Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Operate Electrical, Electronic and Control Systems
Operate Electrical, Electronic and Control Systems
1206
DPKP
6. Transducers are devices which translate the value of one measured value
into diferent measurement units (for instance units of temperature to
millivlots). What is the meant by the “Range” of a transducer?
A. The difference between possible maximum and minimum
measurement
B. The maximum output signal
C. The type of measurement
D. The maximum length of the connecting leads
1207
DPKP
10. What will be the probable outcome, if the amplification is set too high on a
temperature controller?
A. The process will oscillate and get out of control
B. Nothing
C. The process response will be very slow
D. The set-point will change
13. Which of the following systems will include a D/P transmitter in the
control-loop
A. Pressure
B. Temperature
C. Smoke indication
D. Oil mist
1208
DPKP
14. Why is it important that a transmitter has been correctly installed at the
correct location
A. The control system is depending on the best possible process
signal
B. It is important to have easy access to the transmitter for
maintenance
C. It must be easy to observe for troubleshooting
D. Can be installed anywhere in the piping system
15. A resistor has three red bands. If they all carry information about
resistance value as opposed to tolerance, what is the indicated resistance?
A. 2200 ohm
B. 22 ohm
C. 222 ohm
D. 220 ohm
1209
DPKP
1210
DPKP
26. PT-100 sensors are some times used with 3 or 4 wires. What is the reason
for this?
A. Higher measuring accuracy.
B. Higher mechanical strength of the cable.
C. Because of power-consumption.
D. For fault indication.
1211
DPKP
27. Radio frequency signals can carry information from one place to another if
they are modulated. There are several ways to modulate a carrier. Which
modulating method is illustrated here?
A. Amplitude modulation (AM)
B. Frequency modulation (FM)
C. Pulse-width modulation (PWM)
D. Pulse-code modulation (PCM)
28. Some areas of ships require that any electrical equipment used must be
intrinsically safe. What is meant by being intrinsically safe?
A. Can not produce enough energy to ignite a gas (explode)?
B. Electric wiring executed by approved manufacture?
C. Any electrical product, being water resistant?
D. Explosion proof product having a special wiring system?
29. Some equipment may be marked with the following symbol: What does it
mean?
A. Intrinsically safe.
B. Explosion proof.
C. Internally explosion proof.
D. Not safe in gas dangerous area.
30. The circuit consists of two inductors, L(1) = 6 H and L(2) = 12H,
connected in parallel. Calculate the equivalent L(S) of the two inductors.
A. L(S) = 4H
B. L(S) = 18 H
C. L(S) = 1,5 H
D. L(S) = 0,667H
1212
DPKP
32. The figures show a graphical symbol for a particular electronic component
and a typical operating characteristic for the same component. Which
component?
A. Triac
B. Zener diode
C. Tunnel diode
D. Field effect transistor
34. The range of a transducer is 0-200 bar. The output signal is 4-20 mA.
What is the span of the output signal?
A. 16 mA
B. 20 mA
C. 24 mA
D. 4 mA
1213
DPKP
35. Thermocouples are often used for measuring temperatures. Which of the
following descriptions explains the principle of operation of a
thermocouple?
A. A junction between two dissimilar metals generates a
small voltage.
B. A semi-conductor device that exhibits a negative
coefficient of resistance with temperature.
C. A resistance device that exhibits a positive coefficient
of resistance with temperature.
D. A quartz crystal that changes its resonant frequency
with temperature.
36. This circuit is widely used for rectification of AC into DC. Which of the
diagrams is correct for the out- put voltage when the input voltage is sine-
shaped as shown?
A. Figure 1
B. Figure 2
C. Figure 3
D. Figure 4
37. This circuit consists of two capacitors, C(1) = 6 µF and C(2) = 12 µF, in
series. Calculate the equivalent C(S) of the two capacitors.
A. C(S) = 4 µF
B. C(S) =2µF
C. C(S)=1,5µF
D. C(S) =18µF
1214
DPKP
39. This circuit consists of two resistances, R(1)= 12 ohm and R(2) = 6 ohm,
connected in parallel. Calculate the equivalent value R(S) of the two
resistances.
A. R(S)= 4 ohm
B. R(S) =18 ohm
C. R(S)=2ohm
D. R(S) =1,5 ohm
40. This circuit is a logic gate with two input signals, A and B, and one output
signal Q. Which type of logic function does the gate perform?
A. NOR gate
B. NAND gate
C. OR gate
D. AND gate
41. This graphical symbol is a logic gate with truth table. Which gate?
A. OR
B. AND
C. NOR
D. NAND
42. This is the graphical symbol and truth table for a logic gate. Which gate?
A. NOR
B. NAND
C. OR
D. AND
43. This resistor has the value of 68 k ohm. Which colour code should be
marked on the rings (assume ring d is the tolerance ring)?
A. a. blue b. grey c. orange
B. a. black b. red c. orange
C. a. violet b. green c. yellow
D. a. red b. black c. yellow
1215
DPKP
44. Two reference points for pressure exist, absolute zero and atmospheric
pressure. What is the common name pressures measured relative to
atmospheric pressure?
A. Gauge pressure
B. Atmospheric pressure
C. Absolute pressure
D. Pressure drop
45. Use Kirchoff's voltage law and Ohm's law to calculate the voltage V2
across the resistance R2.
A. 4,5V
B. 0,75V
C. 6V
D. 2V
1216
DPKP
1217
DPKP
52. When measuring level of liquids with a differential pressure meter, the
name of the sensing device is:
A. Pressure diaphragm
B. Float
C. Capacitance probe
D. Positive displacement tube
53. When calibrating a pressure transducer we have to adjust both SPAN and
ZERO. Please indicate in which order these adjustments should be done.
A. First Zero adjustment and the Span adjustment. Then
Zero should be rechecked.
B. First Span adjustment and then Zero adjustment. After
that Span setting should be checked again.
C. First Span adjustment and then Zero adjustment. Then
do not adjust anything.
D. The order of adjustment is of no importance.
1218
DPKP
54. When calibrating an instrument what is the most common first step in the
procedure ?
A. Adjustment of Zero-point
B. Adjustment of span
C. Adjustment of range
D. Adjustment of linearity
55. When calibrating an instrument what is the most common second step in
the procedure?
A. Check linearity
B. Adjustment of span
C. Adjustment of range
D. Adjustment of Zero-point
56. When measuring flow of fluids with a fixed area flow meter, the name of
the sensing device is?
A. Orifice plate
B. Float
C. Turbine rotor
D. Positive displacement rotor
1219
DPKP
1220
DPKP
1221
DPKP
69. Which of the 4 alternatives shows the symbol for a PNP transistor?
A. Figure 2.
B. Figure 1.
C. Figure 3.
D. Figure 4.
71. Which of the following detectors would you choose for measuring the
torque of a steel shaft?
