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Kulkarni
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Prasad N. Kulkarni
Course: ESE
Mechanical Engineering (ME)
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Q. 1
Consider the following statements related to buoyancy in fluid statics
1. Principle of buoyancy is applicable to both floating bodies and submerged body.
2. In a freebody diagram of floating body summation of all horizontal forces taken as zero.
3. Archimedes formulated first theory of buoyancy.
4. In analyzing buoyancy of a floating body it is assumed that the resultant vertical force passes through centre
of pressure.
Which of the following statements are correct?
Solution :
(c)
• Principle of buoyancy is applicable to both floating and submerge body.
• Resultant vertical forces passes through centre of gravity.
DAll of theseYour answer is Wrong
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 2
A hydraulic turbine has output of 6400 kW. When it work under a head of 16 m and run at 100 rpm. The type
of turbine is
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 3
Consider the following statements for reciprocating pump:
1. Multicylinder pump can not be work without air vessels.
2. Discharge of reciprocating pump slightly increases as head developed by pump increases.
Which of the statement(s) is/are correct?
Solution :
(d)
• Multicylinder pump have more uniform discharge. It can work without air vessel.
• Discharge of reciprocating pump slightly decreases as head increase.
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 4
Consider the following statements for draft tube
1. It is not necessary to submerge lower end of draft tube below the tail race.
2. It acts as a recuperator of pressure energy.
3. Simple elbow tube required lesser excavation for their installation.
4. Straight divergent tube has high efficiency than elbow tube.
Which of these are correct?
Solution :
(b)
• Under all condition of operation lower end of draft tube must be submerge below the tail race.
• Simple elbow type draft tube required less space and is less efficient than straight divergent type draft tube.
• It convert velocity energy rejected from the runner into useful pressure energy i.e. it act as a recuparator of
pressure energy.
C3 and 4
DAll of these
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 5
Which one of the following stream functions is a possible irrotational flow field?
Have any Doubt ?
A
Solution :
(b)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 6
In case of laminar flow through pipe, the point at which local velocity equal to mean velocity occurs at
Solution :
(a)
B
r = 0.67R
Your answer is Wrong
C
r = 0.5R
D
r = 0.37R
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 7
At room temperature, the dynamic and kinematic viscosity of water
Solution :
(c)
• At room temperature, the dynamic viscosity of water grater than air but kinematic viscosity (ν = μ/ρ) is less
than air since density of water is about 1000 times that of air.
Dless than and grater than air respectively.
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 8
What is the correct dimensionless group formed with the variable ρ-density, N-rotational speed, d-diameter and
μ-coefficient of viscosity?
Correct Option
Solution :
(a)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 9
For two-dimensional flow The discharge passing between the stream lines passing through the point (1, 3) and
(3, 3)
Solution :
(a)
B3
C1
D0
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 10
Consider the following statements related to concept of continuity equation and the concept of control volume
in driving equation.
1. Continuity equation relates velocity component and density of fluid at a point in fluid flow.
2. Continuity equation assume no void occurs in the fluid and fluid mass is neither created nor destroyed.
3. The shape of control volume for driving the equation of continuity is assumed to be a parallelepiped.
4. For incompressible fluid the equation of continuity does not contain the viscosity term
Which of these statement are correct ?
Solution :
(a)
B1 and 2
C2, 3 and 4Your answer is Wrong
D1 and 4
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 11
In turbulent flow, a smooth pipe and a rough pipe shall have the same friction factor if
Solution :
(c)
In turbulent flow, a smooth pipe and rough pipe shall have the same friction factor if the flow is in transition
zone from smooth to rough pipe.
DThe Reynold number is same and the factor k/δ′ is less than about 4.
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 12
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
Solution :
(b)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 13
For steady rotational flow of a fluid Bernoulli’s equation
Solution :
(c)
For rotational flow Bernoulli’s equation is applicable only to a particular stream line that is the value of
constant is different for different streamlines.
Dcan be derived only if fluid is incompressible
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 14
In steady incompressible flow the pressure gradient in the direction of flow is equal to the
Solution :
(a)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 15
The pressure difference between point B and A (as shown in figure) in centimeter of water is
Solution :
(b)
C– 76
D76
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 16
Velocity profile over a curved surface is given as
The flow
Solution :
(c)
Dcannot predict
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 17
In a fluid flow, the line of constant piezometric head passes through two points which have the same
Solution :
(c)
The sum of piezometric head and velocity head remains constant as per Bernoulli’s equation. So for constant
piezometric head line passing through two points, the velocity will remains same.
Dvelocity potential
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 18
A vapour absorption refrigeration system is a heat pump with three thermal reservoirs as shown in figure. A
refrigeration effect of 100 W is required at 250K. When the heat source available is at 500 K. Heat rejection
occurs at 400 K. The minimum value of heat required (in W) is
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 19
The compression device used in steam jet refrigeration system is a
Solution :
(b)
The mixture of steam and water vapour passes through the venturi-tube of the injector and gets compressed.
Cdiffuser
Dliquid pump
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 20
Higher pressure encountered in a refrigeration system should be
Solution :
(b)
Higher pressure encountered in a refrigeration system should be much below critical pressure.
Cnear critical pressure
Dthere is no such restrictionYour answer is Wrong
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 21
Consider the following statement regarding psychrometric processes.
