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BEC Multi Choice Chem and Physics
BEC Multi Choice Chem and Physics
Question 5 1 points
"In order to separate two substances by fractional
crystallization, the two substances must differ in which of the
following? "
Solubility specific gravity
vapor pressure viscosity
Question 6 1 points
Which of the following gases effuses most rapidly?
carbon monoxide ammonia
nitrogen oxygen
Question 1 2 points
"A sample of oxalic acid, H2C2O4, is titrated with standard
sodium hydroxide, NaOH, solution. A total of 45.20 mL of
0.1200M NaOH is required to neutralize20.00 mL of the acid.
What is the concentration of the acid?"
0.1356 M 0.2712 M
0.1200 M 0.2400 M
Question 1 2 points
There are 500 g of zinc sulfide (ZnS) in a load of zinc ore. The
ZnS is roasted in excess air to form zinc oxide (ZnO) and
sulfer dioxide (S)?. How many grams of zinc can be
subsequently recovered if 5% of the zinc is lost in the roasting
process?
a. 400 g b. 340 g
c. 320 g d. 380 g
Question 2 2 points
Gadolinium oxide, a colorless powder which absorbs carbon
dioxide from the air, contains 86.76 mass % Gd. Determine its
empirical formula.
Gd3O2 Gd3O4
Gd2O3 GdO
DRILL 2 c.diffraction
d.deflection
Question 1 5 points Question 7 1
The solubility constant of stronyium sulfate, SrSO4, is 2.8 x points
10-7. How many grams of SrSO4 must be dissolved in water "In which one of the following reactions would you expect ?H
to produce 1 L saturated solution? to be substantially greater than ?E (i.e., ?H > ?E)?"
Answers: b Answers: a
a. 0.00005 g a. CO2(s) ?CO2(g)
b. 0.1 g b.H2(g) + Br2(g) ? 2HBr(g)
c. 0.0005 g c.H2O(s) ?H2O(l)
d. 2 g d.HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) ? NaCl(aq) + H2O(l)
20) Write the mass-action expression, Qc , for the following 29) Which one of the following changes would alter the rate
chemical reaction. constant (k) for the reaction 2A + B ® products?
a) increasing the temperature
+ 2+
Zn(s) + 2Ag (aq) ↔ Zn (aq) + 2Ag(s) b) increasing the concentration of A
c) increasing the concentration of B
a) 2+ 2 + 2
[Zn ] / [Ag ] d) measuring k again after the reaction has run for
b) 2+ + 2
[Zn ] / [Ag ] a while
+ 2 2+
c) [Ag ] / [Zn ]
30) The equilibrium 2SO2(g) + O2(g) <==> 2 SO3(g) can
21) The following reaction is at equilibrium in a sealed shifted to the reactant side by _____. DH = –198.2 Kj
container. a) Decreasing pressure
b) Decreasing temperature
N2(g) + 3H2(g) ↔ 2NH3(g); ΔH°rxn < 0 c) Decreasing volume
d) Increasing the concentration of SO2
Which, if any, of the following actions will increase the
value of the equilibrium constant, Kc? 31)
a) increasing the pressure A typical radius of an atomic nucleus is about
b) adding more N2 a) 5 ´ 10-3 pm
c) adding a catalyst b) 100 µm
d) lowering the temperature c) 5000 mm
d) 500 pm
22) _____ faradays of electricity are required to reduce one
mole of MnO4– to Mn2+. 32) The equilibrium pressure of NO2 in the equilibrium
5 N2O4(g) <==> 2 NO2(g) is 1.56 atm. Its pressure on the
addition of a catalyst will be _____.
23) The standard potential for the reduction of Cu+ to Cu is 1.56 atm
0.52V. E° at 25 °C for 2Cu+(aq) --> Cu2+(aq) + Cu(s) is
_____. 33)
0.37V What is the pH of a 0.20 M HCl solution?
0.7
24) The substance HCl is considered
a) a weak Arrhenius acid
b) a strong Arrhenius acid. 34) Which of the following does a catalyst change?
c) a weak Arrhenius base a)
d) a neutral compound the heat of reaction of a reaction
b) the concentration of product at equilibrium
25) The pH of a 0.001 M HCI solution is c) the equilibrium constant of a reaction
3 d) the activation energy of a reaction
26) 35)
For what order reaction does the half-life get longer as The following reaction is at equilibrium at a pressure of 1
the initial concentration increases? atm, in a closed container.
zeroth order
NaOH(s) + CO2(g) ↔ NaHCO3(s); ΔH°rxn < 0
27) Which isotope, when bombarded with oxygen-18, yields
the artificial isotope seaborgium-263 plus 4 neutrons? Which, if any, of the following actions will decrease the
concentration of CO2 gas present at equilibrium?
a) increasing the volume of the container
a) radium-259 b) lowering the temperature
b) californium-249 c) adding N2 gas to doubmle the pressure
d) adding more solid NaOH d) in the reaction equation, the number of moles
of gaseous products is smaller than the number
36) What role does cadmium metal (Cd) play in a nuclear of moles of gaseous reactants.
reactor?
a) controls chain reaction (control rods) 43) The reaction system
b) slows down the fission neutrons (moderator)
c) transfers heat from the reactor to the heat POCl3(g) ↔ POCl(g) + Cl2(g)
exchanger (primary coolant)
d) transfers heat from the condenser to the is at equilibrium. Which of the following statements
environment (cooling tower) describes the behavior of the system if the partial
pressure of chlorine is reduced by 50%?
