SOAL ULANGAN AKHIR SEMESTER GENAP

SMK KRIAN 2 TAHUN 2017 / 2018

Mata Pelajaran : BAHASA INGGRIS Hari / Tanggal : SABTU/ 3 MARET 2018

Kelas / Semester : XII / 2 Jam Ke- :2
Bidang Keahlian : SEMUA BIDANG KEAHLIAN Waktu : 11.15 – 12.15

LISTENING SECTION

In this section of the test, you will have the chance to show how well you understand spoken English. There are
four parts to this section, with special directions for each part.

Part I. PICTURES
Question : 1 to 3

Direction:
There are three items in this part. For each items, you will see a picture and you will hear four short statements.
The statement will be spoken TWICE. They will not be printed in your test paper, so you must listen carefully to
understand what the speakers are saying. When you hear the four statements, look at the picture in your test paper
and choose the statement that best describes what you see in the picture. Then on your answer sheet, find the
number of the question and mark your answer.

Example:
Look at the picture and listen to the four statements.
A. The clock is hanging on the center
B. The man is holding some books
C. The bookshelf is behind the man
D. The window is wide open

Sample answer:

A B C D

Choice (C) – “The bookshelf is behind the man” – is the best answer to describe the picture. Therefore you should
mark (C) on your answer sheet.

Now let’s begin with picture number 1

1. 2. 3.
Part II. Question and Responses

Question 4 to 7

Direction:
There are four items in this part of the test. For each item, you will hear a question or statement spoken in English
followed by three responses, also spoken in English. They will be spoken TWICE. They will not be printed in
your test paper, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are saying. You have to choose the
best response to each question or statement and mark it on your answer sheet.

Now listen to a sample question:

You will hear : Where do you live?

You will also hear : A. In the morning
B. On Jl Pramuka
C. With my parents

Choice (B) – “On Jl Pramuka” – is the appropriate response to the question “Where do you live?”. Therefore, you
should mark (B) on your answer sheet.

Now let’s begin with question number 4.

4. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.

5. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
6. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
7. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.

Part III. Short Conversation

Question : 8 to 11.
Directions:
There are four items in this part of the test. For each item, you will hear a short conversation between two people.
You will hear the conversation TWICE. They will not be printed on your test paper, so you must listen carefully
to understand what the speakers are saying.

In your test paper, you will read a question about each conversation. The question will be followed by four
answer. You have to choose the best answer to each question and mark it on your answer sheet.

Example:
You will hear : Girl : Good morning, may I help you
Boy : Good morning, I would like to book a ticket to Denpasar, please.
Girl : When do you want to go?
Boy : November 7

You will read : Where does the dialogue probably take place?
A. In Denpasar
B. In a plane
C. In a phone
D. In a travel agency
Choice (D) – “In a travel agency” – is the best answer to the question “Where does the dialogue probably take
place?”. Therefore, you should mark (D) on your answer sheet.

Now let’s begin with the question number 8

8. What did the man do?
A. He gave a lecture
B. He introduced himself
C. He thanked the woman
D. He read the woman’s book

9. What kind of sport does the man like to play?

A. Fitness
B. Soccer
C. Tennis
D. Badminton
10. What will the man probably buy?
A. A car
B. A bicycle
C. A motorbike
D. A mobile phone

11. What does the man want?

A. His hotel bill
B. A cup of coffee
C. A business partner
D. The first coffee break

Part IV. Short Talks

Question 12 to 15
Direction:
In this part of the test, you will hear two short talks. Each will be spoken TWICE. They will not be printed in
your test paper, so you must listen carefully to understand and remember what is being said.

In your test paper, you will read two questions about each short talk. Each question will be followed by four
answers. You have to choose the best answer to each question and mark it on your answer sheet.

Let’s begin with the following short talk.

12. What can be inferred about this product?

A. Anita’s cake can be made to suit special occasions
B. Anita’s cake are available 24 hour a day
C. The product is offered by Anita
D. The product is sold at the office

13. What can Anita’s Cake provide for early morning meetings?
A. Coffee rolls and donuts
B. Pies and cakes
C. Donuts and pies
D. Coffee and tea

14. What change has been announced?

A. The flight number
B. The gate number
C. The arrival time
D. The boarding pass

15. What is the current weather condition?

A. It’s raining
B. It’s cloudy .
C. It’s windy
D. It’s icy

This is the end of the Listening Section

Reading section

In this part of the test, you will have the chance to show how well you understand written English. There are
two parts to this section, with special direction for each part.