1. Sensible heating is process is which moisture content decreases.
2. In pure humidification moisture is add at constant dry bulb temperature.
3. For adiabatic saturation temperature enthalpy remains constant.
4. Constant wet bulb temperature lines coincide with constant dew point temperature lines.
Which of these are correct?
Solution :
(c)
D1 and 3
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 22
In on-off control refrigeration system, which one of the following expansion device is use?
Solution :
(c)
DFloat valve
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 23
Consider the following statement for C.I. engine knock
1. Knocking increases with increase in ignition lag.
2. Knocking increases with increase in speed.
3. Knocking decreases with degree of supercharging.
4. Knocking increases with increase in load.
Which of these are correct?
Solution :
(c)
As load increases knocking will decrease.
D3 and 4
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 24
Consider the following statement
1. For both idling and peak power condition
2. With increase in combustion temperature emission increases.
Which of these are correct?
Solution :
(c)
• For idling and peak power condition fuel/air ratio required is higher than stoichiometric condition and hence
Dneither 1 nor 2
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 25
A engine has a actual volume of 2700 cc and volumetric efficiency of 90%. The indicated work if indicated
mean effective pressure of 5 bar (in J) is
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 26
In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the compression
Solution :
(a)
In four stroke cycle petrol engine the compression start at 40° after bottom dead centre and end at 30° before
top dead centre.
Bstart at 40° before bottom dead centre and ends at 30° after bottom dead centreYour answer is Wrong
Cstarts at bottom dead centre and ends at top dead centre
Dmay start and end at anywhere
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 27
Choose the wrong statement
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 28
The accumulation of carbon in cylinder result in increase of
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 29
During second half life original material is decayed
Solution :
(c)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 30
Match List-I (Type of reactor) with List-II (Type of fuel) and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the lists:
Solution :
(b)
Cc
Dd
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 31
The ratio of compressor work to turbine work in jet propulsion unit is
Have any Doubt ?
Aless than one
Bgreater than oneYour answer is Wrong
Cunity unpredictable
DunityCorrect Option
Solution :
(d)
In jet propulsion unit the amount of work required for compressor is equal to work produced by turbine i.e.
small amount of air is expanded in turbine to produce work that drive compressor and remaining is expanded
in nozzle which create trust.
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 32
Consider the following statement for turbo prop
1. Almost 80% of the expansion take place in turbine.
2. It is having more frontal area than turbojet.
3. Flight velocity can exceed jet velocity.
4. Less thrust produced at time of take off and climb than turbojet.
Which of these are correct?
Solution :
(c)
For turboprop engine
• Almost 80% expansion take place in turbine to run compressor and propeller.
• Flight velocity can not exceed jet velocity.
• Trust produced at take off and climb is high.
D2 and 3
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 33
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
Solution :
(a)
Bb
Cc
Dd
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 34
Water (cp = 4 kJ/kg) is fed to a boiler at 40°C, the enthalpy of vaporization at atmospheric pressure in the
boiler is 2400 kJ/kg. The steam coming from boiler is 0.8 dry. The net heat supplied in boiler is.
Solution :
(a)
B2500 kJ/kg
C2440 kJ/kg
D1920 kJ/kg
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 35
In ideal air standard Brayton cycle backwork ratio is equal to ratio of absolute temperature at the
Solution :
(b)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 36
A gas turbine cycle with heat exchanger and reheating improves
Solution :
(c)
Heat exchanger improves thermal efficiency and reheating improves specific power output.
Dneither thermal efficiency nor specific power output
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 37
Consider the ideal regenerative cycle as shown in figure 20% of steam is extracted from turbine at 0.8 MPa.
The thermal efficiency of cycle is
C39.78%
D43.24%
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 38
Consider the following statement
1. Because of very low revolution per minute single stage impulse turbine is not used.
2. In impulse turbine axial trust is only due to change in flow velocity of steam at inlet and outlet of moving
blade.
Which of these is/are correct?
Solution :
(b)
• Single stage impulse turbine have very high rotation per minute which exceed practical limitation of 3000
rpm. (hence compounding is used)
• Pressure energy is not contributing in workdone of impulse turbine and hence axial trust is due to change in
flow velocity of steam at inlet and outlet of moving blade.
Cboth 1 and 2
Dneither 1 nor 2
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 39
The effect of keeping high clearance volume for the cylinder in reciprocating compressor. Which of the
following is not correct?
Solution :
(b)
Power required for reciprocating compressor is independent on clearance volume.
CBy increasing clearance volume chances of piston striking cylinder head gets reduced
DBy increasing clearance volume maximum compression pressure value decreases
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 40
Consider the following statement.
1. Pressure rise in centrifugal compressor is achieved by centrifugal and diffusion action.
2. Specific speed of centrifugal compressor grater than reciprocating but loss than axial compressor.
Which of these is/are correct?
Solution :
(c)
Dneither 1 and 2
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 41
The spectral distribution of surface irradiation is shown in figure.
Solution :
(a)
B
17500 W/m2
C
5000 W/m2
D
25000 W/m2
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 42
Consider the following statement.
1. In case of force convection for small Prandtl number, governing equations are in terms of Peclet number.
2. When heat transfer occurring is never zero.
Which of these are correct?