37) When the concentrations of reactant molecules are a) POCl will be consumed as equilibrium is
increased, the rate of reaction increases. The best established.
explanation for this phenomenon is that as the reactant
concentration increases b) Chlorine will be consumed as equilibrium is
a) the frequency of molecular collisions increases established.
b) the average kinetic energy of molecules
increases c) The partial pressure of POCl will decrease while
c) the rate constant increases the partial pressure of Cl2 increases as
d) the activation energy increases equilibrium is established.
44) For a second order reaction, the half-life is equal to
38) Which one of the following substances will give an t1/2 = 1/k[A]o
aqueous solution of pH < 7?
a) Na2CO3 45) Kp is 158 for the equilibrium 2NO2(g) <==> 2 NO(g) +
b) CH3COONa O2(g) Starting with NO2 (g) only, the partial pressure of
c) KI O2 at equilibrium is 0.25 atm. Calculate the partial
d) NH4Br pressure [atm] of NO2 at equilibrium.
0.02
39) For the reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) <==> 2NH3(g) Kc = 1.2 at
375 C. Kc for the reverse reaction is 46)
0.83 The value of Kc for the equilibrium 2SO2(g) + O2(g) <==>
2SO3(g) is 5.6x10^4 at 350 C. The initial pressures of SO2
40) Kc for the formation of one mole of NH3 from H2 and N2 and O2 are 0.35 and 0.762 atm. The total pressure at
is _____. equilibrium will be
1.1 Less than 1.112
41) What element is the stable end-product of the uranium 47) Which statement is correct with respect to the above
radioactive decay series? equilibrium when 0.30 moles of CO and 0.30 moles of
a) Pb H2O are heated to 700°C and allowed to reach
b) Th equilibrium.
c) Ra a) [H2O] = [CO]
d) Au b) [H2O] = [CO2]
c) [CO2] = [CO]
42) The two equilibrium constants for the same d) [H2O] = [H2]
reaction, Kc and Kp, will always equal one another when
a) 48) Sodium hydrogen carbonate decomposes above 110°C to
in the reaction equation, the number of moles form sodium carbonate, water, and carbon dioxide.
of gaseous products equals the number of
moles of gaseous reactants. 2NaHCO3(s) ↔ Na2CO3(s) + H2O(g) + CO2(g)
b) all of the reactants and products are gases. One thousand grams of sodium hydrogen carbonate are
c) added to a reaction vessel, the temperature is increased
in the reaction equation, the number of moles to 200°C, and the system comes to equilibrium. What
of gaseous products is greater than the number happens in this system if another 50 g of sodium
of moles of gaseous reactants. carbonate are now added?
a) The amounts of all products will be greater
when equilibrium is reestablished.
b) The partial pressure of carbon dioxide will the reactants when the system is at
increase. equilibrium.
c) The partial pressure of carbon dioxide will d. The concentrations of the products will be
decrease. about the same as the concentrations of the
d) The partial pressure of carbon dioxide will be reactants when the system is at equilibrium.
unchanged.
49) Which of the following statements concerning reversible 56) A radioisotope decays to give an alpha particle and Pb-
reactions is false? 208. What was the original element?
a. Po
a. Concentration have no effect on the b. Se
direction of the reaction c. Bi
b. Both reactants and products are always d. Hg
present.
-2
c. Temperature affects the direction of the 57) The acid dissociation constant Ka equals 1.26 × 10 for
- -10 +
reaction. HSO4 and is 5.6 × 10 for NH4 . Which statement about
d. Concentration remain constant once the following equilibrium is correct?
equilibrium is reached.
- 2- +
HSO4 (aq) + NH3(aq) ↔ SO4 (aq) + NH4 (aq)
50) Which of the following is the strongest acid?
a. H2SO3 a) The reactants will be favored because
b. CH3COOH ammonia is a stronger base than the sulfate
c. HI anion.
d. H3PO4 b) Neither reactants or products will be
favored because all of the species are weak
51) acids or bases.
Gamma-rays cause radiation damage when they interact c) The products will be favored because the
with matter by producing hydrogen sulfate ion is a stronger acid than
a. ions and free radicals the ammonium ion.
b. isotopes d) This reaction is impossible to predict, since
c. daughter products the strong acid and the weak base appear
d. oxidation on the same side of the equation.
52) The substance H2SO3 is considered
a) a strong Arrhenius acid 58) Which one of the following is a strong acid?
b) a weak Arrhenius base a) H2CO3
c) a weak Arrhenius acid b) H2SO3
d) a neutral compound c) H3PO4
d) H2SO4
53) Which of the following will shift the equilibrium to the
right? CaCO3(s) <==> CaO(s) + CO2(g) 59) The standard potential of the cell consisting of the
a. Addition of NaOH solution Zn2+/Zn half-cell and the SHE is _____.
b. Addition of CO2 a. 0.76V
c. Addition of KCl b. 1.76V
d. Decrease of temperature c. 1.018V
d. 1.18V
54) What is the pH of a 0.050 M HBr solution?
