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DATE : 06/05/2018 Test Booklet Code

SS
LAACH

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005


Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720

for
NEET (UG) - 2018
Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and this Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries
4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response,
one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
2. Use Blue / Black Ballpoint Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.
3. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
4. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before
leaving the Room / Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
5. The CODE for this Booklet is SS.
6. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on
the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the
Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
7. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admission Card to the Invigilator.
8. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her
seat.
9. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
10. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their
conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and
Regulations of this examination.
11. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
12. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet
in the Attendance Sheet.

1
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-SS) LAACH

1. A battery consists of a variable number 'n' of 3. A carbon resistor of (47 ± 4.7) k is to be


identical cells (having internal resistance 'r' marked with rings of different colours for its
each) which are connected in series. The identification. The colour code sequence will
terminals of the battery are short-circuited be
and the current I is measured. Which of the (1) Green – Orange – Violet – Gold
graphs shows the correct relationship
(2) Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold
between I and n?
(3) Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver
(4) Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver
I I Answer ( 3 )

(1) (2) S o l . (47 ± 4.7) k = 47 × 103 ± 10%


 Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver
O O
n n 4. The kinetic energies of a planet in an
elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B
and C are KA, KB and KC, respectively. AC is
I I the major axis and SB is perpendicular to AC
at the position of the Sun S as shown in the
(3) (4) figure. Then
O O B
n n
Answer ( 4 )
A C
S
n 
Sol. I  
nr r
(1) KB > KA > KC (2) KB < KA < KC
So, I is independent of n and I is constant.
 I (3) KA > KB > KC (4) KA < KB < KC
Answer ( 3 )

Sol. B
VC
perihelion
A C
O S
n aphelion
VA
2. A set of 'n' equal resistors, of value 'R' each,
are connected in series to a battery of emf 'E' Point A is perihelion and C is aphelion.
and internal resistance 'R'. The current drawn
is I. Now, the 'n' resistors are connected in So, VA > VB > VC
parallel to the same battery. Then the current So, KA > KB > KC
drawn from battery becomes 10 I. The value of
5. If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller
'n' is
and the universal gravitational constant were
(1) 9 (2) 20 ten times larger in magnitude, which of the
(3) 11 (4) 10 following is not correct?
Answer ( 4 ) (1) ‘g’ on the Earth will not change
E (2) Time period of a simple pendulum on the
Sol. I  ...(i) Earth would decrease
nR  R
(3) Walking on the ground would become
E
10 I  ...(ii) more difficult
R
R (4) Raindrops will fall faster
n
Dividing (ii) by (i), Answer ( 1 )

(n  1)R S o l . If Universal Gravitational constant becomes


10  ten times, then G = 10 G
1 
 n  1 R So, acceleration due to gravity increases.
 
After solving the equation, n = 10 i.e. (1) is wrong option.

2
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-SS) LAACH
6. A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling 9. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a
motion a body possesses translational kinetic plane surface of a material of refractive index
energy (K t ) as well as rotational kinetic ''. At a particular angle of incidence 'i', it is
energy (K r ) simultaneously. The ratio found that the reflected and refracted rays are
Kt : (Kt + Kr) for the sphere is perpendicular to each other. Which of the
(1) 2 : 5 (2) 10 : 7 following options is correct for this situation?
(3) 5 : 7 (4) 7 : 10  1
(1) i  tan1  
Answer ( 3 ) 
1  1
S o l . Kt  mv 2 (2) i  sin1  
2 
2 (3) Reflected light is polarised with its
1 1 1 1 2  v 
Kt  Kr  mv2  I2  mv2   mr 2   electric vector perpendicular to the plane
2 2 2 25  r 
of incidence
7
 mv2 (4) Reflected light is polarised with its
10 electric vector parallel to the plane of
incidence
Kt 5
So,  Answer ( 3 )
Kt  Kr 7
S o l . When reflected light rays and refracted rays
7. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its are perpendicular, reflected light is polarised
symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the with electric field vector perpendicular to the
sphere is increased keeping its mass same. plane of incidence.
Which of the following physical quantities
would remain constant for the sphere?
(1) Angular momentum
i
(2) Rotational kinetic energy
(3) Moment of inertia
(4) Angular velocity

Answer ( 1 )
S o l . ex = 0
Also, tan i =  (Brewster angle)
dL
So, 0 10. In Young's double slit experiment the
dt
i.e. L = constant separation d between the slits is 2 mm, the
wavelength  of the light used is 5896 Å and
So angular momentum remains constant.
distance D between the screen and slits is
8. An astronomical refracting telescope will 100 cm. It is found that the angular width of
have large angular magnification and high the fringes is 0.20°. To increase the fringe
angular resolution, when it has an objective angular width to 0.21° (with same  and D) the
lens of separation between the slits needs to be
(1) Small focal length and small diameter changed to
(2) Large focal length and large diameter (1) 1.7 mm (2) 2.1 mm
(3) Large focal length and small diameter (3) 1.9 mm (4) 1.8 mm
(4) Small focal length and large diameter Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 2 ) 
S o l . Angular width 
f0 d
S o l . For telescope, angular magnification =
fE 
0.20  …(i)
So, focal length of objective lens should be 2 mm
large. 
0.21  …(ii)
D d
Angular resolution = should be large.
1.22 0.20 d
Dividing we get, 0.21  2 mm
So, objective should have large focal length
(f0) and large diameter D.  d = 1.9 mm

3
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-SS) LAACH
11. The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies 13. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working
with its temperature (T), as shown in the between the freezing point and boiling point of
graph. The ratio of work done by the gas, to water, is
the heat absorbed by it, when it undergoes a (1) 12.5% (2) 6.25%
change from state A to state B, is
(3) 20% (4) 26.8%
Answer ( 4 )

 T 
S o l . Efficiency of ideal heat engine,    1 2 
 T1 
T2 : Sink temperature
2 1
(1) (2) T1 : Source temperature
7 3
 T 
2 2 %   1  2   100
(3) (4)  T1 
3 5
 273 
Answer ( 4 )   1   100
 373 
S o l . Given process is isobaric
 100 
   100  26.8%
dQ  n Cp dT  373 
14. At what temperature will the rms speed of
5  oxygen molecules become just sufficient for
dQ  n  R  dT
2  escaping from the Earth's atmosphere?

dW  P dV = n RdT (Given :
Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = 2.76 × 10–26 kg
dW nRdT 2
Required ratio    Boltzmann's constant kB = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1)
dQ  5  5
n  R  dT (1) 1.254 × 104 K (2) 5.016 × 104 K
2 
(3) 8.360 × 104 K (4) 2.508 × 104 K
12. The fundamental frequency in an open organ
pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed Answer ( 3 )
organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ S o l . Vescape = 11200 m/s
pipe is 20 cm, the length of the open organ
Say at temperature T it attains Vescape
pipe is
(1) 16 cm (2) 12.5 cm 3kB T
So,  11200 m/s
(3) 8 cm (4) 13.2 cm mO2

Answer ( 4 ) On solving,
S o l . For closed organ pipe, third harmonic
T = 8.360 × 104 K
3v
 15. A toy car with charge q moves on a
4l frictionless horizontal plane surface under 
For open organ pipe, fundamental frequency the influence of a uniform
 electric field E .
Due to the force q E , its velocity increases
v
 from 0 to 6 m/s in one second duration. At
2l 
that instant the direction of the field is
Given, reversed. The car continues to move for two
3v v
more seconds under the influence of this field.
 The average velocity and the average speed
4l 2l 
of the toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are
4l 2l respectively
 l  
32 3 (1) 1.5 m/s, 3 m/s (2) 1 m/s, 3.5 m/s

2  20 (3) 1 m/s, 3 m/s (4) 2 m/s, 4 m/s


  13.33 cm
3 Answer ( 3 )
4
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-SS) LAACH

a t=1 –a In non-inertial frame,


Sol. t = 0 t=2
A –1 B N sin  = ma ...(i)
v=0 v = 6 ms v=0 N cos  = mg ...(ii)
C –a
t=3
a
v = –6 ms
–1 tan  
g
60 a = g tan 
Acceleration a   6 ms2
1 17. A student measured the diameter of a small
For t = 0 to t = 1 s, steel ball using a screw gauge of least count
0.001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and
1
S1   6(1)2 = 3 m ...(i) zero of circular scale division coincides with
2 25 divisions above the reference level. If
For t = 1 s to t = 2 s, screw gauge has a zero error of –0.004 cm,
the correct diameter of the ball is
1
S2  6.1   6(1)2  3 m ...(ii) (1) 0.529 cm
2
(2) 0.053 cm
For t = 2 s to t = 3 s,
(3) 0.525 cm
1
S3  0   6(1)2  3 m ...(iii) (4) 0.521 cm
2 Answer ( 1 )
Total displacement S = S1 + S2 + S3 = 3 m S o l . Diameter of the ball
3 = MSR + CSR × (Least count) – Zero error
Average velocity   1 ms 1
3 = 0.5 cm + 25 × 0.001 – (–0.004)
Total distance travelled = 9 m = 0.5 + 0.025 + 0.004
9 = 0.529 cm
Average speed   3 ms 1 
3 18. The moment of the force, F  4iˆ  5 ˆj  6kˆ at
16. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth (2, 0, –3), about the point (2, –2, –2), is given
inclined wedge ABC of inclination  as shown by
in the figure. The wedge is given an
acceleration 'a' towards the right. The (1) 7iˆ  4 ˆj  8kˆ (2) 7iˆ  8ˆj  4kˆ
relation between a and  for the block to
remain stationary on the wedge is (3) 4iˆ  ˆj  8kˆ (4) 8iˆ  4 ˆj  7kˆ

A Answer ( 1 )
m
Sol. Y

a
 F
C B
(1) a = g tan  (2) a = g cos  A r  r0
P
g g
(3) a  (4) a  r0
sin  cosec  r
Answer ( 1 )
O X
Sol. N cos
   
  (r  r0 )  F ...(i)
N
  ˆ  (2iˆ  2 ˆj  2k)
ˆ
r  r0  (2iˆ  0ˆj  3k)

ma N sin  0iˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ
(pseudo)  ˆi ˆj kˆ

  0 2 1  7iˆ  4 ˆj  8kˆ
mg a 4 5 6

5
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-SS) LAACH
19. An em wave is propagating in a medium with Sol.

