Open Discussion

OPEN TEST 4-2520
Discussion
Copyright © 2016 by Vision IAS. [www.visionias.in] Subject, Topic & Expert
MODERN HISTORY

Q2.Which among the following steps were undertaken by the
Moderates to promote nationalism?
1. Organization of annual sessions with delegates participating from

all parts of the country.
2. Organization of religious festivals.
3. Using press to disseminate ideas.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Q19.With reference to the Mahad Satyagraha of1927, which of
the following statements is correct?
(a)It was led by Vallabhai Patel for the tribals in Gujarat.

(b)It was led by Lala Lajpat Rai as a peasant movement in
Punjab.
(c)It was led by B.R. Ambedkar for the untouchables in
Maharashtra.
(d)It was led by Periyar as a temple entry movement in Kerela.

• Mahad satyagraha took place in 1927 in Mahad, Raigadh
district of present day Maharastra. It was an anti-Brahmin
movement led by B.R. Ambedkar.
• The Untouchables were not allowed to use water from

common water sources like tanks.
• During the satyagraha, the Untouchables exercised their

right to draw water from the Chavdar Tank. B.R. Ambedkar
himself ceremonially took a drink of water from the tank,
after which local caste Hindus rioted, and Brahmins took
elaborate measure for the ritual purification of the tank.

Q21.Which of the following was/were the consequences of the Round Table
Conferences held between 1930-32?
1. The discussions at the round table conferences eventually led to passing of

Government of India Act, 1935.
2. The demand for partition of India and Pakistan was accepted.
3. Individual Satyagraha was launched after the third round table conference.

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

• Round Table Conferences (1930–32) was a series of meetings in
three sessions called by the British government to consider the
future constitution of India. The conference resulted from a
review of the Government of India Act of 1919, undertaken in
1927 by the Simon Commission, whose report was published in
1930. The conference was held in London.
• The outcome of the Commission and the Conferences was the
Government of India Act 1935. This Act ended the dyarchy at
the provinces and introduced it at the centre.
• Mountbatten Mission Plan on June 3, 1947 which provided for
the creation of separate dominion of Pakistan, which came
into being on 14-15 August, 1947..
• Individual Satyagraha was launched in 1941 in opposition to
August Offer's proposal of granting dominion status to India,
which was rejected by Indian National Congress.
Q45.Which among the following was not an impact of
the Permanent Settlement?
(a)Introduction of private property rights.

(b)Huge increase in the revenue of British
government.
(c)Growth of new social class of middlemen .
(d)Decrease in the overall productivity of land in the
country.
• Permanent Settlement brought two new innovations in the Indian land system, one was the
creation of landlordism and another was the introduction of private property rights.
• According to the Permanent Land revenue settlement the Zamindars were recognised as the
permanent owners of the land. Since work of Zamindars was to collect and pay revenues at time,
they started doing sub-feudalization of their estate to some unofficial middlemen. Thus, a new
class of unofficial middlemen also grew between the Zamindars and Peasants.
• The system was responsible for the series of famines that occurred after its introduction. In the
sphere of production, the system led to the separation of agricultural capital from labour
engaged in the cultivation of land. The actual tiller lacked the resources to invest while the
Zamindars, who had the resources, were just not interested in the improvement of land.
• British government expected that with the implementation of permanent settlement the
income of the company would increase tremendously but their expectations were not
fulfilled. The permanent settlement could not enhance the amount of land revenue because
it was inherent in the settlement that it was permanent in terms of revenue also and company
could not increase a single pie even if there was rise in the produce or prices of the produce.
• This was one of the reason that some British authors called the settlement a blunder as it resulted
in loss of enhanced land revenue in times to come. Hence, option (b) is not correct.

Q58.With reference to Raja Ram Mohan Roy and Swami Vivekananda,
consider the following statements:
1. Raja Ram Mohan Roy favoured individual worship while Swami

Vivekananda favoured collective-congregational worship.
2. Raja Ram Mohan Roy was opposed to idol worship while Swami
Vivekananda recognized its utility and value.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

• The process of Indian reformation had three facets. The first was a liberal
modernising phase in which reformers like Ram Mohan Roy attempted to change
some of the traditional practices. The second was a rejection of all that was alien
to society, and an attempt at indigenous mode of modernisation. The third was to
build an alternative model of modernity which would embrace the traditional and
the modern. The path chosen by Swami Vivekananda was the third.
• By the end of the 19th century, almost all early social reform movements had lost
much of their vigour and following.
• The decline in the reform atmosphere paved the way for the emergence of a
powerful spiritual leader. This void was filled by Swami Vivekananda, by initiating
a movement, based on individual worship in place of collective–congregational
worship which Raja Ram Mohan Roy and his contemporaries had favoured.
• In August 1828, Raja Ram Mohan Roy founded the Brahmo Sabha which was later
renamed the Brahmo Samaj. The Samaj declared its opposition to idol worship
and no image, statue or sculpture was allowed in the Samaj building.
• The Ramakrishna Mission was founded by Swami Vivekananda in 1897, and unlike
the Brahmo Samaj, it recognized the utility and value of idol worship in
developing a spiritual fervour and worship of the eternal omnipotent God.

Q66. With reference to the leftist parties in India during the freedom struggle,
consider the following pairs:
Political Party Founder

1. Forward Bloc Subhash Chandra Bose
2. Revolutionary Communist Party N. Dutt Mazumdar
3. Bolshevik Party of India M N Roy
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a)2 only
(b)1 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)2 and 3 only

• The Communist movement in India served as the nursery for the growth of many
minor Leftist parties.
• The Forward Bloc was formed by Subhash Chandra Bose in March 1939. It accepted
the creed, policy and programme of the Congress but was not bound to have
confidence in the Congress High Command. It sought to rally all anti-imperialist,
radical and progressive groups under one banner.
• The Bolshevik Party of India was established in 1939 by N. Dutt Mazumdar,
the Revolutionary Communist Party was launched by Saumyendranath Tagore in
1942 and the Bolshevik-Leninist Party was anounced in 1941 by a group of
Trotskyite revolutionaries like Indra Sen and Ajit Roy. Each of these was a
dissident Communist group and claimed to be the fittest party for leading the 'Indian
Revolution.' Most of these parties centred around personalities and became defunct
after the central figure disappeared.
• M N Roy was associated with Communist Party of India (CPI) set up at Tashkent
in 1920. The CPI called upon all its members to enroll themselves as members of the
Congress, form a strong left-wing in all its organs, cooperate with all other radical
nationalists, and make an effort to transform the Congress into a more radical mass-
based organization.