A. Strain gauge
B. Ultrasonic gauge
C. Synchro
D. Pyrometer
1222
DPKP
75. A 450 volt 3 phase brushless alternator will have the following
combination of items mounted on the rotor:
A. 3 phase excitation winding/rectifier bank/main field
winding
B. 3 phase excitation winding/ main field winding
C. 1 phase excitation field winding/rectifier bank/main
field winding
D. Excitation field winding/main field winding
76. A second alternator has just been synchronized onto the main switchboard,
and it is necessary to equally share the load between the "running" and
incoming alternators. What should be done first?
A. Raise the governor speed controller of the incoming
alternator and reduce the governor speed controller of
the alternator already on the switchboard
B. Adjust voltage rheostat for the incoming alternator on
the front of the switchboard
C. Lower the governor speed controller of the incoming
alternator and increase the governor speed controller of
the alternator already on the switchboard
D. Trip the circuit breaker of the incoming alternator and
check the voltage and speed adjustments before trying
again
1223
DPKP
78. Alteration of the excitation voltage (or field current) of one alternator
operating in parallel, will cause which change in that alternators output:
A. Reactive load (kVAR)
B. Active load (kW)
C. Frequency
D. None of the mentioned alternatives
1224
DPKP
80. Consider a 450 volt, 859 kW rated generator has not been in operation for
several weeks. Prior to starting, insulation resistance readings are taken.
The minimum acceptable insulation resistance reading on the main stator
winding to allow you to proceed with running the generator is:
A. 1 000 000 Ohms
B. 10 Ohms
C. 1000 Ohms
D. 10 000 Ohms
82. Due to failure of one of the carbon brushes the excitation voltage is lost on
one alternator that is operating in parallel. Will that alternator then:
A. Completely lose its share of the load causing the
auxiliary engine to speed up
B. Overload due to reduced voltage output and increased
current
C. Continue to share the active load (kW) but have very
high reactive load (kVAR)
D. Try to take all the load and so trip the main circuit
breaker
1225
DPKP
85. For ideal synchronising as the incomer circuit breaker contacts make, the
phase angle difference between the incomer e.m.f. and the busbar voltage
should be:
A. 0°
B. 30° behind
C. 90° lag
D. 30° ahead
1226
DPKP
88. Great care must be taken when manually paralleling two or more
alternators. At which point would you engage the main circuit breaker of
the incoming alternator when paralleling two alternators?
A. With the pointer of the synchroscope moving slowly
clockwise and almost at 0° (12 O'clock) or both
synchronizing lamps dark (off)
B. With the pointer of the synchronizer stopped at any
position and both synchronizing lamps bright (on)
C. With the pointer of the synchroscope rotating fast and
both synchronizing lamps flashing on and off
D. With the pointer of the synchroscope stopped at 0 (12
O'clock) or both synchronising lights bright
1227
DPKP
89. If the A.C. line current in a generator stator is doubled, the heating effect
in the stator windings will:
A. Quadruple
B. Remain about the same.
C. Half.
D. Double.
91. Regular (at least weekly) testing of the emergency generator must be
performed to check:
A. Its readiness to perform as specified.
B. Its environmental noise factor during emergency fire-
drills.
C. Its voltage/current and prime mover characteristics.
D. Its compliance with the shipbuilder's
recommendations.
1228
DPKP
93. The internal e.m.f. generated in the phase windings of a lightly loaded a.c.
generator is controlled by:
A. The prime mover speed and excitation current.
B. The internal volt drop and the load current.
C. The prime mover and load current.
D. The internal volt drop and the residual magnetism.
94. The power requirements for the excitation winding/circuit for a 3-phase
alternator operating at rated output power are supplied by:
A. The alternators output itself via the automatic voltage
regulator and the prime mover
B. Independent battery supply with the AVR
C. Independent power supply and rectifier unit
D. The main switchboard via a three phase rectifier
1229
DPKP
97. Two alternators are operating in parallel at 75% load capacity, but then
one of them trips without any warning. What is the first action that should
be taken?
A. Trip/stop all nonessential loads that are connected to
the switchboard
B. Check the circuit breaker of the tripped alternator
C. Restart and connect the tripped alternator immediately
D. Start and connect the emergency alternator
98. Under normal conditions, the electric power for services supplied from the
emergency switchboard is supplied from:
A. The main generating plant.
B. Emergency batteries
C. An emergency battery charger.
D. A compressed air driven generator.
1230
DPKP
101. When 3 phase alternators are operating in parallel, it is very important that
the reactive load is evenly shared so that the total alternator loads are
evenly shared. If the total alternator load is the vector sum of active and
reactive loads, which side of the vector diagram (power triangle) shown
represents the reactive load?
A. (Y)
B. (X)
C. Either (X) or (Y)
D. None of the mentioned alternatives
102. When a large motor load suddenly is disconnected from the switchboard
and the generator is AVR controlled, what will the output voltage do?
A. Initially rise, then reset to the set value.
B. Remain approximately constant, due to AVR action.
C. Initially fall, then reset to the set value.
D. Remain approximately constant, due to governor
action.
103. When manually paralleling two alternators the pointer of the synchroscope
may slowly stop rotating and remain stopped in one position before the
circuit breaker is closed. This would indicate:
A. The frequency of the incoming alternator is the same
as that of the main switchboard
B. The synchroscope is not functioning properly and
should be checked
C. The voltage of the incoming alternator is the same as
that of the main switchboard
D. The incoming alternator is in phase with the
switchboard, but the frequency is not the same
1231
DPKP
108. In extreme circumstances what is the allowable max & min voltage tolerance?
A. 85% - 120%
B. 90% - 110%
C. 75% - 125%
D. 70% - 130%
1232
DPKP
110. Line to line voltage of a Delta connected 3 phase alternator is found to be 448
Volt. What is the phase voltage?
A. 311.13 Volt
B. 440 Volt
C. 220 Volt
D. 254.33 Volt
111. The phase current in a Delta connected alternator is found to be 127 A. What is
the line current?
A. 73.32 Amps
B. 127 Amps
C. 219.97 Amps
D. 153.52 Amps
112. The kWatt indicator indicates 300 kWatt and the kVAR indicator shows 200
kVAR. What is the Power Factor?
A. 0.864
B. 0.832
C. 0.799
D. 0.766
113. What can happen with only one generator on load when several large fans are
started at the same time?
A. The fans will not start
B. The preferential trips will operate
C. The generator engine may fail
D. The generator engine may trip on over speed
1233
DPKP
114. How many seconds time delay is considered normal before a generator's Reverse
Trip Relay operates?
A. 3 - 5 seconds
B. 5 - 7 seconds
C. 1 - 3 seconds
D. 7 - 8 seconds
118. Fan alternator runs at 900 RPM and delivers AC current at 60 Hz, how many
pole pairs does this alternator have?