a velocity V  Viˆ . The instantaneous f = 15 cm
oscillating electric field of this em wave is O 40 cm
along +y axis. Then the direction of oscillating
magnetic field of the em wave will be along
(1) –x direction (2) –y direction
(3) +z direction (4) –z direction
1 1 1
Answer ( 3 )  
f v1 u
  
Sol. E  B  V 1 1 1
–  –
15 v1 40

ˆ  (B)  Viˆ
(Ej) 1 1 1
  

v1 –15 40
So, B  Bkˆ
v1 = –24 cm
Direction of propagation is along +z direction.
When object is displaced by 20 cm towards
20. The magnetic potential energy stored in a
mirror.
certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in
the inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of Now,
inductance
u2 = –20
(1) 13.89 H
(2) 1.389 H 1 1 1
 
f v2 u2
(3) 138.88 H
(4) 0.138 H 1 1 1
 –
–15 v2 20
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Energy stored in inductor 1 1 1
 –
v2 20 15
1 2
U Ll
2 v2 = –60 cm
1
25  10 –3   L  (60  10 –3 )2 So, image shifts away from mirror by
2
= 60 – 24 = 36 cm.
25  2  106  10–3
L 22. The refractive index of the material of a
3600
500 prism is 2 and the angle of the prism is 30°.
 One of the two refracting surfaces of the
36
prism is made a mirror inwards, by silver
= 13.89 H coating. A beam of monochromatic light
21. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm entering the prism from the other face will
from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. retrace its path (after reflection from the
If the object is displaced through a distance silvered surface) if its angle of incidence on
of 20 cm towards the mirror, the the prism is
displacement of the image will be
(1) Zero
(1) 36 cm towards the mirror
(2) 30°
(2) 30 cm towards the mirror
(3) 36 cm away from the mirror (3) 45°

(4) 30 cm away from the mirror (4) 60°


Answer ( 3 ) Answer ( 3 )
6
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-SS) LAACH

S o l . For retracing its path, light ray should be (20  0)


normally incident on silvered face. IC 
4  103
IC = 5 × 10–3 = 5 mA
30° Vi = VBE + IBRB

M 60° Vi = 0 + IBRB
i 30°
20 = IB × 500 × 103
20
IB   40 A
 2 500  103
IC 25  103
Applying Snell's law at M,    125
Ib 40  106
sin i 2 24. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature

sin30 1 due to heating
1 (1) Affects the overall V - I characteristics of
 sin i  2  p-n junction
2
(2) Does not affect resistance of p-n junction
1
sin i  i.e. i = 45° (3) Affects only forward resistance
2
(4) Affects only reverse resistance
23. In the circuit shown in the figure, the input
voltage Vi is 20 V, VBE = 0 and VCE = 0. The Answer ( 1 )
values of IB, IC and  are given by S o l . Due to heating, number of electron-hole pairs
20 V will increase, so overall resistance of diode
will change.
RC 4 k
Due to which forward biasing and reversed
C biasing both are changed.
RB
Vi 25. In the combination of the following gates the
500 k B
E output Y can be written in terms of inputs A
and B as
A
(1) IB = 40 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 125 B
Y
(2) IB = 20 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 250
(3) IB = 25 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 200
(4) IB = 40 A, IC = 10 mA,  = 250 (1) A  B
Answer ( 1 )
(2) A  B  A  B
S o l . VBE = 0
(3) A  B  A  B
VCE = 0
Vb = 0 (4) A  B
20 V Answer ( 3 )
A
IC RC = 4 k Sol. A AB
B
RB B
Vi Vb Y
Ib 500 k A

AB
B
Y  (A  B  A  B)

7
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-SS) LAACH

26. The power radiated by a black body is P and For wire 1,


it radiates maximum energy at wavelength, 0.
If the temperature of the black body is now  F 
l    3l …(i)
changed so that it radiates maximum energy  AY 
3
at wavelength  0 , the power radiated by it For wire 2,
4
becomes nP. The value of n is
F l
Y
81 3A l
(1)
256
256  F 
(2)  l   l …(ii)
81  3AY 

4 From equation (i) & (ii),


(3)
3
 F   F 
l    3l   l
3  AY   3AY 
(4)
4
 F  9F
Answer ( 2 )
28. A sample of 0.1 g of water at 100°C and
S o l . We know,
normal pressure (1.013 × 105 Nm–2) requires
max T  constant (Wien's law) 54 cal of heat energy to convert to steam at
100°C. If the volume of the steam produced is
So, max1 T1  max2 T2 167.1 cc, the change in internal energy of the
sample, is
3 0 (1) 84.5 J
 0 T  T
4
(2) 42.2 J
4
 T  T (3) 208.7 J
3
(4) 104.3 J
4 4
P  T  4 256
So, 2        Answer ( 3 )
P1  T  3 81
S o l . Q = U + W
27. Two wires are made of the same material and
have the same volume. The first wire has  54 × 4.18 = U + 1.013 × 105(167.1 × 10–6 – 0)
cross-sectional area A and the second wire  U = 208.7 J
has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of
29. A small sphere of radius 'r' falls from rest in a
the first wire is increased by l on applying a
viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced
force F, how much force is needed to stretch
due to viscous force. The rate of production of
the socond wire by the same amount?
heat when the sphere attains its terminal
(1) F velocity, is proportional to
(2) 4 F (1) r4
(3) 6 F (2) r5
(4) 9 F (3) r2
Answer ( 4 ) (4) r3
S o l . Wire 1 : Answer ( 2 )
F 2
A, 3l S o l . Power = 6 rVT iVT  6 rVT
Wire 2 :
VT  r 2
F
3A, l  Power  r 5

8
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-SS) LAACH

30. A metallic rod of mass per unit length 32. A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically
0.5 kg m–1 is lying horizontally on a smooth between the poles of an electromagnet. When
inclined plane which makes an angle of 30° the current in the electromagnet is switched
with the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to on, then the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out
slide down by flowing a current through it of the horizontal magnetic field. Hence the
when a magnetic field of induction 0.25 T is rod gains gravitational potential energy. The
acting on it in the vertical direction. The work required to do this comes from
current flowing in the rod to keep it stationary (1) The induced electric field due to the
is changing magnetic field
(2) The lattice structure of the material of the
(1) 11.32 A
rod
(2) 14.76 A (3) The magnetic field
(4) The current source
(3) 5.98 A
Answer ( 4 )
(4) 7.14 A S o l . Energy of current source will be converted
into potential energy of the rod.
Answer ( 1 )
33. Current sensitivity of a moving coil
S o l . For equilibrium, galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage
° sensitivity (angular deflection per unit voltage
B 30
mg sin30  Il Bcos 30 s applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the
co galvanometer is
llB
° 30° llB (1) 500  (2) 250 
I
mg
tan30 30
n
lB si (3) 25  (4) 40 
g
m 30° Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Current sensitivity
0.5  9.8
  11.32 A NBA
0.25  3 IS 
C
31. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 F and a Voltage sensitivity
resistor 50  are connected in series across NBA
VS 
a source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power CRG
loss in the circuit is So, resistance of galvanometer
(1) 1.13 W IS 51 5000
RG     250 
VS 20  103 20
(2) 2.74 W
34. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in
(3) 0.43 W a glass tube. The length of the air column in
this tube can be adjusted by a variable piston.
(4) 0.79 W At room temperature of 27ºC two successive
resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm
Answer ( 4 ) of column length. If the frequency of the
tuning fork is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in
2
V  air at 27ºC is
S o l . Pav   RMS  R
 Z  (1) 300 m/s (2) 350 m/s
(3) 339 m/s (4) 330 m/s
2

2 1 
Z  R   L   56  Answer ( 3 )
 C 
S o l . v = 2 () [L2 – L1]
2 = 2 × 320 [73 – 20] × 10–2
 
10  = 339.2 ms–1
 Pav   50  0.79 W

  
2 56 
 = 339 m/s

9
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-SS) LAACH

35. The electrostatic force between the metal 1 eE 2


plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor Sol. h  t
2 m
C having a charge Q and area A, is
2hm
(1) Inversely proportional to the distance  t
eE
between the plates
(2) Proportional to the square root of the  t  m as ‘e’ is same for electron and
distance between the plates proton.
(3) Linearly proportional to the distance ∵ Electron has smaller mass so it will take
between the plates smaller time.
(4) Independent of the distance between the 38. An electron of mass m with an initial velocity
plates

Answer ( 4 ) V  V0 ˆi (V 0 > 0) enters an electric field
S o l . For isolated capacitor Q = Constant 
2 E  –E0 ˆi (E0 = constant > 0) at t = 0. If 0 is its
Q
Fplate 
2A0 de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its de-
Broglie wavelength at time t is
F is Independent of the distance between
plates. (1) 0 (2) 0t
36. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a  eE0  0
sufficiently high building and is moving freely (3) 0  1  t (4)
 mV0   eE0 
to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. 1 t
 mV 0 
The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum
is 20 m/s2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean Answer ( 4 )
position. The time period of oscillation is S o l . Initial de-Broglie wavelength
(1) 1 s
h
0  ...(i)
(2) 2 s mV0
(3)  s
E0
(4) 2 s
V0
Answer ( 3 ) F

S o l . |a| = 2y Acceleration of electron


 20 = 2(5)
eE0
  = 2 rad/s a
m
2 2 Velocity after time ‘t’
T  s
 2
 eE0 
37. An electron falls from rest through a vertical V   V0  t
distance h in a uniform and vertically upward  m 
directed electric field E. The direction of h h
electric field is now reversed, keeping its So,   
mV  eE 
magnitude the same. A proton is allowed to m  V0  0 t
 m 
fall from rest in it through the same vertical
distance h. The time of fall of the electron, in h 0
  …(ii)
comparison to the time of fall of the proton is  eE0   eE0 
mV0 1  t 1  t
(1) Equal  mV0   mV0 
(2) 10 times greater Divide (ii) by (i),
(3) 5 times greater 0

(4) Smaller  eE0 
1  t
Answer ( 4 )  mV0 

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39. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy S o l . Number of nuclei remaining = 600 – 450 = 150
of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen
atom, is n
N  1