Q74.Which of the following had an influence on the philosophy of Gandhiji?
1. H.P. Blavatsky and Theosophists

2. Pranami sect
3. Works by John Ruskin
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

• Option 1 is correct: Mahatma Gandhi was influenced by the words and
message of H.P. Blavatsky and her mysterious Eastern Teachers who stood
behind her and the Theosophical Movement. The famous motto of the
Theosophical Movement is ―There is no religion higher than Truth.‖ With
Theosophy and his destined 1889 meeting with Madame Blavatsky in his
mind, Gandhi famously expressed it thus: ―There is no God higher than
Truth.‖
• Option 2 is correct: Pranami Sect is a liberal blend of Shrimad Bhagwad
Gita and Quran, Krishna and Allah and supports no caste system, no
idol-worship, vegetarianism and non-violence. It finds a mention in
Mahatma Gandhi's autobiography My Experiments With Truth as his
mother, Putlibai, was a Pranami. Mahatma says, it is "a sect deriving the
best of both the Quran and Gita, in search of one goal - God".
• Option 3 is correct: Western thinker John Ruskin's book 'Unto This Last'
was one of the most decisive influences of Gandhiji's life. In Gandhiji's
own words, "The book was impossible to lay aside, once I had begun it, it
gripped me. I could not get any sleep that night." He translated it into
Gujarati, entitling it as 'Sarvodaya', meaning the welfare of all.
Q94.With reference to the Paika rebellion, consider the following
statements:
1. It took place after the 1857 revolt.

2. It was mainly directed against the East India Company.
3. It was a non-violent movement.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
• The Paikas were the landed militia of the kingdom of Khurda in Odisha, granted
rent-free land in lieu of rendering military service and undertaking policing
activities in peace-time. Since 1804, the British started tinkering with the
revenue system. They changed the relative rights, interests and privileges of
various classes in the agriculture community, owning, occupying, managing or
cultivating the land and sharing in its produce.
• The British East India Company wrested the rent-free land that had been given to the
Paikas for their military service. Bakshi Jagabandhu Bidyadhar — the military chief of
the King of Khurda — led his army of Paikas forcing the Company forces to retreat.
The rebellion came to be known as 'Paika Bidroh' (Paika rebellion). It started in March
1817, and predates the uprising in 1857 but did not get similar recognition.
• The Paikas attacked symbols of the Company, prompting the magistrate of Cuttack –
the Company‘s headquarters – to move to Khurda to crush the rebellion
• Their traditional weapons of swords and bows and arrows were no match to the
technologically superior arms of the British. By May-end, the rebellion had been
suppressed, though sporadic skirmishes continued until 1818. Buxi Jagabandhu
was persuaded to surrender in 1825 and confined to Cuttack on a monthly
pension of Rs 150. Hence, it was a violent movement.

ANCIENT HISTORY

Q83.Which among the following practices of the Harappa people had
features similar to characterstics of later Hinduism?
1. Worship of Mother Goddess

2. Practice of considering trees as sacred
3. Phallic worship

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

• Religion of the Harappa people had some features suggesting those
characteristics of later Hinduism of Indian religious literature.
The Mother Goddess, for instance, she was evidently the divinity
of the people, and the upper classes seem to have preferred a god,
who also shows features found in later Hinduism.
• Certain trees were sacred, as they are in Hinduism today,
notably the pipal, which is specially honoured by Buddhists as the
species under which the Buddha found enlightenment.
• Phallic worship was an important element of Harappa religion.
Many cone-shaped objects have been found, which are almost
certainly formalized representations of the phallus. The linga
orphallic emblem in later Hinduism is the symbol of the god
Siva, who is more commonly worshipped than as an icon; thus
it is a fair inference that these objects were connected with the
ithyphallic "Proto-Siva" of the seals.

Q90.With reference to Hiuen Tsang's account of India during the
time of Harsha, which of the statements given below are correct?
1. There was prevalence of untouchability.

2. The main source of income of the state was land-revenue.
3. Offenders were given physical punishments and tortured as well.

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
• Hiuen Tsang who travelled in India between 628 A.D.and 645 A.D. during the
reign of Harshavardhana, the last great Hindu Emperor of north India (A.D. 606-
647), took note of untouchables as scavengers, executioners etc. According to him,
they lived outside the villages and consumed garlic and onion. The Untouchables
announced their entry into the town or village by shouting loudly, so that the people
might keep away from them.
• The socio-cultural life of North India was also characterized by downhill trends.
Harsha‘s age was marked by great rigidity in social life. The social mobility had
disappeared. The status of women declined sharply during this period due to the
popularity of child marriage and prohibition of widow remarriage.
• He described that the kingdom was well-governed; it was- free from revolts; there were
a few cases of law-breaking; offenders were given physical punishments and
tortured as well to extract the truth from them while the traitors were given
death sentence or turned out of the kingdom. The burden of taxation was not
heavy on the subjects; they were free from the oppression of the government
servants and were, thus, happy. The state used to record its every activity. He,
however, described that travelling was not very much safe at that time.
• The main source of income of the state was land-revenue.

Medieval History

Q22.Which among the following bhakti saints preached during the reign of
Akbar?
1. Chaitanya Mahaprabhu
2. Surdas
3. Kabir

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1 and 3 only

• Akbar (1542 – 1605) was the ruler of the Mughal Empire from the time
of his accession in 1556 until 1605.
• Option 1 is not correct: The Vaishnavite movement spread in the east
through the efforts of Chaitanya Mahaprabhu (1486-1534). Chaitanya
considered Krishna not as a mere incarnation of Vishnu but as the highest
form of God.
• Option 2 is correct: Surdas (1478 – 1583) was a Hindu devotional poet,
singer, and a saint (sant), who followed the Shuddhadvaita school of
Brahmavada. He was a disciple of Mahaprabhu Shri Vallabhacharya.
He lived during reign of king Akbar (1542-1606).
• Option 3 is not correct: Kabir‘s poetry draws on both Hinduism and
Islam, though he was critical of certain aspects of both faiths. Some of
his verses are included in the compilation of Sikh scriptures known as the
Adi Granth. His mystical poems are grounded in the details and earthly
particulars of everyday life. Kabir died in 1518.

Q42.Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Lingayats?
1. They are worshipers of Lord Vishnu.