1.3 60) The reaction A → B is first-order overall and first-order
with respect to the reactant A. The result of doubling the
55) The reaction quotient, Qc, for a reaction has a value of 75 initial concentration of A will be to
while the equilibrium constant, Kc, has a value of 195. a.
Which of the following statements is accurate? double the initial rate
a. The reaction must proceed to the right to b. shorten the half-life of the reaction
establish equilibrium. c. increase the rate constant of the reaction
b. The reaction must proceed to the left to d. decrease the rate constant of the reaction
establish equilibrium.
c. The concentrations of the products will be 61) The pH of a 0.001 M HCI solution is
much smaller than the concentrations of 3
+ +
H + H2O2 H2O -OH (rapid equilibrium)
+ -
62) The relation connecting DG° and E° is _____. H2O -OH + Br → HOBr + H2O (slow)
+ -
a. DG° = –nFE° HOBr + H + Br → Br2 + H2O (fast)
b. DG° = – RTnFE Which of the following rate laws is consistent with the
c. E° = DG°/RT mechanism?
d. DG° = nFE°
Rate = k[H2O2][H+]2[Br-]
63) In the electrolysis of water, _____. Rate = k[H2O2][H+][Br-]
Rate = k[HOBr][H+][Br-][H2O2]
a. oxygen is liberated at the anode Rate = k[Br-]
b. hydrogen is liberated at the anode
c. oxygen is liberated at the cathode 70) The equilibrium constant Kc for the equilibrium A + B
d. water is oxidized to hydrogen <==> C + D is X. The equilibrium constant for the reaction
2C + 2D <==> 2A + 2B is
64) a. X^(-2)
The standard emf of the cell involving Mg/Mg2+ and b. -2X
Cu/Cu2+ half-cell reactions is _____. c. 1/2X
a. 2.71V d. X^2
b. 1.18V
c. 3.71V 71) Which of the following is an advantage of nuclear power
d. 2.03V plants over coal-burning plants? Nuclear power plants
a. do not pollute the air with SO2, soot, and
65) Ammonium chloride is used as an electrolyte in dry cells. fly-ash
Which of the following statements about a b. form numerous radioactive fission products.
0.10 M solution of NH4Cl, is correct? c. produce more thermal pollution than coal
a. The solution is acidic. plants.
d. use more fuel
b. The values for Ka and Kb for the species in
solution must be known before a prediction 72) What is the pH of a 0.75 M HNO3 solution?
can be made. 0.12
c. The solution is strongly basic. 73) The cathode in the Daniell cell is _____.
Cu
d. The solution is weakly basic.
74) For the reaction whose rate law is rate = k[X], a plot of
66) The correct statement is: _____. which of the following is a straight line?
a. Oxidation occurs at the anode a. log [X] versus time
b. Oxidation occurs at the cathode b. [X] versus time
c. Anions travel to the cathode in an c. 1/[X] versus time
electrochemical cell. d. log [X] versus 1/time
d. Reduction occurs at the anode.
75) Which can alter the value of the equilibrium constant?
67) Which of the following affects the activation energy of a a. Temperature
reaction? b. Catalyst
c. Concentration
a. temperature of the reactants d. Pressure
b. concentrations of reactants
c. presence of a catalyst 76) Consider the reaction
d. reaction progress
2NH3(g) → N2(g) + 3H2(g)
-1 -1
68) What is the pH of a 0.00200 M HClO4 solution? If the rate Δ[H2]/Δt is 0.030 mol L s , then Δ[NH3]/Δt is
2.699
-1 -1
a) -0.045 mol L s
-1 -1
69) Consider the following mechanism for the oxidation of b) -0.030 mol L s
-1 -1
bromide ions by hydrogen peroxide in aqueous acid c) -0.010 mol L s
d) -1 -1
solution. -0.020 mol L s
2
77) An electrochemical reaction will be spontaneous if d. (K1K2)
_____. 83) How many grams of copper will be deposited at an
a. the standard emf of the cell is positive. electrode if a current of 1.5 A is supplied for 2 hours to a
b. the standard emf of the cell is negative. CuSO₄?
c. resistance is positive. a) 48 g
d. DG is positive b) 3.6 g
c) 7.1 g
78) The substance Ba(OH)2 is considered d) 2.4 g
a. a weak Arrhenius acid
b. a weak Arrhenius base 84) The concentration of H+ in pure water at 25°C is _____.
c. a strong Arrhenius acid a. 10^-7 M
d. a strong Arrhenius base b. 10^-14 M
c. 10^-10 M
79) Which is the most penetrating of the three types of d. 10^-8 M
nuclear radiation? 85) When a chemical system is at equilibrium,
a. Gamma a) the concentrations of the reactants are
b. Alpha equal to the concentrations of the products.
c. Beta
d. None of the choices b) the concentrations of the reactants and
products have reached constant values.