Part I. Incomplete Dialogues

Question 16 to 29 ar incomplete dialogue. Four words or phrases marked (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) are
given beneath each sentences. You have to choose the appropriate answer.

16. Irga :Mom,do you mind if I help you cook?

Mother : Of course not.Come and help me.
From the conversation about we know that. . .
 A. Mother doesn’t like Irga to help her cook.
B. Irga asked her mother to help her cook.
C. Irga doesn’t like cooking.
D. Mother doesn’t like to cook
E. Mother accepted Irga’s offer to help her cook.

17. Tina : I think I have a cold.

Sari : You should go to the doctor.
Tina : I don’t know. I think I will buy some medicine in the drugstore.
A. Tina agrees to go a doctor.
B. Sari wants to go to the doctor
C. Sari suggests Tina to go to a doctor.
D. Tina accepts Sari’s advice.
E. Tina does’t want to make any medicine.

18. Putra : My boss offered me a new position, but I am not interested in it.
Boby : Really? If I were you, I would . . . .
A. refuse the offer.
B. leave the new position.
C. take the chance.
D. Leave the chance
E. ask for another position.

19. Dolce : Why didn’t you came to Biology class 2 days ago?
Candice : . . . .
A. I was late.
B. I did late.
C. I’m afraid.
D. I have been late.
E. I don’t know

20. Arian : I think I have a headache.

Dewi : . . . .
A. That’s a good idea!
B. Take some medicine, then.
C. Don’t get angry.
D. I don’t feel it’s real.
E. I’m so happy

21. Sisca : What is your hobby, Melly?

Melly : Actually, ...
Sisca : How often do you play them in a week?
Melly : At least three times.
A. I like playing volley ball and tennis
B. I prefer golf to tennis
C. One of them is swimming
D. I cannot play tennis
E. I love jogging

22. Norma : Ask that woman whether she minds ........(come) back this evening
Norma : Ok. Wait a moment.
A. Came
B. To coming
C. To come
D. Comes
E. Coming

23. Lucy : What a wonderful performance!

Gru : ……….
A. Not at all
B. Never mind
C. I am Ok
D. You’re welcome
E. Thanks a lot
24. Fandi : Don’t disturb me. I’m studying now.
Maya : What did he say?
Septi : He said ………………… . She is studying then
A. Don’t disturb him
B. Not to disturb me
C. Don’t disturb me
D. Not to disturb him
E. Don’t disturb

25. Susi : Do you like badminton?

Dani : ...
A. Yes, I does
B. Yes, he does
C. Yes, I do
D. Yes, I am
E. No, they did not

26. Ann : What did you do last night?

Jeff : I …… Moana.
A. watch
B. am watching
C. watches
D. watched
E. was watch

27. Jeffry : I always go to Mosque every Friday

Anton : What did Jeffry say?
Andi : Jeffry said that …..
A. He went to Mosque every Friday
B. He go to Mosque every Friday
C. He goes to Mosque every Friday
D. He had gone to Mosque every Friday
E. He gone to Mosque every Friday

28. I would rather have banana than grape.

The sentences above means….
A. she prefer grape to banana
B. she doesn’t like banana
C. she wants grape very much
D. she never eat banana and grape
E. she prefer having banana to having grape

29. Joko : Can you do your homework alone?

Cica : Ray …help me with my homework tomorrow
A. would
B. is
C. will
D. am
E. was

Part II. Reading Comprehension

Question 30 to 50 are based on a selection of reading materials. You have to choose the best answer (A), (B),
(C), (D) or (E) to each question

This text for no 30 - 31

To All International English College Students

 All students can borrow up to 6 books at a time. Books may be kept for a maximum of fourteen days. A
fine of Rp. 5.000.00 a day will be charged for overdue books. Magazines and newspapers may not be brought
home. The use of a card belonging to another person is not permitted.