2. They consider authority of Vedas as absolute and infallible.
3. Basava-purana is one of their sacred texts.

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)3 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1 and 3 only

• Lingayat is a sect in southern India that worships Shiva..
• The sect is generally regarded in South Indian oral tradition as
having been founded by Basava in the 12th century. Basava is the
subject of the Basava-purana, one of the sacred texts of the Hindu
Lingayat sect.
• Basava-purana was written by Bhima Kavi (14th century) in the
Kannada language and is based on an earlier Telugu version by
Palkuriki Somanatha.
• The Lingayats‘ earlier overthrow of caste distinctions has been modified
in modern times, but the sect continues to be strongly anti-
Brahmanical and opposed to worship of any image other than the
lingam.
• In their rejection of the authority of the Vedas, the doctrine of
transmigration of souls, child marriage, and ill treatment of widows,
they anticipated much of the viewpoint of the social reform movements
of the 19th century.

Q93.With reference to the cultural history of India, the
term 'Arabesque' refers to:
(a)a Muslim religious sect.

(b)an administrative functionary.
(c)a form of artistic decoration.
(d)a group of Arab travellers.

• The arabesque is a form of artistic decoration consisting
of "surface decorations based on rhythmic linear patterns of
scrolling and interlacing foliage, tendrils" or plain lines, often
combined with other elements.
• It was extensively used in Indo-Islamic architecture.

CULTURE

Q10.Consider the following statements:
1. Unlike Gandhara School of Art, Mathura School is largely

influenced by Greco-Roman features.
2. Unlike Mathura School of Art, Gandhara School mainly depicted
Buddhist, Brahmanical and secular themes.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Important characteristics of Mathura School of Art: Main features of Gandhara School of art :
o Buddhist to Brahmanical to sometimes secular o Theme is mainly Buddhist, depicting various stories
theme from the life of Buddha.
o The Buddha's image is modelled on the lines of o The Buddha's image has Hellenistic features.
Yaksha images. o Also, more stress is given to the bodily features
o More stress is given to the inner beauty and facial and external beauty.
emotions rather than bodily gesture. o Sculptures were made initially on stone and later
o Sculptures were made on White-spotted red stones. on Stucco, both greys in colour.
o These were not influenced by Greco-Roman o This school is influenced by Greco-Roman
techniques to that extent. techniques to a greater extent. One of the reasons is
o Several Brahmanical deities were first crystallized definitely the geographical location of the school.
by this school. o Art was the depiction of human body in a realistic
o They were depicted as more human and less manner with greater physical accuracy elaborate
spiritual. It was wholly influenced by Indian ornamentation and complex symbolism.
sculptures. o Gandhara School was heavily influenced by Greek
o In Mathura art tradition, Buddha image has longer methodologies, the figures were more spiritual and
earlobes, thicker lips, wider eyes and prominent sculpted mainly in grey, and great detail was paid to
noses. exact depiction of body parts.

Q25.Which among the following were associated with construction at
Mahabodhi Temple Complex?
1. Mauryas
2. Guptas
3. Palas

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

• The Mahabodhi Mahavihara has now been declared a World Heritage
Property by the UNESCO in June 2002.
• The present Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodh Gaya comprises the 50
m high grand Temple, the Vajrasana (Diamond throne, originally
installed by Emperor Asoka to mark the spot where Buddha sat and
meditated), sacred Bodhi Tree and other six sacred sites of Buddha's
enlightenment. The first temple was built by Emperor Asoka in the
3rd century B.C.
• The present temple is one of the earliest and most imposing structures
built entirely from brick in the late Gupta period.
• The gold painted statue of Buddha in the sanctum shrine of the
Temple is made of Black stone built by the Pala kings of Bengal. The
Buddha is seen seated in the Bhumisparsa Mudra or the Earth
touching posture.
Q51.With reference to cultural traditions of India, Thatheras refers to
(a)folk musicians of Rajasthan.
(b)burial practices of Lingayats.
(c)worshippers of Goddess Yellamma in Karnataka.
(d)community of Punjab known for traditional technique of

manufacturing brass and copper utensils.
• The craft of the Thatheras of Jandiala Guru constitutes the
traditional technique of manufacturing brass and copper
utensils in Punjab.
• The metals used – copper, brass and certain alloys – are believed to
be beneficial for health. Utensils may be manufactured for ritual or
utilitarian purposes, both for individual and community use on
special occasions such as weddings or at temples.
• The process of manufacturing is transmitted orally from father to
son. Metalwork is not simply a form of livelihood for Thatheras,
but it defines their family and kinship structure, work ethic and
status within the social hierarchy of the town.

Q52.Consider the following pairs:
Buddhist Monastery Location

1. Key Monastery Spiti Valley
2. Phuktal Monastery Ladakh
3. Rumtek Monastery Dharmshala

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
•

• Key Monastery is a Tibetan Buddhist monastery located close to the
Spiti River, in the Spiti Valley of Himachal Pradesh, India. The
monastery has the distinction of being the oldest and the biggest in the
Lahaul and Spiti district of Himachal Pradesh and a religious training
centre for Lamas.
• Phuktal monastery is built on the mouth of a cave in Ladakh and
hence the name Phuktal was given to this monastery; in native language,
‗Phuktal‘ means ‗through caves‘. Gangsem Sherap Sampo founded this
monastery during the earlier part of the 12th century. But the monastery
remained undiscovered to the outer world till 1826-27. Equipped with a
library and several prayer rooms, Phuktal Monastery is presently the
abode of around 70 monks.
• Rumtek Monastery also called the Dharmachakra Centre, is a gompa
located in the Indian state of Sikkim near the capital Gangtok. It is a
focal point for the sectarian tensions within the Karma Kagyu school of
Tibetan Buddhism that characterize the Karmapa controversy.
Q77.With respect to the State Emblem of India, consider the
following statements:
1. The Lion Capital of Ashoka at Sarnath has been adopted as the
State Emblem of India.
2. National Animal of India is sculpted on the abacus.
3. The National moto of India, 'Satyameva Jayate' inscribed below it,
is taken from Mundaka Upanishad.

(a)1 only
(b)1 and 3 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
• Statement 1 is correct: The State Emblem of India is an adaptation of
the Lion Capital of Asoka at Sarnath. In the original, the Lion Capital has
four lions mounted back to back, on a circular abacus. The frieze of the
abacus is adorned with sculptures in high relief of an elephant, a
galloping horse, a bull and a lion separated by intervening Dharma
Chakras. The abacus rests on a bell shaped lotus.
• Statement 2 is not correct: The profile of the Lion Capital showing
three lions mounted on the abacus with a Dharma Chakra in the centre, a
bull on the right and a galloping horse on the left (the National Animal of
India is Royal Bengal Tiger) and outlines of Dharma Chakras on the
extreme right and left was adopted as the State Emblem of India on
January 26, 1950. The bell- shaped lotus was omitted.
• Statement 3 is correct: The National motto of India ―Satyameva Jayate‖-
Truth alone triumphs—written in Devanagari script below the profile of
the Lion Capital is part of the State Emblem of India. Satyamev Jayate is
a mantra taken from Mundaka Upanishad.

