individuals buying and selling the stock

118. The company has to pay dividend which is declared to the shareholder entitled therein within:
(1) 60 days from its declaration
(2) 42 days from its declaration
(3) 10 weeks from its declaration
(4) 21 days from its declaration

119. Which section of company’s Act permits buy back of shares from odd lots:
(1) Section 212 (8)
(2) Section 77 A (5) (4)
(3) Section 75
(4) None of these

120. Who is called a continuing auditor:

(1) The auditor who audited and reported on the prior period financial statements and continues as the auditor for the current
period
(2) Current auditor who did not audit the prior period’s financial statements
(3) who was an auditor of an entity and who has been replaced by another auditor
(4) auditor with responsibility of reporting on the financial statements which include financial information of one or more
components audited by another auditor

[ 11 ] [Asstt./Company Secretary]