Solution :
(c)
Dneither 1 nor 2
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 43
Water at 0°C releases 333.9 kJ/kg of heat as it freezes to ice (ρ = 1000 kg/m3) at 0°C. An aircraft maintains a
heat transfer coefficient of 150 W/m2°C between the air and wings surfaces, when flying under icing condition.
What temperature must the wings be maintained at to prevent ice from forming on them during icing
conditions at a rate of 1 mm/min or less?
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 44
Saturated vapour occurs at the end of
Solution :
(b)
The fluid particles get evaporated at the end of mist flow to given saturated vapour.
CSlug flow region
DAnnular flow region
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 45
Consider a medium is which the heat conduction equation is given in its simplest form as
Solution :
(d)
Assumption
• Steady state, one dimensional heat transfer with internal heat generation and variable thermal conductivity.
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 46
How can the arithmetic mean temperature difference and LMTD of same heat exchanger be compared?
Solution :
(b)
CThe arithmetic mean temperature difference and LMTD are equal
DCan not predict
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 47
Consider the following statement.
1. With increase in dampness thermal conductivity of material increases.
2. With the addition of alloying element thermal conductivity of metal decreases
Which of these is/are correct?
Solution :
(c)
• As dampness increases thermal conductivity will increase.
• Pure metal have higher conductivity as addition of alloying element increases conductivity goes on
decreasing.
Dneither 1 nor 2
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 48
For conical enclosure of height h and base diameter D, what will be the view factor from the conical side
surface to a hole of diameter d located at the centre of base?
Correct Option
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 49
Consider the following statement.
1. Slope of fusion curve on PT diagram for water is always positive.
2. Slope of sublimation curve is always positive.
3. No liquid exist below triple point line on P-V diagram.
4. Clausius Clapeyeron equation valid for any phase change.
Which of the above is/are correct?
Solution :
(b)
• Slope of fusion curve for water is negative.
• Slope of sublimation and vaporization curve is positive.
• No liquid exist below triple point line.
• Clausius-Clapeyron’s equation valid for any phase change.
C3 and 4
DAll of these
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 50
One fourth kg of a gas contained within a piston cylinder assembly undergoes a constant pressure process at 5
bar beginning at v1 = 0.20 m3/kg for the gas system work is – 15 kJ. What will be the final volume, in m3 ?
Solution :
(a)
B
0.2 m3
C
0.04 m3
D
0.06 m3
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 51
A compressed air bottle of 0.05 m3 volume contains air at 3.5 atm pressure. The air is used to drive a
turbogenerator. Supplying power to a device which consumes 5 kW. The time for which the device can be
operated if the actual output of the turbogenerator is 60% of maximum theoretical output. The ambient
pressure is 1 atm.
Solution :
(b)
C30 minutes
D35 minutes
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 52
The specific heat of water boiling at constant pressure of the bar will be
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 53
Consider the following statement
1. Thermodynamical probability have maximum value at equilibrium state.
2. Absolute zero entropy is not attainable.
3. Entropy for adiabatic process can increase, decreases or remains constant.
4. Entropy gives direction for particular process.
Which of these are correct?
Solution :
(c)
• Boltzmann stated that the equilibrium state of the system is the state of maximum probability.
• Absolute zero kelvin temperature is not possible hence absolute zero entropy is not possible.
• For irreversible adiabatic process entropy increases. In adiabatic process entropy never decrease.
• The process for which entropy of universe positive is possible.
DAll of these
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 54
Consider the following statements
1. In steady flow process there is no accumulation of mass and energy in control volume.
2. The exergy of an isolated system can never increase, but always decrease.
Which of these are correct?
Solution :
(c)
• In steady flow process mass entering into the system equal to mass leaving the system hence no
accumulation.
• The exergy of an isolated system during a process, always decrease or in a limiting case of reversible process,
remains constant. This is known as the decrease of exergy principle.
Dneither 1 nor 2
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 55
The difference between specific heat at constant pressure and specific heat at constant volume is
Correct Option
Solution :
(a)
B
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 56
Consider the following statement
1. Nuclear power is green, clean and renewable source of energy.
2. 10% of total nuclear energy in world is obtain by fusion reactor.
Which of these are correct ?
Solution :
(c)
• Nuclear power is non-renewable source of energy.
• Till today not single fusion reactor producing energy.
Dneither 1 nor 2
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 57
Solar radiation convert into electricity by a thin wafer of
Solution :
(d)
Wafer are made of semiconductor material like silicon, selenium.
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 58
Direct conversion of heat energy into electrical energy is possible through.
Solution :
(d)
Magneto hydro dynamic generator (MHD) and solar cell convert heat energy into electric energy.
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 59
The spots are source of
Solution :
(b)
Spots are source of geothermal energy.
Cnuclear energy
Dhydroelectric energy
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 60
The ratio of blade area to the rotor circumference is
Solution :
(b)
Solidity is ratio of blade area to the swept i.e. rotor circumference.
Cwind energy pattern factorYour answer is Wrong
Dwind energy conversion factor
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 61
Which of the following material is used for latent heat storage.
Solution :
(d)
The material used for latent heat storage are paraffin wax, fatty acid, calcium-chloride hexohydrates, sodium
sulphate deca hydrate.
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 62
Heat transfer by radiation between two gray bodies of emissivity ε and is prepositional to
Correct Option
Solution :
(b)
C
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 63
During the chemical dehumidification the sensible heat gain by the air stream is
Solution :
(b)
In actual practice, the process is accompanied with a release of heat called heat absorption which is very large.