Q89.Consider the following pairs
Embroidery/Weaving Pattern State
1. Kashidakari Himachal Pradesh
2. Sujani Bihar
3. Kantha Karnataka

(a)1 and 3 only
(b)2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

• Pair 1 is not correctly matched: Kashidakari, more popularly known as Kashmiri
embroidery, evolved under the patronage of Persian and Mughal rulers..Inspired by the
scenic locales of Kashmir, Kashidakari draws heavily from the flora of the state.
However, human and animal figures are not a part of this style of embroidery. A
unique feature of Kashidakari is the Kashmiri tea pot. Known for its simple chain
stitches, this embroidery done mostly on silk and wool is a global rage.

• Pair 2 is correctly matched: Sujani (also known as Sujini) is a form of
embroidery originating from the Bhusura village of Bihar in India.
Today, Sujani embroidery is also practiced in the southern part of
Rajasthan for making patterns on Sarees, dupattas and other clothing and
home furnishing.

• Pair 3 is not correctly matched: Kantha, a popular style of embroidery that
comes from West Bengal, is a significant symbol that displays the skill and talent
of the rural women in Bengal. Kantha, which basically means ‗throat‘, is
associated with Lord Shiva. The story revolves around how Lord Shiva consumed
poison while stirring up the ocean, and therefore the significance of this word
goes all the way back to the Vedic times.

POLITY

Q3. With reference to the Preamble, what does the term 'republic'
indicate?
1. Vesting of political sovereignty in the people.

2. Sense of brotherhood.
3. All public offices open to every citizen without any discrimination.

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

• The term ‗republic‘ in our Preamble indicates that India has an elected
head called the President. He is elected indirectly for a fixed period of five
years. A republic also means two more things: one, vesting of political
sovereignty in the people and not in a single individual like a king;
second, the absence of any privileged class and hence all public offices
being opened to every citizen without any discrimination.
• Fraternity means a sense of brotherhood. The Constitution promotes

this feeling of fraternity by the system of single citizenship and through
the Fundamental Duties (Article 51-A) say that it shall be the duty of
every citizen of India to promote harmony and the spirit of common
brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious,
linguistic, regional or sectional diversities.

Q7. With reference to state legislatures, consider the following statements:
1. The Governor can nominate one member from the Anglo-Indian

community to the Legislative Assembly.
2. The maximum strength of the Legislative Council is fixed at one-third of

the total strength of the assembly and the minimum strength is fixed at 40.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

About Legislative Councils
• Article 171 of the constitution of India defines the composition of the councils.
• The strength of any council shall not exceed 1/3rd of the strength of the state
assembly. But for smaller states, the minimum strength of the council can be forty
(40).
• The members of the Legislative Councils comprise of people elected through five
different constituencies.

For Rajya Sabha
• Article 80 of the Constitution lays down the maximum
strength of Rajya Sabha as 250, out of which 12 members are
nominated by the President and 238 are representatives of
the States and of the two Union Territories.
• Minimum strength – one-tenth of the total members of the
House ie 25

Q14.With reference to the Article 19 of Indian Constitution, which of
the following statements is/are correct?
1. It includes both the right to reside and settle in any part of the
territory of India
2. There is no restriction on the right to reside and settle in tribal
areas.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

• Under Article 19, every citizen has the right to reside and settle in
any part of the territory of the country. This right has two parts: (a)
the right to reside in any part of the country, which means to stay at any
place temporarily, and (b) the right to settle in any part of the country,
which means to set up a home or domicile at any place permanently.
• The State can impose reasonable restrictions on the exercise of this
right on two grounds, namely,
a. the interest of general public ,and the

b. protection of interests of any scheduled tribes.
• The right of outsiders to reside and settle in tribal areas is restricted

to protect the distinctive culture, language, customs and manners of
scheduled tribes and to safeguard their traditional vocation and
properties against exploitation.

Q20. With reference to provisions for citizenship, consider the following
statements:
1. The constitution only identifies the persons who became citizens of India at
its commencement.
2. The Citizenship Act of 1955 prescribes incorporation of territory as a way

of acquiring citizenship.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

• The Constitution deals with the citizenship from Articles 5 to 11 under Part II.
• It only identifies the persons who became citizens of India at its
commencement (i.e., on January 26, 1950).
• It does not deal with the problem of acquisition or loss of citizenship subsequent
to its commencement.
• It empowers the Parliament to enact a law to provide for such matters and any
other matter relating to citizenship. Accordingly, the Parliament has enacted the
Citizenship Act, 1955, which has been amended in 1957, 1960, 1985, 1986, 1992,
2003, 2005 and 2015.
• The Citizenship Act of 1955 prescribes five ways of acquiring citizenship,
viz, birth, descent, registration, naturalisation and incorporation of
territory.
• If any foreign territory becomes a part of India, the Government of India
specifies the persons who among the people of the territory shall be the
citizens of India. Such persons become the citizens of India from the notified
date. For example, when Pondicherry became a part of India, the Government of
India issued the Citizenship (Pondicherry) Order, 1962, under the Citizenship Act,
1955.

Q34. With reference to the composition of the Constituent Assembly, consider the
following statements:
1. Seats allocated to each British province were to be divided among the Muslims,
Sikhs and general in proportion to their population.
2. The representatives of princely states were to be nominated by the heads of the

princely states.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme formulated by the
Cabinet Mission Plan. The features of the scheme were:
1. The total strength of the Constituent Assembly was to be 389. Of these, 296 seats were to be
allotted to British India and 93 seats to the Princely States.
2. Each province and princely state (or group of states in case of small states) were to be allotted seats in
proportion to their respective population. Roughly, one seat was to be allotted for every million
population.
3. Seats allocated to each British province were to be divided among the three principal
communities—Muslims, Sikhs and general (all except Muslims and Sikhs), in proportion to their
population.
4. The representatives of each community were to be elected by members of that community in the
provincial legislative assembly and voting was to be by the method of proportional representation
by means of single transferable vote.
5. The representatives of princely states were to be nominated by the heads of the princely states.