(1) 1 : –2 N0  2 
(2) 2 : –1
(3) 1 : –1 t
150  1  t 1/2
(4) 1 : 1 
600  2 
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . KE = –(total energy)
t
2
So, Kinetic energy : total energy = 1 : –1  1  1  t 1/2
2  2
40. When the light of frequency 20 (where 0 is    
threshold frequency), is incident on a metal
plate, the maximum velocity of electrons t = 2t1/2 = 2 × 10
emitted is v 1 . When the frequency of the
incident radiation is increased to 5 0, the = 20 minute
maximum velocity of electrons emitted from
42. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin
the same plate is v2. The ratio of v1 to v2 is
circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 4 : 1 have the same mass M and radius R. They all
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 2 spin with the same angular speed  about
their own symmetry axes. The amounts of
Answer ( 4 )
work (W) required to bring them to rest, would
1 satisfy the relation
S o l . E  W0  mv2
2
(1) WA > WC > WB
1
h(20 )  h0  mv12
2 (2) WB > WA > WC
1
h 0  mv12 …(i) (3) WA > WB > WC
2
1 (4) WC > WB > WA
h(50 )  h0  mv22
2
Answer ( 4 )
1
4h0  mv22 …(ii)
2 S o l . Work done required to bring them rest
Divide (i) by (ii),
W = KE
1 v12

4 v22 1 2
W  I
2
v1 1

v2 2
W  I for same 
41. For a radioactive material, half-life is 10
minutes. If initially there are 600 number of 2 1
nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the WA : WB : WC  MR2 : MR2 : MR2
5 2
disintegration of 450 nuclei is
(1) 15
2 1
(2) 30 = : :1
5 2
(3) 10
= 4 : 5 : 10
(4) 20
Answer ( 4 )  WC > WB > WA

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43. A body initially at rest and sliding along a 44. Which one of the following statements is
frictionless track from a height h (as shown in incorrect?
the figure) just completes a vertical circle of
(1) Coefficient of sliding friction has
diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to
dimensions of length.

(2) Frictional force opposes the relative


motion.
h B (3) Limiting value of static friction is directly
proportional to normal reaction.
A (4) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding
friction.

5 Answer ( 1 )
(1) D
4
S o l . Coefficient of sliding friction has no
dimension.
7
(2) D f = sN
5

(3) D f
 s 
N
3
(4) D 45. A moving block having mass m, collides with
2
another stationary block having mass 4m. The
Answer ( 1 ) lighter block comes to rest after collision.
When the initial velocity of the lighter block is
v, then the value of coefficient of restitution
Sol. (e) will be

(1) 0.4
h
B
(2) 0.8
vL (3) 0.25
A
(4) 0.5
As track is frictionless, so total mechanical Answer ( 3 )
energy will remain constant
S o l . According to law of conservation of linear
T.M.EI =T.M.EF momentum,

1 mv  4m  0  4mv  0
0  mgh  mvL2  0
2
v
v 
4
vL2
h
2g
v
Relative velocity of separation 4
e 
For completing the vertical circle, vL  5gR Relative velocity of approach v

5gR 5 5 1
h  R D e  0.25
2g 2 4 4

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46. The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs Answer ( 3 )


of many vertebrates is an example of
Sol.  IAIO, IBIO - Dominant–recessive
(1) Adaptive radiation
relationship
(2) Convergent evolution
 IAIB - Codominance
(3) Analogy
 IA, IB & IO - 3-different allelic
(4) Homology
forms of a gene
Answer ( 4 )
(multiple allelism)
S o l . In different vertebrates, bones of forelimbs
are similar but their forelimbs are adapted in 50. Among the following sets of examples for
different way as per their adaptation, hence divergent evolution, select the incorrect
example of homology. option :
47. In which disease does mosquito transmitted (1) Eye of octopus, bat and man
pathogen cause chronic inflammation of
lymphatic vessels? (2) Brain of bat, man and cheetah

(1) Amoebiasis (3) Heart of bat, man and cheetah


(2) Ringworm disease (4) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah
(3) Ascariasis
Answer ( 1 )
(4) Elephantiasis
S o l . Divergent evolution occurs in the same
Answer ( 4 )
structure, example - forelimbs, heart, brain of
S o l . Elephantiasis is caused by roundworm, vertebrates which have developed along
Wuchereria bancrofti and it is transmitted by different directions due to adaptation to
Culex mosquito.
different needs whereas eye of octopus, bat
48. Conversion of milk to curd improves its and man are examples of analogous organs
nutritional value by increasing the amount of showing convergent evolution.
(1) Vitamin E
51. Which of the following is not an autoimmune
(2) Vitamin B12 disease?
(3) Vitamin A
(1) Vitiligo
(4) Vitamin D
(2) Alzheimer's disease
Answer ( 2 )
(3) Rheumatoid arthritis
Sol.  Curd is more nourishing than milk.
 It has enriched presence of vitamins (4) Psoriasis
specially Vit-B12.
Answer ( 2 )
49. Which of the following characteristics
represent ‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in S o l . Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune
humans? disorder in which antibodies are produced
against the synovial membrane and cartilage.
a. Dominance
b. Co-dominance Vitiligo causes white patches on skin also
characterised as autoimmune disorder.
c. Multiple allele
d. Incomplete dominance Psoriasis is a skin disease that causes itchy
or sore patches of thick red skin and is also
e. Polygenic inheritance
autoimmune whereas Alzheimer's disease is
(1) a, c and e (2) b, d and e due to deficiency of neurotransmitter
(3) a, b and c (4) b, c and e acetylcholine.

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52. Match the items given in Column I with those a b c d


in Column II and select the correct option
(1) v iv i iii
given below :
(2) v iv i ii
Column I Column II
(3) iv i ii iii
a. Glycosuria i. Accumulation of
uric acid in joints (4) iv v ii iii
b. Gout ii. Mass of crystallised Answer ( 3 )
salts within the
S o l . Ultrafiltration refers to filtration of very fine
kidney
particles having molecular weight less than
c. Renal calculi iii. Inflammation in 68,000 daltons through malpighian corpuscle.
glomeruli
Concentration of urine refers to water
d. Glomerular iv. Presence of in absorption from glomerular filtrate as a result
nephritis glucose urine of hyperosmolarity in the medulla created by
a b c d counter-current mechanism in Henle's loop.
(1) iv i ii iii Urine is carried from kidney to bladder
(2) ii iii i iv through ureter.

(3) i ii iii iv Urinary bladder is concerned with storage of


urine.
(4) iii ii iv i
54. The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Glycosuria denotes presence of glucose in the (1) is a post-coital contraceptive.
urine. This is observed when blood glucose (2) is an IUD.
level rises above 180 mg/100 ml of blood, this
(3) increases the concentration of estrogen
is called renal threshold value for glucose.
and prevents ovulation in females.
Gout is due to deposition of uric acid crystals
in the joint. (4) blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus,
preventing eggs from getting implanted.
Renal calculi are precipitates of calcium
phosphate produced in the pelvis of the Answer ( 4 )
kidney. S o l . Saheli is the first non-steroidal, once a week
Glomerular nephritis is the inflammatory pill. It contains centchroman and its
condition of glomerulus characterised by functioning is based upon selective Estrogen
proteinuria and haematuria. Receptor modulation.
53. Match the items given in Column I with those 55. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived
in Column II and select the correct option from
given below:
(1) ectoderm and endoderm
Column I Column II
(2) mesoderm and trophoblast
(Function) (Part of Excretory
system) (3) endoderm and mesoderm

a. Ultrafiltration i. Henle's loop (4) ectoderm and mesoderm


b. Concentration ii. Ureter Answer ( 4 )
of urine S o l . The extraembryonic or foetal membranes are
c. Transport of iii. Urinary bladder amnion, chorion, allantois and Yolk sac.
urine Amnion is formed from mesoderm on outer
side and ectoderm on inner side.
d. Storage of iv. Malpighian
urine corpuscle Chorion is formed from trophoectoderm and
mesoderm whereas allantois and Yolk sac
v. Proximal
membrane have mesoderm on outerside and
convoluted tubule endoderm in inner side.
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56. The difference between spermiogenesis and Intrinsic factor is essential for the absorption
spermiation is of vitamin B 12 and its deficiency causes
(1) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are pernicious anaemia.
formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa 59. Match the items given in Column I with those
are released from sertoli cells into the in Column II and select the correct option
cavity of seminiferous tubules. given below :
(2) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from Column I Column II
sertoli cells are released into the cavity of a. Fibrinogen (i) Osmotic balance
seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation
spermatozoa are formed. b. Globulin (ii) Blood clotting

(3) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are c. Albumin (iii) Defence


formed, while in spermiation spermatids mechanism
are formed. a b c
(4) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed, (1) (ii) (iii) (i)
while in spermiation spermatozoa are (2) (i) (iii) (ii)
formed.
(3) (i) (ii) (iii)
Answer ( 1 )
(4) (iii) (ii) (i)
S o l . Spermiogenesis is transformation of spermatids
into spermatozoa whereas spermiation is the Answer ( 1 )
release of the sperms from sertoli cells into the S o l . Fibrinogen forms fibrin strands during
lumen of seminiferous tubule. coagulation. These strands forms a network
57. Hormones secreted by the placenta to and the meshes of which are occupied by
maintain pregnancy are blood cells, this structure finally forms a clot.
(1) hCG, progestogens, estrogens, Antibodies are derived from -Globulin fraction
glucocorticoids of plasma proteins which means globulins are
involved in defence mechanisms.
(2) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens
(3) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin Albumin is a plasma protein mainly
responsible for BCOP.
(4) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin
60. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle
Answer ( 2 ) contraction because it
S o l . Placenta releases human chorionic
(1) Prevents the formation of bonds between
gonadotropic hormone (hCG) which stimulates
the myosin cross bridges and the actin
the Corpus luteum during pregnancy to release
filament.
estrogen and progesterone and also rescues
corpus luteum from regression. Human (2) Detaches the myosin head from the actin
placental lactogen (hPL) is involved in growth filament.
of body of mother and breast. Progesterone (3) Activates the myosin ATPase by binding to
maintains pregnancy, keeps the uterus silent it.
by increasing uterine threshold to contractile (4) Binds to troponin to remove the masking
stimuli. of active sites on actin for myosin.
58. Which of the following gastric cells indirectly Answer ( 4 )
help in erythropoiesis?
Sol.  Signal for contraction increase Ca++ level
(1) Parietal cells (2) Goblet cells many folds in the sarcoplasm.
(3) Mucous cells (4) Chief cells  Ca++ now binds with sub-unit of troponin
Answer ( 1 ) (troponin "C") which is masking the active
S o l . Parietal or oxyntic cell is a source of HCl and site on actin filament and displaces the
intrinsic factor. HCl converts iron present in sub-unit of troponin.
diet from ferric to ferrous form so that it can  Once the active site is exposed, head of the
be absorbed easily and used during myosin attaches and initiate contraction by
erythropoiesis. sliding the actin over myosin.