80) A solution is adjusted from pH 8 to pH 9. The relative
concentration of the hydrogen [H?] ion has changed by a c) the forward and reverse reactions have
factor of what? stopped.
a) 10
b) 1100 d) the reaction quotient, Q, has reached a
c) 5 maximum.
d) 110
86) The energy released by the sun is the result of
81) The reaction shown occurs in a gaseous phase. Once a. nuclear fusion
equilibrium has been achieved in a particular reaction b. natural radioactivity
vessel, additional HI gas is injected directly into the c. combustion of hydrogen
reaction vessel. Compared to the initial conditions, which d. nuclear fission
of the following statements is correct after the new
equilibrium has been achieved? 87) Methanol can be synthesized by combining carbon
monoxide and hydrogen.
a. The partial pressure of H2 will have 88) CO(g) + 2H2(g) ↔ CH3OH(g)
decreased.
b. The amount of I2 will have increased. A reaction vessel contains the three gases at equilibrium
c. The partial pressure of HI will have with a total pressure of 1.00 atm. What will happen to
decreased. the partial pressure of hydrogen if enough argon is added
d. The amount of H2 will have decreased. to raise the total pressure to 1.4 atm?
82) About half of the sodium carbonate produced is used in
making glass products because it lowers the melting a. The partial pressure of hydrogen will
point of sand, the major component of glass. When decrease.
sodium carbonate is added to water it hydrolyses b. Both Kp and the temperature need to be
according to the following reactions. known before a prediction can be made.
CO32-(aq) + H2O(l) ↔ HCO3-(aq) + OH-(aq); K1 c. The partial pressure of hydrogen will be
HCO3-(aq) + H2O(l) ↔ H2CO3(aq) + OH-(aq); K2 unchanged.
d. The partial pressure of hydrogen will
These can be combined to yield increase.
CO32-(aq) + 2H2O(l) ↔ H2CO3(aq) + 2OH-(aq); K3 89) Tarnished silver is coated with _____.
a. Ag2S
What is the value of K3? b. AgCl
a. K1 × K2 c. ZnS
b. K1 + K2 d. Ag2O
c. K1 ÷ K2
90) The equilibrium position of the reaction SO2(g) + Cl2(g) 94) Kp is 158 for the equilibrium 2NO2(g) <==> 2 NO(g) +
<==> SO2Cl2(g) can be shifted in the forward direction by O2(g) Starting with NO2 (g) only, the partial pressure of
_____. NO at equilibrium is 0.25 atm. Calculate the partial
a. Adding Cl2 pressure [atm] of NO2 at equilibrium.
b. Removing SO2 a. 0.5
c. Removing Cl2 b. 0.125
d. Removing SO2 and Cl2 c. 0.02
95) The equilibrium PCl5(g) <==> PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) can be
91) Write the mass-action expression, Qc, for the following shifted toward more product formation by _____. DH =
chemical reaction equation. 92.5 kJ
a. Increasing temperature
2C6H6(g) + 15O2(g) 12CO2(g) + 6H2O(g) b. Increasing pressure
c. Decreasing temperature
d. Increasing the concentration PCl3
A reaction vessel contains these compounds at 111) Which one of the following substances will give an
equilibrium. What will happen if the volume of the aqueous solution of pH closest to 7?
container is reduced by 50% at constant temperature? a) NH3
b) NH4I
a) No change occurs. KNO3
b) c) CO2
The reverse reaction will proceed to
reestablish equilibrium.
112) The process _____ occurs spontaneously under standard
c) The equilibrium constant will increase. state conditions.
a. Fe3+ oxidizes I–
d) The forward reaction will proceed to b. Cu reduces Mg2+
reestablish equilibrium. c. Fe3+ reduces I2
d. Ag reduces Fe2+
106) Hydrogen bromide will dissociate into hydrogen and
bromine gases. 113) One ampere-hour (1A·hr) is _____.
a. 3600 C
2HBr(g) ↔ H2(g) + Br2(g); ΔH°rxn = 68 kJ b. 360 F
c. 36 F
What effect will a temperature increase of 50°C have on d. 36000 C
this system at equilibrium?
a. high temperature, low pressure 114) Consider the equilibrium reaction: N2O4(g) ↔ 2NO2(g)
b. high temperature, high pressure Which of the following correctly describes the
c. low temperature, high pressure relationship between Kc and Kp for the reaction?
d. low temperature, low pressure a. Kp = Kc /RT
b. Kp = Kc
107) Which type of nuclear process requires an extremely c. Kp = RT/Kc
high temperature (millions of degrees)? d. Kp = RT × Kc
10. A constant force of 750 N is applied through a pulley system to lift a mass Select one:
of 50 kg as shown. Neglecting the mass and friction of the pulley system, a. 3500 N
what is the acceleration of the 50 kg mass? b. 2500 N
Select one: c. O
a. 20.2 m/s2 d. 550 N
b. 16.2 m/s2
c. 8.72 m/s2 16. Link AB of the linkage mechanism shown in the illustration rotates with
d. 5.20 m/s2 an instantaneous counterclockwise angular velosity of 10 rad/s. What is the
instantaneous angular velocity of link BC when link AB is horizontal and link
11. A child keeps a 1 kg toy airplane flying horizontally in a circle by holding CD is vertical?
onto a 1.5 m long string attached to its wing tip. The string is always in the
plane of the circular flight path. If the plane flies at 10 m/s, what is the
tension in the string?
Select one:
a. 15 N
b. 28 N
c. 7 N
d. 67 N
17. Why does a spinning ice skater's angular velocity increase as she brings
her arms in toward her body?
Select one:
a. Her angular momentum is constant
b. Her radius of gyration is reduced.
c. Her mass moment of inertia is reduced.