30. How long can students borrow books?

A. One week
B. Two months
C. Three weeks
D. Two weeks
E. Two days

31. What will happen if the students are late to return the book?
A. They should buy a new book
B. They should pay the fine
C. The librarian will be angry
D. They must make a new card
E. They will not be permitted to borrow again

This text for no 32 - 34

Birds have a body ‘designed’ for flight. Their bones are light, with spaces full of air, body tapered. They have
powerful muscles to move their wings, and breastbone like a ship’s prow to cut through the air! Their wings
are specially shaped, and like the tail, have feathers of many shaped and textures, according to their job. Birds’
flight can be gliding or beating. In the gliding ,flight, the bird slides through the air, wings stretched out, quite
still, carried by current of air. In beating flight, the bird moves its wings like oars, using its tail like a rudder to
change to changes direction.

Most birds take off almost vertically from land or water, body straight and wings beating quickly. Once in the
air, it leans its body forward and the wings beat more slowly. For landing, the movements are reversed-
straightening its body and beating its wings quickly before landing.

32. What is the text talk about ? It talks about …

A. how birds take off
B. how birds run
C. how birds walk
D. how birds eat
E. how birds fly

33. The birds’ bones are …

A. solid and strong
B. light and brittle
C. light, with spaces full of air, body tapered
D. solid, with spaces full of air, body tapered
E. strong with spaces full of air

34. “Their wings are specially shaped, and like the tail, have feathers of many shapes and …(par. 2 ) The
word ‘shapes means …
A. Forms
B. Ships
C. Parts
D. sharps
E. straight

35.
DANGEROUS !
DO NOT TOUCH
What is the purpose of the text?
A. to ask somebody to do something
B. to warn somebody not to do something
C. to advise somebody not to do something
D. to inform somebody that something is not dangerous
 E. To tell about something smell

This text for no 36 - 37

Last weekend, my friends and I went camping. We reached the camping ground after we walked for
about one and a half hour from the parking lot. We built the camp next to a small river. It was getting darker
and colder, so we built a fire camp.
The next day, we spent our time observing plantation and insects while the girls were preparing
meals. In the afternoon we went to the river and caught some fish for supper. At night, we held a fire camp
night. We sang, danced, read poetry, played magic tricks, and even some of us performed a standing
comedy. It was very exciting. All of us felt very happy.
On Monday, we packed our bags and got ready to go home. We went home by bus. We left the
camping ground at 9 and we arrived home at 14 in the afternoon.

36. Which of the following statements is not true according to the text?
A. The writer and his friends went camping for three days.
B. The writer started to go camping on Saturday.
C. None of them felt unhappy
D. They did nothing at night.
E. The writer and his friend were fishing at the river

37. How long did it take the time to get home from the camping ground?
A. Four hour
B. One and a half hour.
C. Two and a half hour.
D. Five hours
E. Four and a half hour.

This text for no 38- 40

Dear Rossa,
I have a problem with a girl friend. She is twenty-five years old. We have been dating each other of
years, since we were high school students. Now we have job. I feel very sure that we love each other.
Now it is time to me to get married. Unfortunately, her parents never approve of relationship ever since
the very first time. My family, anyhow, does not really mind. At first I thought my girl friend had the
power to defend our love, but then she surrendered. She loves me and she loves her family too. On the
one hand she said, “I’ll be happy if my family is happy. “ It means she had to get approval from her
parents. For this, I was shocked. My heart was broken. She ended our relationship just at the time when I
was ready to marry her.
Yours
John

38. The letter is about….

A. The couple’s love
B. John’s problem with his girl friend
C. John’s dating with his girl friend
D. Parents’ disapproval of his relationship
E. John’s family problem

39. Which of the following sentence is TRUE according to the text?

A. John is not ready to get married
B. John’s parents disagree to his married
C. John and his girl friend often got conflicts
D. John doesn’t want to married
E. John’s girlfriend loves her family more than him.