Thus sensible heat gain of air exceeds the load of latent heat.
Cthe latent heat of condensation minus the heat of adsorption
Dnone of these
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 64
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
Solution :
(c)
Dd
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 65
Which of the following is not intensive property.
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 66
For the configuration shown below, the angular velocity of link AB is 10 rad/s counter clockwise. The
magnitude of the relative sliding velocity (in m/s) of slider B wrt rigid link CD is
Solution :
(a)
B2.5
C3
D4.5
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 67
Consider the following statements :
The unbalanced force in a single cylinder reciprocating engine is
1. Equal to inertia force of the reciprocating masses.
2. Always fully balanced.
3. Equal to gas force.
Which of these statements(s) is/are correct?
Solution :
(a)
B2 only
C1 and 2
D2 and 3
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 68
Consider the following statements :
1. The centre of mass of a transmission shaft never coincides with the centre of rotation.
2. The rotor of a turbine is generally rotated at a speed much above the critical speed.
3. The safe rim velocity of a flywheel is influenced by fluctuation of speed.
Which of these statements are correct ?
Solution :
(a)
B2 and 3
C1 and 3
D1, 2 and 3
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 69
The primary direct crank of a reciprocating engine is located at an angle θ clockwise. The secondary direct
crank will be located at an angle
Have any Doubt ?
Aθ clockwise
Bθ anticlockwise
C2θ clockwiseCorrect Option
Solution :
(c)
D2θ anticlockwise
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 70
An imaginary circle which by pure rolling action, gives the same motion as the actual gear, is called
Solution :
(c)
Pitch circle is the circle corresponding to a section of the equivalent pitch cylinder (the imaginary friction
cylinder, which by pure rolling together, transmitting the same motion as the pair of gears) by a plane normal
to the wheel axis.
Dbase circle
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 71
For the rotor system in figure, the mass required for its complete balancing is
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 72
Consider the following statements :
1. In forced vibrations, the body vibrates under the influence of an applied force.
2. In torsional vibrations, the disc moves parallel to the axis of shaft.
3. In damped vibration, amplitude reduces over every cycle of vibration.
4. In transverse vibrations, the particles of the shaft moves approximately perpendicular to the axis of the shaft.
Which of these statements are correct?
Solution :
(b)
In torsional vibration, the disc moves circular about the axis of the shaft.
C2, 3 and 4
D1, 2 and 4
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 73
The height of a simple watt governor running at a speed ‘N ’ is proportional to
C
N2
D
Correct Option
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 74
Match List-I (Stress induced) with List-II (Situation/Location) and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the lists
Solution :
(b)
Cc
Dd
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 75
Consider the following statements:
1. From design consideration, it is always advantageous to place cast iron ribs on the tension side
rather than on the compression side.
2. Cast iron parts have a high notch sensitivity.
3. Cast iron is an excellent choice for machine tool guides.
Which of these statements are incorrect ?
Solution :
(d)
• Cast iron has a low notch sensitivity.
• Cast iron is strong in compression and weak in tension.
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 76
Consider the following statements regarding the flywheel used in an IC engine:
1. It takes care of load fluctuations in the engine and controls speed variation.
2. It acts as a reservoir of energy.
3. It minimises cyclic fluctuations in the engine speed.
Which of these statements are correct?
Solution :
(b)
Flywheel acts as a reservoir by storing energy from power source when greater portion of cycle takes place and
gives it back during small period of the cycle. Thus it minimises cyclic fluctuations in the engine speed.
While governor takes care of load fluctuations and thus controls speed variation.
C1 and 3
D1, 2 and 3
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 77
The design calculations for member subject to fluctuating loads with the same factor of safety yield the most
conservative estimate when using
Have any Doubt ?
AGerber relation
BSoderberg relationCorrect Option
Solution :
(b)
In this figure, Soderberg line is the inner most line and it gives most conservative estimate with the same factor
of safety.
CGoodman relation
DNone of these
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 78
Consider the following statements regarding flexible coupling:
1. The pins are made of carbon steel.
2. There is a gap or clearance between the driving or driven flanges of flexible bush coupling for taking care of
angular misalignment between the two shafts.
3. These require more radial space compared with other types of coupling.
Which of these statements are correct?
Solution :
(d)
All above statements regarding flexible bush coupling are correct.
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 79
Given below are the reasons for power loss in the belt drive :
1. Power loss due to belt creep on the pulley.
2. Power loss due to internal friction between the particles of the belt in alternate bending and unbending over
the pulley.
3. Power loss due to friction in bearings of pulleys.
4. Power loss due to aerodynamic resistance to the motion of pulleys and belt.
Which of these statements are correct?