Select one: d. all of the above
a. 27.3cm4
b. 25.6 cm4 18. A flywheel rotates at 7200 rev/min when the power is suddenly cut off.
c. 16.2 cm4 The flywheel decelerates at a constant rate of 2.1 rad/s2 and comes to rest 6
d. 21.4 cm4 min later. How many revolutions does the flywheel make before coming to
rest?
14. A 4-A current is maintained in a simple circuit with a total resistance of 2 Select one:
. How much energy is delivered in 3 seconds a. 390 000 rev
Select one: b. 18 000 rev
a. 3J c. 22 000 rev
b. 12J d. 72 000 rev
c. 6 J
d. 96J 19. Two 2 kg block are linked as shown. Assuming that the surfaces are
frictionless, what is the velocity of block B if block A is moving at a speed of 3
15. In the pin-jointed truss shown, what is the force in member DE? m/s?
d. 1.1
24. If the sum of the forces on a particle is not equal to zero,the particle is
Select one:
a. moving with a constant velocity opposite to the direction of the resulatnt
force.
b. accelerating in a direction opposite to the resultant force.
c. accelerating in the same direction as the resultant force.
d. moving with constant velocity in the direction of the resultant force.
Select one: 25. What is the -coordinate of the centroid of the perimeter line?
a. 1.30 m/s
b. 0 m/s
c. 5.20 m/s
d. 1.73 m/s
Select one:
a. 1.66 cm
b. 1.56 cm
c. 1.75 cm
Select one:
d. 1.80 cm
a. 3.23 m
b. 10.1 m
26. An angle bracket is subjected to the forces and couple shown. Determine
c. 4.78 m
the equivalent force-couple system at point A
d. 7.78 m
21. A weekend plumber, unable to loosen a pipe fitting, slips a piece of scrap
pipe (a "cheater") over his wench handle. He then applies his full mass of 100
kg to the end of the cheater by standing on it. The distance from the center
of the fitting on the point where the weight acts is 0.80 m and the wrench
handle and cheater make an angle of 19° with the horizontal. Find the
magnitude and direction of the torque he applies about the center of the
pipefitting.
Select one:
a. 740 N
b. 120 N
c. 360 N
d. 520 N Select one:
a. 292 N at -5.9o ; 103 N.m
22. A 1530 kg car is towing a 300 kg trailer. The coefficient of friction b. 333 N at 42.9o ; 53 N.m
between all tires and the road is 0.80. How fast can the car and trailer travel c. 114 N at 15.3o ; 50 N.m
around an unbanked curve of radius 200 m without either the car or trailer d. 307 N at 10.4o ; 110 N.m
skidding?
Select one: 27. In the figure, a very small toy race car of mass m is released from rest on
a. 143 km/h the loop-the-loop track. If it is released at a height 2R above the floor, how
b. 75.2 km/h high is it above the floor when it leaves the track, neglecting friction?
c. 40.0 km/h Select one:
d. 108.1 km/h a. 1.33 R
b. 2.00 R
23. A rope passes over a fixed sheave as shown. The two rope ends are c. 1.67 R
parallel. A fixed load on one end of the rope is supported by a constant force d. 1.50 R
on the other end. The coefficient of friction between the rope and the sheave
is 0.30. What is the ratio of tensile forces in the two rope ends? 28. Find the acceleration of block A after the blocks are released.
Select one:
Select one: a. 2.5 m/s
a. 2.6 b. 0 m/s
b. 1.6 c. 1.4 m/s
c. 1.2 d. 5.6 m/s
35. A single force (not shown) is applied at point B in the y-direction, in line
29. Where can a couple be moved on a rigid body to have an equivalent with points A and B. What should this force bein order for the frame to be in
effect? equilibrium in that direction?.
Select one:
a. along the perpendicular bisector joining the two original forces
b. along the line of action
c. anywhere on the rigid body
d. in a parallel plane
Select one:
Select one: a. -280 N (down)
a. 20 000 N b. 120 N (down)
b. 10 000 N c. 180 N (down)
d. -250 N (down)
An isolated parallel-platd. 5000 N 36. A cable passes over a stationary sheave and supports a 60 kg bucket, as
shown. The coefficient of friction between the cable abd the sheave is 0.10.
31. Find the -and y-coordinates of the centroid of wire ABC
The cable has a uniform mass per unit length of 0.4 kg/m. The cable is in the
shape of a catenary due to its own weight. The tension o fthe cable at the
pulley is given by T = wy, where w is the weight per unit lenght and the
constant y (for this configuration) is known to be 151 m. How much more
mass can be added to the4 bucket before the cable slips over the pulley?
Select one:
a. 0.43 m ; 1.29 m
b. 2.71 m ; 1.49 m
c. 3.33 m ; 2.67 m
d. 0.64 m ; 2.83 m
38. Assume that the centroidal moment of inertia of area A2 with respect to
the composite centroidal -axis is 73.94 cm4. The moment of inertia of area
A2 with respect to the composite centroidal horizontal axis is 32.47 cm4.
What is the moment of inertia o fthe composite area with respect to its
centroidal -axis?
Select one:
a. 4130 N (tension)
b. 0
c. 2320 N (compression)
d. 3840 N (tension)
42. What is the period of a pendulum that passes the center point 20 times a
minute.
