5.

Menggunakan secara tepat, peralatan tenaga tangan, peralatan tenaga

mesin alat-alat ukur untuk fabrikasi dan perbaikan di atas kapal.
(Appropriate use ofhand tools, machinetools and measuringinstruments
forfabrication andrepair on board)

1. When using an ohmmeter to find a short circuit, which meter reading indicates the
fault?
A. Zero
B. Infinity
C. 100 megohm
D. 1 megohm

2. What is a multi meter used for?

A. To measure voltage and current
B. To measure voltage and resistance
C. To measure voltage, resistance and current
D. To measure resistance

3. What kind of device measures pressure and converts it to an electrical signal?

A. A transducer
B. A transceiver
C. A transponder
D. A transformer

4. Which measuring device should always be connected in series with a circuit?

A. Ammeter
B. Voltmeter
C. Ohmmeter
D. Wattmeter

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5. A Wheatstone Bridge is a precision instrument used mostly to measure:

A. Inductance
B. Amperage
C. Resistance
D. Capacitance

6. What are ideal conditions for taking insulation test readings of a motor or
alternator?
A. Hot after stopping
B. Running
C. Cooled down to ambient temperature
D. Cooled down to hand-warm

7. The phase current in a Delta connected alternator is found to be 127 A. What is the
line current?
A. 73.32 Amps
B. 127 Amps
C. 153.52 Ams
D. 219.97 Amps

8. What would a clamp type ampere meter read if clipped around a 3-core cable known
to carry 100 Amps to a 3-phase electric motor?
A. 0 Amps
B. 300 Amps
C. 33.33 Amps
D. 100 Amps

9. voltmeter with 5,000 ohm internal resistance reads 10 volts at full scale. What resistor
needs to be put in series to increase its range to 150 volts?
A. 7500 Ohm
B. 70000 Ohm
C. 165000 Ohm
D. 35000 Ohm

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10. What is the normal output voltage range of an insulation meter?

A. Between 400 and 500 Volts
B. Between 1,000 and 10,000 Volts
C. Between 500 and 1000 Volts
D. Between 200 and 300 Volts

11. Which of the following would you expect to find at the main switchboard
A. Suitable extinguisher.
B. Insulated rubber matting.
C. Insulated grab rails.
D. All of these.

12. In one complete cycle of a single phase of alternating current how often is the
voltage at zero?
A. Three times
B. Once
C. Heuer
D. Twice

13. At maximum voltage what angle is the conductor cutting the magnetic field?
A. 90 degrees
B. 180 degrees
C. 45 degrees
D. 0 degrees

14. What determines the output voltage of an AC alternator?

A. lumber of rotor windings
B. lumber of poles
C. RPM of the prime mover
D. Strength of magnetic field

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15. In one cycle of 3-phase AC how often is voltage at peak value?

A. Three times
B. Six times
C. Always
D. twice

16. How is a Voltmeter connected in a circuit?

A. In series
B. In series with a resistance
C. In parallel, combined with a resistance
D. In parallel

17. How is an Ammeter connected in a circuit?

A. In parallel
B. In series
C. In series with a resistance
D. In parallel with a resistance

18. Flow can a Voltmeter measure a variety of voltage values?

A. By connecting a shunt in parallel
B. By connecting a capacitor in series
C. By connecting a capacitor in parallel
D. By connecting a shunt in series

19. Flow can an Ammeter measure a variety of current values?

A. By connecting a capacitor in parallel
B. By connecting a shunt in series
C. By connecting a capacitor in series
D. By connecting a shunt in parallel

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20. Why is the battery maintenance of such Importance?

A. The batteries are the fast resort back-up system
B. They are an item of survey equipment
C. To ensure there is a continuity of supply to the navigation lights
D. To comply with the planned maintenance requirements

21. Using lead/acid batteries what is the minimum number of cells required to produce
24V?
A. 16
B. 24
C. 12
D. 6

22. What is the electrolyte in a conventional leadracid battery?

A. Dilute Hydrochloric acid
B. Distilled water
C. Dilute Sulphuric acid
D. Potassium hydroxide

23. What is the danger of naked lights in the battery locker?

A. React with the gases to form a toxic mixture
B. May damage the battery casings
C. The batteries give off hydrogen sulphide making the air explosive
D. The batteries give off highlyflammable hydrogen gas

24. What would be the S.G. of a fully charged battery?

A. 1.28
B. 1.36
C. 1.2
D. 1.12

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25. The size of any electrical conductor should be such that the voltage drop at full load
will not exceed what percentage?
A. 1%
B. 3%
C. 2%
D. 5%

26. Line to line uottage of a Delta connected 3 phase alternator is found to be 440 Volt.
What is the phase cottage?
A. 220 Volt
B. 311.13 Volt
C. 254.33 Volt
D. 440 Volt

27. If a 100 metre length of 1.25 mm dia. wire has a resistance of 30 Ohm, what length
of the same wire of 0.75 mm dia. will have a resistance of 25 Ohm?
A. 35 metres
B. 25 metres
C. 20 metres
D. 30 metres

28. Which of the following four materials is the best electrical conductor?
A. Steel
B. Brass
C. Copper
D. Silver

29. What would be the correct setting of the current relayfor a three phase induction
motor?
A. At 100% of the rated current
B. At 33-50% of the rated current
C. At 5-15% over the rated current
D. At the rated current

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30. A 20 Amp motor operates from a 240 V insulated system. The cable impedance is
0.01 Ohm. What current will flow in case of an earth fault?
A. 0 Amps
B. 240 Amps
C. 20 Amps
D. 400 Amps

31. A ship's electrical system is usually the so-called "closed insulation"type. What does
this mean?
A. The system is totally insulated from the ship's hull
B. The system does not have a neutral point
C. The system is totally insulated from the ship's 220 V distribution system
D. The system's zero voltage point is connected to the 'tame of the generator

32. Flow will an earth failure be noticed in an insulated distribution system?

A. The fuse in the faulty circuit will blow
B. The voltage will drop in proportion to the earth leakage
C. The fuse located in the system's neutral point will blow
D. The system insulation meter will indicate a drop in resistance

33. the worst case what would be the effect a 25 milli-amps electric shock?
A. Could be fatal
B. Give a mild shock
C. Burn the skin
D. Totally harmless

34. What is the purpose of an instrument transformer installed on the main bus bars?
A. To measure the generator output current
B. To measure the earth leakage
C. To prevent bus-bar overload
D. To measure the generator output voltage

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35. In a three-phase system why is a resistor fitted in series with the earth detection
lights?
A. To limit the earth current
B. To provide an easier path for the earth current
C. To protect the earth lights
D. To lower the voltage at the earth lights

36. Why should an earth failure be checked and cleared as soon as possible?
A. The Unattended Machinery Space (UMS) certificate may be -nualid
B. There may be a circulating current around the vessel's hull
C. A conflicting earth failure may occur and cause fuses to blow
D. it may damage the monitoring instruments

37. What is required to generate 60Hertz using a slow speed prime mover?
A. Gearbox to increase the generator speed.
B. Increased number of poles.
C. Greater excitation current.
D. reduced number of poles.