Q35. Which of the following was/were the reasons for making the Directive
Principles non-justiciable?
1. Insufficient financial resources for their implementation.

2. Vast diversity and backwardness in the country.
3. Multiple preoccupations of newly independent Indian state.

(a)1 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1,2 and 3

• The framers of the Constitution made the Directive Principles non-
justiciable and legally non-enforceable because:
1. The country did not possess sufficient financial resources to
implement them.
2. The presence of vast diversity and backwardness in the country would

stand in the way of their implementation.
3. The newly born independent Indian State with its many

preoccupations might be crushed under the burden unless it was free to
decide the order, the time, the place and the mode of fulfilling them.
• The Constitution makers, therefore, taking a pragmatic view, refrained

from giving teeth to these principles. They believed more in an
awakened public opinion rather than in court procedures as the
ultimate sanction for the fulfilment of these principles.
1. The concept of ‗equality before law‘ connotes the absence of any special
privileges in favour of any person.
2. The concept of ‗equal protection of laws‘ connotes the equality of treatment

under equal circumstances.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

• The concept of ‗equality before law‘ is of British origin while the concept of
‗equal protection of laws‘ has been taken from the American Constitution.
• The concept of ‗equality before law‘ connotes:

(a) the absence of any special privileges in favour of any person,
(b) the equal subjection of all persons to the ordinary law of the land administered by
ordinary law courts, and
(c) no person (whether rich or poor, high or low, official or non-official) is above the law.
• The concept of ‗equal protection of laws‘ on the other hand, connotes:

(a) the equality of treatment under equal circumstances, both in the privileges
conferred and liabilities imposed by the laws,
(b) the similar application of the same laws to all persons who are similarly situated, and
(c) the like should be treated alike without any discrimination.

1. Parliament has exclusive power to form a tribunal to deal with disputes related
to elections to Parliament and state legislatures.
2. Appeals against order of such Election Tribunals can be made only to Supreme
Court.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Under Article 323B, both
Parliament and state legislatures are authorized to
establish tribunals for various purposes like taxation,
industry and labour, elections to Parliament and state
legislatures etc.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: In Chandra Kumar case (1997),

Supreme Court declared that such tribunals are subjected to
jurisdictions of the respective High Courts and judicial
remedies are available against the orders of the tribunals i.e.
now appeals against the orders of the CAT shall lie
before the division bench of the concerned high court.
Q39. With reference to the 74th Constitutional amendment act of 1992, which of
the following statements is/are correct?
1. It provides for a five-year term of office for every municipality.
2. The fresh elections to constitute a municipality shall be completed before the

expiry of a period of six months from the date of its dissolution.
3. The state legislature may make any provision for the reservation of seats in
any municipality in favour of backward classes.

(a)1 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 2 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
• The act provides for a five-year term of office for every
municipality. However, it can be dissolved before the completion
of its term. Further, the fresh elections to constitute a
municipality shall be completed (a) before the expiry of its
duration of five years; or (b) in case of dissolution, before the
expiry of a period of six months from the date of its
dissolution.
• The state legislature may provide for the manner of reservation
of offices of chairpersons in the municipalities for SCs, STs and
women. It may also make any provision for the reservation of
seats in any municipality or offices of chairpersons in
municipalities in favour of backward classes.

Q46.Consider the following statements with respect to State Human Rights
Commissions:
1. All states have to mandatorily constitute a State Human Rights Commission.

2. The chairman and members can be removed only by the President.
3. Only a retired Chief Justice of a High Court can be the chairman of the
Commission.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

• Protection of Human Rights Act 1993 provides for the creation of
National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and State Human Rights
Commission (SHRC). Chapter V of the Act provides for the establishment of
State Human Rights Commissions. However, it is not mandatory for a state
to constitute a Commission.
• SHRC consists of a chairperson and two members.
• The chairperson should be a retired Chief Justice of a High Court and
members should be a serving or retired judge of a High Court or a
District Judge in the state with an experience of at least 7yrs and a
person having knowledge or practical experience with respect to human
rights.
• The chairperson and members hold office for a period of 5yrs or until they
attain the age of 70yrs (whichever is earlier).
• After their tenure, they are not eligible for further employment under the
state.
• Although the chairperson and members are appointed by the Governor,
they can be removed only by the President.

Q50.With reference to S. R. Bommai judgement, imposition of President‘s
rule in a state would be proper under which of the following situations?
1. Whenever a state fails to comply with any Constitutional direction from

the Centre.
2. Maladministration in the state.
3. When after general elections to the assembly, no party secures a majority.

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
• Based on the report of the Sarkaria Commission on Centre–state Relations(1988), the Supreme
Court in Bommai case (1994) enlisted the situations where the exercise of power under Article
356 could be proper or improper.
• Imposition of President‘s Rule in a state would be proper in the following situations:
1. Where after general elections to the assembly, no party secures a majority, that is, ‗Hung
Assembly‘.
2. Where the party having a majority in the assembly declines to form a ministry and the governor
cannot find a coalition ministry commanding a majority in the assembly.
3. Where a ministry resigns after its defeat in the assembly and no other party is willing or able
to form a ministry commanding a majority in the assembly.
4. Where a constitutional direction of the Central government is disregarded by the state

government.
5. Internal subversion where, for example, a government is deliberately acting against the
Constitution and the law or is fomenting a violent revolt.
6. Physical breakdown where the government wilfully refuses to discharge its constitutional
obligations endangering the security of the state.

The imposition of President‘s Rule in a state would be improper under the following situations:
1. Where a ministry resigns or is dismissed on losing majority support in the assembly and the governor recommends
imposition of President‘s Rule without probing the possibility of forming an alternative ministry.
2. Where the governor makes his own assessment of the support of a ministry in the assembly and recommends
imposition of President‘s Rule without allowing the ministry to prove its majority on the floor of the Assembly.
3. Where the ruling party enjoying majority support in the assembly has suffered a massive defeat in the general elections
to the Lok Sabha such as in 1977 and 1980.
4. Internal disturbances not amounting to internal subversion or physical breakdown.
5. Maladministration in the state or allegations of corruption against the ministry or stringent financial exigencies of
the state.
6. Where the state government is not given prior warning to rectify itself except in case of extreme urgency leading to
disastrous consequences.
7. Where the power is used to sort out intra-party problems of the ruling party, or for a purpose extraneous or irrelevant
to the one for which it has been conferred by the Constitution.