Select one:
a. 0.2 s
b. 3 s
c. 6 s
d. 0.3 s
Select one:
a. 560 cm4 43. A 2kg block rests on 34o incline. If the coefficient of static friction is 0.2,
b. 460 cm4 how much additional force, F, must be applied to keep the block from sliding
c. 480 cm4 down the incline?
d. 350cm4
39. Find the tension, T, that must be applied to pulley A to lift the 1200 N
weight.
Select one:
a. 14 N
b. 9.1 N
c. 7.7 N
d. 8.8 N
40. What are the - and y-coordinates of the centroid of the area?
Select one:
a. w/3
b. w/4
c. 4w/7
Select one: d. 4w/7
a. 3.0 cm ; 4.0 cm
b. 2.4 cm ; 3.4 cm 45. What is the radius of gyration about a horizontal axis passing through the
c. 3.0 cm ; 3.6 cm centroid?
d. 3.0 cm ; 3.8 cm Select one:
a. 1.7 cm
41. Determine the force in member FH for the pi-connected truss shown. b. 0.86 cm
c. 3.7 cm
d. 2.3 cm
46. A 153 kg car is towing a 300 kg trailer. The coefiicient of friction between
all tires and the road is 0.80. The car and trailer are traveling at 100 km/h
around a banked curve of radius 200 m. What is the necessary banking angle d. 25 N s (gain)
such that tire friction will not be necessary to prevent skidding?
Select one: 51. What is the magnitude o fthe couple that exactly replaces the moment
a. 36o that is removed?
b. 78o
c. 21o
d. 8o
Select one:
a. 0.79 kg m2
b. 0.87 kg m2
c. 1.49 kg m2
d. 0.41 kg m2
Select one:
a. 19.6 N
b. 29.4 N
c. 18.0 N
d. 24.5 N
Select one:
a. 45 m/s
b. 28 m/s
c. 33 m/s
d. 6 m/s
Select one:
50. A car is pulling a trailer at 100 km/h. A 5 kg cat riding on the roof of the a. O
car jumps from the car to the trailer. What is the change in the cat's b. 230 N m
momentum? c. 300 N m
Select one: d. 280 N m
a. -25 N s (loss)
b. 0 N s
c. 1300 N s(gain)
55. A fisherman cuts his boats engine as it is entering a harbor. The boat d. 11 N
comes to a dead stop with its front end touching the dock. The fisherman's
mass is 80 kg. He moves 5 m from his seat in the back to the front of the boat 60. If the car described in Prob.72 moves along a track that is banked 5o,
in 5 s, expecting to be able to reach the dock. if the empty boat has a mass of what is the smallest radius it can travel without skidding?
300 kg, how far will the fisherman have to jump to reach the dock? Select one:
Select one: a. 47 m
a. 1.3 m b. 6 m
b. 0.0 m c. 26 m
c. 5.0 m d. 18 m
d. 1.9 m
61. Find the force in member BC.
56. A cannonball of mass 10 kg is fired from a cannon of mass 250 kg. The
initial velocity of the cannonball is 1000 km/h. All of the cannon's recoil is
absorbed by a spring with a spring constant of 250 N/cm. What is the
maximum recoil distance of the cannon?
Select one:
a. 0.59 m
b. 0.35 m
c. 0.92 m
d. 0.77 m
Select one:
a. 50 000 N (compression)
b. 50 000 N (tension)
c. 52 700 N (compression)
d. 16 700 N (tension)
Select one:
a. 96 N m 62. A projectile is fired from a cannon with an initial velocity of 1000 m/s and
b. 31 N m at an angle of 30o from the horizontal. What distance from the cannon will
c. 72 N m the projectile strike the ground if the point of impact is 1500 m below the
d. 48 N m point of release?
Select one:
a. 4.2 m Select one:
b. 4.9 m a. 90 800 m
c. 3.6 m b. 78200 m
d. 4.0 m c. 67300 m
d. 8200 m
59. Three concurrent forces act as shown.
63. Quantity of inertia possessed by an object or the proportion between
force and acceleration
Select one:
a. Mass
b. Moment of inertia
c. Velocity
d. Momentum
Select one:
Select one: a. 4.33 m/s2
a. 0.30 m/s b. 3.23 m/s2
b. 0.075 m/s c. 5.00 m/s2
c. 0.15 m/s d. 3.80 m/s2
d. 0 m/s
71. A motorist is travelling at 70 km/h when he sees a traffic light in an
65. A I kg uniform rod 1 m long is suspended from the ceiling by a frictionless intersection 250 m ahead turn red. The light's red cycle is 15 s. The motorist
hinge. The rod is free to pivot. What is the product of inertia of the about the wanst to enter the intersection without stopping his vehicle, just as the light
pivot point? turns green. What uniform deceleration of the vehicle will just put the
Select one: motorist in the intersection when the light turns greens?
a. 0 kg m2 Select one:
b. 0.045 kg m2 a. 0.18 m/s2
c. 0.13 kg m2 b. 1.3 m/s2
d. 0.33 kg m2 c. 0.37 m/s2
d. 25 m/s2
66. Three forces act on a hook. Determine the magnitude of the resultant of
the forces. Neglect hook bending. 72. The nuts on a collar are each tightened to 18 N m torque. 17% of this
torque is used to overcome screw thread friction. The bolts have a nominal
diameter of 10 mm. The threads are a simple square cut with a pitch abgle of
15o. The coefficient of friction in the threads is 0.10. What is the
approximate tensile force in each bolt?