38. What is the main disadvantage with main shaft driven alternators?
A. Limited power output
B. Engine speed variation
C. Low speed limits voltage output
D. Only available at sea

39. Which of these materials can be used to insulate magnetic flux?

A. Porcelain
B. Ceramic
C. Rubber
D. lone of the other options

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40. What causes the EMF variation in an AC alternator?

A. Velocity of conductor cutting flux
B. Changing polarity
C. Flux density
D. Component of velocity at 90"to flux

41. What law states that induced EMF always opposes the change producing it ?
A. Lenz
B. Coulomb
C. Fleming
D. faraday

42. What governs induced EMF in a conductor?

A. Magnetic strength
B. Rate of cutting flux
C. Flux density
D. Rate of change of magnetic flux

43. What law determines the direction of induced EMF?

A. Faraday
B. Lenz
C. Fleming
D. Weber

44. In what situation is Induced OAF given bythe formula e=Blv?

A. When a single conductor cuts a magnetic field in a straight line
B. When a conductor is rotated between opposing magnets
C. When a conductor rotates in a magnetic field
D. When a magnet is rotated in a coiled conductor

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45. What are valence electrons?

A. Positively charged electrons
B. Contained in the nucleus
C. Outer orbiting electrons
D. Orbiting electrons

46. When is an atom considered to be a positiuely charged ion?

A. When electrons are gained
B. When electrons are lost
C. When it has positive electrons
D. When it has positive protons

47. What do good insulators have in common?

A. Large number of electrons
B. Positive electrons
C. Stable atomic structure
D. Negative nucleus

48. What determines cycles per second in an AC alternator?

A. No of conductors
B. Generator speed and number of poles
C. Generator speed
D. lumber of poles

49. What determines the speed in a squirrel cage AC motor?

A. The cycles/second
B. The supply current
C. The number of poles
D. Cycles/second and number of poles

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50. In an alternator what controls the generated Voltage?

A. Excitation current.
B. Number of poles.
C. Generator speed.
D. Size of the stator windings.

51. In a DC generator where is the current generated?

A. In the commutator
B. In the field windings
C. In the shunt windings
D. In the armature windings

52. In a 'shunt' DC motor how are the pole windings connected?

A. Both parallel and in series
B. In parallel with the armature
C. In series with the armature
D. reparately from the armature output

53. When will the resistance in a wire decrease?

A. When the applied voltage decreases
B. When the length of the wire increases
C. When the temperature of the wire increases
D. When the cross-sectional area of the wire increases

54. How will the plastic insulation in a cable be affected if the temperature exceeds 100
degrees Celsius?
A. Nothing as the insulation is designed to withstand temperatures of more than
500 degrees Celsius
B. The insulation resistance is increased as the heat will remove any trace of
humidity
C. The life-span of the cable will be reduced in accordance with the conductor
life span formula
D. The insulation is likely to be severely damaged

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55. Why do ships normally use an AC insulated neutral distribution system?

A. It limits fault current
B. It reduces cable size
C. An earth failure on one phase will not cause protective devices like fuses and
circuit breakers to trip
D. It reduces switchgear ratings

56. How would you test the insulation on an AC motor?

A. By carrying out a Phase balance test
B. By carrying out a Drop test (mini-volt test)
C. By carrying out a Megger test
D. By carrying out a Continuity test (one Ohm range on AVO meter)

57. What is the maximum allowable temperature for normal Class A insulation type?
A. 105 degree C
B. 80 degree C
C. 55 degree C
D. 115 degree C

58. What is the continuity resistance of a heating element of 2 kWatt, 220 Volt?
A. 24.2 Ohm
B. 44 Ohm
C. 11 Ohm
D. 9.09 Ohm

59. What is the unit of magnetic flux?

A. Henry
B. Weber
C. Coulomb
D. Farad

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60. Which of the following is the most suitable for use as a magnet?
A. Stainless steel
B. Copper
C. Soft iron
D. Nickel

61. In an alternator what effect does increasing the excitation have?

A. Decreases the voltage produced
B. Increases the cycles/second of the current
C. Increases the amperage produced
D. Increases the voltage produced in the conductor

62. Using Fleming's Right Hand Rule what does the thumb indicate?
A. Direction of the magnetic flux
B. Direction of movement of the conductor
C. Direction of the excitation current
D. Direction of current in the conductor

63. lf magnet pole faces are 3cm X 4cm and have flux density of 0.417T, what is the
flux?
A. 0.5mWb
B. 0.55mWb
C. 0.4mWb
D. 0.7mWb

64. With reference to a magnet what is Hysteresis?

A. Permeability of the magnet material
B. Reluctance of magnetic material
C. Magnetic strength in relation to current
D. Lag of flux compared to field strength

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65. Vibration testing is an integral part of what type of maintenance?

A. Planned maintenance
B. Intrinsic surveillance
C. Condition monitoring
D. Breakdown maintenance

66. A Wheatstone Bridge is used to measure an unknown resistance in relation to what?

A. Kirchoffis Laws
B. A voltage drop
C. A known resistance
D. A current imbalance

67. Which law states that the sum of the p.d.s is equal to the sum of the E.M.F.s?
A. Ohm's Law
B. Coulomb's Law
C. Kirchoffs Voltage Law
D. Lenz' Law

68. In series connected resistors what remains constant?

A. Current.
B. Resistance.
C. Voltage.
D. Reactance.

69. Two resistors of 60 ohm & 30 ohm are connected in parallel across an EMF of 12V,
what is the circuit current?
A. 3A
B. 9A
C. 2A
D. 6A

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70. Which law states that the sum of currents arriving at a junction is equal to the sum of
currents leaving the 'unction?
A. Kirchoffs Current Law
B. Faradays Law
C. Ohm's Law
D. Lenz' Law