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61. Which of the following is an occupational S o l . Amensalism/Antibiosis (0, –)


respiratory disorder?  Antibiotics are chemicals secreted by one
(1) Emphysema (2) Botulism microbial group (eg : Penicillium) which
(3) Silicosis (4) Anthracis harm other microbes (eg : Staphylococcus)

Answer ( 3 )  It has no effect on Penicillium or the


organism which produces it.
S o l . Silicosis is due to excess inhalation of silica
dust in the workers involved grinding or stone 64. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain
breaking industries. the drug “Smack”?

Long exposure can give rise to inflammation (1) Leaves (2) Roots
leading to fibrosis and thus causing serious (3) Latex (4) Flowers
lung damage. Answer ( 3 )
Anthrax is a serious infectious disease caused S o l . ‘Smack’ also called as brown sugar/Heroin is
by Bacillus anthracis. It commonly affects formed by acetylation of morphine. It is
domestic and wild animals. Emphysema is a obtained from the latex of unripe capsule of
chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are Poppy plant.
damaged due to which respiratory surface is
decreased. 65. In a growing population of a country,

Botulism is a form of food poisoning caused (1) pre-reproductive individuals are less than
by Clostridium botulinum. the reproductive individuals.

62. Match the items given in Column I with those (2) reproductive and pre-reproductive
in Column II and select the correct option individuals are equal in number.
given below : (3) reproductive individuals are less than the
Column-I Column-II post-reproductive individuals.

a. Eutrophication i. UV-B radiation (4) pre-reproductive individuals are more


than the reproductive individuals.
b. Sanitary landfill ii. Deforestation
Answer ( 4 )
c. Snow blindness iii. Nutrient
S o l . Whenever the pre-reproductive individuals or
enrichment
the younger population size is larger than the
d. Jhum cultivation iv. Waste disposal reproductive group, the population will be an
a b c d increasing population.
(1) i ii iv iii 66. All of the following are included in ‘ex-situ
conservation’ except
(2) iii iv i ii
(1) Seed banks (2) Botanical gardens
(3) i iii iv ii
(3) Sacred groves (4) Wildlife safari parks
(4) ii i iii iv
Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 2 )
Sol.  Sacred groves – in-situ conservation.
S o l . a. Eutrophication iii. Nutrient
enrichment  Represent pristine forest patch as
protected by Tribal groups.
b. Sanitary landfill iv. Waste disposal
67. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding
c. Snow blindness i. UV-B radiation
strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding
d. Jhum cultivation ii. Deforestation sequence of the transcribed mRNA?
63. Which one of the following population (1) UCCAUAGCGUA (2) ACCUAUGCGAU
interactions is widely used in medical science
(3) UGGTUTCGCAT (4) AGGUAUCGCAU
for the production of antibiotics?
Answer ( 4 )
(1) Amensalism (2) Parasitism
S o l . Coding strand and mRNA has same nucleotide
(3) Mutualism (4) Commensalism
sequence except, ‘T’ – Thymine is replaced by
Answer ( 1 ) ‘U’–Uracil in mRNA.

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68. A woman has an X-linked condition on one of 71. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism
her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be of evolution is
inherited by (1) Minor mutations
(1) Both sons and daughters (2) Phenotypic variations
(2) Only grandchildren (3) Saltation
(3) Only sons (4) Multiple step mutations
(4) Only daughters Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 1 ) S o l . As per mutation theory given by Hugo de
Sol. • Woman is a carrier Vries, the evolution is a discontinuous
phenomenon or saltatory phenomenon/
• Both son & daughter inherit X–chromosome
saltation.
• Although only son be the diseased
72. Which of the following options correctly
69. Match the items given in Column I with those represents the lung conditions in asthma and
in Column II and select the correct option emphysema, respectively?
given below :
(1) Decreased respiratory surface;
Column I Column II Inflammation of bronchioles
a. Proliferative Phase i. Breakdown of (2) Increased respiratory surface;
endometrial Inflammation of bronchioles
lining (3) Increased number of bronchioles;
Increased respiratory surface
b. Secretory Phase ii. Follicular Phase
(4) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased
c. Menstruation iii. Luteal Phase
respiratory surface
a b c
Answer ( 4 )
(1) iii i ii
S o l . Asthma is a difficulty in breathing causing
(2) ii iii i wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and
(3) i iii ii bronchioles. Emphysema is a chronic disorder
in which alveolar walls are damaged due to
(4) iii ii i
which respiratory surface is decreased.
Answer ( 2 )
73. Match the items given in Column I with those
S o l . During proliferative phase, the follicles start in Column II and select the correct option
developing, hence, called follicular phase. given below :
Secretory phase is also called as luteal phase Column I Column II
mainly controlled by progesterone secreted
a. Tricuspid valve i. Between left atrium
by corpus luteum. Estrogen further thickens
and left ventricle
the endometrium maintained by
progesterone. b. Bicuspid valve ii. Between right
ventricle and
Menstruation occurs due to decline in
pulmonary artery
progesterone level and involves breakdown of
overgrown endometrial lining. c. Semilunar valve iii. Between right
atrium and right
70. All of the following are part of an operon
ventricle
except
a b c
(1) a promoter (2) an enhancer
(1) ii i iii
(3) structural genes (4) an operator
Answer ( 2 ) (2) i ii iii

Sol. • Enhancer sequences are present in (3) i iii ii


eukaryotes. (4) iii i ii
• Operon concept is for prokaryotes. Answer ( 4 )

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S o l . Tricuspid valves are AV valve present 76. Which of the following structures or regions is
between right atrium and right ventricle. incorrectly paired with its functions?
Bicuspid valves are AV valve present between
(1) Corpus callosum : band of fibers
left atrium and left ventricle. Semilunar valves
connecting left and
are present at the openings of aortic and
right cerebral
pulmonary aorta.
hemispheres.
74. Match the items given in Column I with those
(2) Hypothalamus : production of
in Column II and select the correct option
releasing hormones
given below:
and regulation of
Column I Column II temperature,
a. Tidal volume i. 2500 – 3000 mL hunger and thirst.

b. Inspiratory Reserve ii. 1100 – 1200 mL (3) Limbic system : consists of fibre
tracts that
volume
interconnect
c. Expiratory Reserve iii. 500 – 550 mL different regions of
volume brain; controls
movement.
d. Residual volume iv. 1000 – 1100 mL
(4) Medulla oblongata : controls respiration
a b c d
and cardiovascular
(1) iv iii ii i reflexes.
(2) i iv ii iii Answer ( 3 )
(3) iii i iv ii S o l . Limbic system is emotional brain. It controls
(4) iii ii i iv all emotions in our body but not movements.
Answer ( 3 ) 77. Which of the following hormones can play a
significant role in osteoporosis?
S o l . Tidal volume is volume of air inspired or
expired during normal respiration. It is (1) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin
approximately 500 mL. Inspiratory reserve
(2) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone
volume is additional volume of air a person
can inspire by a forceful inspiration. It is (3) Progesterone and Aldosterone
around 2500 – 3000 mL. Expiratory reserve (4) Aldosterone and Prolactin
volume is additional volume of air a person
can be expired by a forceful expiration. This Answer ( 2 )
averages 1000 – 1100 mL. S o l . Estrogen promotes the activity of osteoblast
Residual volume is volume of air remaining in and inhibits osteoclast. In an ageing female
lungs even after forceful expiration. This osteoporosis occurs due to deficiency of
averages 1100 – 1200 mL. estrogen. Parathormone promotes
mobilisation of calcium from bone into blood.
75. Which of the following is an amino acid Excessive activity of parathormone causes
derived hormone? demineralisation leading to osteoporosis.
(1) Estriol 78. The transparent lens in the human eye is held
(2) Estradiol in its place by
(1) smooth muscles attached to the ciliary
(3) Ecdysone
body
(4) Epinephrine
(2) smooth muscles attached to the iris
Answer ( 4 )
(3) ligaments attached to the iris
S o l . Epinephrine is derived from tyrosine amino
(4) ligaments attached to the ciliary body
acid by the removal of carboxyl group. It is a
catecholamine. Answer ( 4 )

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S o l . Lens in the human eye is held in its place by 82. Nissl bodies are mainly composed of
suspensory ligaments attached to the ciliary (1) Free ribosomes and RER
body.
(2) Nucleic acids and SER
79. Which of the following terms describe human
(3) DNA and RNA
dentition?
(4) Proteins and lipids
(1) Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
Answer ( 1 )
(2) Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont
S o l . Nissl granules are present in the cyton and
(3) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont even extend into the dendrite but absent in
(4) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont axon and rest of the neuron.
Nissl granules are in fact composed of free
Answer ( 3 )
ribosomes and RER. They are responsible for
S o l . In humans, dentition is protein synthesis.
 Thecodont : Teeth are present in the 83. Many ribosomes may associate with a single
sockets of the jaw bone called alveoli. mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide
simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are
 Diphyodont : Teeth erupts twice,
termed as
temporary milk or deciduous teeth are
replaced by a set of permanent or adult (1) Nucleosome
teeth. (2) Plastidome
 Heterodont dentition : Dentition consists (3) Polyhedral bodies
of different types of teeth namely incisors,
(4) Polysome
canine, premolars and molars.
Answer ( 4 )
80. Which of the following events does not occur
in rough endoplasmic reticulum? S o l . The phenomenon of association of many
ribosomes with single m-RNA leads to
(1) Phospholipid synthesis formation of polyribosomes or polysomes or
(2) Cleavage of signal peptide ergasomes.
84. Which of these statements is incorrect?
(3) Protein glycosylation
(1) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in
(4) Protein folding
outer mitochondrial membrane
Answer ( 1 ) (2) Glycolysis operates as long as it is
S o l . Phospholipid synthesis does not take place in supplied with NAD that can pick up
RER. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum are hydrogen atoms
involved in lipid synthesis. (3) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol
81. Select the incorrect match : (4) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in
mitochondrial matrix
(1) Polytene – Oocytes of
chromosomes amphibians Answer ( 1 )

(2) Submetacentric – L-shaped S o l . Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in inner


chromosomes chromosomes mitochondrial membrane.