A. Two
B. Four
C. Eight
D. Six
1234
DPKP
120. Name the three conditions which must prevail to put two alternators in parallel?
A. Voltage equal, frequency equal, frequency in phase
B. Same current, same type of alternator, same frequency
C. Voltage equal, current equal, frequency equal
D. Same type alternator, same frequency, frequency in phase
121. Two generators are running in parallel. One is delivering 300 Amps more than
the other. What is the best course of action?
A. Adjust the speed of one generator
B. Adjust the speed of both generators
C. Replace the AVR of the generator which has the highest current output
D. Adjust the excitation of the two generators to bring them level
1235
DPKP
124. How will the plastic insulation in a cable be affected if the temperature exceeds
100 ° Celsius?
A. The insulation is likelyto be severely damaged
B. Nothing as the insulation is designed to withstand more than 500 °Celsius
C. The life-span of the cable will be reduced in accordance with the conductor
life span formula
D. The insulation resistance is increased as the heat will remove any trace of
humidity
125. What will happen when an earth fault occurs on one line of an insulated
distribution system?
A. The system will be in overload and both line fuses trip
B. No fuses will trip, the system is isolated from the earth
C. The opposite line fuse will trip due overload
D. The line will short circuit with the earth and the line fuse trips
126. What is the purpose of the cable gland in addition to providing a watertight seal?
A. To maintain the mechanical properties of the cable
B. To provide a gas tight seal
C. To allow minor sliding movements of the cable
D. As bulkhead or penetrating plate reinforcement
128. If a cable length 100m, dia.1.25 mm has a resistance of 30 Ohm, what length
cable of same material with dia.0.75 mm has a resistance of 25 Ohm?
A. 25 metres
B. 30 metres
C. 15 metres
D. 20 metres
1236
DPKP
130. Except when used as bus-bars, which conductor number (AWG), or larger should
always be stranded?
A. No12 AWG
B. No 10 AWG
C. No 6 AWG
D. No 8 AWG
131. Which of the following is not a requirement for the Navigation light distribution
board?
A. Location on the Bridge
B. Always supplied from batteries
C. Audible and visual lamp failure alarm
D. Double pole switch.
1237
DPKP
134. What is the danger of fitting too high wattage lamps in flameproof fittings?
A. Internal heat generated will damage the fitting
B. Increase in surface heat of fitting
C. Seal could be damaged by extra heat
D. Extra power could overload the cable
135. When two masthead lights are fitted what is the required relationship between
them?
A. Frd must be at least 2 metres higher than the aft.0
B. Both must be at the same leue1.0
C. Frd must be at least 4.5 metres higher than the aft.
D. Aft must be at least 4.5 metres higher than the frd.
1238
DPKP
140. Which of the following is a requirement for the Navigation lighting Distribution
board?
A. Fuse located on the main switchboard
B. Alarm must sound in the engine room
C. Indicator lamps must be in series with the navigation light
D. An alternate supply must be available
142. What is the purpose of the reverse power trip fitted to an AC alternator?
A. To prevent voltage drop
B. To prevent cycle fluctuation
C. To prevent the alternator being run as a motor
D. To protect the diesel engine in case of overload
143. Why must each voltage system have its own earth fault lamps?
A. To accurately locate the earth fault
B. To make tracing the earth easier
C. Earth faults are not transmitted through the transformers
D. In case of failure of one set
1239
DPKP
146. When both a fuse and breaker are used on one circuit, when will the fuse blow?
A. A very high short circuit current a
B. An earth fault
C. Continuous moderately high over-current
D. A break in the motor winding
1240
DPKP
150. What will be the most likely equipment to be disconnected by the preferential
trip?
A. General Seruice pump
B. Galley
C. Seawater circulating pumps
D. Steering pumps
151. What prevents a stationary alternator from being connected to live bus-bars?
A. Reverse power trip
B. Low cycle trip
C. No volt trip
D.Overload trip
1241
DPKP
154. The phase current in a Delta connected alternator is found to be 127 A. What is
the line current?
A. 153.52 Amps
B. 127 Amps
C. 73.32 Amps
D. 219.97 Amps
155. The line-to-line current of a Star connected motor is measured at 28 Amps. What
is the phase current?
A. 48.44 Amps
B. 22.72 Amps
C. 16.18 Amps
D. 18.00 Amps
157. Give the reason why shore power and ship's power should never be run in
parallel?
A. The shore frequency is rigid, the ship's frequency is not
B. No common earth is available
C. Ship's supply is in STAR, shore supply is in DELTA
D. Voltage drop from shore is different from the ship
1242
DPKP
159. For value 0 - max in the AC sin wave how far does the rotating vector (phasor)
travel?
A. 180 deg
B. 270 deg
C. 360 deg
D. 90 deg
162. Line to line voltage of a Delta connected 3 phase alternator is found to be 440
Volt. What is the phase voltage?
A. 220 Volt
B. 311.13 Volt
C. 440 Volt
D. 54.33 Volt
1243
DPKP
165. In a shunt generator the armature current is 100 Amps and the field current 5
Amps. What is the load current of the generator?
A. 95 Amps
B. 100 Amps
C. 105 Amps
D. 110 Amps
166. When a DC generator is short circuited, how is the output voltage affected?
A. Increases to max
B. Falls to zero
C. Remains constant
D. Drops slightly
1244
DPKP
169. DC generator is short circuited, what limits the short circuit current
A. There is no iirnit
B. The generator's internal resistance (ER)
C. When the cables start melting
D. The mechanical size of the switch
170. In a series wound generator what is the connection between field and armature
currents?
A. Parallel connection
B. No connection
C. Shunt connected
D. Series connected
171. If the insulation fails on a major distribution cable, which alternator breaker trip
will operate?
A. The high/low frequency trip
B. The overload trip
C. The reverse current trip
D. The short circuit protection
1245
DPKP
174. How many slip rings with carbon brushes are fitted on the rotor of a three-phase
alternator?
A. Two
B. Six
C. Three
D. Four
175. What are ideal conditions for taking Megger test readings of an alternator?
A. Cooled down to ambient temperature
B. Cooled down to hand-warm
C. Hot after stopping
D. Running
1246
DPKP
180. In oil type circuit breakers, what is the purpose of the oil?
A. To smother the arc
B. Acts as insulation
C. All of these.
D. To release hydrogen gas in the oil will extinguish the arc
181. The governor of the driving machine of an alternator malfunctions, which safety
device will trip the main breaker ?
A. The under voltage trip
B. The reverse current trip
C. The overload trip
D. The highilow frequency trip
182. What problem can arise from auto starting electric equipment?
A. Overload the generator prime mover
B. Trip preferential trips
C. Trip reverse power trip
D. Over speeds the generator prime mover
183. In the event of total immersion of an electric motor in sea water or oils, what
corrective action should you take to make the motor operational again?