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 80
Two blocks 4 kg and 2 kg are sliding down an inclined plane as shown in figure below. The acceleration of 2
kg block is
Solution :
(b)
C
3.64 m/s2
D
4.64 m/s2
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 81
A block of mass m1 = 5 kg on a smooth table is pulled by a block of mass m2 = 2 kg through a uniform rope
ABC of length 2 m and mass 1 kg. The pulley is smooth and massless. As the block of mass m2 falls from BC
= 0 to BC = 2 m, its acceleration (in m/s2) changes from (Take g = 10 m/s2)
Correct Option
Solution :
(b)
D
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 82
The upper half of an incline plane with inclination Φ is perfectly smooth while the lower half is rough. A body
starting from rest at the top will again come to rest at the bottom if the coefficient of friction for the lower half
is given by
Solution :
(a)
B
tanΦ
C
2sinΦ
D
2cosΦ
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 83
The force in the member of the truss shown in the figure is
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 84
Two circular low carbon steel bars P and Q of equal length have diameter dp = 3 cm and dQ = 2 cm. Each is
subjected to a tensile load of magnitude P. The ratio of the elongations of the bars is
B
Correct Option
Solution :
(b)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 85
The SFD and BMD for a beam are shown in the given figures I and II. The corresponding loading diagram
would be
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
• From B to A, hogging moment is increasing and also at point C, a couple is acting in CW direction which
shows that hogging moment has increased at C.
• In SFD, shear force is constant so loading will be a point load at B.
D
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 86
In a cantilever of span L, subjected to a concentrated load of W acting at a distance of from the free end, the
deflection under the load will be
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 87
Match List-I (Strain Energy) with List-II (Gradually applied load) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists:
Solution :
(b)
Cc
Dd
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 88
The state of stresses on an element is shown in the given figure. The values of stress are and major principal
stress The minor principal stress ‘σ2’ is
Solution :
(c)
DNone of these
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 89
A cube is subjected to equal tensile stress on all the three faces. If the yield stress of the material is σy , then
based on the strain energy theory, the maximum tensile stress will be
Correct Option
Solution :
(c)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 90
A simply supported beam of span carries a point load W at midspan. The breadth ‘b’ of the beam along the
entire span is constant. Given, f = permissible stress in bending, for a beam of uniform strength, the depth of
the beam at any cross-section, at a distance from the support would be
Correct Option
Solution :
(b)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 91
Consider the following statements regarding water line corrosion:
1. Corrosion occurs in a water storage tank just above the water line.
2. Corrosion occurs due to difference in oxygen concentration above and below the water line.
3. It is a type of crevice corrosion.
Which of these statements are correct ?
Solution :
(b)
In water line corrosion, the corrosion occurs in a water storage tank just below the water line. The
concentration of oxygen is higher just above the water line as compared to the submerged portion near the
water line. The latter zone acts as anode and therefore corrodes. Water line corrosion is a type of crevice
corrosion.
C1 and 3
D1 and 2
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 92
Match List-I (Type of gears) with List-II (Characteristics) and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the lists:
Solution :
(c)
• Galvanizing : Here coating of zinc is done on iron.
• Tinning : A coating of tin is obtained on iron.
• Calorizing : Aluminium is used to coat steel surface.
• Chromizing : Steel is coated with a thin layer of chromium.
Dd
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 93
Match List-I (Classification of nano materials) with List-II (Definition) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists:
Solution :
(b)
• Zero dimensional : Where all three dimensions of the particle are in the nano range.
• One dimensional : Where two dimensions are in the nano range and the third dimension is much larger of
nano rods, nano wires and nano tube.
• Two dimensional : Where one dimension is in the nano range and the other two are much larger, nano films,
nano sheets and nano coatings.
• Three dimensional : Where all three dimensions of particle are much larger than the nano range.
Cc
Dd
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 94
Which of the following methods of synthesis of nanomaterials has solid as starting phase ?
1. Ball milling 2. Electro deposition
3. Spark erosion 4. Sliding wear
Solution :
(b)
Electro deposition has liquid as its starting phase, while rest three have solid as starting phase.
C2, 3 and 4
D1, 2, 3 and 4
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 95
Consider the following statements regarding nylons (a polyamide):
1. They have poor mechanical properties and abrasion resistance.
2. They are self-lubricating.
3. They are resistant to most chemicals.
4. All nylons are hygroscopic (absorb water).
Which of these statements are correct ?
Solution :
(b)
Nylons have good mechanical properties and abrasion resistance.
C1, 3 and 4
D1, 2, 3 and 4
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 96
Consider the following statements regarding normalizing process:
1. It is often used for castings in order to relieve stresses
2. It increases strength of medium carbon steel to some extent.
3. It increases grain size
4. It results in better surface finish
Which of these statements are correct?
Have any Doubt ?
A1, 2 and 3
B1, 2 and 4Correct Option
Solution :
(b)
Normalizing is heat treatment process of steels where specimen is heated above upper critical temperature and
cooled in air. It relieves stresses, increases strength and results in better surface finish. Normalizing produces
fine pearlite and thus reduces grain size.
C1, 3 and 4
D2, 3 and 4
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 97
Consider the following statements regarding rolling load:
1. Increase in coefficient of friction, increases rolling load.
2. Increase in draft increases rolling load
3. Decrease in initial sheet thickness, increases rolling load.
Which of these statements are correct?
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 98
Consider the figure between roll pressure and length of contact:
Solution :
(b)
Cc
Dd
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 99
Which of the following factors affect rolling load?
1. Flow stress 2. Draft
3. Roll diameter 4. Friction
Solution :
(d)
Factors affecting rolling load:
• Flow stress
• Draft or reduction
• Friction
• Roll diameter
• Strip tension
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 100
In the figure given below, match List I (Curve) with List II (tool) and answer using the codes given below the
lists:
Solution :
(c)
Dd
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 101
Welding of aluminium is normally difficult due to which one of the following reasons?