(3) Allosomes – Sex chromosomes 85. Identify the vertebrate group of animals
characterized by crop and gizzard in its
(4) Lampbrush – Diplotene bivalents digestive system
chromosomes (1) Osteichthyes
Answer ( 1 ) (2) Aves

S o l . Polytene chromosomes are found in salivary (3) Reptilia


glands of insects of order Diptera. (4) Amphibia

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Answer ( 2 ) 89. Which of the following organisms are known


S o l . The digestive tract of Aves has additional as chief producers in the oceans?
chambers in their digestive system as crop (1) Euglenoids (2) Cyanobacteria
and Gizzard.
(3) Diatoms (4) Dinoflagellates
Crop is concerned with storage of food grains.
Answer ( 3 )
Gizzard is a masticatory organ in birds used to
crush food grain. S o l . Diatoms are chief producers of the ocean.

86. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in 90. Which one of these animals is not a
homeotherm?
(1) having two types of nuclei
(1) Psittacula (2) Camelus
(2) using pseudopodia for capturing prey
(3) having a contractile vacuole for removing (3) Chelone (4) Macropus
excess water Answer ( 3 )
(4) using flagella for locomotion S o l . Homeotherm are animals that maintain
Answer ( 1 ) constant body temperature, irrespective of
surrounding temperature.
S o l . Ciliates differs from other protozoans in
having two types of nuclei. Birds and mammals are homeotherm.
eg. Paramoecium have two types of nuclei i.e. Chelone (Turtle) belongs to class reptilia
macronucleus & micronucleus. which is Poikilotherm or cold blood.
87. Which of the following animals does not 91. Which of the following pairs is wrongly
undergo metamorphosis? matched?
(1) Starfish (1) T.H. Morgan : Linkage
(2) Moth
(2) XO type sex : Grasshopper
(3) Tunicate
determination
(4) Earthworm
(3) ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance
Answer ( 4 )
(4) Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles
S o l . Metamorphosis refers to transformation of
larva into adult. Answer ( 4 )
Animal that perform metamorphosis are said S o l . Starch synthesis in pea is controlled by
to have indirect development. pleiotropic gene.
In earthworm development is direct which Other options (1, 2 & 3) are correctly
means no larval stage and hence no matched.
metamorphosis.
92. Which of the following flowers only once in its
88. Which of the following features is used to life-time?
identify a male cockroach from a female
(1) Papaya
cockroach?
(1) Presence of anal cerci (2) Mango

(2) Forewings with darker tegmina (3) Jackfruit


(3) Presence of caudal styles (4) Bamboo species
(4) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the Answer ( 4 )
9th abdominal segment
S o l . Bamboo species are monocarpic i.e., flower
Answer ( 3 ) generally only once in its life-time after 50-
S o l . Males bear a pair of short, thread like anal 100 years.
styles which are absent in females. Jackfruit, papaya and mango are polycarpic
Anal/caudal styles arise from 9th abdominal i.e., produce flowers and fruits many times in
segment in male cockroach. their life-time.

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93. Select the correct match Pollenkitt – Help in insect pollination.


(1) Francois Jacob and - Lac operon Cellulosic Intine – Inner sporoderm layer of
Jacques Monod pollen grain known as intine made up
cellulose & pectin.
(2) Matthew Meselson - Pisum sativum
Oil content – No role is pollen preservation.
and F. Stahl
96. Offsets are produced by
(3) Alfred Hershey and - TMV
(1) Parthenogenesis (2) Parthenocarpy
Martha Chase
(3) Mitotic divisions (4) Meiotic divisions
(4) Alec Jeffreys - Streptococcus
Answer ( 3 )
pneumoniae
S o l . Offset is a vegetative part of a plant, formed
Answer ( 1 ) by mitosis.
S o l . Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod proposed – Meiotic divisions do not occur in somatic
model of gene regulation known as operon cells.
model/lac operon.
– Parthenogenesis is the formation of
– Alec Jeffreys – DNA fingerprinting embryo from ovum or egg without
technique. fertilisation.
– Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl – Semi- – Parthenocarpy is the fruit formed without
conservative DNA replication in E. coli. fertilisation, (generally seedless)
– Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase – 97. The experimental proof for semiconservative
Proved DNA as genetic material not replication of DNA was first shown in a
protein
(1) Virus (2) Plant
94. Select the correct statement
(3) Bacterium (4) Fungus
(1) Transduction was discovered by S. Altman
Answer ( 3 )
(2) Spliceosomes take part in translation
S o l . Semi-conservative DNA replication was first
(3) Punnett square was developed by a British shown in Bacterium Escherichia coli by
scientist Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl.
(4) Franklin Stahl coined the term ‘‘linkage’’ 98. Winged pollen grains are present in
Answer ( 3 ) (1) Pinus (2) Mango
S o l . Punnett square was developed by a British (3) Cycas (4) Mustard
geneticist, Reginald C. Punnett. Answer ( 1 )
– Franklin Stahl proved semi-conservative S o l . In Pinus, winged pollen grains are present. It
mode of replication. is extended outer exine on two lateral sides to
– Transduction was discovered by Zinder form the wings of pollen. It is the
and Laderberg. characteristic feature, only in Pinus.
– Spliceosome formation is part of post- Pollen grains of Mustard, Cycas & Mango are
transcriptional change in Eukaryotes not winged shaped.
95. Which of the following has proved helpful in 99. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores
preserving pollen as fossils? are produced exogenously in
(1) Sporopollenin (2) Oil content (1) Saccharomyces (2) Agaricus
(3) Cellulosic intine (4) Pollenkitt (3) Alternaria (4) Neurospora
Answer ( 1 ) Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Sporopollenin cannot be degraded by Sol.  In Agaricus (a genus of basidiomycetes),
enzyme; strong acids and alkali, therefore it is basidiospores or meiospores are
helpful in preserving pollen as fossil. produced exogenously.

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 Neurospora (a genus of ascomycetes) Sol. • Herbarium – Dried and pressed plant


produces ascospores as meiospores but specimen
endogenously inside the ascus.)
• Key – Identification of various
 Alternaria (a genus of deuteromycetes) taxa
does not produce sexual spores.
• Museum – Plant and animal
 Saccharomyces (Unicellular ascomycetes) specimen are preserved
produces ascospores, endogenously.
• Catalogue – Alphabetical listing of
100. Which one is wrongly matched?
species
(1) Unicellular organism – Chlorella
102. In which of the following forms is iron
(2) Gemma cups – Marchantia absorbed by plants?
(3) Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae
(1) Both ferric and ferrous
(4) Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia
(2) Free element
Answer ( 4 )
(3) Ferrous
Sol. • Polysiphonia is a genus of red algae,
where asexual spores and gametes are (4) Ferric
non-motile or non-flagellated.
Answer ( 4 * )
• Other options (1, 2 & 3) are correctly
matched S o l . Iron is absorbed by plants in the form of ferric
ions. (According to NCERT)
101. Match the items given in Column I with those
in Column II and select the correct option *Plants absorb iron in both form i.e. Fe++ and
given below: Fe+++. (Preferably Fe++)
Column I Column II 103. Which one of the following plants shows a
a. Herbarium (i) It is a place having a very close relationship with a species of moth,
collection of preserved where none of the two can complete its life
plants and animals cycle without the other?
b. Key (ii) A list that enumerates (1) Viola
methodically all the
(2) Banana
species found in an area
with brief description (3) Yucca
aiding identification
(4) Hydrilla
c. Museum (iii) Is a place where dried
and pressed plant Answer ( 3 )
specimens mounted on
S o l . Yucca have an obligate mutualism with a
sheets are kept
species of moth i.e. Pronuba.
d. Catalogue (iv) A booklet containing a
list of characters and 104. Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis
their alternates which by
are helpful in (1) Chara
identification of various
taxa. (2) Cycas
a b c d (3) Nostoc
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (4) Green sulphur bacteria
(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
Answer ( 4 )
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
S o l . Green sulphur bacteria do not use H 2O as
(4) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
source of proton, therefore they do not evolve
Answer ( 1 ) O2.

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105. Which of the following elements is responsible Sol. • The given data depicts the inverted
for maintaining turgor in cells? pyramid of biomass, usually found in
(1) Calcium (2) Potassium aquatic ecosystem.
• Pyramid of energy is always upright
(3) Sodium (4) Magnesium
• Upright pyramid of biomass and numbers
Answer ( 2 )
are not possible, as the data depicts
S o l . Potassium helps in maintaining turgidity of primary producer is less than primary
cells. consumer and this is less than secondary
106. What is the role of NAD+ in cellular respiration? consumers.
(1) It is the final electron acceptor for 110. Natality refers to
anaerobic respiration. (1) Number of individuals entering a habitat
(2) It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis. (2) Number of individuals leaving the habitat
(3) It functions as an electron carrier. (3) Birth rate
(4) It functions as an enzyme. (4) Death rate
Answer ( 3 ) Answer ( 3 )
S o l . In cellular respiration, NAD+ act as an electron S o l . Natality refers to birth rate.
carrier. • Death rate – Mortality
107. Double fertilization is • Number of individual – Immigration
(1) Syngamy and triple fusion entering a habitat is
(2) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg • Number of individual – Emigration
leaving the habital
(3) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar
nuclei 111. Which of the following is a secondary
pollutant?
(4) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen
tube with two different eggs (1) O3
Answer ( 1 ) (2) SO2
S o l . Double fertilization is a unique phenomenon (3) CO2
that occur in angiosperms only. (4) CO
Syngamy + Triple fusion = Double fertilization Answer ( 1 )
108. Pollen grains can be stored for several years S o l . O3 (ozone) is a secondary pollutant. These are
in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of formed by the reaction of primary pollutant.
(1) –160°C (2) –196°C CO – Quantitative pollutant
(3) –80°C (4) –120°C CO2 – Primary pollutant
Answer ( 2 ) SO2 – Primary pollutant
S o l . Pollen grains can be stored for several years in 112. In stratosphere, which of the following
liquid nitrogen at –196°C (Cryopreservation) elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of
ozone and release of molecular oxygen?
109. What type of ecological pyramid would be
obtained with the following data? (1) Oxygen
Secondary consumer : 120 g (2) Fe
Primary consumer : 60 g (3) Cl
Primary producer : 10 g (4) Carbon
(1) Upright pyramid of biomass Answer ( 3 )
(2) Upright pyramid of numbers S o l . UV rays act on CFCs, releasing Cl atoms,
chlorine reacts with ozone in sequential
(3) Pyramid of energy method converting into oxygen
(4) Inverted pyramid of biomass Carbon, oxygen and Fe are not related to
Answer ( 4 ) ozone layer depletion
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113. Niche is Sol. • Vascular cambium is partially secondary