A. Wash with tetrachloride, wipe dry and re-varnish windings
B. Wash with tetrachloride, heat to 80° C and change bearings
C. Clean with air, wash with fresh water and heat by lamp
D. Wash with fresh water, wipe dry and re-varnish windings
1247
DPKP
185. What are ideal conditions for taking Megger test readings of a motor or
alternator?
A. Running
B. Cooled down to hand-warm
C. Hot after stopping
D. Cooled down to ambient temperature
186. What method should be used for achieving 'reduced voltage starting' for large AC
motors?
A. Line resistance starter
B. Any of the given options
C. Star-Delta motor starter
D. Auto transformer
187. The maximum allowable temperature for normal Class A insulation type?
A. 55 degree C
B. I80 degree C
C. 45 degree C
D. 105 degree C
188. What is the result if a motor is run at a frequency higher than its designed
operating frequency
A. It will run faster and overspeed
B. It will run slower with too high a current
C. It will run slower and at too high a voltage
D. It will run faster and be overloaded
1248
DPKP
189. An unidentified feeder supplies three motors with full load currents of 15, 40 and
52 Amps each. What is the minimum size of the motor feeder in "AMPACITY "?
A. 120 Amps
B. 235 Amps
C. 350 Amps
D. 175 Amps
191. A 20 Amp motor operates from a 240 V insulated system. The cable impedance
is 0.01 Ohm. What current will flow in case of an earth fault?
A. 20 Amps
B. 2400 Amps
C. 240 Amps
D. 0 Amps
192. Which is the best way to give an electric motor a complete winding and
insulation test?
A. Megger test each phase to phase separately
B. All of these.
C. Megger test each phase separately to earth
D. Conduct drop (mini-Volt) test on each phase
193. How will you find out if an electric motor has developed an earth fault?
A. By carrying out a Drop test (mini-volt test)
B. By carrying out Continuity test (one Ohm range on AVO meter)
C. By carrying out a Megger test
D. By carrying out a Phase balance test
1249
DPKP
194. How many times full load current are motor fuses rated in order to withstand the
large starting current?
A. 5 - 7 times
B. 3 - 5 times
C. 7 - 9 times
D. 2 - 3 times
195. How much higher than full load current is motor starting current when starting
direct on-line?
A. 12 to 15 times
B. 9 to 12 times
C. 5 to 7 times
D. 2 to 3 times
196. How will you find out if an electric motor has developed an earth fault?
A. By carrying out a Megger test
B. By carrying out a Drop test (mini-volt test)
C. By carrying out Continuity test (one Ohm range on AVO meter)
D. By carrying out a Phase balance test
197. What could cause sparking and grooving of the commutator in a DC motor?
A. Wrong types of brushes
B. Any of the other options
C. The strength of the field
D. Current overload
198. What can cause etched or burned bands on the contact faces of brushes in a DC
motor?
A. High mica segments
B. Copper drag on the commutator
C. Brushes improperly positioned
D. Copper embedded in the brushes
1250
DPKP
201. A DC series motor is used to operate a pump driven with a belt, what happens if
the belt breaks?
A. The motor will continue to run at its original speed
B. The motor will stop
C. The motor will slow down
D. The motor will over speed and run out of control
202. Before starting any maintenance on an electrical motor what should you do?
A. Hang a sign on the main switchboard to indicate that the motor should not be
started
B. Switch off the main switch and remove fuses for the motor
C. Inform the duty engineer not to switch on the motor
D. All of these.
1251
DPKP
204. When using a Megger Tester to test equipment rated 440 Volt, what test voltage
should you ensure that the Instrument indicates?
A. 250 volts
B. 1000 volts
C. 750 volts
D. 500 volts
205. What is the required minimum Megger test reading for MCCB' S circuit
breakers?
A. 5 - 8 Megohm
B. 4 - 6 Megohm
C. 1 - 3 Megohm
D. 7 - 10 Megohm
206. What may happen if a Megger tester is used to measure the insulation in a circuit
containing electronic components?
A. The wrong internal resistance maybe shown
B. The Megger may give an indication on how much current the circuit will
consume
C. The connections between components will show a high r. insulation value
D. The components in the circuit may be destroyed
208. In the event of total immersion of an electric motor in sea water what corrective
action should you take to make the motor operational again?
A. Wash with tetrachloride, heat to 80°C and change bearings
B. Clean with air, wash with fresh water and heat by lamp
C. Wash with tetrachloride, wipe dry and re-varnish windings
D. Wash with fresh water, wipe dry and re-varnish windings
1252
DPKP
209. Why hould an earth failure be checked and cleared as soon as possible?
A. There may be a circulating current around the vessel's hull
B. It may damage the monitoring instruments
C. A conflicting earth failure may occur and cause fuses to blow
D. The Unattended Machinery Space (UMS) certificate may be withdrawn
210. How would you initiate a test, if found necessary, to find out if an alternator
preference system is working?
A. By lowering the alternator voltage
B. By raising the generator frequency
C. By lowering the generator frequency
D. By raising the alternator voltage
211. How will you find out if an electric motor has developed an earth fault?
A. By carrying out Continuity test (one Ohm range on AVO meter)
B. By carrying out a Megger test
C. By carrying out a Drop test (mini-volt test)
D. By carrying out a Phase balance test
213. Nhat will happen when an earth fault occurs on one line of an insulated
distribution system?
A. The line will short circuit with the earth and the line fuse trips
B. No fuses will trip, the system is isolated from the earth
C. The opposite line fuse will trip due to overload
D. The system will be in overload and both line fuses trip
1253
DPKP
1254
DPKP
220. In a purely resistive circuit what is the phase difference between vottage and
current?
A. 180 degrees
B. 90 degrees
C. 0 degrees
D. 45 degrees
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DPKP
226. If the outlet temperature “Tout" is kept constant at 65 degrees C and during
normal sea speed the inlet temperature “Tin” is 62 degree C, what would 'Tin"
show during engine slow down ?
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DPKP
227. What kind of temperature control system is fitted in this lubrication oil system ?
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DPKP
229. For this auxiliary diesel fresh water system, what method of temperature control
is used ?
A. A differentiator assembly
B. An amplifier
C. An integrator assembly
D. A nozzle/flapper assembly
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DPKP
A. h = 0.25 D
B. h=D
C. h = 0.4 D
D. h = 0.5 D
232. What is the meaning of the pressure indicated by NBP on this nozzle/flapper
assembly ?
233. What is the most common reason for malfunctioning or erratic functioning of a
pneumatic nozzle/Flapper ) assembly ?
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DPKP
234. If the flapper is pushed against the nozzle so that h = 0, what will the reading of
NBP become ?
A. 3 psi
B. 0 psi
C. 20 psi
D. 15 psi
235. This characteristic shows that only linear part a-b can be used. This means that
the normal effective travel the flapper is only …… for the full measuring range.