Select one:
a. 1250 N
b. 989 N
c. 1510 N Select one:
d. 1140 N a. 203 N
b. 1620 N
67. The support force exerted on an object in contact with another stable c. 405 N
object d. 132 N
Select one:
a. Normal force 73. During the time a compact disc (CD) accelerates from rest to a constant
b. Weight rotational speed of 477 rev/min, it rotates through an angular displacement
c. Tension of 0.250 rev. What is the angular acceleration of the CD
d. Gravity Select one:
a. 358 rad/s2
68. Refer to a particle whose curvilinear motions is represented by the b. 794 rad/s2
equation s = 20t + 4t2 - 3t3. What is particles initial velocity? c. 126 rad/s2
Select one: d. 901 rad/s2
a. 25 m/s
b. 20 m/s 74. A 6.0-kg block is released from rest 80m above the ground. When it has
c. 32 m/s fallen 60m its kinetic energy is approximately:
d. 30 m/s Select one:
a. 4800 J
69. What is the tension in cable AB? b. 1176 J
c. 3528 J
d. 120 J
79. The elevator in a 12--story building has a mass of 1000 kg. Its maximum
velocity and maximum acceleartion ar 2 m/s and 1 m/s2, respectively. A
paasenger with a mass of 75 kg stands on a bathroom scale in the elevator as Select one:
the elevator ascends at its maximum acceleration. what is the scale reading a. 37 500 N (tension)
just as the elevator reaches its maximum velocity? b. 31 500 N (compression)
Select one: c. 25 000 N (compression)
a. 886 N d. 50 000 N (tension)
b. 150 N
c. 75 N 86. What are the -and y-coordiantes of the centroid of the area?
d. 811 N
80. The braced frame shown is constructed with pin-connected members and
supports. All applied forces are horizontal. What is the force in the diagonal
member AB?(Insert question #10)
Select one:
a. 160 N
b. 250 N
c. 0
d. 200 N
88. Refer to a particle for which the position is defined by s(t) = 2 sin tj [tin
radians]. What is the magnitude of the particle's acceleartion at t = π?
Select one:
a. 2.00 Select one:
b. 2.56 a. 18 000 N (compression)
c. 4.00 b. 8000 N (tension)
d. 3.14 c. 8000 N (compression)
d. 18 000 N (tension)
89. A satellite is placed in a circular orbit to observe the surface of Mars from
an altitude of 144 km. The equatorial radius of Mars is 3397 km. If the speed
of the satellite is 3480 m/s, what is the magnitude of the centripetal 94. A projectile whose mass is 10 g is fired directly upward from ground level
acceleration of the satellite? with an initial velocity of 1000 m/s. Neglect the effects of air resistance, what
Select one: will be speed of the projectile when it impacts the ground?
a. 2.99 m/s2 Select one:
b. 2.17 m/s2 a. 981 m/s
c. 3.42 m/s2 b. 1414 m/s
d. 2.60 m/s2 c. 1000 m/s
d. 707 m/s
90. A motorist is travelling at 70 km/h when he sees a traffic light in an
intersection 250 m ahead turn red. The light's red cycle is 15 s. The motorist 95. The 285 kg plate shown is suspended horizontally by four wires of equal
wanst to enter the intersection without stopping his vehicle, just as the light loenght, and the tension of each wire is equal. If wire D snaps, the tension in
turns green. What uniform deceleration of the vehicle will just put the the three remaining wires is redistributed. Determined the tension in each
motorist in the intersection when the light turns greens? wire after wire D snaps.
Select one:
a. 0.37 m/s2
b. 25 m/s2
c. 0.18 m/s2
d. 1.3 m/s2
92. The two cables shown carry a 100 N vertical load. What is the tension in Select one:
cable AB? a. TA /= 699 N ; TB /= 699 N ; TC /= 1398 N
b. TA /=1398 N ; TB /= 1398 N ; TC /= 0 N
c. TA /
d. TA /= 1398 N ; TB /= 0 N ; TC /= 1398 N
e. TA = 699 N ; TB = 1398 N ; TC = 699 N
Select one:
a. 80 N
b. 60 N
c. 50 N
d. 40 N
93. The pedestrian bridge truss shown has 10 000 N applied loads at points
Select one:
I,J, and K. What is the force in member IJ?
a. AB,GH,GI,HI,EG
b. AB,GH
c. AB,HI,GI
d. GI,HI
97. Three coplanar forces are in equilibrium on the surface of a steel plate, as
shown. Two of the forces are known to be 10 N. What is the angle, , of the
third force?