(1) the functional role played by the organism • Form secondary xylem towards its inside
where it lives and secondary phloem towards outsides.
(2) the range of temperature that the • 4 – 10 times more secondary xylem is
organism needs to live produced than secondary phloem.
(3) the physical space where an organism 117. Sweet potato is a modified
lives (1) Rhizome
(4) all the biological factors in the organism's (2) Tap root
environment
(3) Adventitious root
Answer ( 1 )
(4) Stem
S o l . Ecological niche was termed by J. Grinnel. It Answer ( 3 )
refers the functional role played by the
organism where it lives. S o l . Sweet potato is a modified adventitious root
for storage of food
114. World Ozone Day is celebrated on
• Rhizomes are underground modified stem
(1) 22nd April
• Tap root is primary root directly elongated
(2) 16th September from the redicle
(3) 21st April 118. Pneumatophores occur in

(4) 5th June (1) Submerged hydrophytes

Answer ( 2 ) (2) Carnivorous plants


(3) Free-floating hydrophytes
S o l . World Ozone day is celebrated on 16 th
September. (4) Halophytes

5th June - World Environment Day Answer ( 4 )

21st April - National Yellow Bat Day Sol.  Halophytes like mangrooves have
pneumatophores.
22nd April - National Earth Day
 Apogeotropic (–vely geotropic) roots
115. Which of the following statements is correct? having lenticels called pneumathodes to
uptake O2.
(1) Stems are usually unbranched in both
Cycas and Cedrus 119. Select the wrong statement :
(2) Horsetails are gymnosperms (1) Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the
cell in all kingdoms except Monera
(3) Selaginella is heterosporous, while
Salvinia is homosporous (2) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding
structures in Sporozoans
(4) Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in
gymnosperms (3) Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes
(4) Cell wall is present in members of Fungi
Answer ( 4 )
and Plantae
Sol. • Gymnosperms have naked ovule. Answer ( 2 )
• Called phanerogams without womb/ovary S o l . Pseudopodia are locomotory structures in
116. Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem sarcodines (Amoeboid)
are produced by 120. Casparian strips occur in
(1) Axillary meristems (1) Endodermis
(2) Phellogen (2) Cortex
(3) Vascular cambium (3) Pericycle

(4) Apical meristems (4) Epidermis

Answer ( 3 ) Answer ( 1 )

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Sol. • Endodermis have casparian strip on radial S o l . Retrovirus is commonly used as vector for
and inner tangential wall. introducing a DNA fragment in human
• It is suberin rich. lymphocyte.
121. Plants having little or no secondary growth Gene therapy : Lymphocyte from blood of
are patient are grown in culture outside the body,
(1) Cycads a functional gene is introduced by using a
(2) Conifers retroviral vector, into these lymphocyte.
(3) Deciduous angiosperms 124. Use of bioresources by multinational companies
(4) Grasses and organisations without authorisation from the
Answer ( 4 ) concerned country and its people is called

S o l . Grasses are monocots and monocots usually (1) Bioexploitation


do not have secondary growth.
(2) Biodegradation
Palm like monocots have anomalous
secondary growth. (3) Biopiracy

122. A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a (4) Bio-infringement


foreign company, though such varieties have
Answer ( 3 )
been present in India for a long time. This is
related to S o l . Biopiracy is term used for or refer to the use
(1) Basmati of bioresources by multinational companies
(2) Lerma Rojo and other organisation without proper
authorisation from the countries and people
(3) Sharbati Sonora
concerned with compensatory payment
(4) Co-667 (definition of biopiracy given in NCERT).
Answer ( 1 ) 125. Select the correct match
S o l . In 1997, an American company got patent (1) G. Mendel - Transformation
rights on Basmati rice through the US patent
(2) T.H. Morgan - Transduction
and trademark office that was actually been
derived from Indian farmer’s varieties. (3) F2 × Recessive parent - Dihybrid cross
(4) Ribozyme - Nucleic acid
The diversity of rice in India is one of the
richest in the world, 27 documented varieties Answer ( 4 )
of Basmati are grown in India. S o l . Ribozyme is a catalytic RNA, which is nucleic
Indian basmati was crossed with semi-dwarf acid.
varieties and claimed as an invention or a 126. The correct order of steps in Polymerase
novelty. Chain Reaction (PCR) is

Sharbati Sonora and Lerma Rojo are varieties (1) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
of wheat. (2) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
123. Which of the following is commonly used as a (3) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
vector for introducing a DNA fragment in (4) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
human lymphocytes?
Answer ( 1 )
(1) pBR 322 S o l . This technique is used for making multiple
(2)  phage copies of gene (or DNA) of interest in vitro.
Each cycle has three steps
(3) Ti plasmid
(i) Denaturation
(4) Retrovirus
(ii) Primer annealing
Answer ( 4 )
(iii) Extension of primer
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127. In India, the organisation responsible for 131. The two functional groups characteristic of
assessing the safety of introducing sugars are
genetically modified organisms for public use (1) Carbonyl and hydroxyl
is (2) Carbonyl and phosphate
(1) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (3) Carbonyl and methyl
(GEAC) (4) Hydroxyl and methyl
(2) Research Committee on Genetic Answer ( 1 )
Manipulation (RCGM)
S o l . Sugar is a common term used to denote
(3) Council for Scientific and Industrial carbohydrate.
Research (CSIR) Carbohydrates are polyhydroxy aldehyde,
(4) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) ketone or their derivatives, which means they
have carbonyl and hydroxyl groups.
Answer ( 1 )
132. Which of the following is not a product of light
S o l . Indian Government has setup organisation
reaction of photosynthesis?
such as GEAC (Genetic Engineering Appraisal
(1) Oxygen (2) NADPH
Committee) which will make decisions
regarding the validity of GM research and (3) NADH (4) ATP
safety of introducing GM-organism for public Answer ( 3 )
services. (Direct from NCERT). S o l . ATP, NADPH and oxygen are products of light
128. The stage during which separation of the reaction, while NADH is a product of
paired homologous chromosomes begins is respiration process.

(1) Zygotene 133. Stomata in grass leaf are


(1) Barrel shaped (2) Rectangular
(2) Diakinesis
(3) Kidney shaped (4) Dumb-bell shaped
(3) Diplotene
Answer ( 4 )
(4) Pachytene
S o l . Grass being a monocot, has Dumb-bell
Answer ( 3 ) shaped stomata in their leaves.
S o l . Synaptonemal complex disintegrates. 134. Which of the following is true for nucleolus?
Terminalisation begins at diplotene stage i.e.
(1) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA
chiasmata start to shift towards end. synthesis
129. The Golgi complex participates in (2) It takes part in spindle formation
(1) Activation of amino acid (3) It is a membrane-bound structure
(2) Respiration in bacteria (4) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing
(3) Formation of secretory vesicles cells
(4) Fatty acid breakdown Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 3 ) S o l . Nucleolus is a non membranous structure
S o l . Golgi complex, after processing releases and is a site of r-RNA synthesis.
secretory vesicles from their trans-face. 135. Which among the following is not a
130. Stomatal movement is not affected by prokaryote?
(1) CO2 concentration (1) Oscillatoria (2) Nostoc
(2) O2 concentration (3) Mycobacterium (4) Saccharomyces
(3) Light Answer ( 4 )
(4) Temperature S o l . Saccharomyces i.e. yeast is an eukaryote
Answer ( 2 ) (unicellular fungi)
S o l . Light, temperature and concentration of CO2 Mycobacterium – a bacterium
affect opening and closing of stomata while
Oscillatoria and Nostoc are cyanobacteria.
they are not affected by O2 concentration.
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136. On which of the following properties does the Sol. • van der waal constant ‘a’, signifies
coagulating power of an ion depend? intermolecular forces of attraction.
(1) The sign of charge on the ion alone • Higher is the value of ‘a’, easier will be
(2) Both magnitude and sign of the charge on the liquefaction of gas.
the ion 139. Following solutions were prepared by mixing
(3) Size of the ion alone different volumes of NaOH and HCl of
different concentrations :
(4) The magnitude of the charge on the ion
alone M M
a. 60 mL HCl + 40 mL NaOH
Answer ( 2 ) 10 10

Sol. • Coagulation of colloidal solution by using


M M
an electrolyte depends on the charge b. 55 mL HCl + 45 mL NaOH
present (positive or negative) on colloidal 10 10

particles as well as on its size. M M


c. 75 mL HCl + 25 mL NaOH
• Coagulating power of an electrolyte 5 5
depends on the magnitude of charge
present on effective ion of electrolyte. M M
d. 100 mL HCl + 100 mL NaOH
137. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is 2.42 × 10–3 gL–1 10 10
at 298 K. The value of its solubility product
pH of which one of them will be equal to 1?
(Ksp) will be
(1) c (2) d
(Given molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 g mol–1)
(3) a (4) b
(1) 1.08 × 10–8 mol2L–2
Answer ( 1 )
(2) 1.08 × 10–14 mol2L–2
(3) 1.08 × 10–12 mol2L–2 1
Sol. • Meq of HCl = 75   1 = 15
5
(4) 1.08 × 10–10 mol2L–2
1
Answer ( 4 ) • Meq of NaOH = 25   1 = 5
5
2.42  103
S o l . Solubility of BaSO4, s = (mol L–1) • Meq of HCl in resulting solution = 10
233
= 1.04 × 10–5 (mol L–1) • Molarity of [H+] in resulting mixture
10 1
= 
 Ba2  (aq)  SO 24(aq)
BaSO 4 (s)  100 10
s s
 1
Ksp = [Ba2+] [SO42–]= s2 pH = –log[H+] =  log   = 1.0
 10 
= (1.04 × 10–5)2
140. Which one of the following elements is unable
= 1.08 × 10–10 mol2 L–2
to form MF63– ion?
138. Given van der Waals constant for NH3, H2, O2
and CO2 are respectively 4.17, 0.244, 1.36 and (1) In (2) B
3.59, which one of the following gases is most (3) Al (4) Ga
easily liquefied?
Answer ( 2 )
(1) CO2
S o l . ∵ 'B' has no vacant d-orbitals in its valence
(2) O2
shell, so it can't extend its covalency beyond
(3) H2 4. i.e. 'B' cannot form the ion like MF6 3(–) i.e.
(4) NH3 BF63(–).