A. 0.05 mm
B. mm
C. 0.10 mm
D. 0.005 mm
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DPKP
236. As we can use only the linear part of the characteristic, this shows that the flapper
can only travel 0.01 mm, therefore DELTA psi obtained can only be less than 1
psi. Can we use the flapper nozzle system ?
A. Yes, but the readings obtained between DELTA psi need to be amplified
B. No , the flapper system will gives erratic readings
C. No, the nozzle/flapper assembly needs modification
D. Yes, but the valves need a servo booster
237. The proportional linear signal for a pneumatic nozzle/flapper assembly is only
less than 1 psi for 0.01 mm flapper travel. How do we make use of this signal ?
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DPKP
A. A pneumatic controller
B. A pneumatic amplifier
C. A pneumatic flapper / nozzle assembly
D. A pneumatic booster aggregate
239. On which part of the Pneumatic Amplifier is the nozzle back pressure of the
nozzles / flapper (NBP) acting ?
A. On spring S
B. On valve V
C. On ball valve B
D. On membrane M
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DPKP
240. By what parts is the outlet pressure Pu of this pneumatic transmitter directly
controlled ?
A. spring tension in S
B. By the restriction R
C. By the stand of the valves V and B
D. By slight fluctuation of supply pressure
241. What is the function of ball value B in relation to the outlet pressure Pu of this
pneumatic amplifier?
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DPKP
242. What is the function of value V in relation to the outlet pressure Pu of this
pneumatic amplifier?
243. What would be the result if after period of time the tension of spring S should
weaken on this pneumatic amplifier ?
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DPKP
245. This an actual lay-out drawing of a pneumaticblock. Where is the 20 psi supply
air admitted ?
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246. Where is the output pressure Pu taken from this pneumatic amplifier shown here
?
A. Air passage 15
B. Air passage 13
C. Air passage 14
D. Air passage 12
247. Via which air passage is the nozzle back pressure from the nozzle/Flapper
admitted for this pneumatic amplifier ?
A. Air passage 14
B. Air passage 15
C. Air passage 13
D. Air passage 12
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DPKP
248. Which is the exhaust or air vent port to the atmosphere shown on this pneumatic
transmitter?
A. Air passage 13
B. Air passage 14
C. Air passage 12
D. Air passage 15
A. Nozzle flappers
B. Blade (feather) springs to load the ball and the vent valve
C. Ball valve securing blades
D. Retaining plates for the ball valve
1267
DPKP
250. Flow can the output pressure Pu of this pneumatic amplifier be initially adjusted
?
A. By screw item 10
B. By screw item 1
C. By screw item 11
D. By screw item 4
A. A transmitter
B. An nozzle /flapper assembly
C. A pressure regulator
D. An amplifier
1268
DPKP
253. For what purpose is spring ball adjustment screw item No 2 fitted on the spring
blade of this pneumatic amplifier ?
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DPKP
254. What is the most common reason for malfunctioning of a pneumatic amplifier ?
A. Diaphragma No 7 bursts
B. Valve stem No 6 defective
C. Internal passages blocked by oil mixed with dirt.
D. Gasket No 8 blown
255. This shows a pneumatic control unit which forms the basis of pneumatic control
engineering. It is.........
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DPKP
256. These small pneumatic pipes are connected to the different parts of pneumatic
system so they can be easily dismantled, using ............ ?
257. Which part shown here is the nozzle in this pneumatic assembly ?
A. Part No 2
B. Part No 4
C. Part No 3
D. Part No 5
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DPKP
258. What will be the existing pneumatic pressure in connecting pipe item 110 6 from
flapper nozzle assembly to the pneumatic amplifier ?
259. Pneumatic instruments have an air filter fitted so that any impurity present is
removed. Where is this filter fitted ?
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DPKP
A. 15 to 25 psi
B. 7 to 15 psi
C. 3 to 20 psi
D. 3 to 15 psi
A. K=4
B. K = 12
C. K = 16
D. K = 20
1273
DPKP
A. Flapper nozzle
B. Connecting plug
C. Filter plug
D. Restrictor nozzle
1274
DPKP
A. A feedback controller
B. A feedback amplifier
C. A proportional controller
D. A proportional transmitter
265. What is the name of the bellow P, which indicates its purpose ?
A. Equalising bellow
B. Lifting bellow
C. Feedback bellow
D. Absorbing bellow
1275
DPKP
266. If the length of "a" is equal to the length of "b" what will be the proportional
band "PB" of this pneumatic controller ?
A. 0%
B. 50%
C. 100%
D. 25%
267. With what part is the degree of feedback controlled on this pneumatic
Proportional Controller ?
A. By lengths of arms "a" and 'b" (shifting of amplifier)
B. By "desired valve" input
C. By the spring tension
D. By the bellow
268. If Q1 is the filling volume of the tank and Q2 the outflow volume of the tank and
the level L is constant by controller output pressure Pu = 9 psi, the valve V2 will
be open for ...
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 100%
D. 75%
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DPKP
269. I the input flow Q1 increases to Q1' and level L increases to L' what will initially
happen ?
270. What do you call the pneumatic mode of operating of the pneumatic controlled
valve V2 ?
A. Positive activation
B. Negative activation
C. Air to Close
D. Air to Open
1277
DPKP
271. If we shift the nozzle / flapper assembly to the left so that the length of "a" is half
of length "b", to what level will L' rise before it stabilizes ?
272. What is the level difference between L and L' called in this process ?
A. The offset
B. The range
C. The amplification
D. The span
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DPKP
273. This characteristic shows the output pressure of a controller effecting valve lift. If
PB = 100 % is the graph shown in "a". What is the graph of PB = 50 % ?
A. Graph b
B. Graph d
C. Graph e
D. Graph f
274. This characteristic shows output pressure of a controller effecting valve lift. If P8
= 100 % is the graph shown in "a ". What is the amplification factor and the
proportional band represented by graph "I" ?
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DPKP
276. If the pressures in the MV and the SV bellows are equal, what will be the output
pressure Pu of this pneumatic P-controller ?
A. 9 psi
B. 6 psi
C. 12 psi
D. 3 psi
1280
DPKP
277. If the measured value bellow is connected to the output of the jacket CW
temperature transmitter and thePu of the controller is 9 psi, and we reduce the
temperature setting from 75 to 72 degree C what happens tosigj the Pu ?
278. Between which values (expressed in psi) can setting of the Su (set value or
desired value) bellow of this pneumatic P controller be affected?
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DPKP
279. Suppose the variation of INPUT is 1 psi down instead of 1 psi up on this
pneumatic P-Controller. If the proportional band PB is 25 % what will be the
output pressure ?
A. 2 psi
B. 3 psi
C. 6 psi
D. 0 psi
280. Suppose the INPUT of the pneumatic controller is 4 psi and the PB is 25 %. If
variation on the input is 1psi down, what is the variation on the output expressed
in psi ?