71. In parallel connected resistors what remains constant?

A. Impedance
B. Reactance
C. Current
D. Voltage

72. Two resistors of 60 ohm & 30 ohm are connected in parallel across an EMF of 12V,
what is the effective resistance?
A. 90 ohm
B. 20 ohm
C. 60 ohm
D. 4.50 ohm

73. Two resistors of 60 ohm & 30 ohm are connected in parallel across an EMF of 12V,
what is the current in each resistor?
A. 3A & 6A
B. 2A & 4A
C. 0.66A & 1.33A
D. 1A & 2A

74. If the effective resistance of a circuit is 8 ohm and current from source is 1.5A what
is the E.M.F.?
A. 24V
B. 6V
C. 12V
D. 9V

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75. Which law governs the relationship between potential difference and current?
A. Coulomb's law
B. Lenz' law
C. Ohm's law
D. Kirchoffs current law

76. Voltage multiplied by current equals what?

A. Power
B. Reactance
C. Efficiency
D. Resistance

77. If a p.d. of 24V exists across a 150 resistor what is the current?
A. 3.6 amps
B. I.6 amps
C. 0.6 amps
D. 1.2 amps

78. What happens to the current if the resistance of a circuit doubles while the applied
voltage remains constant.
A. Halved
B. Quadrupled
C. Doubled
D. Remains the same

79. What happens in a circuit when the voltage remains constant and the resistance
increases?
A. The current decreases
B. The current increases by the square of the increase in resistance
C. The current remains the same
D. The current increases

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80. An electrical heater is marked 220 V, 4400W. What is the resistance of the heater?
A. 220 Ohm
B. 22 Ohm
C. 11 Ohm
D. 110 Ohm

81. Why must both primary and secondary windings have independent earth leakage
detection?
A. There is no electrical connection between the two
B. To accurately locate the earth
C. To allow for different leakage current levels
D. Because of the difference in Voltages

82. What is the advantage of a delta-star wound transformer?

A. Allows an earthed primary winding
B. Allows an earthed secondary winding
C. Allows cycle changing
D. Can transform higher loads

83. Which one of the following devices uses the principle of electromagnetic induction?
A. A rheostat
B. A variable capacitor
C. A transformer
D. A transistor

84. What is power?

A. Amount of work done
B. Capacityfor doing work
C. Generated current
D. Rate of energy dissipation

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85. If a 2kW heater is on for four hours, how much energy is used?
A. 36.6mJ
B. 24mJ
C. 28.8mJ
D. 40mJ

86. What is energy?

A. Amount of work done
B. Capacityto carry out work
C. Transfer of power
D. Rate of doing work

87. Flow much energy is dissipated when a 2A current is passed through a 50 ohm
resistor for 3 minutes?
A. 36kJ
B. 33.3kJ
C. 30kJ
D. 24kJ

88. What is the unit for energy?

A. Joule
B. Watt
C. Coulomb
D. Ohm

89. What is the unit for power?

A. Coulomb
B. Watt
C. Joule
D. Ohm

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90. patch is to be bonded to a 100 mm diameter sea water line. To avoid contact with
the skin, what should be done?
A. use gloves, use stirrer, take care opening tins and use safety goggles.
B. use gloves, do not smoke,use barrier cream and use safety goggles.
C. use gloves, use brush use barrier cream and use safety goggles.
D. se gloves, ensure below flash point of material, use brush and use safety
goggles.

91. In the following, which letter gives advantages only for adhesive bonding?
A. Heeds good surfaces/no protruding parts
B. 4Veight reduction/may join thin sheet
C. Toxic hazardstreduced galvanic action
D. Poor electrical conductivity/may act as an insulator

92. or a repair to a low pressure water line, a propriety wrap repair tape is to be used.
What is its useable life?
A. 9 to 10 minutes
B. 4 to 6 minutes
C. 2 to 3 minutes
D. 11 to 14 minutes

93. component with a working temperature of 325°C is to be joined using epoxy resin.
Which of the following is suitable?
A. Epoxy nitrile
B. Epoxy silicone
C. Epoxy phenolic
D. Phenolic nitrile

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94. When bonding together two metal components, in which sequence should this be
carried out?
A. Clean and roughing surfaces, Add activator to epoxy resin, Apply to surfaces
and Clamp together.
B. Clamp together, Add activator to epoxy resin, Apply to edges and remove
surplus.
C. Clean and roughing surfaces, Add activator to epoxy resin, Apply to surfaces
and Clamp together only when tacky.
D. Add activator to epoxy resin, Clamp together, Apply to edges and Allow to
cure

95. method of joining two plastics together is by solvent welding. Describe this
process?
A. A high frequency current is applied to clamps at the join
B. Adhesive is applied and dissolves the plastic material being joined
C. Application of a thin film of adhesive to joining surfaces
D. A heating tool is applied with pressure to required join

96. hermoplastic type adhesives soften when subject to heat, are fusible and soluble.
They are not suitable for?
A. Aluminium
B. Leather
C. Wood
D. Fabrics

97. In which process would a hacksaw be used?

A. Removing burrs
B. Shaping
C. Cutting threads
D. Cutting off

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98. Which table best describes the all hard hacksaw blade?
A Rigid
Cuts thick sections
Best for straight cuts
Easily broken if misused
B. Easily broken if misused
Cuts thick sections
Best for straight cuts
Elexible
C. Rigid
Cuts thin sections
Best for straight cuts
Not easily broken if misused
D. Rigid
Cuts thin sections
Best for straight cuts
Not easily broken if misused

99. Which table best describes the flexible hacksaw blade?

A. Only teeth hardened
Easily broken if misused
Has a long life
Reasonably non-rigid
B. Only teeth hardened
Easily broken if misused
Reasonably non-rigid
Overheats unless liquid cooled
C. Only teeth hardened
Reasonably non-rigid
Overheats unless liquid cooled
Has a long life
D. Only teeth hardened
Reasonably non-rigid
Not easily broken
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Has a long life

100. A blind hole in a valve casing requires to be tapped 12 rnm. Which tap(s) would be
used?
A. Second and plug
B. Taper, second and plug
C. Plug
D. Taper and plug

101. When starting to tap a hole, how is the process checked for perpendicularity?
A. By try square
B. By straight edge
C. By spirit level
D. By sighting

103. What dictates the size of drill hole required prior to cutting an internal thread?
A. The thread pitch
B. The outside diameter
C. The thread form
D. The core diameter

104. What is significant about the spring-back hacksaw blade?

A. It can be bent into a circle over its length.
B. It is only suitable for use in a power saw.
C. It is only available with a large tooth pitch.
D. It is a compromise between the flexible and all-hard blade.

105. The engine room workshop carries different types of hacksaw blades. Which blade
should be used to cut sheet metal?
A. Tooth pitch = 6/cm
B. Tooth pitch = 8/cm
C. Tooth pitch =14/cm
D. Tooth pitch = 10/cm

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106. When fitting a blade into a hacksaw, which direction should the teeth be pointing
relative to the handle?
A. Towards
B. Towards if blade is fitted at 90. to normal
C. Towards if blade is fitted at 180. to normal
D. Away

107. Which one of the following is used to finish off a component?

A. File
B. Chisel
C. Scraper
D. Orin

108. What general name is given to files which remove maximum metal in the shortest
time?
A. Double cut
B. Single cut
C. Bastard
D. craw file

109. What general name is given to files used for finishing?

A. Smooth
B. Draw file
C. Single cut
D. Second cut

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110. In readiness for use, a good scraper would have its cutting edges?
A. Ground
Oil stoned
Lightly tempered
B. Polished
Sand stoned
Lightly tempered
C. Honed
Sand stoned
Highly tempered
D. Ground
Oil stoned
Highly tempered

111. hite metal lined bearing is to be fitted on to a shaft. Which combination would be
used?
A. Use a half-round scraper with engineer's blue on bearing.
B. Use a flat scraper with engineer's blue on shaft.
C. Use a flat scraper with engineer's blue on bearing.
D. U se a half-round scraper with engineer's blue on shaft.

112. hisels are used …………

A. To finish off a machined workpiece.
B. Anywhere when workpiece cannot be fitted in a suitable machine too.
C. Only on ferrous metals.
D. Only on non-ferrous metals

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113. chisel is refurbished and requires the cutting end to be tempered after hardening.
How is this achieved?
A. Heat to 250.C
Quench in water
B. Heat to 280.C
Quench in oil
C. Heat to 260.C
Quench in water
D. Heat to 230.C
Quench in oil.

114. flat chisel requires tempering; which temperature and colour is correct for this
process?
A. 80°C purple
B. 250°C light brown
C. 240°C dark straw
D. 260°C dark brown

115. When tempering a cold chisel, at which part of the chisel is the flame directed?
A. The beginning of the tapered portion
B. The cutting edge
C. The hammer end
D. Mid-way

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116. When tempering use is made of the microscopic oxide film formed on the surface,
in what sequence does change occur?
A. Purple
Straw
Brown
Blue
B. Straw
Purple
Blue
Brown
C. Brown
Purple
Blue
Straw
D. Straw
Brown
Purple
Blue

117. When out of use temporarily, how should the workshop plate be stored?
A. Wiped with an oiled rag.
B. Covered with a cloth sheet.
C. Covered with grease.
D. Covered with a wooden cover.

118. What special care does an engineers dividers need :

A. Keep oiled
B. Keep screw thread clean
C. Protect points when not in use
D. Always use same leg in centre pop

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119. iven a set of odd-leg calipers and a small cork, what use is the cork?
A. Cork has the same properties as silica gel and prevents corrosion.
B. Cork is a sales gimmick.
C. Cork is to protect the point.
D. Cork is used as centre when marking out.

120. centre punch has a 60° point for?

A. Accurate marking
B. Ease to see
C. Use as scriber
D. Long life

121. 90° tentre punch is specifically designed to?

A. To scribe
B. Pop mark for drilling
C. Give long life
D. Act as a pin punch

122. scriber should NOT be used for marking out?

A. When material is copper
B. When material is to be bent
C. When material is plastic
D. When material is to be hot worked

123. What toot would be used to mark off the centre line shown :
A. Odd leg calliper
B. Straight edge and scriber
C. Height gauge
D. Divider

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124. Which set of equipment is required to mark out the keyway of a 30 mm diameter
shaft?
A. Polish flat bar
Slip gauges
Scriber
Engineer's square
B. Dial gauge
Vee block
Dividers
Vernier protractor
C. Porthole glass
Slip gauges
Scriber
Dividers
D. Surface plate
Vee block
Vernier height gauge
Dividers

125. Which of the following effects could be reduced if hand powered tools were used?
A. Fatigue
Loss of concentration
Accidents
Inaccurate work
B. Over familiar
Use of safety glasses
Tiredness
Personal injury
C. Distraction
Use of hard hat
Cramp
Eye strain
D. Injury to hands
Tools correctly sharpened
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Loss of concentration
Fatigue

126. dentify the powered hand tool in No.1 ?

A. Drill
B. Grinder
C. Input wrench
D. Screwdriver

127. Identify the powered hand tool No. 2 ?

A. Input wrench
B. Screwdriver
C. Drill
D. Grinder

128. he drawing of an engine mechanism component gives some surfaces as angles.

How would these angles be marked out?
A. With a vernier protractor
B. With odd leg callipers
C. With dividers
D. With a steel rule

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129. he sketch shows the two scales of a Vernier caliper. What degree of accuracy will
a measurement have?

A. 0.02
B. 0.03
C. 0.01
D. 0.04

130. he Vernier protractor gives an angular accuracy of?

A. 4 minutes of angle
B. 2 minutes of angle
C. 7 minutes of angle
D. 5 minutes of angle

131. he speed and feed for the 20 mm diameter reamer would be?
A. 25% less
B. 75% less
C. Same as drill
D. 50% less

132. plastic cover for an instrument requires four 12 mm diameter holes to be drilled.
What is the best method?
A. Slow helix drill, 90° point and wood backing.
B. Jobbing drill 120'' point.
C. Jobbing drill 120° point and wood backing.
D. Jobbing drill 90° point and wood backing.

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133. fter sharpening a twist drill, which points are most important to check?
A. Flute length
Face of drill
Ensure no rough grinding marks
Lip length
B. Web size
Rake angle
Flank condition
Point angle
C. Land
Overall length
Chisel edge
Helix angle
D. Clearance angle
Chisel edge angle
Point angle
Lip length

134. he diagram shows four types of socket head screws. Identify the socket shoulder
screw.

A. No.3
B. No.4
C. No.2
D. No.1

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135. he diagram shows four types of machine screws. Identify the cheese head screw.

A. No.4
B. No.1
C. No.3
D. No.2

136. When fitting new bottom ends to a small diesel engine, the bottom end bolts have
no locking devices. Which of the following should be fitted.
A. Split pins
B. Taper pins
C. Parallel pins
D. Bifurcated taper pins

137. n auxiliary diesel Engine cylinder head value guide is shown. Which are the
correct guide dimensions for the nominal sizes shown?
A. 00 : 27.00
B. 12.00: 27.04
11.96: 26.96
C. 11.92: 27.05
11.81: 27.04
D. 11.65: 27.21
11.60: 27.23

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138. or the square pyramid float component shown, which is the correct development?

A. No.2
B. No.4
C. No.1
D. No.3

139. Which of the following sizes is used conveniently and what is its use?
A. Limit of size
B. Actual size
C. Nominal size
D. Basic size
140. repair to a compressor requires a plate of the form illustrated to be designed.
Which illustration is dimensioned to be the correct standard.

A. No.2
B. No.4
C. No.3
D. No.1

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141. ee blocks are precision equipment. What is specific about their purchase?
A. Always supplied singularly.
B. Always guaranteed.
C. Always supplied with slip gauges.
D. Aways supplied in pairs.

142. frustrum of a hexagonal pyramid is shown. Which drawing goes to the left of the
figure in third angle projection?

A. No.1
B. No.4
C. No.3
D. No.2

143. imensions are read from the bottom of the drawing but if this is not possible what
is the next choice?
A. Turn drawing clockwise reading from RH side
B. Turn drawing clockwise 45. reading from RH side.
C. Turn drawing anti-clockwise reading from LH side
D. Turn drawing anti-clockwise reading from RH side.

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144. uring inspection of a large slow speed diesel engine, how would bottom end
bearings be described and what materials would they be lined with?
A. Thick walled
B. Wrapped bushes
C. Direct lined
D. Solid insert liner

145. When using third angle projection, viewing the component from x, which drawing
will be above the front elevation?

A. C
B. B
C. D
D. A

146. What type of ball- bearing is shown in the illustration?

A. Shallow groove
B. Deep groove
C. Two-way thrust
D. Heavy duty

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147. In the system of limits and fits shown, on what basis has the drawing been made?

A. Clearance fits
B. Interference fits
C. Hole bases fits
D. Shaft basis fits

148. he square to round section shown requires a template. What forms the triangular
base line from which the true lengths are obtained?

A. ax
ab
B. a2
ab
C. a1
a2
D. ab
a1

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149. Which of the four bearings shown is located?

A. No.1
B. No.4
C. No.3
D. No.2

150. he engine room workshop has a bench shear. What is the maximum thickness of
mild steel it will cut?
A. 1 mm
B. 5 mm
C. 3 mm
D. 7 rnm

151. What is the system called which glues explicit instructions on drawings which
cannot be misinterpreted?
A. Tolerances
B. Geometrical tolerancing
C. Cumulative effect
D. Limits and fits

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152. Looking at the drawing, can this component be made?

A. No - material is not given

B. Yes
C. No - relevant dimensions are not given
D. No - scale is not given

153. or a particular long shaft, which could be subject to some angular alignment,
which bearing would be most suitable?
A. No.2
B. No.4
C. No.1
D. No.3

154. he ventilation trunk shown goes from square to round section. What does its
development look like?
A. No.3
B. No.4
C. No.2
D. No.1

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155. In the method of datum dimensioning (sometimes known as parallel dimensioning),

what is the advantage over conventional dimensioning?
A. Improves positional accuracy
B. Makes machining easier
C. Reduces the marking out time
D. Ignores conventions

156. In service, a pump shaft becomes overheated. What effect will this have on the ball-
bearing?
A. The lubricating oil will burn.
B. The outer ring will contract.
C. The inner ring will expand.
D. The individual balls will distort.

157. What is the difference between a guillotine and a shear machine?

A. Blade length
B. Hand operated
C. Plate thickness
D. Power operated

158. n the sketches, which drawing is incomplete?

A. No.3
B. No.4
C. No.1
D. No.2

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159. If a view is projected in a direction which is not horizontal or vertical, what name is
given to the view?
A. An elevated view
B. An isometric view
C. An auxiliary view
D. A pictorial view

160. What does the geometrical tolerancing shown in the drawing refer to?

A. Flatness
B. Cylindricity
C. Roundness
D. Squareness

161. Perspex is an example of a thermoplastic, How is this best heated prior to bending?
A. Hot air stream
B. Heat in boiling water
C. Heat in oven
D. Flame heat

162. What is the softening temperature for PVC?

A. 115°C
B. 100°C
C. 105°C
D. 110°C

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163. What would be necessaryto prevent damage, toxic fumes and combustion when
heating plastics?
A. Do not use a naked flame
B. Only use a paraffin heater
C. Only use a candle
D. Only use an acetylene heater

164. etch shows the rollers for a pyramid rolling machine. Which is the idler and what is
its direction?

A. No.4
B. No.2
C. No.1
D. No.3

165. etch shows the configuration of a pinch bending roll. How does this operate?

A. Roller No. 3 rises

B. Roller No.1 is lower
C. Roller No. 2 rises
D. Rollers No. 2 and No. 3 rise

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166. ow does the brake press differ from the other forming machines?
A. Uses male and female formers
B. Can pierce only
C. Uses rollers
D. Can crop only

167. t is required to make a drip tray. What machine would be used?

A. Nibbler
B. Rolling machine
C. Hand operated folding machine
D. Powered brake press

168. What is the plate thickness limit for hand-operated folding machines?
A. 4.0 mm
B. 3.0 mm
C. 3.5 mm
D. 2.5 mm

169. What effect will an undersized vee width have on the form produced?
A. Inside bend may be polished
B. Inside bend may fracture
C. Outside bend may fracture
D. Outside bend may be scuffed

170. ild steel plate 2 mm thick bent in vees would produce an approximate inside bend
radius of?
A. 2.5 mm
B. 1.0 mm
C. 1.5 mm
D. 2.0 mm

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171. or the cover shown, what length of plate is required?

A. 350.2 mm
B. 345.1 mm
C. 343.7 mm
D. 348.4 mm

172. What is the greatest danger when working with sheet metal?
A. Space to manoeuvre is usually restricting
B. Plate is too large
C. Plate is too heavy
D. Edges are sharp

173. Which is the preferred table to be checked to ensure a sound weld is produced
during an arc welding Process?
A. Arc length
Electrode angle
Ambient temperature
Relative humidity
B. Electrode
Arc length
Ambient
temperature
C. Arc length
Welding current
Electrode angle
Relative humidity
D. Electrode
Arc length
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Welding current
Electrode angle

174. Which table would give the best checklist following an arc welding process,
checking for:
A. Slag inclusion
Fusion
Undercutting
Contour
B. Undercutting
Surface pin holes
Fusion
Continuous weld
C. Fusion
Undercutting
Surface pin holes
Excessive spatter
D. Fusion
Undercutting
Slag inclusion
Excessive spatter

175. What is the limiting factor of a visual inspection of a weld?

A. Gives an indication only
B. Will not indicate blow holes
C. There is none
D. Will not show if penetration is correct

176. Which examination reveals pin holes, slag inclusion and lack of fusion?
A. Visually
B. Fluorescent penetrant
C. Dye penetrant
D. Macroscopic

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177. crankcase weld requires detailed inspection while on passage. How would this be
carried out?
A. By magnetic particle
B. By x-ray
C. Visually
D. By dye penetrant

178. Which of the tables of defects would lead to porosity in a welded joint?
A. Wrong electrode angle.
Incorrect joint set up.
Speed of travel too fast.
Welding current too low.
B. Welding current too low.
Speed of travel too fast.
Incorrect electrode manipulation.
Dirty parent metal.
C. Welding current too high.
Incorrect root gap.
Incorrect electrode size.
Dirty parent metal.
D. Damp electrode coating.
Damaged electrode coating.
Too long an arc.
Incorrect starting.

179. ll mechanical cutting devices have the same basic features. These are?
A. Two moving blades
B. One moving blade
C. One fixed blade
D. One moving and one fixed blade

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180. Which material is difficult to weld due to porosity?

A. Cast iron
B. Low carbon steel
C. High carbon steel
D. Medium carbon steel

181. In electric arc welding, what use is the electrode covering?

A. Allows damp electrodes to be used
Gives a stable arc
Reduces slag inclusion
Reduces Porosity
B. Controls the metallurgical properties
Assists penetration
Tolerates poor welding
Reduces splatter
C. Gives a variable arc
Reduces splatter
Tolerates poor welding
Assists multi-runs
D. It provides a gas shield
Reduces splatter
Gives a stable arc
Controls the metallurgical properties

182. Which system of welding uses a shield of Argon and a non-consumable electrode?
A. Metal inert gas
B. Tungsten inert gas
C. Gas metal arc
D. Manual metal arc

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183. In the following gas flame temperatures, which is the oxyacetylene?

A. 2770°C
B. 2820°C
C. 3200°C
D. 1880°C

184. rinciples of Gas Welding -An acetylene cylinder is packed with charcoal and
charged with acetone. At 15 bar it will absorb its own volume ?
A. 375 times
B. 425 times
C. 275 times
D. 325 times

185. If a gas pressure gauge is over-pressured and bursts, what feature minimizes
damage?
A. A bursting disc
B. The hoses rupture
C. A relief value
D. The flexible back

186. ow does a two-stage pressure regulator give precise control?

A. Second stage only adjustable
B. First stage only adjustable
C. Both stages unadjustable
D. Both stages adjustable

187. Why is a high pressure blow pipe unsuitable for use in a low pressure system?
A. Oxygen pressure differs
B. Gas pressures must be equal
C. Acetylene pressure differs
D. Nozzle sizes are different

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188. oses are easily damaged and require special care for long life, but what are they
reinforced with?
A. Wire
B. Cotton
C. Canvas
D. Nylon

189. he safety features for a welded acetylene gas cylinder are?

A. Gas loaded relief values
B. Fusible plugs
C. Bursting discs
D. Spring load relief value

190. Which correctly identifies a full acetylene cylinder ?

A. 170 bar right hand thread black colour
B. 15 bar left hand thread maroon colour
C. 170 bar right hand thread blue colour
D. 7.5 bar left hand thread red colour

191. What device is fitted to prevent component gases mixing in hoses?

A. Stop value
B. Hose check value
C. Relief vale
D. By-pass value

192. or a particular welding arrangement, the decision is to use a manifold system.

Why would this be chosen?
A. Cost - two cylinders cheaper than one
B. Using large bore nozzles
C. Long time span of welding0
D. Discharge rate too high from single bottle

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193. flashback arrester has been triggered. Which is the correct sequence to follow
after this event?
A. Ascertain cause of activation
Check equipment
Open up flashback arrester
Clean, if necessary
B. Ascertain cause of activation
Clean, if necessary
Check equipment
Open up flashback arrester
C. Check equipment
Open up flashback arrester
Clean, if necessary
Ascertain cause of activation
D. Clean, if necessary
Check equipment
Open up flashback arrester
Ascertain cause of activation

194. What is significant about a flat square?

A. Its material
B. Its calibration
C. Its size
D. Its squareness

195. 1.3 m long slot is to be marked off on the floor plate but only a 300 mm straight
edge is available. How is this overcome?
A. By a piece of tape
B. By a piece of wood
C. By chalk line
D. By a cardboard template

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196. What is a trammel used for?

A. Marking off pipes
B. Scribing large circles
C. Cutting out joints
D. Instead of dividers

197. When gas welding, which is the most likely cause of a serious accident?
A. Distraction
B. Leaving torch on floor
C. Not extinguishing when finished
D. Touching hot metal

198. When welding at a bench, which list of equipment would be used?

A. Leather gloves
Leather apron
Welding helmet
Safety Boots
B. Leather gloves
Leather apron
Boiler suit
Breathing apparatus
C. Leather gloves
Leather apron
Safety boots
Boiler suit
D. Leather gloves
Boiler suit
Safety boots
Welding helmet

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199. Welding fumes can be dangerous. When welding in the workshop how is welding
rendered safe?
A. By extractor welding gun
B. By ventilation
C. By extraction
D. By respirator

200. When self-secured joints are to be made, which tool is most useful?
A. Press
B. Rubber headed hammer
C. Folder
D. Tin snips

201. o make a single grooved seam from 1 mm plate, in what order would the
following operations be carried out?
A. Set to thickness
A Hook together
Fold
Flatten
B. Fold
Hook together
Flatten
Set to thickness
C. Fold
Set to thickness
Hook together
Flatten
D. Flatten
Set to thickness
Fold
Hook together

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202. he sketch shows a partially completed knocked up joint made from 0.5 mm plate.
Which direction of ending completes the joint?