Answer ( 4 ) Hence, the correct option is (2).

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141. Which of the following statements is not true 144. The correct order of N-compounds in its
for halogens? decreasing order of oxidation states is
(1) Chlorine has the highest electron-gain (1) NH4Cl, N2, NO, HNO3
enthalpy
(2) HNO3, NH4Cl, NO, N2
(2) All but fluorine show positive oxidation
states (3) HNO3, NO, NH4Cl, N2

(3) All are oxidizing agents (4) HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl

(4) All form monobasic oxyacids Answer ( 4 )

Answer ( 2 ) 5 2 0 –3
S o l . H N O , N O, N2 , NH Cl
3 4
S o l . Due to high electronegativity and small size,
F forms only one oxoacid, HOF known as Hence, the correct option is (4).
Fluoric (I) acid. Oxidation number of F is +1 in
HOF. 145. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13
elements is
142. In the structure of ClF3, the number of lone
pair of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is (1) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl

(1) Three (2) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In

(2) Four (3) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl

(3) Two (4) B < Al < In < Ga < Tl

(4) One Answer ( 1 )

Answer ( 3 ) Sol.

S o l . The structure of ClF3 is Elements B Ga Al In Tl


  Atomic radii (pm) 85 135 143 167 170
 

 

F
146. The compound A on treatment with Na gives
 
B, and with PCl 5 gives C. B and C react
 

F Cl
  together to give diethyl ether. A, B and C are
in the order
 

 

F
  (1) C2H5OH, C2H5ONa, C2H5Cl
The number of lone pair of electrons on (2) C2H5Cl, C2H6, C2H5OH
central Cl is 2.
(3) C2H5OH, C2H5Cl, C2H5ONa
143. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the
following metals can be used to reduce (4) C2H5OH, C2H6, C2H5Cl
alumina?
Answer ( 1 )
(1) Cu
C2H5O Na+
Na
S o l . C2H5OH
(2) Mg (A) (B)
(3) Zn PCl5
(4) Fe C2H5Cl
Answer ( 2 ) (C)
C2H5O Na+ + C2H5Cl
SN2
S o l . The metal which is more reactive than 'Al' C2H5OC2 H5
can reduce alumina i.e. 'Mg' should be the (B) (C)
correct option. So the correct option is (1)

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147. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by 150. The type of isomerism shown by the complex
substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by [CoCl2(en)2] is
Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous
(1) Linkage isomerism
hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon
atoms. (A) is (2) Ionization isomerism

(1) CH4 (2) CH3 – CH3 (3) Coordination isomerism


(3) CH2  CH2 (4) CH  CH (4) Geometrical isomerism
Answer ( 1 ) Answer ( 4 )
Br2/h S o l . In [CoCl2(en)2], Coordination number of Co
S o l . CH4 CH3Br
is 6 and this compound has octahedral
(A) Na/dry ether geometry.
Wurtz reaction

CH3 — CH3
Hence the correct option is (1)
148. The compound C7H8 undergoes the following
reactions:
3Cl /  Br /Fe Zn/HCl • As per given option, type of isomerism is
C7H8 
2
 A 
2
 B 
C
geometrical isomerism.
The product 'C' is
151. Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d
(1) p-bromotoluene transition and paramagnetism as well?
(2) 3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene (1) MnO42– (2) MnO4–
(3) o-bromotoluene
(3) Cr2O72– (4) CrO42–
(4) m-bromotoluene
Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . CrO42–  Cr6+ = [Ar]
CH3 CCl3 CCl3
Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic
3Cl 2 Br2
Sol.  Cr2O72–  Cr6+ = [Ar]
Fe
Br
(C7H8) (A) (B) Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic

Zn HCl MnO42– = Mn6+ = [Ar] 3d1


Unpaired electron (n) = 1; Paramagnetic
CH3
MnO4– = Mn7+ = [Ar]
Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic
Br
(C) 152. Match the metal ions given in Column I with
So, the correct option is (4) the spin magnetic moments of the ions given
in Column II and assign the correct code :
149. Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common
pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both Column I Column II
due to natural and human activity? a. Co3+ i. 8 BM
(1) NO
b. Cr3+ ii. 35 BM
(2) N2O
(3) NO2 c. Fe3+ iii. 3 BM
(4) N2O5
d. Ni2+ iv. 24 BM
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Fact v. 15 BM

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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-SS) LAACH

a b c d S o l . Ni(28) : [Ar]3d8 4s2


(1) iii v i ii ∵ CO is a strong field ligand
(2) iv i ii iii Configuration would be :
(3) i ii iii iv
3
sp -hybridisation
(4) iv v ii i
×× ×× ×× ××
Answer ( 4 )
CO CO CO CO
S o l . Co3+ = [Ar] 3d6, Unpaired e–(n) = 4

For, four ‘CO’-ligands hybridisation would be


Spin magnetic moment = 4(4  2)  24 BM
sp 3 and thus the complex would be
Cr3+ = [Ar] 3d3, Unpaired e–(n) = 3 diamagnetic and of tetrahedral geometry.

CO
Spin magnetic moment = 3(3  2)  15 BM

Fe3+ = [Ar] 3d5, Unpaired e–(n) = 5


Ni
CO
Spin magnetic moment = 5(5  2)  35 BM OC

Ni2+ = [Ar] 3d8, Unpaired e–(n) = 2 CO


155. In the reaction
Spin magnetic moment = 2(2  2)  8 BM
OH O–Na+
153. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5 is

(1) Dinuclear (2) Trinuclear CHO


+ CHCl3 + NaOH
(3) Mononuclear (4) Tetranuclear

Answer ( 3 )
The electrophile involved is
S o l . • Based on the number of metal atoms
present in a complex, they are classified
(1) Dichlorocarbene : CCl2 
into mononuclear, dinuclear, trinuclear and
so on.

eg: Fe(CO)5 : mononuclear (2) Dichloromethyl anion CHCl2  



Co2(CO)8 : dinuclear

Fe3(CO)12: trinuclear
(3) Formyl cation CHO  

 
Hence, option (3) should be the right 
answer. (4) Dichloromethyl cation CHCl2

154. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the


Answer ( 1 )
complex [Ni(CO)4] are
S o l . It is Reimer-Tiemann reaction. The electrophile
(1) Tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic
formed is :CCl2 (Dichlorocarbene) according to
(2) Square planar geometry and the following reaction
paramagnetic
.–.
(3) Tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic CHCl3  OH– 
 CCl3  H2 O

(4) Square planar geometry and diamagnetic


.–.
Answer ( 3 )  : CCl2  Cl–
CCl3 
Electrophile

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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-SS) LAACH

156. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points 158. The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and
than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of XY are in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1. H for the
comparable molecular mass. It is due to their formation of XY is –200 kJ mol–1. The bond
dissociation energy of X2 will be
(1) Formation of intermolecular H-bonding
(1) 400 kJ mol–1 (2) 800 kJ mol–1
(2) More extensive association of carboxylic (3) 100 kJ mol–1 (4) 200 kJ mol–1
acid via van der Waals force of attraction
Answer ( 2 )
(3) Formation of carboxylate ion
S o l . The reaction for fH°(XY)
(4) Formation of intramolecular H-bonding
1 1
Answer ( 1 ) X2 (g)  Y2 (g) 
 XY(g)
2 2
S o l . Due to formation of intermolecular H-bonding
X
in carboxylic acid, association occurs. Hence Bond energies of X2, Y2 and XY are X, , X
boiling point increases and become more 2
respectively
than the boiling point of aldehydes, ketones
and alcohols of comparable molecular X X
masses.  H      X  200
2 4
157. Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with On solving, we get
NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and
yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic X X
   200
smell. 2 4
A and Y are respectively  X = 800 kJ/mole
CH3 159. When initial concentration of the reactant is
doubled, the half-life period of a zero order
(1) CH3 reaction
OH and I2
(1) Remains unchanged
(2) Is tripled
CH – CH3 and I2 (3) Is doubled
(2)
(4) Is halved
OH
Answer ( 3 )
CH2 – CH2 – OH and I2 S o l . Half life of zero order
(3)
[A0 ]
t 1/2 
2K
(4) H3C CH2 – OH and I2 t 1/2 will be doubled on doubling the initial
concentration.
Answer ( 2 ) 160. The correction factor ‘a’ to the ideal gas
S o l . Option (2) is secondary alcohol which on equation corresponds to
oxidation gives phenylmethyl ketone (1) Forces of attraction between the gas
(Acetophenone). This on reaction with I2 and molecules
NaOH form iodoform and sodium benzoate. (2) Electric field present between the gas
molecules
2NaOH  I2  NaOI  NaI  H2 O
(3) Volume of the gas molecules
CH – CH3 NaOI
C – CH3 (4) Density of the gas molecules
OH O Answer ( 1 )
Acetophenone
(A)
 2 
S o l . In real gas equation,  P  an  (V  nb)  nRT
I2  V2 
COONa + CHI3 NaOH 
Iodoform van der Waal’s constant, ‘a’ signifies
Sodium benzoate (Yellow PPt) intermolecular forces of attraction.
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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-SS) LAACH

161. For the redox reaction Answer ( 2 )


Conc.H2 SO4
MnO4  C2 O24  H 
 Mn2   CO2  H2 O S o l . HCOOH   CO(g)  H2 O(l)
 1  1
2.3 g or  mol  mol
The correct coefficients of the reactants for  20  20
the balanced equation are
Conc.H2SO4
COOH CO(g) + CO2 (g) + H2O(l)
MnO4 C2 O24 H+ 1 1
mol mol
(1) 5 16 2 COOH 20 20

 1 
4.5 g or  mol 
(2) 2 16 5  20 
(3) 2 5 16
Gaseous mixture formed is CO and CO2 when
(4) 16 5 2 it is passed through KOH, only CO 2 is
Answer ( 3 ) absorbed. So the remaining gas is CO.
Reduction So, weight of remaining gaseous product CO is
+7 +3 +4
S o l . MnO4– + C2O42– + H+ 2+
Mn + CO2 + H2O 2
 28  2.8 g
Oxidation 20


So, the correct option is (2)
n-factor of MnO4  5
164. The difference between amylose and
n-factor of C2 O24  2 amylopectin is
 (1) Amylose is made up of glucose and
Ratio of n-factors of MnO4 and C2 O24 is 5 : 2
galactose
So, molar ratio in balanced reaction is 2 : 5
 The balanced equation is (2) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and
1  6 -linkage
2MnO4  5C2 O24 
 16H  2Mn 2
 10CO2  8H2 O
162. Which one of the following conditions will (3) Amylose have 1  4 -linkage and 1  6
favour maximum formation of the product in -linkage
the reaction,
(4) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and
 X2 (g) r H   X kJ?
A2 (g)  B2 (g)  1 6 -linkage

(1) High temperature and low pressure Answer ( 4 )


(2) High temperature and high pressure S o l . Amylose and Amylopectin are polymers of -
(3) Low temperature and low pressure D-glucose, so -link is not possible. Amylose is
(4) Low temperature and high pressure linear with 1  4 -linkage whereas
Answer ( 4 ) Amylopectin is branched and has both 1  4
and 1  6 -linkages.
 X2 (g); H  x kJ
S o l . A2 (g)  B2 (g) 
So option (4) should be the correct option.
On increasing pressure equilibrium shifts in a
direction where pressure decreases i.e. 165. Which of the following oxides is most acidic in
forward direction. nature?
On decreasing temperature, equilibrium shifts (1) CaO (2) BaO
in exothermic direction i.e., forward direction.
(3) BeO (4) MgO
So, high pressure and low temperature
favours maximum formation of product. Answer ( 3 )
163. A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic S o l . BeO < MgO < CaO < BaO
acid is treated with conc. H2SO4. The evolved

gaseous mixture is passed through KOH
pellets. Weight (in g) of the remaining product Basic character increases.
at STP will be
So, the most acidic should be BeO. In fact,
(1) 4.4 (2) 2.8 BeO is amphoteric oxide while other given
(3) 3.0 (4) 1.4 oxides are basic.
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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-SS) LAACH
166. Regarding cross-linked or network polymers, 169. Which of the following carbocations is
which of the following statements is expected to be most stable?
incorrect?
NO2 NO2
(1) They contain strong covalents bonds in
their polymer chains. H 
(2) Examples are bakelite and melamine. (1) Y (2) H
(3) They are formed from bi- and tri-functional Y 
monomers.
(4) They contain covalent bonds between NO2 NO2
various linear polymer chains.
Answer ( 1 ) 
S o l . Cross linked or network polymers are formed (3) (4)
from bi-functional and tri-functional monomers 
and contain strong covalent bonds between Y H Y H
various linear polymer chains, e.g. bakelite,
melamine etc. Option (1) is not related to Answer ( 2 )
cross-linking.
S o l . –NO2 group exhibit –I effect and it decreases
So option (1) should be the correct option. with increase in distance. In option (2)
167. Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium positive charge present on C-atom at
also gives m-nitroaniline because maximum distance so –I effect reaching to it
(1) In acidic (strong) medium aniline is is minimum and stability is maximum.
present as anilinium ion. 170. Which of the following is correct with respect
(2) In absence of substituents nitro group to – I effect of the substituents? (R = alkyl)
always goes to m-position.
(1) – NR2 > – OR > – F
(3) In electrophilic substitution reactions
amino group is meta directive. (2) – NH2 > – OR > – F
(4) Inspite of substituents nitro group always (3) – NR2 < – OR < – F
goes to only m-position.
(4) – NH2 < – OR < – F
Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 4 * )
NH2 NH3
S o l . –I effect increases on increasing
H electronegativity of atom. So, correct order of
Sol.
–I effect is –NH2 < – OR < – F.
Anilinium ion
*Most appropriate Answer is option (4),
–NH3 is m-directing, hence besides para however option (3) may also be correct answer.
(51%) and ortho (2%), meta product (47%) is 171. Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form
also formed in significant yield. an ionic compound. If the ground state
168. Which of the following molecules represents electronic configuration of (X) is 1s2 2s2 2p3,
the order of hybridisation sp2, sp2, sp, sp from the simplest formula for this compound is
left to right atoms?
(1) Mg3X2 (2) Mg2X
(1) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
(2) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2 (3) MgX2 (4) Mg2X3
(3) CH2 = CH – C  CH Answer ( 1 )
(4) HC  C – C  CH S o l . Element (X) electronic configuration
Answer ( 3 ) 1s2 2s2 2p3
2 2
sp sp sp sp
So, valency of X will be 3.
S o l . CH2  CH – C  CH
Valency of Mg is 2.
Number of orbital require in hybridization
Formula of compound formed by Mg and X will
= Number of -bonds around each carbon
be Mg3X2.
atom.
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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-SS) LAACH

172. Iron exhibits bcc structure at room 174. Consider the following species :
temperature. Above 900°C, it transforms to CN+, CN–, NO and CN
fcc structure. The ratio of density of iron at
Which one of these will have the highest bond
room temperature to that at 900°C (assuming
order?
molar mass and atomic radii of iron remains
constant with temperature) is (1) CN (2) CN+
(3) CN– (4) NO
1 3 3
(1) (2) Answer ( 3 )
2 4 2
S o l . NO : (1s) 2 , ( 1s) 2 , (2s) 2,( 2s) 2,(2p z) 2 ,
4 3 3 (2px)2 = (2py)2,(2px)1 = (2py)0
(3) (4)
3 2 2
10  5
Answer ( 2 ) BO =  2.5
2
4r CN– : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2
S o l . For BCC lattice : Z = 2, a 
3 = (2py)2,(2pz)2

For FCC lattice : Z = 4, a = 2 2 r 10  4


BO = 3
2
 ZM  CN : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2
 N a3 
d25C  A  BCC
= (2py)2,(2pz)1
 
d900C  ZM  9 4
 N a3  BO =  2.5
 A  FCC 2
3 CN+ : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2
2  2 2 r 3 3
= (2py)2
 
4  4r   4 2 
  8 4
 3  BO = 2
2
173. Which one is a wrong statement?
Hence, option(3) should be the right answer.
(1) The value of m for dz2 is zero
(2) The electronic configuration of N atom is 175. Identify the major products P, Q and R in the
1 1 1 following sequence of reactions:
1s2 2s2 2px 2py 2pz
Anhydrous
AlCl3
+ CH3CH2CH2Cl
(3) An orbital is designated by three quantum (i) O2
numbers while an electron in an atom is P (ii) H3O+/
Q+R
designated by four quantum numbers
P Q R
(4) Total orbital angular momentum of
electron in 's' orbital is equal to zero OH
CH(CH3)2
Answer ( 2 ) (1) , , CH3 – CO – CH3
S o l . According to Hund's Rule of maximum
multiplicity, the correct electronic CH(CH3)2 OH
configuration of N-atom is , , CH3CH(OH)CH3
(2)

CH2CH2CH3 CHO COOH


2 2 3
1s 2s 2p
(3) , ,
OR
CH 2CH 2CH3 CHO

(4) , , CH3CH2 – OH
2 2 3
1s 2s 2p
 Option (2) violates Hund's Rule. Answer ( 1 )

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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-SS) LAACH

Cl (3) The half-life of a first-order reaction does


not depend on [A] 0 ; the half-life of a
S o l . CH3CH2CH2 – Cl + Al
second-order reaction does depend on
Cl Cl [A]0

+ 1, 2–H + –
(4) The rate of a first-order reaction does not
Shift
CH3 – CH – CH3 CH3CH2CH2 Cl AlCl3 depend on reactant concentrations; the
(Incipient carbocation) rate of a second-order reaction does
Cl depend on reactant concentrations
– Answer ( 3 )
AlCl3
Now, 0.693
Sol.  For first order reaction, t 1/2  ,
k
CH3
which is independent of initial
CH – CH3 concentration of reactant.
CH3 – CH – CH3 O2
1
 For second order reaction, t 1/2  ,
k[A0 ]
(P)
which depends on initial concentration of
CH3
reactant.
OH HC
3 –C – O– O –H 178. Among CaH2, BeH2, BaH2, the order of ionic
O
+
H /H2O character is
CH3 – C – CH3 + Hydroperoxide
Rearrangement (1) BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2
(R) (Q)
(2) BeH2 < BaH2 < CaH2
176. Which of the following compounds can form a (3) CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2
zwitterion?
(4) BeH2 < CaH2 < BaH2
(1) Glycine
Answer ( 4 )
(2) Benzoic acid S o l . For 2nd group hydrides, on moving down the
(3) Acetanilide group metallic character of metals increases
so ionic character of metal hydride increases.
(4) Aniline Hence the option (4) should be correct option.
Answer ( 1 ) 179. Consider the change in oxidation state of
Bromine corresponding to different emf values
  as shown in the diagram below :
Sol. H3N – CH2 – COOH H3N – CH2 – COO–
(Zwitterion form)
– 1.82 V – 1.5 V
pKa = 9.60 pKa = 2.34 BrO4 BrO3 HBrO


H2N – CH2 – COO– Br 1.0652 V Br2 1.595 V

177. The correct difference between first and Then the species undergoing
second order reactions is that disproportionation is
(1) The rate of a first-order reaction does (1) HBrO
depend on reactant concentrations; the
(2) Br2
rate of a second-order reaction does not
depend on reactant concentrations (3) BrO4
(2) A first-order reaction can catalyzed; a (4) BrO3
second-order reaction cannot be
catalyzed Answer ( 1 )

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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-SS) LAACH

1 0 Answer ( 4 )
o
S o l . HBrO 
 Br2 , EHBrO/Br  1.595 V
2
S o l . (1) Molecules of water = mole × NA = 10–3 NA
1 5
 BrO3 , Eo
HBrO   1.5 V
BrO3 /HBrO 0.00224
(2) Moles of water = = 10–4
o 22.4
Ecell for the disproportionation of HBrO,
o
Ecell o
 EHBrO/Br  Eo Molecules of water = mole × NA = 10–4 NA
2 BrO3 /HBrO
= 1.595 – 1.5 0.18
= 0.095 V = + ve (3) Molecules of water = mole × NA = NA
18
Hence, option (1) is correct answer.
180. In which case is number of molecules of = 10–2 NA
water maximum?
(4) Mass of water = 18 × 1 = 18 g
(1) 10–3 mol of water
(2) 0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and 18
273 K Molecules of water = mole × NA = NA
18
(3) 0.18 g of water
(4) 18 mL of water = NA

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