A. 2 psi
B. 1 psi
C. 6 psi
D. 4 psi
1282
DPKP
282. Suppose the Proportional Band of this pneumatic controller is increased to 500 %
and the input variation remains the same. What would be the output variation ?
A. 5 psi
B. 0.5 psi
C. 0.2 psi
D. 1 psi
1283
DPKP
284. Something is wrong with the controller setting of this water level control system.
Suppose the Proportional and is 12.5 %, to what value would you reset it ?
A. 500%
B. 50%
C. 100%
D. 20%
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DPKP
285. In this electrical amplifier drawing, what takes the place of the flapper/nozzle
unit used by the pneumatic control unit with amplifier ?
A. R2
B. U2
C. U1
D. R1
286. What takes the place of the 20 psi input used by pneumatic nozzle/flapper units
in this electrical amplifier equivalent ?
A. Resistance R2
B. Voltage U1
C. Voltage U2
D. Resistance R1
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DPKP
287. What takes the place of the output pressure of the pneumatic nozzle/flapper unit
in this electrical amplifier equivalent ?
A. Voltage U2
B. Voltage U1
C. Resistor R2
D. Resistor R1
289. The working pressures used by pneumatic control components are between 3 and
15 psi. What are the equivalent currents used by electric control equipment ?
A. Between 0 and 5 or 3 and 9 mA
B. Between 0 and 20 mA or 4 and 20 mA
C. Between 20 and 60 mA or 25 and 75 mA
D. Between 10 and 50 mA or 15 and 50 mA
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DPKP
290. What does a thick articulated line represent in automation schematic diagrams ?
(the top articulated line shown here)
A. A measuring line
B. A process line
C. An instrument line
D. A steering line
291. What does a broken or dotted line represent in automation schematic diagrams ?
(the second line from top shown here)
A. A pneumatic line
B. A steering line
C. An instrument line
D. A measuring line
1287
DPKP
293. What does the symbol drawn on the fourth line form the top (a blank circle)
indicate in an automation schematic diagram ?
A. A controller
B. An indicator
C. A transmitter
D. An instrument
1288
DPKP
294. What does the symbol shown on the fifth line from the top (a circle with a
horizontal line through it of the drawing indicated an automation schematic
diagram ?
A. An electronic instrument
B. An instrument fitted in a central panel
C. An instrument fitted in the main control console
D. A pneumatic instrument
295. What do the letters "PT" shown in this instrument symbol (drawn on the bottom
line) indicate if found in an automation schematic drawing
1289
DPKP
A. A thermometer
B. A temperature transmitter
C. A temperature controller
D. A manometer
1290
DPKP
299. What components of the Lubricating Oil Control System shown here ?
For No. 74
1291
DPKP
300. Which are the parameters that steer the level control automatic system of the
boiler shown here?
301. The feedwater valve and the feedwater by-pass values are...........
1292
DPKP
302. This drawing shows a simple mechanical controller controlling the water level in
the tank. Level "L" is the DESIRED water level in the tank, in automation this is
called the .....
A. set point.
B. set level.
C. measured value.
D. proportional point.
303. Suppose that in the system drawn the water inflow Q1 increases so that the float
is pushed up by the water to level L'. The value of level L' is called the ......
A. increased value.
B. actual value.
C. level value.
D. measured value.
1293
DPKP
304. The difference between the desired value (level L) and the measured value (level
L') is called.........
305. Here 'S' is the support point in the middle of pivoting arm 'AB'. For a given
increase in water level the valve is opened by the same distance, therefore the
amplification is 1. What will happen if b = 2 x a ?
1294
DPKP
306. In the top integrator drawing the bellows fill with air through the Restrictor
Valve 'R'. In the electrical equivalent ......
307. In these integrator circuits the air flow through the restrictor and the current
through the resistance.........
A. remains constant
B. is negative
C. decreases with time
D. increases with time.
308. What is the difference in function between these electrical and the pneumatic
integrators ?
A. The pneumatic integrator is slower
B. They work in opposite directions
C. The electric integrator is slower
D. None
1295
DPKP
309. The characteristics shown here indicate a ramp input on the left together with the
corresponding output the right of....
E. A a pure integrator
F. B a pure differentiator
G. C a proportional integrating controller
H. D a proportional controller
310. Explain the function of a capacitor that loads up compared with a bellow that fills
up with air ?
1296
DPKP
A. A proportional controller
B. A proportional integrating-differential controller
C. A proportional differentiating controller
D. A proportional integrating controller
312. These graphs are, left, the step input and, right, the output response of a
controller. What characteristics are shown ?
1297
DPKP
313. For which type of controller are the input and output characteristics shown here ?
314. The measuring signal obtained to carry out flow measuring is a Differential
pressure signal. This is obtained by a certain medium flowing through a...........
A. oriface plate
B. a right-angled nozzle system
C. nozzle system
D. capillary tube
1298
DPKP
315. Since the output of the pressure transmitter is not linear with the flow in the pipe
as measured over the wring flange the output signal should be sent to a................
A. root extractor.
B. equaliser.
C. summator.
D. balancing valve.
A. Channel 10
B. Channel 5
C. Bellow 8
D. Channel 8
1299
DPKP
318. Which is the fitter of the instrument on this transmitter part drawing ?
A. Item No 3
B. Item no 2
C. Item No 4
D. Item No 1
319. On this pneumatic transmitter part drawing, which part is amplifying the signal ?
A. Part No 2
B. Part No 4
C. Part No 3
D. Part No 1
1300
DPKP
321. Which part adjusts the proportional band of this pneumatic transmitter ?
A. Part No 9
B. Part No 7
C. Part No 8
D. Part No 10
1301
DPKP
322. On which part of this pneumatic transmitter does the pressure of the process
(steam,oil,water) act ?
A. Item No 1
B. Item No 3
C. Item No 2
D. Item No 4
A. part No 10.
B. part No 9.
C. part No 15.
D. part No 11.
324. From this drawing of a pneumatic pressure transmitter, what is the Proportional
Band setting ?
A. Proportional Band more than 100 %, amplification K less than 1
B. Proportional Band less than 100 %, amplification K more than 1
C. Proportional Band = 100 %, amplification K = 1
D. Proportional Band 0%, amplification infinitive
1302
DPKP
325. For which type of controller are these the input (left) and the response (right)
characteristics ?
A. A pneumatic integrator
B. A pressure integrating controller
C. A pneumatic inverter
D. A proportional integrating controller
A. an ampere-differential transmitter
B. a current converter
C. an operational amplifier
D. an analog converter
1303
DPKP
327. Which resistor determines the proportional band on this electronic proportional
integrating controller ?
A. R2
B. Rf
C. R1
D. R3
328. Fitting a restriction RI in the supply to the proportional feedback of this PID
controller ensures that for an initial small variation on the input, the initial
response on the output will be .....