Solution :
(b)
Aluminium being reactive metal forms aluminium oxide on its surface by reacting with oxygen in air and this
oxide is difficult to remove, hence welding of aluminium becomes difficult.
CCorrosion cracking
DFormation of carbide film
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 102
Which of the following are disadvantages of FMEA?
1. Reduce the quality, reliability and safety of a product/process.
2. Decrease user satisfaction
3. Increase system development timing and cost
4. Increase the potential for warranty concerns
Solution :
(d)
FMEA results in
• improve of the quality, reliability and safety of a product.
• increase in user satisfaction.
• reduction in system development timing and cost.
• reduction in the potential for warranty concerns.
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 103
The reliability of system (the probability that it functions properly) depends upon
1. the reliability of each of its components
2. the type of system
Which of these statement(s) is/are correct?
Solution :
(c)
Reliability of a system depends upon
• the reliability of each of its components
• the type of system, whether series, parallel or combination of both.
DNone of these
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 104
Consider the following statements regarding system reliability:
1. In a series system, if one component fails, the system fails.
2. In a parallel system, if one component fails, then the system does not fails.
3. Reliability of a series system is always less than the reliability of individual components.
Which of these statements are correct?
Solution :
(d)
All statements are correct.
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 105
A system consists of 5 components in series each having a reliability of 0.95. What is the reliability of the
system?
Solution :
(b)
C
1 – (0.95)5
D
1 – (0.05)5
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 106
The following reasons tend to cause excessive vibration in gears:
1. Misalignment of the gear axis.
2. Gear teeth running out of contact
3. Wear and breakage of gear tool.
Which of these are correct?
Have any Doubt ?
A1 and 2
B2 and 3
C1 and 3
D1, 2 and 3Correct Option
Solution :
(d)
During gears meshing, following reasons tend to cause excessive vibration in gears:
1. Misalignment of gear axis.
2. Gear teeth running out of contact.
3. Wear and breakage of gear tool.
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 107
Which of the following processes can be used for producing thin, hard wear resistant coating such as Tin on
HSS?
1. Physical vapour deposition (PVD)
2. Chemical vapour deposition (CVD) with post treatment
3. Sintering under reducing atmosphere.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Solution :
(a)
Two methods used for coating of thin layers of a refractory metal carbide or nitride (i.e. titanium carbide, or
titanium nitride) on HSS are:
(i) Physical vapour deposition
(ii) Chemical vapour deposition
B2 and 3
C1 and 3
D1, 2 and 3
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 108
Match List-I (Welding) with List-II (Application) and select the correct answer using the codes given below
the lists:
Solution :
(b)
• Projection – Joining thick sheets
• Explosive – Manufacture of heat exchangers
• Ultrasonic – Joining thin sheets or wires of dissimilar metals.
• Thermite – Joining rails, pipes of thick steel sections.
Cc
Dd
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 109
Match List-I (Unconventional machining method) with List-II (Application method) and answer using the
codes given below the lists:
Solution :
(d)
• Electric discharge – Machining of electrically conductive materials
• Laser beam – micro machining
• Plasma arc – faster cutting of hear materials
• Electron beam – low metal removal rate
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 110
Match List-I (Cutting tool materials) with List-II (Fabrication processes) and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the lists:
Solution :
(b)
HSS : Forging
UCON : Rolling
Stellite : Casting
Carbide : Powder metallurgy
Cc
Dd
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 111
Classification and coding of parts into families is the basic concept of
Solution :
(b)
Group technology is a manufacturing technique in which parts having similarities in geometry, manufacturing
process and/or functions are manufacturing in one location using a small number of machines or processes.
CJIT
DNone of the above
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 112
Consider the following statements regarding CAPP:
1. It improves the productivity of process planners.
2. It increases lead time.
3. It improves the consistency of product quality and reliability.
Which of these statements are correct?
Solution :
(c)
Computer-aided process planning (CAPP) decreases lead time.
D1, 2 and 3
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 113
While execution of IN/OUT instruction takes places, the 8-bit address of the port is placed on
Solution :
(c)
While execution of IN/OUT instruction takes place, the 8-bit address of the port, is placed on A8-A15 lines of
address bus, i.e., higher address bus.
DLower as well as higher order address bus
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 114
For the feedback system shown in the figure below, which one of the following expresses the input output
relation C/R of the overall system?
Correct Option
Solution :
(b)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 115
Match List-I (Control system component) with List-II (Application) and select the correct answer using the
code given below:
Solution :
(b)
• Stepper motor is used as actuator i.e. to give proportional speed or angular position output to proportional
input voltage.
• Synchros is a positional error detector.
• Operational amplifier is a controller.
• Tacho-generator is used to give output rate feedback i.e. proportional voltage feedback to output angular
position.
Cc
Dd
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 116
A strain gauge is bonded to a beam which is 10 cm long and has a cross-sectional area of 2.5 cm2. The
unstrained resistance and gauge factor of the strain gauge are 150 Ω and 1.8 respectively. On the application of
load, the resistance of the gauge changes by 0.015 Ω, then the change in length of the steel beam is
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 117
Consider the following statements regarding programmable logic controller (PLC’s):
1. They are usually programmed with ladder logic.
2. They are flexible and easy to program.
3. They are robust and relatively immune to external interference.
Which of these statements are incorrect?