Q75.With reference to the Finance Commission, consider the following
statements:
1. The Parliament has specified the qualifications and service condition of

Chairman and members of the commission.
2. The commission submits its report to the President.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

• The Parliament has specified the qualifications and service condition of
Chairman and members of the commission under The Finance
Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951.
• The Act provides that the Chairman of the Commission shall be selected
from among persons who have had experience in public affairs, and the four
other members shall be selected from among persons who (a) are, or have
been, or are qualified to be appointed as Judges of a High Court; or (b)
have special knowledge of the finances and accounts of Government; or
(c) have had wide experience in financial matters and in administration; or
(d) have special knowledge of economics.
• The Finance commission submits its report to the President. The

recommendations made by the Finance Commission are only of advisory
nature and hence, not binding on the government. It is up to the Union
government to implement its recommendations on granting money to the
states.

Q76. With regard to a bill reserved by the Governor for the President's
consideration, consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution has not prescribed any time limit within which the
President has to take a decision.
2. The state legislature cannot override the veto power of the President.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
When a bill is reserved by the Governor for the consideration of the President, the
President has three alternatives (Under Article 201 of the Constitution):
1. He may give his assent to the bill, or
2. He may withhold his assent to the bill, or
3. He may direct the governor to return the bill (if it is not a money bill) for the
reconsideration of the state legislature. If the bill is passed again by the state legislature
with or without amendments and presented again to the President for his assent, the
President is not bound to give his assent to the bill. This means that the state legislature
cannot override the veto power of the President.
Further, the Constitution has not prescribed any time limit within which the President
has to take decision with regard to a bill reserved by the governor for his
consideration. Hence, the President can exercise pocket veto in respect of state legislation
also.

Q79.Consider the following statements with respect to Central Information
Commission:
1. It is a constitutional body.
2. It consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than 10
Information Commissioners.
3. The Chief Information Commissioner and the members are not eligible for re-
appointment .
Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

• Central Information Commission is a statutory body constituted under Right
to Information Act 2005.
• The Commission consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not

more than 10 Information Commissioners.
• They are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee

consisting of Prime Minister as the chairman, Leader of Opposition in the
Lok Sabha and a Union cabinet minister nominated by the Prime Minister.
• The Chief Information Commissioner and the members hold office for a term of
5 years or until they attain the age of 65 years (whichever is earlier).
• They are not eligible for re-appointment (however, they are eligible for
further appointment under the State).

Q87.With reference to Article 13 of the Constitution of India, which
of the following is/are included under the term 'law'?
1. Ordinances
2. Delegated legislation
3. Customs having the force of law

(a)1, 2 and 3
(b)1 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1 and 2 only
• Article 13 declares that all laws that are inconsistent with or in derogation of
any of the fundamental rights shall be void. In other words, it expressively
provides for the doctrine of judicial review.
• The term ‗law‘ in Article 13 has been given a wide connotation so as to include the
following:
(a) Permanent laws enacted by the Parliament or the state legislatures;
(b) Temporary laws like ordinances issued by the president or the state governors;
(c) Statutory instruments in the nature of delegated legislation (executive legislation)

like order, bye-law, rule, regulation or notification; and
(d) Non-legislative sources of law, that is, custom or usage having the force of
law.

CURRENT AFFAIRS

Q4. Consider the following statements with respect to Lalit Kala
Academy:
1. It is an autonomous body fully funded by the Ministry of Culture.
2. Its objective is to foster and co-ordinate literary activities in all the
Indian languages.
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

• Lalit Kala Akademi, the National Academy of Art, was set up by the
Government of India on 5 August, 1954, and was registered under the
Societies Registration Act 1860.
• Lalit Kala Akademi is the Government‘s apex cultural body in the field of
visual arts in India.
• It is an autonomous body, which is fully funded by the Ministry of
Culture.
• Its Chairman is appointed by the President.
• Objectives –
1. To encourage and promote study and research in the fields of creative arts
such as painting, sculpture and graphics etc.
2. To foster cultural contacts within the country and also with other countries,
through art exhibition, exchange of personal and art objects, etc.
3. To promote study, research and survey of folk, tribal and traditional arts
and crafts techniques, preserve and project their art forms and to organize
regional surveys of and to encourage surviving indigenous craftsmen, painters and
sculptors;
• Sahitya Akademi, India's National Academy of Letters, was
formally inaugurated by the Government of India on 12
March 1954.
• Besides the 22 languages enumerated in the Constitution of
India, the Sahitya Akademi has recognised English and
Rajasthani as languages in which its programme may be
implemented.

Q16. Consider the following pairs:
Groups in news Countries associated
1. Houthis Oman
2. Kurds Iraq
3. Rohingyas Myanmar
(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
• Pair 1 is not correctly matched: Yemen‘s Houthi Ansarullah
Movement or the Houthis are Shia rebels fighting the government in
the Yemen Civil War (2015-present).
• Pair 2 is correctly matched: The Kurds are one of the indigenous

peoples of the Mesopotamian plains and the highlands in what is now
south-eastern Turkey, north-eastern Syria, northern Iraq, north-
western Iran and south-western Armenia.
• Pair 3 is correctly matched: Rohingya are an ethnic group, largely

comprising Muslims, who predominantly live in the Western Myanmar
province of Rakhine. They speak a dialect of Bengali, as opposed to
the commonly spoken Burmese language.Though they have been living in
the South East Asian country for generations, Myanmar considers them
as persons who migrated to their land during the Colonial rule. So, it
has not granted Rohingyas full citizenship.

Q17.Consider the following statements regarding Official languages of the
United Nations, recently seen in news:
1. A language can be recognised as an official language only after the

unanimous acceptance by the UN general assembly.
2. Currently English and Spanish are the only official languages of the UN.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
• United Nations has a specific procedure for a language to be
recognised as an official language of the UN. According to
that procedure, acceptance as an official language of the UN
involves adoption of a Resolution by the UN General
Assembly with a minimum two-third majority and
contribution of additional expenditure by the members
of the UNSC.
• Currently, there are six official languages of the UN
namely – Arabic, Chinese, English, French, Russian and
Spanish.

Q18.Consider the following statements regarding Logistics Ease Across
Different States (LEADS) Index:
1. It is a composite indicator to assess international trade logistics across

states and Union Territories.
2. It is published by Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

• The Logistics Ease Across Different States (LEADS) index, a
composite indicator to assess international trade logistics across
states and Union Territories is based on a stakeholders‘ survey
conducted by Deloitte for the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
• LEADS is loosely based on the World Bank‘s biannual Logistics

Performance Index (LPI)
• LEADS is based on eight parameters such as infrastructure, services,

timeliness, track and trace, competitiveness of pricing, the safety of
cargo, operating environment and regulatory process.
• In the latest survey, Gujarat topped the index, while Punjab and
Andhra Pradesh took the second and third positions, respectively., on
which India was ranked 35 among 160 countries in 2016, up from 54 in
2014.
Q27. Which among the following statements is/are correct with
reference to Project Sunrise?
1. It aims to enhance solar power generation.

2. The scheme is focused on north eastern states.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

• Project Sunrise aims at bringing the people living with HIV/AIDS into
the national mainstream and create more awareness about the disease in
these N-E states..
• It will be implemented in the North East in addition to the existing
projects of the National AIDS Control Organization (NACO).
• The project has been sponsored by US based Centre for Disease Control
and would be implemented by Family Health International 360.
• It will cover one lakh people living with HIV/AIDS by giving them treatment
and care facilities free of cost.
• Other initiatives to be covered it include enhancing capacity of state-level
institutions in high burden areas, community mobilization, intervention
among females injecting drugs.
• The project is a five-year programme (2015-2020) aimed at
complementing the ongoing National AIDS Control Programme
(NACP).

• Sunrise Project aimed at developing printed photovoltaic cells
and new manufacturing processes which can be used to make
solar energy products in India.
• A consortium of 12 Indian and British universities, including

Oxford and Cambridge, has received a £7 million grant from
the U.K. government to build self-sufficient solar-powered
buildings in remote Indian villages.

Q31. Which of the following statements with respect to the Scheduled Castes
and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Amendment Act 2015 is/are
correct?
1. It provides for the establishment of exclusive special courts and special public
prosecutors to try offences under the Act.
2. Under the act, the state government shall specify a scheme to ensure the
implementation of rights of victims and witnesses.
3. It reduced the number of offences recognised as crimes against SCs and STs.

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)1 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

SCHEDULED CASTES AND THE SCHEDULED TRIBES
(PREVENTION OF ATROCITIES) AMENDMENT ACT,
2015
WHY IN NEWS?
1. NO ABSOLUTE BAR ON ANTICIPATORY BAIL
2. ARREST OF PUBLIC SERVANT ONLY AFTER THE
APPROVAL OF THE APPOINTING AUTHORITY
3. PRELIMINARY ENQUIRY TO AVOID FALSE
IMPLICATION BY THE DSP CONCERNED

 Establishment of Exclusive Special Courts and specification of Exclusive
Special Public Prosecutors also, to exclusively try the offences under the PoA
Act to enable speedy and expeditious disposal of cases.
 Power of Special Courts and Exclusive Special Courts, to take direct
cognizance of offence and as far as possible, completion of trial of the case
within two months, from the date of filing of the charge sheet.
 Addition of chapter on the ‗Rights of Victims and Witnesses‘.
 Defining clearly the term ‗wilful negligence‘ of public servants at all levels,
starting from the registration of complaint, and covering aspects of
dereliction of duty under this Act.
 Addition of presumption to the offences –If the accused was acquainted with
the victim or his family, the court will presume that the accused was aware
of the caste or tribal identity of the victim unless proved otherwise.

 New offences of atrocities like tonsuring of head, moustache, or
similar acts which are derogatory to the dignity of members of
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, garlanding with chappals,
denying access to irrigation facilities or forest rights , etc
 Addition of certain IPC offences like hurt, grievous hurt,

intimidation, kidnapping etc., attracting less than ten years of
imprisonment, committed against members of Scheduled
Caste/Scheduled Tribe, as offences punishable under the PoA Act.
Presently, only those offences listed in IPC as attracting
punishment of 10 years or more and committed on members of
Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe are accepted as offences falling
under the PoA Act.

Q38.With respect to Champion Service Sectors, recently seen in news, consider
the following statements:
1. It aims to enhance the competitiveness of India's service sectors through the

implementation of focused and monitored Action Plans.
2. The implementation will be monitored by the Niti Aayog.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

• The Union Cabinet has approved the proposal of the Department of Commerce to give focused
attention to 12 identified Champion Services Sectors for promoting their development, and realizing
their potential.
• These include Information Technology & Information Technology enabled Services (IT & ITeS),
Tourism and Hospitality Services, Medical Value Travel, Transport and Logistics Services,
Accounting and Finance Services, Audio Visual Services, Legal Services, Communication Services,
Construction and Related Engineering Services, Environmental Services, Financial Services and
Education Services.
• The respective line Ministries/Departments shall finalize the Action Plans and the implementation
timelines along with a monitoring mechanism to monitor implementation under the overall guidance of
the Committee of Secretaries (CoS) under Cabinet Secretary.
• A dedicated fund of Rs. 5000 crores has been proposed to be established to support initiatives for
sectoral Action Plans of the Champion Sectors.
• This initiative will enhance the competitiveness of India's service sectors through the implementation
of focused and monitored Action Plans, thereby promoting GDP growth, creating more jobs and
promoting exports to global markets.

Q44.What is Indian Resource Panel (InRP) on Resource Efficiency?
(a)An inter-ministerial panel set up by NITI Aayog to promote

resource efficiency.
(b)A body responsible for preparing a strategic roadmap for utilization

of secondary resources for meeting the developmental needs of the
country.
(c)A panel set up by Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers welfare to

promote Resource efficient agriculture.
(d)An authority responsible for management of strategic resources in

the event of disasters.

• The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, on 18 November
2015 announced formation of Indian Resource Panel (InRP) on Resource
Efficiency to combat future environment burdens in the country and at a global
level where issues such as climate change, Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)
and Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (INDCs) are occupying
centrestage.
• The InRP was formed with an aim to promote sustainable development of

the country by utilizing secondary resources to meet developmental needs.
• The four of the 10 members of the InRP are former environment secretaries.
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) will
partner with relevant ministries of the Union Government, private and
public enterprises for creation of a facilitative environment for recycling to
promote sustainability and decouple growth from environment degradation.
Q49.Setu Bharatam Programme launched by the government aims to:
(a)create bridges over all the rivers in north eastern India by 2022.
(b)make all National Highways free of railway level crossings by 2019.
(c)connect all major ports in India by developing national waterways

by 2025.
(d)develop industrial corridors connecting major cities in Indian by

2030.
• Setu Bharatam Programme has been launched by the
Ministry of Road Transport & Highways in 2016 for
building bridges for safe and seamless travel on National
Highways
• It is aimed at making all National Highways free of
railway level crossings by 2019. This is being done to
prevent the frequent accidents and loss of lives at level
crossings.