A. proportional
B. zero
C. very weak
D. strong
1304
DPKP
329. For which control instrument are these the input (left) and the output or response
(right) characteristics ?
330. For this PID controller to act only as a P (proportional) controller, what should be
the arrangement of restricting values R1 and R2 ?
1305
DPKP
331. which kind of controller are the input and output characteristics shown here ?
332. In the output characteristics (right) of this controller, which response lines are
clearly shown ?
1306
DPKP
A. By C and RL
B. By C and RL
C. By C and R3
D. By C and R2
1307
DPKP
A. With item No 3
B. With item No 2
C. With item No 1
D. With items 1, 2 and 3.
1308
DPKP
338. The three conductor system used by Wheatstone Bridge lay-outs is intended to
provide........
1309
DPKP
1310
DPKP
342. The potential of this thermocouple bridge is zero if all connections are kept at the
same temperature. Why is the indication of the potentiometer zero ?
1311
DPKP
343. Compensation wires are electrical conductors made of special metal alloy and
have as characteristics that............
1312
DPKP
345. The two valves shown on the left of this picture are called flat valves and give a
high throughput for a small lift in height. They are mostly used for.......
346. The two valves shown in the centre of the drawing are.....
347. The two valves shown at the right of the picture are .........type valves.
A. linear
B. egui-percentage
C. flat shaped
D. stop flow
1313
DPKP
348. The two valves on the left of this picture are ......, the two valves on the right are
...... valves.
349. The operating function of the valve on which this pneumatic valve motor is fitted
will be ......
1314
DPKP
350. This automatic control system shows one temperature controller steering two
value motors (fitted in different process components) by using different working
ranges. This is called ...... control.
A. feedback
B. separated range
C. diverted
D. split range
351. The valve positioner acts on the principle of the balance of forces. The tension of
part ..... ( .......) is to be inbalance with the force of the controller pressure which
acts on part....... (........).
A. 9 (spring), 18 (membrane)
B. 4 (relays), 12 (membrane)
C. 9 (spring), 11 (supply valve)
D. 12 (membrane), 6 (feedback lever)
1315
DPKP
352. Why does the output (instrument supply) pressure of a reducer fluctuate ?
353. A pressure reducing value works according to the principle of balance of forces,
in this case theforce P2 acting on the membrane is in balance with the force of
the.......
1316
DPKP
354. The manometer with scale indication shown here is fitted in the .....line of a
controller or valve positioner which supplies a pneumatic valve motor with
"Pressure to......" function.
A. input, "Close"
B. output, "Open "
C. input, " Open "
D. supply, " Close "
355. This is the drawing of a Machinery Monitoring and Alarm System. What is the
heart and brain of this Scanning Unit ?
A. The LSU's
B. The CPU
C. The MAD
D. The LAD'S
356. Which port of this machinery scanning system collects the incoming data from
instruments and transducers ?
A. The CPU
B. The TWM
C. The LSU'e
D. The MAD
1317
DPKP
357. If the engine room is in UMS mode and one of the measuring points collected by
a LSU and fed into the CPU exceeds its preset value parameter, the CPU will.........
A. activate the LAD in operation and
its visible and audible alarm will set
off.
B. activate the MAD (main Alarm
Display) and Visible and alarms will
be activated.
C. activate the TWM (Type Writer
Monitor) and print out the obtained
error value, measuring point number
and time.
D. activates all of these.
358. The LSU's (Local Scanning Units) have to measure temperature, pressure, flow,
level, RPM, torque, horsepower, circuit and salinity and do so via analog and
digital tranducers. What is a digital transducer ?
1318
DPKP
359. The latest obtained system values are fed into the computer and compared with
previous ones. The analysis obtained before has to be compared with the latest
analysis. This is called......
1319
DPKP
360. If a fault occurs in this power supply system, the best and fastest way to locate
this fault is by...........
361. On this commonly used electric pressure transmitter, how will you adjust the
range ?
A. With item No 7
B. With item No 5
C. With item No 1
D. With item No 2
362. How do you adjust the zero setting on this commonly used electrical pressure
transmitter?
A. By item No 5
B. By item No 7
C. By item No 2
D. By item No 1
1320
DPKP
363. In an automated engine the center from which the ship's engine room is
controlled is called:
A. the control plant station (CPS).
B. the main engine nerve and control station (MENS).
C. the power plant station control station (PPCS).
D. the engineering control room (ECR).
365. The monitoring system that tests the plant for readings of the temperature,
pressure etc. is called:
A. the demand display unit.
B. the scanning unit.
C. the loop back system.
D. the comparing unit.
366. A pressostat as well as a thermostat are sources of....... type output signals ?
A. impulse
B. digital
C. analog
D. binary
1321
DPKP
367. The second potentiometer of this electric command system is located in the
steering gear. What moves this potentiometer ?
A. The telemotor
B. The rudder angle indicator
C. The rudder position via the trunion connection
D. The eccentric pushrod on the HELE-SHAW pump
A. The Differentiator
B. The Pressure knob
C. The Measuring scale
D. The Adjusting knob
1322
DPKP
A. 1
B. 0
C. 11
D. 10
1323
DPKP
A. A binary flip-flop
B. A binary register
C. A digital amplifier
D. A differential trigger
1324
DPKP
374. Comparing this pneumatic control unit with the equivalent electrical amplifier.
What takes the place of the air restrictor passage used in the pneumatic
nozzle/flapper unit in the electrical equivalent ?
A. Voltage U2
B. Voltage U1
C. Resistor R1
D. Resistor R2
1325
DPKP
375. When an automatic power supply system is provided with an auxiliary diesel
stand-by system, and the power supply trips at time ZERO, which of the
following is a feasible sequence of activities ?
A. Time zero + 10 sec: the stand-by diesel starts. + 20 sec: the stand- by
diesel runs. + 40 sec: the power is restored
B. Time zero + 30 sec: he stand-by diesel starts. « 45 sec: he stand-by diesel
runs. + 60 sec : the power is restored
C. Time zero + 5 sec: the stand-by diesel starts. + 10 sec: the stand-by diesel
runs. + 25 sec: the power is restored
D. Time zero: the stand-by diesel starts. + 7 sec: the stand-by diesel runs, + 8
sec: the power is restored
376. The best way of testing the "stand-by' function of the emergency diesel alternator
is by…..
A. starting the emergency diesel manually from the spot and check for any
leakages or deficiencies.
B. causing a total black-out on the ship, example in drydock or when time is
available in port.
C. by switching off the emergency switch board supply breaker on the main
switch board.
D. switching on the lest run' button on the emergency diesel switchboard.
1326
DPKP
379. How many slip rings with carbon brushes are fitted on the rotor of a separately
excited three-phase alternator ?