Solution :
(d)
All above statements regarding PLC’s are correct.
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 118
Which of the following configurations has three mutually perpendicular axes?
Solution :
(c)
The Cartesian coordinate configuration of the robot has three mutually perpendicular axes which define a
rectangular work volume.
DNone of the above
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 119
Repeatability is
Solution :
(c)
Repeatability is the measure of robot’s ability to position an object at a previously taught point in the work
envelope.
DNone of the above.
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 120
Work envelope depends upon
1. Number of types of joints
2. Physical size of the joints and links
3. Range of various links
Which of these statements are correct?
Solution :
(d)
• Work envelope of a manipulator is defined as the envelope or space within which the robot can manipulate
the end of the wrist.
• Work envelope depends upon the number of types of joints, physical size of the joints and links, and the
ranges of various joints.
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 121
Given below are some similarities and dissimilarities between Robots and NC machines:
1. Programming
2. Feedback systems
3. Actuating mechanisms
4. Weight and portability
Which of these are dissimilarities between robots and NC machines?
Solution :
(c)
• A robot programming is different from the past programming used in NC machines.
• A robot is lighter in weight and more portable equipment compared to NC machines.
D3 and 4
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 122
Consider the following statements regarding pneumatic drives:
1. Movement of robot arm through compressed air
2. High payload capacities
3. Fast and reliable
4. Simple in construction and relatively inexpensive
Which of these statements are correct?
Solution :
(c)
Features of pneumatic drives:
• Simple in construction
• Relatively inexpensive
• Fast and reliable
• Use of compressed air for robot arm movement
• Smaller payload capacities
D1, 2 and 4
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 123
If Break-even then X is the
Solution :
(b)
Cdirect cost
Dprofit-volume
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 124
Time estimates of a projects activity are
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 125
Which of the following are the characteristics of job order production?
1. High variety of products and low volume
2. Large inventory of tools, materials and parts
3. A flexible layout is preferred
4. Complicated scheduling
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Solution :
(d)
Characteristics of job order production:
• High variety of products and low volume.
• Use of general purpose machines and facilities
• Frequently changing of setups.
• Large inventory of tools, materials and parts.
• Detailed planning required so scheduling is relatively complicated.
• Many products are run through the plant and material handling has to be modified, i.e., flexible layout is
preferred.
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 126
Which of the following are objectives of scheduling?
1. To increase facility utilization
2. Minimize idle time
3. Minimize work-in-process inventory
4. To improve quality of products
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Solution :
(a)
Objectives of scheduling:
• Reducing average waiting time of a batch
• To increase facility utilization
• Meet customer due dates
• Maximise machine or labour utilization
• Minimize idle time
• Minimize work-in process inventory
B2, and 4
C1, 2 and 4
D1 and 2 only
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 127
Which of the following is/are advantage(s) of cellular manufacture?
1. Lower work-in-progress inventories
2. Quicker set-ups
3. Fewer tooling changes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Solution :
(d)
Advantages of cellular manufacturing:
• lower work-in-progress inventories
• quicker set-ups
• fewer tooling changes
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 128
Dispatching function of production planning and control refers to
Solution :
(c)
Dispatching function of PPC refers to authorizing a production work order to be launched.
Dmovement of in-process material from shop to shop
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 129
Assertion (A): For real surface Kirchhoff’s law must be stated in term of monochromatic emissivity
and monochromatic absorptivity as,
Reason (R): For real surface, emissivity considerably changes with wavelength.
Solution :
(a)
For real surface, emissivity considerably changes with wavelength and hence kirchhoff’s law must be stated in
term of monochromatic emissivity and monochromatic absorptivity i.e.
Bb
Cc
Dd
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 130
Assertion (A): A diesel engine is usually more efficient than a spark ignition engine.
Reason (R): Diesel engine has high compression ratio.
Solution :
(a)
Diesel engine more efficient than spark ignition engine because the compression ratio of a diesel engine is
higher than that of S.I. engine.
Bb
Cc
Dd
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 131
Assertion (A): Air leaking into condenser of steam power plant reduces output of a plant.
Reason (R): Air inside condenser increases back pressure of steam turbine in steam power plants.
Solution :
(a)
The air leakage in the condenser increases the back pressure on the turbine with the effect that there is less heat
drop and low thermal efficiency of plant.
Bb
Cc
Dd
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 132
Assertion (A): The temperature along the fin is variable and hence the rate of heat transfer varies along the fin.
Reason (R): Fins must be arranged at right angles to the direction of fluid flow.
Solution :
(b)
Cc
Dd
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 133
Assertion (A): In the process of heat rejection change in entropy is positive only.
Reason (R): Second law gives direction to the process.
Solution :
(d)
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 134
Assertion (A): Bell-Coleman cycle used in aircraft refrigeration system.
Reason (R): There is possibility of frosting at the expander valves.
Solution :
(b)
• Because of low weight per tonne of refrigeration Bell Coleman cycle used in air-craft application.
• The danger of frosting at the expander valves is more as the air taken into the system always contains
moisture.
Cc
Dd
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 135
Assertion (A): At 10% richer mixture detonation in S.I. engine is minimum.
Reason (R): The flame propagation velocity is maximum at 10% richer mixture.