A. No.1
B. No.3
C. No.4
D. No.2

203. What may be done to improve the finished appearance of a self-secured joint?
A. Fit edging wire
B. Caulk
C. Burnish
D. Solder

204. uring a plasma cutting process the workpiece was not totally penetrated. What
would be the most likely problem?
A. Current is too high
B. Speed of cut too high
C. Metal is too thin
D. Speed of cut too low

205. What condition must exist in order to cut using an oxygen fuel gas mixture?
A. Slow temperature rise
B. Low velocity jet
C. Rapid oxidation
D. Slow oxidation

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206. Which of the materials listed can be cut using an oxygen fuel gas mixture?
A. Stainless steel
B. Mild steel
C. Bronze
D. Cast iron

207. Which gas is not commonly used as a fuel when cutting steel plate?
A. Propane
B. Natural gas
C. Acetylene
D. Hlelium

208. ketch shows a gas cutting blowpipe. What is control No. 1 used for?

A. Mixing gases
B. Pre-heat oxygen
C. Acetylene control
D. Cutting oxygen

209. What is the effect of low pressure cutting oxygen?

A. Melt will not be blown out
B. Combustion will not occur
C. Cut will be ragged at edges
D. Melting point will not be reached

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210. Which column gives the correct factors for a clean cut edge preparation?
A. Flame adjustment.
Speed of travel.
Oversized nozzle.
Pressure.
B. Flame adjustment.
Angle of nozzle to plate.
Undersized nozzle.
Polished surface.
C. Flame adjustment.
Speed of travel.
Angle of nozzle to plate.
Polished surface.
D. Flame adjustment.
Speed of travel.
Distance between plate and nozzle.
Pressure.

211. When gas cutting a mild steel plate, what does the size of nozzle used depend upon?
A. Gases used
B. Gases remaining in cylinder
C. Thickness of plate
D. Impurities in material

212. Which system uses a tungsten electrode, causing an arc between itself and the metal
to be cut?
A. Molten arc cutting
B. Arc cutting
C. Plasma arc cutting
D. Plastic arc cutting

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213. What is shown in No. 1 ?

A. Spade guide
B. Radius bar
C. Small circle guide
D. Roller guide

214. What is the attachment shown in No. 2 ?

A. Spade guide
B. Radius bar
C. Roller guide
D. Small circle guide

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215. If two pieces of metal are welded together while laying in the same plane, this is
known as?
A. Corner weld
B. A butt weld
C. Lap weld
D. Fillet weld

216. rior to welding, plate edges are prepared to?

A. Give economical use of filler
B. Allow maximum penetration of filler
C. Give a flat surface to filler
D. Allow filler to flow

217. lates of less than 6 mm thickness (T) have no edge preparation but what ratio of
(T) is the gap?
A. T/2
B. T/4
C. T/6
D. T/1

218. What feature of a good weld is indicated by No.4 ?

A. Good spot welding

B. Backing bar has been used
C. Blend with parent metal
D. Contour even and regular

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219. hick plates require a multi-run weld. Which type of runs are used?

A. No.4
B. No.3
C. No.2
D. No.1

220. When two pieces of metal at right- angles are welded together, what weld is used?
A. Lap
B. Fillet
C. Bevel
D. Butt

221. or the fillet weld shown, what is the throat length?

A. ab
B. ac
C. de
D. ad

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222. or the fillet weld shown, what is the throat length?

A. ae
B. af
C. db
D. ad

223. igures show welded tee joints. What preparation is required for No. 1 ?

A. Single V
B. Double U
C. Double V
D. None

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224. igure shows welded tee joints. What preparation is required for No.2 ?

A. Double U
B. Single bevel
C. Double V
D. Double bevel

225. igure shows welded tee joints. What preparation is required for No.3 ?

A. Single U
B. Double bevel
C. Single bevel
D. Double U

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226. short box girder is fabricated from 8 mm steel plate. What edge preparation is
required for No.2 ?

A. Double U
B. Double bevel closed corner
C. Single bevel Closed corner
D. None

227. short box girder is fabricated from 18 mm thick steel plate. What edge
preparation is necessary for No.3 ?

A. Double bevel
B. Single bevel
C. Single U
D. None

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228. short box girder is fabricated from 8 mm thick steel plate. What edge preparation is
required for No.1 ?

A. Double bevel 45°

B. Single bevel 60°
C. Double bevel 60°
D. Single bevel 45°

229. "Which of the following is a non-identifiable hazard?

A. Motor v-belts
B. Worn spanner
C. The tailshaft
D. Grease on floor plates

230. How is the emergency stop button indented on workshop machinery, for example,
the lathe?
A. Large round head with light emitting diode insert.
B. Large round head painted red.
C. Large round head painted yellow.
D. Large round head painted green

231. When shaping a chisel on a grinding machine, what would probably cause fingers
contacting the grinding heel?
A. Using too much force
B. Wrong grade of wheel
C. Tool rest clearance excessive
D. Wheel speed low

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232. wist drills can be sharpened with the aid of which of the following ?
A. A file.
B. A wire brush.
C. A pistol drill.
D. The bench grinder.

234. e tool used for scoring lines on metal surfaces is called a .............
A. a pin punch.
B. a centre punch.
C. a scriber.
D. a hammer.

235. hammer with one flat end to its head and one half round end is called ......
A. a ball pane hammer.
B. a half round hammer.
C. a claw hammer.
D. a chipping hammer.

236. e file known as a "bastard" file is which of the following ?

A. One that is extremely smooth.
B. One having an edge with no teeth.
C. One having a side rounded so it is half round.
D. One that is rough and flat.

237. e part of a hand drill which holds the drill bit is called ...
A. the handle.
B. the chuck key.
C. the spindle.
D. the chuck.

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238. e tool used for marking out a circle on steel is called...

A. oddleg calipers.
B. a pair of dividers.
C. outside calipers.
D. inside calipers.

239. tool used to mark the centre for a twist drill is called...
A. a centre punch
B. a pin punch
C. a scriber
D. a pair of dividers

240. e nuts are used for which of the following ?

A. Cleaning an existing thread.
B. Cutting a thread on a round bar.
C. Holding and turning dies.
D. Cutting a new thread in a hole.

241. e part of the centre lathe which holds the cutting tool is called ....
A. the compound slide.
B. the tool post.
C. the tailstock.
D. the saddle.

242. Spanners which have one end as a ring spanner and the other end an open ended
spanner are called........
A. half open ended spanners.
B. combination spanners.
C. socket spanners.
D. half ring spanners.

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243. fter using hand or power tools, they should be....

A. returned to the workshop bench.
B. returned to the duty engineer.
C. left beside the job for use next time.
D. returned to their allotted stowage position.