Q55.Consider the following statements regarding report titled ‗Healthy
States, Progressive India‘, recently seen in news:
1. It has been prepared by the Medical Council of India.
2. It ranks states and UTs on their year-on-year incremental change in health

outcomes in addition to their overall performance with respect to each other.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
• Report titled, ―Healthy States, Progressive India‖ has been developed by NITI
Aayog, with technical assistance from the World Bank, and in consultation with
the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW),
• The report ranks states and Union territories innovatively on their year-on-year
incremental change in health outcomes, as well as, their overall performance with
respect to each other.
• It is the first attempt to establish an annual systematic tool to measure and
understand the heterogeneity and complexity of the nation‘s performance in
Health.
• States and UTs have been ranked in three categories namely, Larger States,
Smaller States, and Union Territories (UTs), to ensure comparison among similar
entities.
• Among the Larger States, Kerala, Punjab, and Tamil Nadu ranked on top in terms
of overall performance, while Jharkhand, Jammu & Kashmir, and Uttar Pradesh
are the top three ranking States in terms of annual incremental performance.

Q63.Consider the following statements with respect to Protected Area Permit:
1. It is a permit required for accessing the areas habitated only by the Particularly
Vulnerable Tribal Groups.
2. It is applicable to states lying in the North East Region (NER) of the country
only.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

• The Union Home Ministry may soon relax the protected area permit
(PAP) regime to enable foreign tourists to access border areas.
• Under the Foreigners (Protected Areas) Order, 1958, all areas falling
between the ‗Inner line‘ and the International Border of the State have
been declared as a ‗Protected Area,‘ applicable to all of Arunachal
Pradesh and Sikkim, parts of Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir,
Manipur, Mizoram, Nagaland, Rajasthan and Uttarakhand.
• Every foreigner, except a citizen of Bhutan, who wants to enter and stay
in a Protected Area, is required to get a special permit.
• Citizens of Afghanistan, China and Pakistan and foreign nationals of

Pakistani origin are not issued the permit without the Home Ministry‘s
approval.

Q70. Consider the following statements with respect to MAA (Mothers
Absolute Affection) programme:
1. Its goal is to increase the number of institutional deliveries in states.

2. It has been launched by the Ministry of Women and Child
Development.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
• MAA - "Mother‘s Absolute Affection" is a nationwide
programme of the Ministry of Health and Family
Welfare in an attempt to bring undiluted focus on
promotion of breastfeeding and provision of counselling
services for supporting breastfeeding through health
systems.
• The programme has been named ‗MAA‘ to signify the
support a lactating mother requires from family members and
at health facilities to breastfeed successfully.
• MAA is a country wide intensified breastfeeding
promotion campaign targeting All States & Union
Territories (UTs).
Q71.Consider the following statements with respect to the National Testing
Agency, recently seen in news:
1. It has been created as an autonomous organization to conduct entrance

examinations for higher educational institutions.
2. It will be chaired by the Union Human Resources Development Minister.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

• The Union Cabinet has approved creation of National Testing Agency
(NTA) as a Society registered under the Indian Societies Registration
Act, 1860, and as an autonomous and self-sustained premier testing
organization to conduct entrance examinations for higher
educational institutions.
• The NTA would initially conduct those entrance examinations which
are currently being conducted by the CBSE. Other examinations will
be taken up gradually after NTA is fully geared up.
• The entrance examinations will be conducted in online mode at least
twice a year, thereby giving adequate opportunity to candidates to bring
out their best.
• In order to serve the requirements of the rural students, it would
locate the centres at sub-district/district level and as far as possible
would undertake hands-on training to the students
• NTA will be chaired by an eminent educationist appointed by
MHRD.

Q96. Consider the following recently conducted defence exercises and
the country involved apart from India:
Exercise Country
1. Varuna France
2. Vajra Prahar USA
3. SAMPRITI Bangladesh
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
o Varuna – It is an annual joint naval exercise between India and
France.
o Vajra Prahar – It is joint military excercise between India and
USA.
o SAMPRITI – It is joint military excercise between India and
Bangladesh.

Q98. Consider the following statements regarding Armed Force
Special Powers Act (AFSPA):
1. The power to declare an area as ‗disturbed area‘ has been given to
Governor of that State or the administrator of that UT or Central
government.
2. It is currently in force in all the north eastern states.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
WHY IN NEWS?
• The Centre revoked it in Meghalaya on April 1, 2018.
• In Arunachal Pradesh, the impact of AFSPA was reduced to eight police
stations instead of 16 police stations and in Tirap, Longding and Changlang
districts bordering Assam.
Armed Forces (Special Powers) Amendment Act, 1958

• It is effective in the whole of Nagaland, Assam, Manipur (excluding seven
assembly constituencies of Imphal) and parts of Arunachal Pradesh
• AFSPA gives armed forces the power to maintain public order in ―disturbed
areas‖.
• They have the authority to prohibit a gathering of five or more persons in an
area, can use force or even open fire after giving due warning if they feel a
person is in contravention of the law. If reasonable suspicion exists, the army can
also arrest a person without a warrant; enter or search a premises without a
warrant; and ban the possession of firearms.

• DISTURBED AREA - An area can be disturbed due to differences or
disputes between members of different religious, racial, language or
regional groups or castes or communities. The Central Government,
or the Governor of the State or administrator of the Union Territory
can declare the whole or part of the State or Union Territory as a
disturbed area. A suitable notification would have to be made in the
Official Gazette. As per Section 3 , it can be invoked in places where
―the use of armed forces in aid of the civil power is necessary‖.
• Once declared ‗disturbed‘, the region has to maintain status quo for a
minimum of three months, according to The Disturbed Areas (Special
Courts) Act, 1976.
• State government‘s role: The state governments can suggest whether

the act is required to be enforced or not. But under Section (3) of the act,
their opinion can be overruled by the governor or the Centre.

Q99. The Madhavpur Mela of Gujarat shares its connect to this tribe
belonging to Arunachal Pradesh. This tribe traces its ancestry to the
legendary King Bhishmak and through him to his daughter Rukmini
and Lord Krishna.
Which of the following tribes is being described in the passage given

above?
(a)Chakma
(b)Asur
(c)Mishmi
(d)Bhotia

• Ministry of Culture recently organized the Madhavpur
Mela in Madhavpur Ghed, District Porbandar in Gujarat.
The Madhavpur Mela of Gujarat shares it‘s connection to
the Mishmi Tribe of Arunachal Pradesh.

THANKS
•
ALL THE VERY BEST!!

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