A. Three
B. Two
C. Six
D. Four
380. If an alternator runs at 900 RPM and delivers AC current at 60 Hz, how many
pole pairs has this alternator got…
A. Four
B. Two
C. Eight
D. Six
382. When parallel running alternators, what effects the reactive power of each
alternator (10/AR) ?
A. The number of pole pairs of each paralleled alternator
B. The temperature of the windings due to load distribution
C. The power throttle of the driving units
D. The excitation current
383. Name the three conditions which must prevail to put two alternators in parallel ?
A. Voltage equal, current equal, frequency equal
B. Same type alternator, same frequency, frequency in phase
C. Voltage equal, frequency equal, voltage in phase
D. Same current, same type of alternator, same frequency
1327
DPKP
384. Which of the following safety devices fitted on the main switch breaker will trip
the alternator if a major cabled line should fail to the distributors and the insulation
should break through ?
A. The reverse current trip
B. The high/low frequency trip
C. The short circuit protection
D. The under voltage relay
386. What happens to the terminal voltage of a generator when it supplies a leading
power factor load ?
A. It falls
B. It fluctuates
C. It rises
D. It remains steady
387. Line to line voltage of a Delta connected 3 phase alternator is found to be 440
Volt. What is the phase voltage ?
A. 220 Volt
B. 440 Volt
C. 311.13 Volt
D. 254.33 Volt
1328
DPKP
388. The phase to phase voltage of a Star connected alternator is 254.34 Volt. What is
the equivalent line to line voltage ?
A. 147 Volt
B. 440 Volt
C. 230 Volt
D. 254.34 Volt
389. Two 3 phase 4160 Volt, 60 Hz alternators are operated in parallel. The total load
of the system is 1050 kW with power factor 0.75 lagging. If alternator Ho 1 is
carrying 700 kW at 80 % power factor lagging .....
A. the Power Factor of alternator 110 2 is lagging 0.7064
B. the Power Factor of alternator Ho 2 is lagging 0.6914
C. the Power Factor of alternator lbco 2 is lagging 0.658
D. the Power Factor of alternator Ho 2 is lagging 0.7352
390. Alternator (A) 100 kVA runs parallel with alternator (B) 125 kVA, both are 3
phase, 240 V, 60 Hz. The load of A s 60 kW, 90% power factor and the load of B
is 80 kW, 70 % power factor. What is the total load ?
A. 458.8 Amps
B. 429.8 Amps
C. 472.8 Amps
D. 416.8 Amps
391. It is said sometimes that alternators are operating as a load, i.e. as a motor. What
are the circumstances for this to occur ?
A. Where three generators are running in parallel.
B. Where two generators are running in parallel.
C. Any of the above but the alternator in question has lost prime mover
input.
D. Where parallel operation with deck generator or outside power supply
occurs
1329
DPKP
392. How would you initiate a test, if found necessary, to find out if an alternator
preference system is working ?
A. By lowering the generator frequency
B. By rising the generator frequency
C. By rising the alternator voltage
D. By lowering the alternator voltage
393. What are the functions of the Under Voltage Release Unit as generator circuit
breaker ?
A. It trips the alternator by under voltage
B. It disallows breaker to be put on load by under voltage
C. All of these.
D. It prevents breaker operation in the absence of voltage
394. If a total short circuit occurs on a 3 phase alternator and the short-circuit trip fails
to operate, what back-up safety device will activate ?
A. The over speed trip
B. The preferential trip
C. The under voltage trip
D. The low frequency trip
396. The pick up and the time settings of reverse power relays are adjustable. If the
prime mover of the alternator is a steam turbine what is the trip level setting ?
A. 0.5 - 1%
B. 6 - 7%
C. 2 - 3%
D. 4 - 6%
1330
DPKP
397. How many seconds time delay is considered normal before a generator's Reverse
Trip Relay operates ?
A. 1 - 2 seconds
B. 3 - 5 seconds
C. 5 - 7 seconds
D. 7 - 8 seconds
398. If the prime mover of an alternator is a diesel engine, what should the Reverse
Power Relays pick up setting be ?
A. 10 - 15 %
B. 5 -10 %
C. 5 -12 %
D. 8 - 10 %
399. How can you monitor the correct instant for synchronising alternators should
your synchronising system (synchronoscope or lamps) be defective ?
A. By fitting a voltmeter over one phase
B. By fitting lamps crossed over two phases
C. By fitting two voltmeters crossed over two phases
D. By fitting lamps over the three phases
400. What can happen if only one generator is connected to the mains and several
large fans are started at the same time ?
A. The exhaust temperature of the auxiliary engine will raise
B. The lights may be a dimmed a little
C. Nothing special
D. The generator may trip on overload
401. Two generators are running in parallel. Generator one is delivering 300 Amps
more than the second generator. What is the best course of action ?
A. Adjust the excitation of the two generators to bring them level
B. Adjust the speed of both generators
C. Replace the A.V.R of the generator which has the highest current output
D. Adjust the speed of one generator
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402. When two generators are being manually synchronized, when should the circuit
breaker be closed ?
A. When the synchroscope indicator is rotating fast and at 11 o'clock position
B. When the synchroscope indicator is rotating slowly clockwise and at 11
o'clock position
C. When the synchroscope indicator is rotating slow and at 3 o'clock position
D. When the synchroscope indicator is rotating fast and at 12 o'clock position
403. Why should a stationary alternator not be connected to live bus bars ?
A. Because the voltage of other alternators may fluctuate
B. Because the bus bars will be short circuited
C. Because the alternator is likely to run as a motor
D. Because the alternator will decrease the bus bar voltage
405. What is the function of the voltage regulator fitted to AC generators operating in
parallel ?
A. To cut in generators automatically as they are needed
B. To divide the KVA load equally between all connected generators
C. To divide the reactive current equally between the generators
D. To cut out generators not needed because of reduction in load
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407. What is the first step when removing a generator from parallel operation with
other generators?
A. Switch off all connected loads
B. Remove the load from the generator to be stopped
C. Increase the cycles of the generator(s) which remain on the line
D. Trip off the generator from the switchboard
408. What is the purpose of the reverse power relay connected to an AC diesel
generator ?
A. To maintain good load sharing
B. To prevent over speeding
C. To prevent the generator running as a motor
D. To prevent main circuit overload
409. Why is synchronization required when two diesel generators are due to be
connected to each other ?
A. If not, the electrical net voltage may be out of phase after generators have
been connected.
B. If two unsynchronized generators are connected, both the diesel prime
mover and the generator can be damaged.
C. Two generators which are not synchronized cannot be connected.
D. The overall insulation resistance can go down if no synchronization is
carried out.
410. What happens to the terminal voltage of an alternator producing 440 Volt when it
supplies a lagging power actor load, example induction motors ?
A. The terminal voltage will fluctuate around 440 Volt
B. The terminal voltage will drop below 440 Volt
C. The terminal voltage will be exactly 440 Volt
D. The terminal voltage goes above 440 Volt
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