244. de cutters are used.....

A. to cut the side of metal.
B. to hold cold metal
C. to cut electrical wiring.
D. to hold metal while it is being cut.

245. hacksaw blade is placed in the body of the hacksaw with the teeth facing ........
A. Down and towards the handle.
B. Up and towards the front.
C. Up and towards the handle.
D. Down and towards the front.

246. e diameter of a hole in a piece of metal can best be measured using...........

A. outside calipers
B. an engineer's square
C. feeler gauges
D. inside calipers

247. tool should be used.........

A. with regard to the correct shape of its handle.
B. for at least 2 different functions.
C. only for the function for which it was designed.
D. for a variety of functions according to circumstances.

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248. machine tool used for reducing the diameter of a round bar is called ......
A. a milling machine
B. a pillar drill.
C. a centre lathe.
D. a bench grinder.

249. e diameter of round bar is best measured with the aid of...
A. an engineer's square.
B. feeler gauges.
C. inside calipers.
D. outside calipers.

250. In a set of thread taps the plug tap has ....

A. a slight taper at its end.
B. no thread at all.
C. the full thread to the end.
D. larger taper at its end.

251. Drilling a hole with a drill in the end of a piece of round bar is best carried out
using which of the following ?
A. A shaping machine
B. A pillar drill.
C. A milling machine.
D. A centre lathe.

252. Which of the following spanners is best to use in most cases ?

A. A pair of stillsons.
B. The correct size ring spanner.
C. A parallel jaw adjustable spanner.
D. The correct size open-ended spanner.

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253. What type of screw is number 2 ?

A. A hexagon head screw

B. A round head screw
C. A cheese head screw
D. A countersunk screw

254. What type of screw is number 3 ?

A. A hexagon head screw

B. A fillister head screw
C. A countersunk screw
D. A button head screw

255. What type of screw is number 4 ?

A. A round head screw

B. A countersunk screw
C. A hexagon head screw
D. A cheese head screw

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256. What rigging device is shown at the bottom ?

A. A strop
B. A double eye wire strop
C. A wire sling
D. A double loop wire

257. What is shown top right ?

A. An eye bolt
B. A strop bolt
C. A connecting bolt
D. A shackle bolt

258. What kind of tool is shown top right and what is its purpose ?

A. Traverse cut chisel /To break bolts and nuts

B. Cross cut chisel To chisel grooved profiles in metal
C. Seam cut chisel / To remove welds and protruding objects
D. Sharp cut chisel/For inside piping cutting
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259. Before leaving the engine room workshop, you are to ensure that...
A. the entrance to the shop is secured by padlock.
B. all tools are in place, power tool supply is off, all is sea fast.
C. the inventory of all parts used is filled up.
D. the lighting is switched off.

260. What is the device shown in the centre of the picture ?

A. A U-connector
B. A connecting bolt
C. A shackle
D. A bend connector

261. What do you call the device shown on the right side of the picture ?

A. An eye lifter
B. An elongated bolt lifter
C. An elongated eye bolt
D. An elongated eye lifter

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262. What is the measuring device shown top right ?

A. A microcalipre
B. A clamp metre
C. A stress meter
D. A micrometer

263. What is shown top left ?

A. strop connection
B. A loop welding
C. A chainblock clamp
D. An overhead bulkhead eye

264. What is the tool shown top left called ?

A. A carpenter's ball hammer

B. A ball pen hammer
C. A ball head hammer
D. A carpenter's hammer

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265. What kind of hammers are shown bottom left and right side ?

A. Lead hammers
B. Plastic hammers
C. Recoil-less hammers
D. Assemblers hammers

266. What kind of hammer is shown top left and for what is it used ?

A. Bell hammer /To knock split pins in place

B. Lead hammer / For heavy hammering of frozen nuts and bolts
C. Aluminium hammer / For testing tightness of motor covers
D. Plastic or Teflon hammer. / For light assembly work

267. What kind of hammer is shown bottom left and for what is it used ?

A. A common hammer / All purpose engineer's work

B. A curved hammer / Used for hammering and removing rust
C. A claw hammer / For carpentry and wood work, nail removal.
D. A carpenter's hammer I Used for all purpose work on deck

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268. What kind of hammer is shown right side and for what is it used ?

A. Heavy hammer/ For use on large size forged ring spanners

B. Striking hammer / To loosen or fastening torque rings
C. Moker hammer / To loosen or fastened cylinder head nuts
D. Sledge hammer/ For all-purpose grudgingly and powerful hammering

269. What kind of hammer is shown at the top and for what is it used ?

A. A brick hammer /For hammering plates and steel

B. A fitter's hammer/For general use
C. A blacksmith's hammer / General purpose
D. A descaling hammer f For descaling heavy rust

270. What kind of hammer is shown at the bottom ?

A. A scale remover
B. A deckhand hammer
C. A chipping hammer
D. A double edge hammer

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271. What kind of tool is shown top right ?

A. An adjustable pipe spanner

B. An adjustable wrench
C. A shifter
D. A pocket spanner

272. What is the tool shown top left and for what is it used ?

A. Centre punch. / To mark a point on metal

B. Drivel / To push small pins out of their fastening
C. Pointed chisel / To chisel a tracing groove
D. Dopper punch. / To chisel a small hole trough metal sheets

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273. What is shown on the left side of the picture ?

A. A cylinder head lifter

B. A triple hook chain lifter
C. A cylinder liner pulling chain
D. An oil drum lifting chain

274. What is shown on the right of the picture ?

A. A lifting block
B. A rattle chain
C. A chain block
D. A chain lifter

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275. What do you call the measuring device shown top centre ?

A. A workshop compass found in any workshop, any profession

B. A plane level compass
C. A metal worker's compass, with spring tension adjustable by screw
D. A ship's compass used only on board ship

276. What kind of tool is shown bottom centre ?

A. A pipe cutting tool

B. A pipe bending tool
C. A pipe flating tool
D. A pipe fitting tool

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277. What is the purpose of the tool shown bottom right ?

A. To extract bushes and gears from shafts

B. To extract ball bearings, roller bearings or needle bearings
C. To extract pulleys and sleeves from shafts
D. All of these.

278. If you are an engine room rating, what basic technical knowledge must you posses
as far as tools and equipment are concerned ?
A. Be able to operate the drilling machine
B. Be able to operate the milling machine
C. Be able to identify and select the proper tool for each job
D. Be able to operate the gas welding equipment

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