Solution :
(d)
When mixture is slightly reached, temperature is very high and ignition lag is minimum and flame propagation
velocity is maximum. But the effect of former is more and hence knocking is more.
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 136
Assertion (A): The effective head of turbomachine is equal to gross head minus the head lost in penstock and
the velocity head at the turbine inlet.
Reason (R): A turbo-machine becomes susceptible to cavitation if pressure falls below the vapour pressure of
the liquid.
Solution :
(b)
Cc
Dd
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 137
Assertion (A): Gravity is determinant in estimating pipe flow magnitudes.
Reason (R): The term ‘g’ appears explicitly in Darcy Weisbach formula for pipe flow resistance.
Solution :
(d)
Pressure is determinants in pipe flow magnitudes.
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 138
Assertion (A): Two engines A and B work on the Carnot cycle. Engine A uses diesel as fuel and engine B, uses
petrol as fuel. The engine A is more efficient than B.
Reason (R): Reversible engine is more efficient than irreversible engine.
Solution :
(d)
Carnot cycle efficiency is independent on working substance.
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 139
Assertion (A): Losses in V-belt drives are comparatively more than those of in flat belt drives.
Reason (R): There will be increased internal friction and creep on the pulleys, which are major causes of
power loss in belt drives.
Solution :
(a)
• Both statements are correct and reason correctly explains the assertion.
• For medium service conditions, the efficiency of flat belt drives is 96% while the efficiency of V-belt is 95%.
Bb
Cc
Dd
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 140
Assertion (A): Gear shifting mechanism in automobile gearboxes comprises of splines.
Reason (R): Splines are used when there is a relative motion between the shaft and the hub.
Solution :
(a)
Splines are keys which are made integral with the shaft. They are used when there is a relative axial motion
between the shaft and the hub. The gear shifting mechanism in automobile gear boxes requires such type of
construction.
Bb
Cc
Dd
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 141
Assertion (A): Heavier class of robots have low capacity as compared to light model robots.
Reason (R): Load carrying capacity of a robot-depends on its physical size and construction.
Solution :
(d)
Light models have low capacity as compared to heavier class of robots, because load carrying capacity of a
robot depends on its physical size and construction.
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 142
Assertion (A): Vibration monitoring is used as preventive maintenance.
Reason (R): Vibration monitoring is used to check severity of vibrations on rotating machines.
Solution :
(b)
Both statements are individually correct.
Cc
Dd
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 143
Assertion (A): During cutting, the diamond tool is kept flooded with coolant.
Reason (R): The oxidation of diamond starts at about 450°C.
Solution :
(a)
Diamond tool is kept flooded by the coolent since oxidation of diamond starts at about 450°C and it can even
crack. So, flooded coolant keeps temperature below 450°C.
Bb
Cc
Dd
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 144
Assertion (A): Hot working does not produce strain hardening.
Reason (R): Hot working is done below the recrystallization temperature.
Solution :
(c)
Since hot working is done above the recrystallisation temperature so there may be recovery and
recrystallisation, resulting in no strain hardening and hence any amount of deformation can be imparted.
Dd
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 145
Assertion (A): A pair of gears forms a rolling pair.
Reason (R): The gear drive is a positive drive.
Solution :
(a)
Links of a pair having rolling motion relative to each other, form a rolling pair. No slip takes place between
gears, so gear drive is a positive drive and this results in pure rolling, forming a rolling pair.
Bb
Cc
Dd
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 146
Assertion (A): The acceleration of a body a rough inclined plane is less than the acceleration due to gravity.
Reason (R): The body is able to slide on a inclined plane only when its acceleration is greater than
acceleration due to gravity.
Solution :
(c)
Dd
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 147
Assertion (A): At higher strain rate and low temperature, structural steel tends to become ductile.
Reason (R): At higher strain rate and low temperature the yield strength of structural steel tends to increase.
Solution :
(d)
• At low temperature and higher strain rate, ductile to brittle transition takes place and structural steel tends to
become brittle.
• Most materials experience increase in tensile and yield strength at low temperatures.
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 148
Assertion (A): A product layout is preferred the flexibility in sequence of operations is required.
Reason (R): Product layout reduces inventories as well as labour cost.
Solution :
(d)
• In product layout, we have to produce a particular product i.e. there will be lesser flexibility in product
layout.
• However, product layout reduces inventories as well as labour cost.
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 149
Assertion (A): The principle of superposition is valid whenever the strain or stress to be obtained is directly
proportional to the applied loads.
Reason (R): Strain energy per unit volume depends upon the product of stress and strain.
Solution :
(b)
• Both statements are individually correct.
• Principle of superposition is valid whenever the strain or stress to be obtained is a linear function of the
applied loads.
• Strain energy per unit volume 1/2 × stress × strain.
Cc
Dd
QUESTION ANALYTICS
Q. 150
Assertion (A): For a section having an axis of symmetry, there will not be twisting if the loading axis
coincides with the symmetrical axis.
Reason (R): The plane of loading contains the bending axis.
Solution :
(c)
• For bending without twisting, plane of loading must contain one of the principal central axis of the section. In
case the section has a plane of symmetry, the symmetrical plane would contain the principal central axis. So,
assertion is correct.
• However reason is wrong, since the bending axis will be perpendicular to the plane of loading.
Dd
QUESTION ANALYTICS
ACTIVE DOUBT
Question:
Doubt: