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Neet Code Ss Solution
Neet Code Ss Solution
SS
LAACH
Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720
for
NEET (UG) - 2018
Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and this Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries
4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response,
one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
2. Use Blue / Black Ballpoint Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.
3. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
4. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before
leaving the Room / Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
5. The CODE for this Booklet is SS.
6. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on
the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the
Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
7. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admission Card to the Invigilator.
8. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her
seat.
9. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
10. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their
conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and
Regulations of this examination.
11. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
12. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet
in the Attendance Sheet.
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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-SS) LAACH
Sol. B
VC
perihelion
A C
O S
n aphelion
VA
2. A set of 'n' equal resistors, of value 'R' each,
are connected in series to a battery of emf 'E' Point A is perihelion and C is aphelion.
and internal resistance 'R'. The current drawn
is I. Now, the 'n' resistors are connected in So, VA > VB > VC
parallel to the same battery. Then the current So, KA > KB > KC
drawn from battery becomes 10 I. The value of
5. If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller
'n' is
and the universal gravitational constant were
(1) 9 (2) 20 ten times larger in magnitude, which of the
(3) 11 (4) 10 following is not correct?
Answer ( 4 ) (1) ‘g’ on the Earth will not change
E (2) Time period of a simple pendulum on the
Sol. I ...(i) Earth would decrease
nR R
(3) Walking on the ground would become
E
10 I ...(ii) more difficult
R
R (4) Raindrops will fall faster
n
Dividing (ii) by (i), Answer ( 1 )
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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-SS) LAACH
6. A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling 9. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a
motion a body possesses translational kinetic plane surface of a material of refractive index
energy (K t ) as well as rotational kinetic ''. At a particular angle of incidence 'i', it is
energy (K r ) simultaneously. The ratio found that the reflected and refracted rays are
Kt : (Kt + Kr) for the sphere is perpendicular to each other. Which of the
(1) 2 : 5 (2) 10 : 7 following options is correct for this situation?
(3) 5 : 7 (4) 7 : 10 1
(1) i tan1
Answer ( 3 )
1 1
S o l . Kt mv 2 (2) i sin1
2
2 (3) Reflected light is polarised with its
1 1 1 1 2 v
Kt Kr mv2 I2 mv2 mr 2 electric vector perpendicular to the plane
2 2 2 25 r
of incidence
7
mv2 (4) Reflected light is polarised with its
10 electric vector parallel to the plane of
incidence
Kt 5
So, Answer ( 3 )
Kt Kr 7
S o l . When reflected light rays and refracted rays
7. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its are perpendicular, reflected light is polarised
symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the with electric field vector perpendicular to the
sphere is increased keeping its mass same. plane of incidence.
Which of the following physical quantities
would remain constant for the sphere?
(1) Angular momentum
i
(2) Rotational kinetic energy
(3) Moment of inertia
(4) Angular velocity
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . ex = 0
Also, tan i = (Brewster angle)
dL
So, 0 10. In Young's double slit experiment the
dt
i.e. L = constant separation d between the slits is 2 mm, the
wavelength of the light used is 5896 Å and
So angular momentum remains constant.
distance D between the screen and slits is
8. An astronomical refracting telescope will 100 cm. It is found that the angular width of
have large angular magnification and high the fringes is 0.20°. To increase the fringe
angular resolution, when it has an objective angular width to 0.21° (with same and D) the
lens of separation between the slits needs to be
(1) Small focal length and small diameter changed to
(2) Large focal length and large diameter (1) 1.7 mm (2) 2.1 mm
(3) Large focal length and small diameter (3) 1.9 mm (4) 1.8 mm
(4) Small focal length and large diameter Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Angular width
f0 d
S o l . For telescope, angular magnification =
fE
0.20 …(i)
So, focal length of objective lens should be 2 mm
large.
0.21 …(ii)
D d
Angular resolution = should be large.
1.22 0.20 d
Dividing we get, 0.21 2 mm
So, objective should have large focal length
(f0) and large diameter D. d = 1.9 mm
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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-SS) LAACH
11. The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies 13. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working
with its temperature (T), as shown in the between the freezing point and boiling point of
graph. The ratio of work done by the gas, to water, is
the heat absorbed by it, when it undergoes a (1) 12.5% (2) 6.25%
change from state A to state B, is
(3) 20% (4) 26.8%
Answer ( 4 )
T
S o l . Efficiency of ideal heat engine, 1 2
T1
T2 : Sink temperature
2 1
(1) (2) T1 : Source temperature
7 3
T
2 2 % 1 2 100
(3) (4) T1
3 5
273
Answer ( 4 ) 1 100
373
S o l . Given process is isobaric
100
100 26.8%
dQ n Cp dT 373
14. At what temperature will the rms speed of
5 oxygen molecules become just sufficient for
dQ n R dT
2 escaping from the Earth's atmosphere?
dW P dV = n RdT (Given :
Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = 2.76 × 10–26 kg
dW nRdT 2
Required ratio Boltzmann's constant kB = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1)
dQ 5 5
n R dT (1) 1.254 × 104 K (2) 5.016 × 104 K
2
(3) 8.360 × 104 K (4) 2.508 × 104 K
12. The fundamental frequency in an open organ
pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed Answer ( 3 )
organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ S o l . Vescape = 11200 m/s
pipe is 20 cm, the length of the open organ
Say at temperature T it attains Vescape
pipe is
(1) 16 cm (2) 12.5 cm 3kB T
So, 11200 m/s
(3) 8 cm (4) 13.2 cm mO2
Answer ( 4 ) On solving,
S o l . For closed organ pipe, third harmonic
T = 8.360 × 104 K
3v
15. A toy car with charge q moves on a
4l frictionless horizontal plane surface under
For open organ pipe, fundamental frequency the influence of a uniform
electric field E .
Due to the force q E , its velocity increases
v
from 0 to 6 m/s in one second duration. At
2l
that instant the direction of the field is
Given, reversed. The car continues to move for two
3v v
more seconds under the influence of this field.
The average velocity and the average speed
4l 2l
of the toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are
4l 2l respectively
l
32 3 (1) 1.5 m/s, 3 m/s (2) 1 m/s, 3.5 m/s
A Answer ( 1 )
m
Sol. Y
a
F
C B
(1) a = g tan (2) a = g cos A r r0
P
g g
(3) a (4) a r0
sin cosec r
Answer ( 1 )
O X
Sol. N cos
(r r0 ) F ...(i)
N
ˆ (2iˆ 2 ˆj 2k)
ˆ
r r0 (2iˆ 0ˆj 3k)
ma N sin 0iˆ 2 ˆj kˆ
(pseudo) ˆi ˆj kˆ
0 2 1 7iˆ 4 ˆj 8kˆ
mg a 4 5 6
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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-SS) LAACH
19. An em wave is propagating in a medium with Sol.
a velocity V Viˆ . The instantaneous f = 15 cm
oscillating electric field of this em wave is O 40 cm
along +y axis. Then the direction of oscillating
magnetic field of the em wave will be along
(1) –x direction (2) –y direction
(3) +z direction (4) –z direction
1 1 1
Answer ( 3 )
f v1 u
Sol. E B V 1 1 1
– –
15 v1 40
ˆ (B) Viˆ
(Ej) 1 1 1
v1 –15 40
So, B Bkˆ
v1 = –24 cm
Direction of propagation is along +z direction.
When object is displaced by 20 cm towards
20. The magnetic potential energy stored in a
mirror.
certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in
the inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of Now,
inductance
u2 = –20
(1) 13.89 H
(2) 1.389 H 1 1 1
f v2 u2
(3) 138.88 H
(4) 0.138 H 1 1 1
–
–15 v2 20
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Energy stored in inductor 1 1 1
–
v2 20 15
1 2
U Ll
2 v2 = –60 cm
1
25 10 –3 L (60 10 –3 )2 So, image shifts away from mirror by
2
= 60 – 24 = 36 cm.
25 2 106 10–3
L 22. The refractive index of the material of a
3600
500 prism is 2 and the angle of the prism is 30°.
One of the two refracting surfaces of the
36
prism is made a mirror inwards, by silver
= 13.89 H coating. A beam of monochromatic light
21. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm entering the prism from the other face will
from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. retrace its path (after reflection from the
If the object is displaced through a distance silvered surface) if its angle of incidence on
of 20 cm towards the mirror, the the prism is
displacement of the image will be
(1) Zero
(1) 36 cm towards the mirror
(2) 30°
(2) 30 cm towards the mirror
(3) 36 cm away from the mirror (3) 45°
M 60° Vi = 0 + IBRB
i 30°
20 = IB × 500 × 103
20
IB 40 A
2 500 103
IC 25 103
Applying Snell's law at M, 125
Ib 40 106
sin i 2 24. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature
sin30 1 due to heating
1 (1) Affects the overall V - I characteristics of
sin i 2 p-n junction
2
(2) Does not affect resistance of p-n junction
1
sin i i.e. i = 45° (3) Affects only forward resistance
2
(4) Affects only reverse resistance
23. In the circuit shown in the figure, the input
voltage Vi is 20 V, VBE = 0 and VCE = 0. The Answer ( 1 )
values of IB, IC and are given by S o l . Due to heating, number of electron-hole pairs
20 V will increase, so overall resistance of diode
will change.
RC 4 k
Due to which forward biasing and reversed
C biasing both are changed.
RB
Vi 25. In the combination of the following gates the
500 k B
E output Y can be written in terms of inputs A
and B as
A
(1) IB = 40 A, IC = 5 mA, = 125 B
Y
(2) IB = 20 A, IC = 5 mA, = 250
(3) IB = 25 A, IC = 5 mA, = 200
(4) IB = 40 A, IC = 10 mA, = 250 (1) A B
Answer ( 1 )
(2) A B A B
S o l . VBE = 0
(3) A B A B
VCE = 0
Vb = 0 (4) A B
20 V Answer ( 3 )
A
IC RC = 4 k Sol. A AB
B
RB B
Vi Vb Y
Ib 500 k A
AB
B
Y (A B A B)
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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-SS) LAACH
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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-SS) LAACH
30. A metallic rod of mass per unit length 32. A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically
0.5 kg m–1 is lying horizontally on a smooth between the poles of an electromagnet. When
inclined plane which makes an angle of 30° the current in the electromagnet is switched
with the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to on, then the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out
slide down by flowing a current through it of the horizontal magnetic field. Hence the
when a magnetic field of induction 0.25 T is rod gains gravitational potential energy. The
acting on it in the vertical direction. The work required to do this comes from
current flowing in the rod to keep it stationary (1) The induced electric field due to the
is changing magnetic field
(2) The lattice structure of the material of the
(1) 11.32 A
rod
(2) 14.76 A (3) The magnetic field
(4) The current source
(3) 5.98 A
Answer ( 4 )
(4) 7.14 A S o l . Energy of current source will be converted
into potential energy of the rod.
Answer ( 1 )
33. Current sensitivity of a moving coil
S o l . For equilibrium, galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage
° sensitivity (angular deflection per unit voltage
B 30
mg sin30 Il Bcos 30 s applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the
co galvanometer is
llB
° 30° llB (1) 500 (2) 250
I
mg
tan30 30
n
lB si (3) 25 (4) 40
g
m 30° Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Current sensitivity
0.5 9.8
11.32 A NBA
0.25 3 IS
C
31. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 F and a Voltage sensitivity
resistor 50 are connected in series across NBA
VS
a source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power CRG
loss in the circuit is So, resistance of galvanometer
(1) 1.13 W IS 51 5000
RG 250
VS 20 103 20
(2) 2.74 W
34. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in
(3) 0.43 W a glass tube. The length of the air column in
this tube can be adjusted by a variable piston.
(4) 0.79 W At room temperature of 27ºC two successive
resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm
Answer ( 4 ) of column length. If the frequency of the
tuning fork is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in
2
V air at 27ºC is
S o l . Pav RMS R
Z (1) 300 m/s (2) 350 m/s
(3) 339 m/s (4) 330 m/s
2
2 1
Z R L 56 Answer ( 3 )
C
S o l . v = 2 () [L2 – L1]
2 = 2 × 320 [73 – 20] × 10–2
10 = 339.2 ms–1
Pav 50 0.79 W
2 56
= 339 m/s
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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-SS) LAACH
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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-SS) LAACH
39. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy S o l . Number of nuclei remaining = 600 – 450 = 150
of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen
atom, is n
N 1
(1) 1 : –2 N0 2
(2) 2 : –1
(3) 1 : –1 t
150 1 t 1/2
(4) 1 : 1
600 2
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . KE = –(total energy)
t
2
So, Kinetic energy : total energy = 1 : –1 1 1 t 1/2
2 2
40. When the light of frequency 20 (where 0 is
threshold frequency), is incident on a metal
plate, the maximum velocity of electrons t = 2t1/2 = 2 × 10
emitted is v 1 . When the frequency of the
incident radiation is increased to 5 0, the = 20 minute
maximum velocity of electrons emitted from
42. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin
the same plate is v2. The ratio of v1 to v2 is
circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 4 : 1 have the same mass M and radius R. They all
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 2 spin with the same angular speed about
their own symmetry axes. The amounts of
Answer ( 4 )
work (W) required to bring them to rest, would
1 satisfy the relation
S o l . E W0 mv2
2
(1) WA > WC > WB
1
h(20 ) h0 mv12
2 (2) WB > WA > WC
1
h 0 mv12 …(i) (3) WA > WB > WC
2
1 (4) WC > WB > WA
h(50 ) h0 mv22
2
Answer ( 4 )
1
4h0 mv22 …(ii)
2 S o l . Work done required to bring them rest
Divide (i) by (ii),
W = KE
1 v12
4 v22 1 2
W I
2
v1 1
v2 2
W I for same
41. For a radioactive material, half-life is 10
minutes. If initially there are 600 number of 2 1
nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the WA : WB : WC MR2 : MR2 : MR2
5 2
disintegration of 450 nuclei is
(1) 15
2 1
(2) 30 = : :1
5 2
(3) 10
= 4 : 5 : 10
(4) 20
Answer ( 4 ) WC > WB > WA
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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-SS) LAACH
43. A body initially at rest and sliding along a 44. Which one of the following statements is
frictionless track from a height h (as shown in incorrect?
the figure) just completes a vertical circle of
(1) Coefficient of sliding friction has
diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to
dimensions of length.
5 Answer ( 1 )
(1) D
4
S o l . Coefficient of sliding friction has no
dimension.
7
(2) D f = sN
5
(3) D f
s
N
3
(4) D 45. A moving block having mass m, collides with
2
another stationary block having mass 4m. The
Answer ( 1 ) lighter block comes to rest after collision.
When the initial velocity of the lighter block is
v, then the value of coefficient of restitution
Sol. (e) will be
(1) 0.4
h
B
(2) 0.8
vL (3) 0.25
A
(4) 0.5
As track is frictionless, so total mechanical Answer ( 3 )
energy will remain constant
S o l . According to law of conservation of linear
T.M.EI =T.M.EF momentum,
1 mv 4m 0 4mv 0
0 mgh mvL2 0
2
v
v
4
vL2
h
2g
v
Relative velocity of separation 4
e
For completing the vertical circle, vL 5gR Relative velocity of approach v
5gR 5 5 1
h R D e 0.25
2g 2 4 4
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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-SS) LAACH
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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-SS) LAACH
56. The difference between spermiogenesis and Intrinsic factor is essential for the absorption
spermiation is of vitamin B 12 and its deficiency causes
(1) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are pernicious anaemia.
formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa 59. Match the items given in Column I with those
are released from sertoli cells into the in Column II and select the correct option
cavity of seminiferous tubules. given below :
(2) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from Column I Column II
sertoli cells are released into the cavity of a. Fibrinogen (i) Osmotic balance
seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation
spermatozoa are formed. b. Globulin (ii) Blood clotting
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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-SS) LAACH
Long exposure can give rise to inflammation (1) Leaves (2) Roots
leading to fibrosis and thus causing serious (3) Latex (4) Flowers
lung damage. Answer ( 3 )
Anthrax is a serious infectious disease caused S o l . ‘Smack’ also called as brown sugar/Heroin is
by Bacillus anthracis. It commonly affects formed by acetylation of morphine. It is
domestic and wild animals. Emphysema is a obtained from the latex of unripe capsule of
chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are Poppy plant.
damaged due to which respiratory surface is
decreased. 65. In a growing population of a country,
Botulism is a form of food poisoning caused (1) pre-reproductive individuals are less than
by Clostridium botulinum. the reproductive individuals.
62. Match the items given in Column I with those (2) reproductive and pre-reproductive
in Column II and select the correct option individuals are equal in number.
given below : (3) reproductive individuals are less than the
Column-I Column-II post-reproductive individuals.
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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-SS) LAACH
68. A woman has an X-linked condition on one of 71. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism
her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be of evolution is
inherited by (1) Minor mutations
(1) Both sons and daughters (2) Phenotypic variations
(2) Only grandchildren (3) Saltation
(3) Only sons (4) Multiple step mutations
(4) Only daughters Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 1 ) S o l . As per mutation theory given by Hugo de
Sol. • Woman is a carrier Vries, the evolution is a discontinuous
phenomenon or saltatory phenomenon/
• Both son & daughter inherit X–chromosome
saltation.
• Although only son be the diseased
72. Which of the following options correctly
69. Match the items given in Column I with those represents the lung conditions in asthma and
in Column II and select the correct option emphysema, respectively?
given below :
(1) Decreased respiratory surface;
Column I Column II Inflammation of bronchioles
a. Proliferative Phase i. Breakdown of (2) Increased respiratory surface;
endometrial Inflammation of bronchioles
lining (3) Increased number of bronchioles;
Increased respiratory surface
b. Secretory Phase ii. Follicular Phase
(4) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased
c. Menstruation iii. Luteal Phase
respiratory surface
a b c
Answer ( 4 )
(1) iii i ii
S o l . Asthma is a difficulty in breathing causing
(2) ii iii i wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and
(3) i iii ii bronchioles. Emphysema is a chronic disorder
in which alveolar walls are damaged due to
(4) iii ii i
which respiratory surface is decreased.
Answer ( 2 )
73. Match the items given in Column I with those
S o l . During proliferative phase, the follicles start in Column II and select the correct option
developing, hence, called follicular phase. given below :
Secretory phase is also called as luteal phase Column I Column II
mainly controlled by progesterone secreted
a. Tricuspid valve i. Between left atrium
by corpus luteum. Estrogen further thickens
and left ventricle
the endometrium maintained by
progesterone. b. Bicuspid valve ii. Between right
ventricle and
Menstruation occurs due to decline in
pulmonary artery
progesterone level and involves breakdown of
overgrown endometrial lining. c. Semilunar valve iii. Between right
atrium and right
70. All of the following are part of an operon
ventricle
except
a b c
(1) a promoter (2) an enhancer
(1) ii i iii
(3) structural genes (4) an operator
Answer ( 2 ) (2) i ii iii
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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-SS) LAACH
S o l . Tricuspid valves are AV valve present 76. Which of the following structures or regions is
between right atrium and right ventricle. incorrectly paired with its functions?
Bicuspid valves are AV valve present between
(1) Corpus callosum : band of fibers
left atrium and left ventricle. Semilunar valves
connecting left and
are present at the openings of aortic and
right cerebral
pulmonary aorta.
hemispheres.
74. Match the items given in Column I with those
(2) Hypothalamus : production of
in Column II and select the correct option
releasing hormones
given below:
and regulation of
Column I Column II temperature,
a. Tidal volume i. 2500 – 3000 mL hunger and thirst.
b. Inspiratory Reserve ii. 1100 – 1200 mL (3) Limbic system : consists of fibre
tracts that
volume
interconnect
c. Expiratory Reserve iii. 500 – 550 mL different regions of
volume brain; controls
movement.
d. Residual volume iv. 1000 – 1100 mL
(4) Medulla oblongata : controls respiration
a b c d
and cardiovascular
(1) iv iii ii i reflexes.
(2) i iv ii iii Answer ( 3 )
(3) iii i iv ii S o l . Limbic system is emotional brain. It controls
(4) iii ii i iv all emotions in our body but not movements.
Answer ( 3 ) 77. Which of the following hormones can play a
significant role in osteoporosis?
S o l . Tidal volume is volume of air inspired or
expired during normal respiration. It is (1) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin
approximately 500 mL. Inspiratory reserve
(2) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone
volume is additional volume of air a person
can inspire by a forceful inspiration. It is (3) Progesterone and Aldosterone
around 2500 – 3000 mL. Expiratory reserve (4) Aldosterone and Prolactin
volume is additional volume of air a person
can be expired by a forceful expiration. This Answer ( 2 )
averages 1000 – 1100 mL. S o l . Estrogen promotes the activity of osteoblast
Residual volume is volume of air remaining in and inhibits osteoclast. In an ageing female
lungs even after forceful expiration. This osteoporosis occurs due to deficiency of
averages 1100 – 1200 mL. estrogen. Parathormone promotes
mobilisation of calcium from bone into blood.
75. Which of the following is an amino acid Excessive activity of parathormone causes
derived hormone? demineralisation leading to osteoporosis.
(1) Estriol 78. The transparent lens in the human eye is held
(2) Estradiol in its place by
(1) smooth muscles attached to the ciliary
(3) Ecdysone
body
(4) Epinephrine
(2) smooth muscles attached to the iris
Answer ( 4 )
(3) ligaments attached to the iris
S o l . Epinephrine is derived from tyrosine amino
(4) ligaments attached to the ciliary body
acid by the removal of carboxyl group. It is a
catecholamine. Answer ( 4 )
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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-SS) LAACH
S o l . Lens in the human eye is held in its place by 82. Nissl bodies are mainly composed of
suspensory ligaments attached to the ciliary (1) Free ribosomes and RER
body.
(2) Nucleic acids and SER
79. Which of the following terms describe human
(3) DNA and RNA
dentition?
(4) Proteins and lipids
(1) Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
Answer ( 1 )
(2) Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont
S o l . Nissl granules are present in the cyton and
(3) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont even extend into the dendrite but absent in
(4) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont axon and rest of the neuron.
Nissl granules are in fact composed of free
Answer ( 3 )
ribosomes and RER. They are responsible for
S o l . In humans, dentition is protein synthesis.
Thecodont : Teeth are present in the 83. Many ribosomes may associate with a single
sockets of the jaw bone called alveoli. mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide
simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are
Diphyodont : Teeth erupts twice,
termed as
temporary milk or deciduous teeth are
replaced by a set of permanent or adult (1) Nucleosome
teeth. (2) Plastidome
Heterodont dentition : Dentition consists (3) Polyhedral bodies
of different types of teeth namely incisors,
(4) Polysome
canine, premolars and molars.
Answer ( 4 )
80. Which of the following events does not occur
in rough endoplasmic reticulum? S o l . The phenomenon of association of many
ribosomes with single m-RNA leads to
(1) Phospholipid synthesis formation of polyribosomes or polysomes or
(2) Cleavage of signal peptide ergasomes.
84. Which of these statements is incorrect?
(3) Protein glycosylation
(1) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in
(4) Protein folding
outer mitochondrial membrane
Answer ( 1 ) (2) Glycolysis operates as long as it is
S o l . Phospholipid synthesis does not take place in supplied with NAD that can pick up
RER. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum are hydrogen atoms
involved in lipid synthesis. (3) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol
81. Select the incorrect match : (4) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in
mitochondrial matrix
(1) Polytene – Oocytes of
chromosomes amphibians Answer ( 1 )
(3) Allosomes – Sex chromosomes 85. Identify the vertebrate group of animals
characterized by crop and gizzard in its
(4) Lampbrush – Diplotene bivalents digestive system
chromosomes (1) Osteichthyes
Answer ( 1 ) (2) Aves
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86. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in 90. Which one of these animals is not a
homeotherm?
(1) having two types of nuclei
(1) Psittacula (2) Camelus
(2) using pseudopodia for capturing prey
(3) having a contractile vacuole for removing (3) Chelone (4) Macropus
excess water Answer ( 3 )
(4) using flagella for locomotion S o l . Homeotherm are animals that maintain
Answer ( 1 ) constant body temperature, irrespective of
surrounding temperature.
S o l . Ciliates differs from other protozoans in
having two types of nuclei. Birds and mammals are homeotherm.
eg. Paramoecium have two types of nuclei i.e. Chelone (Turtle) belongs to class reptilia
macronucleus & micronucleus. which is Poikilotherm or cold blood.
87. Which of the following animals does not 91. Which of the following pairs is wrongly
undergo metamorphosis? matched?
(1) Starfish (1) T.H. Morgan : Linkage
(2) Moth
(2) XO type sex : Grasshopper
(3) Tunicate
determination
(4) Earthworm
(3) ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance
Answer ( 4 )
(4) Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles
S o l . Metamorphosis refers to transformation of
larva into adult. Answer ( 4 )
Animal that perform metamorphosis are said S o l . Starch synthesis in pea is controlled by
to have indirect development. pleiotropic gene.
In earthworm development is direct which Other options (1, 2 & 3) are correctly
means no larval stage and hence no matched.
metamorphosis.
92. Which of the following flowers only once in its
88. Which of the following features is used to life-time?
identify a male cockroach from a female
(1) Papaya
cockroach?
(1) Presence of anal cerci (2) Mango
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105. Which of the following elements is responsible Sol. • The given data depicts the inverted
for maintaining turgor in cells? pyramid of biomass, usually found in
(1) Calcium (2) Potassium aquatic ecosystem.
• Pyramid of energy is always upright
(3) Sodium (4) Magnesium
• Upright pyramid of biomass and numbers
Answer ( 2 )
are not possible, as the data depicts
S o l . Potassium helps in maintaining turgidity of primary producer is less than primary
cells. consumer and this is less than secondary
106. What is the role of NAD+ in cellular respiration? consumers.
(1) It is the final electron acceptor for 110. Natality refers to
anaerobic respiration. (1) Number of individuals entering a habitat
(2) It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis. (2) Number of individuals leaving the habitat
(3) It functions as an electron carrier. (3) Birth rate
(4) It functions as an enzyme. (4) Death rate
Answer ( 3 ) Answer ( 3 )
S o l . In cellular respiration, NAD+ act as an electron S o l . Natality refers to birth rate.
carrier. • Death rate – Mortality
107. Double fertilization is • Number of individual – Immigration
(1) Syngamy and triple fusion entering a habitat is
(2) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg • Number of individual – Emigration
leaving the habital
(3) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar
nuclei 111. Which of the following is a secondary
pollutant?
(4) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen
tube with two different eggs (1) O3
Answer ( 1 ) (2) SO2
S o l . Double fertilization is a unique phenomenon (3) CO2
that occur in angiosperms only. (4) CO
Syngamy + Triple fusion = Double fertilization Answer ( 1 )
108. Pollen grains can be stored for several years S o l . O3 (ozone) is a secondary pollutant. These are
in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of formed by the reaction of primary pollutant.
(1) –160°C (2) –196°C CO – Quantitative pollutant
(3) –80°C (4) –120°C CO2 – Primary pollutant
Answer ( 2 ) SO2 – Primary pollutant
S o l . Pollen grains can be stored for several years in 112. In stratosphere, which of the following
liquid nitrogen at –196°C (Cryopreservation) elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of
ozone and release of molecular oxygen?
109. What type of ecological pyramid would be
obtained with the following data? (1) Oxygen
Secondary consumer : 120 g (2) Fe
Primary consumer : 60 g (3) Cl
Primary producer : 10 g (4) Carbon
(1) Upright pyramid of biomass Answer ( 3 )
(2) Upright pyramid of numbers S o l . UV rays act on CFCs, releasing Cl atoms,
chlorine reacts with ozone in sequential
(3) Pyramid of energy method converting into oxygen
(4) Inverted pyramid of biomass Carbon, oxygen and Fe are not related to
Answer ( 4 ) ozone layer depletion
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21st April - National Yellow Bat Day Sol. Halophytes like mangrooves have
pneumatophores.
22nd April - National Earth Day
Apogeotropic (–vely geotropic) roots
115. Which of the following statements is correct? having lenticels called pneumathodes to
uptake O2.
(1) Stems are usually unbranched in both
Cycas and Cedrus 119. Select the wrong statement :
(2) Horsetails are gymnosperms (1) Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the
cell in all kingdoms except Monera
(3) Selaginella is heterosporous, while
Salvinia is homosporous (2) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding
structures in Sporozoans
(4) Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in
gymnosperms (3) Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes
(4) Cell wall is present in members of Fungi
Answer ( 4 )
and Plantae
Sol. • Gymnosperms have naked ovule. Answer ( 2 )
• Called phanerogams without womb/ovary S o l . Pseudopodia are locomotory structures in
116. Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem sarcodines (Amoeboid)
are produced by 120. Casparian strips occur in
(1) Axillary meristems (1) Endodermis
(2) Phellogen (2) Cortex
(3) Vascular cambium (3) Pericycle
Answer ( 3 ) Answer ( 1 )
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Sol. • Endodermis have casparian strip on radial S o l . Retrovirus is commonly used as vector for
and inner tangential wall. introducing a DNA fragment in human
• It is suberin rich. lymphocyte.
121. Plants having little or no secondary growth Gene therapy : Lymphocyte from blood of
are patient are grown in culture outside the body,
(1) Cycads a functional gene is introduced by using a
(2) Conifers retroviral vector, into these lymphocyte.
(3) Deciduous angiosperms 124. Use of bioresources by multinational companies
(4) Grasses and organisations without authorisation from the
Answer ( 4 ) concerned country and its people is called
Sharbati Sonora and Lerma Rojo are varieties (1) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
of wheat. (2) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
123. Which of the following is commonly used as a (3) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
vector for introducing a DNA fragment in (4) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
human lymphocytes?
Answer ( 1 )
(1) pBR 322 S o l . This technique is used for making multiple
(2) phage copies of gene (or DNA) of interest in vitro.
Each cycle has three steps
(3) Ti plasmid
(i) Denaturation
(4) Retrovirus
(ii) Primer annealing
Answer ( 4 )
(iii) Extension of primer
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127. In India, the organisation responsible for 131. The two functional groups characteristic of
assessing the safety of introducing sugars are
genetically modified organisms for public use (1) Carbonyl and hydroxyl
is (2) Carbonyl and phosphate
(1) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (3) Carbonyl and methyl
(GEAC) (4) Hydroxyl and methyl
(2) Research Committee on Genetic Answer ( 1 )
Manipulation (RCGM)
S o l . Sugar is a common term used to denote
(3) Council for Scientific and Industrial carbohydrate.
Research (CSIR) Carbohydrates are polyhydroxy aldehyde,
(4) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) ketone or their derivatives, which means they
have carbonyl and hydroxyl groups.
Answer ( 1 )
132. Which of the following is not a product of light
S o l . Indian Government has setup organisation
reaction of photosynthesis?
such as GEAC (Genetic Engineering Appraisal
(1) Oxygen (2) NADPH
Committee) which will make decisions
regarding the validity of GM research and (3) NADH (4) ATP
safety of introducing GM-organism for public Answer ( 3 )
services. (Direct from NCERT). S o l . ATP, NADPH and oxygen are products of light
128. The stage during which separation of the reaction, while NADH is a product of
paired homologous chromosomes begins is respiration process.
136. On which of the following properties does the Sol. • van der waal constant ‘a’, signifies
coagulating power of an ion depend? intermolecular forces of attraction.
(1) The sign of charge on the ion alone • Higher is the value of ‘a’, easier will be
(2) Both magnitude and sign of the charge on the liquefaction of gas.
the ion 139. Following solutions were prepared by mixing
(3) Size of the ion alone different volumes of NaOH and HCl of
different concentrations :
(4) The magnitude of the charge on the ion
alone M M
a. 60 mL HCl + 40 mL NaOH
Answer ( 2 ) 10 10
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141. Which of the following statements is not true 144. The correct order of N-compounds in its
for halogens? decreasing order of oxidation states is
(1) Chlorine has the highest electron-gain (1) NH4Cl, N2, NO, HNO3
enthalpy
(2) HNO3, NH4Cl, NO, N2
(2) All but fluorine show positive oxidation
states (3) HNO3, NO, NH4Cl, N2
(3) All are oxidizing agents (4) HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl
Answer ( 2 ) 5 2 0 –3
S o l . H N O , N O, N2 , NH Cl
3 4
S o l . Due to high electronegativity and small size,
F forms only one oxoacid, HOF known as Hence, the correct option is (4).
Fluoric (I) acid. Oxidation number of F is +1 in
HOF. 145. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13
elements is
142. In the structure of ClF3, the number of lone
pair of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is (1) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl
Answer ( 3 ) Sol.
F
146. The compound A on treatment with Na gives
B, and with PCl 5 gives C. B and C react
F Cl
together to give diethyl ether. A, B and C are
in the order
F
(1) C2H5OH, C2H5ONa, C2H5Cl
The number of lone pair of electrons on (2) C2H5Cl, C2H6, C2H5OH
central Cl is 2.
(3) C2H5OH, C2H5Cl, C2H5ONa
143. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the
following metals can be used to reduce (4) C2H5OH, C2H6, C2H5Cl
alumina?
Answer ( 1 )
(1) Cu
C2H5O Na+
Na
S o l . C2H5OH
(2) Mg (A) (B)
(3) Zn PCl5
(4) Fe C2H5Cl
Answer ( 2 ) (C)
C2H5O Na+ + C2H5Cl
SN2
S o l . The metal which is more reactive than 'Al' C2H5OC2 H5
can reduce alumina i.e. 'Mg' should be the (B) (C)
correct option. So the correct option is (1)
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147. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by 150. The type of isomerism shown by the complex
substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by [CoCl2(en)2] is
Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous
(1) Linkage isomerism
hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon
atoms. (A) is (2) Ionization isomerism
CH3 — CH3
Hence the correct option is (1)
148. The compound C7H8 undergoes the following
reactions:
3Cl / Br /Fe Zn/HCl • As per given option, type of isomerism is
C7H8
2
A
2
B
C
geometrical isomerism.
The product 'C' is
151. Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d
(1) p-bromotoluene transition and paramagnetism as well?
(2) 3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene (1) MnO42– (2) MnO4–
(3) o-bromotoluene
(3) Cr2O72– (4) CrO42–
(4) m-bromotoluene
Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . CrO42– Cr6+ = [Ar]
CH3 CCl3 CCl3
Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic
3Cl 2 Br2
Sol. Cr2O72– Cr6+ = [Ar]
Fe
Br
(C7H8) (A) (B) Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic
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CO
Spin magnetic moment = 3(3 2) 15 BM
Answer ( 3 )
The electrophile involved is
S o l . • Based on the number of metal atoms
present in a complex, they are classified
(1) Dichlorocarbene : CCl2
into mononuclear, dinuclear, trinuclear and
so on.
Fe3(CO)12: trinuclear
(3) Formyl cation CHO
Hence, option (3) should be the right
answer. (4) Dichloromethyl cation CHCl2
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156. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points 158. The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and
than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of XY are in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1. H for the
comparable molecular mass. It is due to their formation of XY is –200 kJ mol–1. The bond
dissociation energy of X2 will be
(1) Formation of intermolecular H-bonding
(1) 400 kJ mol–1 (2) 800 kJ mol–1
(2) More extensive association of carboxylic (3) 100 kJ mol–1 (4) 200 kJ mol–1
acid via van der Waals force of attraction
Answer ( 2 )
(3) Formation of carboxylate ion
S o l . The reaction for fH°(XY)
(4) Formation of intramolecular H-bonding
1 1
Answer ( 1 ) X2 (g) Y2 (g)
XY(g)
2 2
S o l . Due to formation of intermolecular H-bonding
X
in carboxylic acid, association occurs. Hence Bond energies of X2, Y2 and XY are X, , X
boiling point increases and become more 2
respectively
than the boiling point of aldehydes, ketones
and alcohols of comparable molecular X X
masses. H X 200
2 4
157. Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with On solving, we get
NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and
yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic X X
200
smell. 2 4
A and Y are respectively X = 800 kJ/mole
CH3 159. When initial concentration of the reactant is
doubled, the half-life period of a zero order
(1) CH3 reaction
OH and I2
(1) Remains unchanged
(2) Is tripled
CH – CH3 and I2 (3) Is doubled
(2)
(4) Is halved
OH
Answer ( 3 )
CH2 – CH2 – OH and I2 S o l . Half life of zero order
(3)
[A0 ]
t 1/2
2K
(4) H3C CH2 – OH and I2 t 1/2 will be doubled on doubling the initial
concentration.
Answer ( 2 ) 160. The correction factor ‘a’ to the ideal gas
S o l . Option (2) is secondary alcohol which on equation corresponds to
oxidation gives phenylmethyl ketone (1) Forces of attraction between the gas
(Acetophenone). This on reaction with I2 and molecules
NaOH form iodoform and sodium benzoate. (2) Electric field present between the gas
molecules
2NaOH I2 NaOI NaI H2 O
(3) Volume of the gas molecules
CH – CH3 NaOI
C – CH3 (4) Density of the gas molecules
OH O Answer ( 1 )
Acetophenone
(A)
2
S o l . In real gas equation, P an (V nb) nRT
I2 V2
COONa + CHI3 NaOH
Iodoform van der Waal’s constant, ‘a’ signifies
Sodium benzoate (Yellow PPt) intermolecular forces of attraction.
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1
4.5 g or mol
(2) 2 16 5 20
(3) 2 5 16
Gaseous mixture formed is CO and CO2 when
(4) 16 5 2 it is passed through KOH, only CO 2 is
Answer ( 3 ) absorbed. So the remaining gas is CO.
Reduction So, weight of remaining gaseous product CO is
+7 +3 +4
S o l . MnO4– + C2O42– + H+ 2+
Mn + CO2 + H2O 2
28 2.8 g
Oxidation 20
So, the correct option is (2)
n-factor of MnO4 5
164. The difference between amylose and
n-factor of C2 O24 2 amylopectin is
(1) Amylose is made up of glucose and
Ratio of n-factors of MnO4 and C2 O24 is 5 : 2
galactose
So, molar ratio in balanced reaction is 2 : 5
The balanced equation is (2) Amylopectin have 1 4 -linkage and
1 6 -linkage
2MnO4 5C2 O24
16H 2Mn 2
10CO2 8H2 O
162. Which one of the following conditions will (3) Amylose have 1 4 -linkage and 1 6
favour maximum formation of the product in -linkage
the reaction,
(4) Amylopectin have 1 4 -linkage and
X2 (g) r H X kJ?
A2 (g) B2 (g) 1 6 -linkage
172. Iron exhibits bcc structure at room 174. Consider the following species :
temperature. Above 900°C, it transforms to CN+, CN–, NO and CN
fcc structure. The ratio of density of iron at
Which one of these will have the highest bond
room temperature to that at 900°C (assuming
order?
molar mass and atomic radii of iron remains
constant with temperature) is (1) CN (2) CN+
(3) CN– (4) NO
1 3 3
(1) (2) Answer ( 3 )
2 4 2
S o l . NO : (1s) 2 , ( 1s) 2 , (2s) 2,( 2s) 2,(2p z) 2 ,
4 3 3 (2px)2 = (2py)2,(2px)1 = (2py)0
(3) (4)
3 2 2
10 5
Answer ( 2 ) BO = 2.5
2
4r CN– : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2
S o l . For BCC lattice : Z = 2, a
3 = (2py)2,(2pz)2
(4) , , CH3CH2 – OH
2 2 3
1s 2s 2p
Option (2) violates Hund's Rule. Answer ( 1 )
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+ 1, 2–H + –
(4) The rate of a first-order reaction does not
Shift
CH3 – CH – CH3 CH3CH2CH2 Cl AlCl3 depend on reactant concentrations; the
(Incipient carbocation) rate of a second-order reaction does
Cl depend on reactant concentrations
– Answer ( 3 )
AlCl3
Now, 0.693
Sol. For first order reaction, t 1/2 ,
k
CH3
which is independent of initial
CH – CH3 concentration of reactant.
CH3 – CH – CH3 O2
1
For second order reaction, t 1/2 ,
k[A0 ]
(P)
which depends on initial concentration of
CH3
reactant.
OH HC
3 –C – O– O –H 178. Among CaH2, BeH2, BaH2, the order of ionic
O
+
H /H2O character is
CH3 – C – CH3 + Hydroperoxide
Rearrangement (1) BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2
(R) (Q)
(2) BeH2 < BaH2 < CaH2
176. Which of the following compounds can form a (3) CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2
zwitterion?
(4) BeH2 < CaH2 < BaH2
(1) Glycine
Answer ( 4 )
(2) Benzoic acid S o l . For 2nd group hydrides, on moving down the
(3) Acetanilide group metallic character of metals increases
so ionic character of metal hydride increases.
(4) Aniline Hence the option (4) should be correct option.
Answer ( 1 ) 179. Consider the change in oxidation state of
Bromine corresponding to different emf values
as shown in the diagram below :
Sol. H3N – CH2 – COOH H3N – CH2 – COO–
(Zwitterion form)
– 1.82 V – 1.5 V
pKa = 9.60 pKa = 2.34 BrO4 BrO3 HBrO
–
H2N – CH2 – COO– Br 1.0652 V Br2 1.595 V
177. The correct difference between first and Then the species undergoing
second order reactions is that disproportionation is
(1) The rate of a first-order reaction does (1) HBrO
depend on reactant concentrations; the
(2) Br2
rate of a second-order reaction does not
depend on reactant concentrations (3) BrO4
(2) A first-order reaction can catalyzed; a (4) BrO3
second-order reaction cannot be
catalyzed Answer ( 1 )
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1 0 Answer ( 4 )
o
S o l . HBrO
Br2 , EHBrO/Br 1.595 V
2
S o l . (1) Molecules of water = mole × NA = 10–3 NA
1 5
BrO3 , Eo
HBrO 1.5 V
BrO3 /HBrO 0.00224
(2) Moles of water = = 10–4
o 22.4
Ecell for the disproportionation of HBrO,
o
Ecell o
EHBrO/Br Eo Molecules of water = mole × NA = 10–4 NA
2 BrO3 /HBrO
= 1.595 – 1.5 0.18
= 0.095 V = + ve (3) Molecules of water = mole × NA = NA
18
Hence, option (1) is correct answer.
180. In which case is number of molecules of = 10–2 NA
water maximum?
(4) Mass of water = 18 × 1 = 18 g
(1) 10–3 mol of water
(2) 0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and 18
273 K Molecules of water = mole × NA = NA
18
(3) 0.18 g of water
(4) 18 mL of water = NA
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