40. When you want to cut your hair, you must go to………
A. Sailor
B. Tailor
C. Barber
 D. plumber
E. Baker

41.
KEEP THE ROOM CLEAN
What does the notice on the right mean?
A. Do not make some noise
B. Do not throw rubbish in the room
C. Do not destroy everything in the room
D. Do not sleep in the room
E. Do not speak in the room

This text for no 42 - 43

If you look at the front of large, modern hospital, you may notice that there are two
separate entrances. One is for patience in need of immediate treatment, it is the emergency
entrance. Here ambulances are seen pulling up at any hour of the day or night. The other is the
hospital main entrance.
In the ground floor inside main entrance there are reception area, waiting room, and also
office. On the floors above and below are the numerous floors will be a maternity section for
mothers and their babies. Their rooms are usually kept separate from the rest of the hospital, so
that the babies do not catch other people’s illness.
The rooms from other patients are usually on the higher floors. There are small rooms for
just one patient, slightly larger rooms for two, three or four patients, and larger rooms called
wards, in which as many as 40 or 50 patients may lie in rows or beds. On other floors are the
operating rooms, called operating theatres, and special departments such as the radiography
department, where x-rays are taken and developed.
In the laboratories, special tests are carried out on body tissues and fluids to find out
patients’ disease. The pharmacy supplies the drugs to treat transfusions. Here too are the
sterilizing theatres and the wards which are cleaned and made free from germs.

42. Where can you find the reception area in a modern hospital?
A. On the highest floor
B. On the floors above
C. On the second floor
D. On the ground floor
E. Near the maternity section

43. X-rays are taken and developed in the ……….

A. Laboratories
B. Operating theatres
C. Maternity section
D. Radiography department
E. The pharmacy

.
This text for no 44 - 45

1. Remove loosed food from the Teflon-coated pan or pot

2. Wait for it to cool so that you can easily touch all surfaces
3. Put the pan in the sink and wash it with a soft sponge and mild diswashing detergent
4. Rinse the pan

44. What is the best title for the manuals above?

A. How to rise a pan
B. How to clean Teflon
C. How to use the sink
D. How to cook with Teflon
E. How to make the Teflon

45. What do you need to do to easily clean the pan or pot?

A. Wait the pan sink
B. Touch the surface
 C. Remove the loose food
D. Remove the Teflon coat from the pan or pot
E. Wait for it to cool

Read the following text and answer questions 46 to 49

MILK CALCIUM
Dietary Supplemen
600 mg 100 Soft gels
Supplement Facts
Serving size : 1 soft gel
Amount per 1 soft gel % Daily Value*
Vitamin D 200 IU 50
Calcium (from milk) 600 mg 60
Zinc 15 mg *
*Daily value has not been established
Other ingredients: Gelatin, Glycerin, Purified Water
Directions: As a dietary supplement, take one soft gel for adults daily.
Manufactured for: EXP 04 27 10
NU-HEALTH PRODUCTS CO. LOT 2 75 61
Walnut, CA 91789
Made in U.S.A.

46. The label is telling us about … of a dietary supplement.

A. the information
B. the usage
C. the materials
D. the benefits
E. the receipt

47. When would it be best to consume the product?

A. After 2010
B. On April 4th, 2010.
C. Before April 27th , 2010.
D. After April 4th, 2010.
E. During April 4th, 2010.

48. How many soft gels does someone take everyday?

A. 100 gel.
B. 15 mg.
C. 200 IU.
D. 1 gel
E. 600 mg.

Questions 49-50 refer to the following text. Choose the suitable word to complete the text!

From : Mr. Jimmy Saunders

Sent : 9.30a.m, Friday, February 25th, 2010
To : Sales staff
Cc : Mr. Jack Smith and Mrs. Sally Rose
Subject : Quarterly Meeting
49. A. Writing
B. Write I am (48 ……) to remind you that our quarterly meeting will be on Saturday, February 26 th, 2010.
I want everybody to be ready with ideas, strategies, and selling forecast for the coming quarter. I will be
C. Wrote
out of country to (49 ……) a conference on the new products of laser printers in Singapore, Monday and
D. Written
Tuesday. Remember that the next Monday is a day-off. Therefore, you should have something urgent to
E. Writes th
discuss, please see me on Tuesday, February 29 .

50. A. Attend
B. Attending
C. Attention
D. Attendant
E. Attends