Select one:
a. 82.5o Select one:
b. 26.7o a. 300 000N (tension)
c. 53.8o b. 50 000 N (tension)
d. 7.50o c. 37 500 N (tension)
d. 350 000 N (tension)
98. A signal arm carries two traffic signals and a sign, as shown. The siognals
and sign are rigidly attached to the arm. Each traffic signal is 0.2 m2 in frontal 101. A projectile has an initial velocity of 110 m/s and a launch angle of 20o
area and weighs 210 N. The sign weighs 60 N/m2. The design wind pressure from the horizontal. The surrounding terrain is level, and air friction is to be
is 575 N/m2. The maximum moment that the connection between the arm disregarded. What is the horizontal distance traveled by the projectile?
and pole can withstand due to wind is 6000 N m , and the maximum Select one:
permitted moment due to the loads is 4000 N m. As limited by moment on a. 1200 m
the connection, what is the maximum area of the sign? b. 80 m
c. 800 m
d. 400 m
Select one:
a. -4.8 m/s2
b. 4.8 m/s2
Select one: c. -3.2 m/s2
a. 5.65 m2 d. 3.2 m/s2
b. 1.15 m2
c. 8.03 m2 103. Find the velocity of block A 2.5 s after the blocks are released.
d. 1.04 m2
99. A uniform thin disk has a radius of 30 cm and a mass of 2 kg. A constant
force of 10 N is applied tangentially at a varying, but unknown, distance from
the center of the disk. The disk accelerates about its axis at 3t rad/s2. What is
the distance from the center of the disk at which the force is apllied at t = 12
s? Select one:
a. 3.5 m/s
b. 0 m/s
c. 4.4 m/s
d. 4.9 m/s
104. A box has uniform density and a total weight of 600 N. It is suspended
by three equal-length cables, AE,BE, and CE, as shown. Point E is 0.5 m
directly above the center of the box's top surface. What is the tension in
cable CE?
Select one:
a. 108 cm
b. 32.4 cm
c. 54.0 cm
d. 36.0 cm
100. Four bolts (not shown) connect support A to the ground. Determine the
design load for each o fthe four bolts.
Select one: Select one:
a. 400 N a. 720 N to 1360 N
b. 200 N b. 560 N to 1360 N
c. 128 N c. 720 N to 1510 N
d. 370 N d. 670 N to 1440 N
105. The five forces shown act at point A. What is the magnitude of the 109. A model T-beam is constructed from five balsa boards. Refer to the
resultant force? illustration for the as-built dimensions. What is the approximate centroidal
Select one: moment of inertia about an axis parallel to the -axis?
a. 234 N
b. 182 N
c. 156 N
d. 32 N
Select one:
a. 660 cm4
b. 600 cm4
c. 500 cm4
d. 560 cm4
Select one:
a. -417 N (down) 110. A 3 kg disk with a diameter of 0.6 m is rigidly attached at point B to 1 kg
b. + 83 N (down) rod 1 m in length. The rod-disk combination rotates around point A. What is
c. +333 N (up) the mass moment of inertia about A for the combinanation
d. -83 N (down)
111. A 2.5-kg ball and a 5.0-kg ball have an elastic collision. Before the
collision, the 2.5-kg ball was at rest and the other ball had a speed of 3.5 m/s.
What is the kinetic energy of the 2.5-kg ball after the collision?_____"
Select one:
a. 27 J
b. 14 J
c. 5.8 J
d. 8.1 J
112. A spring has a constant of 50 N/m. The spring is hung vertically, and a
mass is attached to its end. The spring end displaces 30 cm from its
equilibrium position. The same mass is removed from the first spring and
attached to the end of a second (different) spring, and the displacement is 25
Select one:
cm. What is the spring constant of the second spring?
a. -6500 N m (counterclockwise)
Select one:
b. 12 000 N m (clockwise)
a. 63 N/m
c. 3500 N m (clockwise)
b. 56 N/m
d. -9000 N m (counterclockwise)
c. 60 N/m
d. 46 N/m
117. What is the magnitude of the forces that constitute the moment?
Select one:
a. 8.3 N
b. 6.3 N
Select one: c. 4.2 N
a. 1530 m4 d. 2.1 N
b. 1020 m4
c. 2410 m4 118. A 28 mm diameter circuit area is reduced by a 21 mm diameter circular
d. 1260 m4 area that is cut out. Both circles are tangent to the y-axis. What is the
moment of inertia about the y-axis of the remaining (shaded) area?
114. An area is a composite of a semicircle and a triangle, as shown. What is
the distance between the -axis an dthe centroid? Select one:
a. 103 000 mm4
b. 330 000 mm4
c. 1340 000 mm4
d. 20 600 mm4
119. What is the coefficient of friction between the plane and the block?
Select one:
a. 0.15
b. 0.78
c. 0.22
d. 0.85
Select one: 120. Two blocks are connected over a pulley. The mass of block A is 10 kg and
a. 3.46 mm the coefficient of kinetic friction between A and the incline is 0.20. Angle θ of
b. 3.68 mm the incline is 30°. Block A slides down the incline at constant speed. What is
c. 5.35 mm the mass of block B
d. 4.28 mm
Select one:
Select one: a. 2.1 kg
a. 9.83 m/s b. 5.0 kg
c. 3.7 kg
b. 6.95 m/s
c. 2.41 m/s d. 3.3 kg
d. 4.12 m/s
121. The center of gravity of a roller coaster car is 0.5 m above the rails. The
116. In the structure shown, the beam is pinned at point B. Point E is a roller rails are 1 m part. What is the maximum speed that the car can travel around
support. The beam is loaded with a distributed load from point A to point B an unbanked curve of radius 15 m without the inner wheel losing contact
of 400 N/m, a 500 N m couple at point C, and a vertical 900 N force at point with the top of the rail?
D. If the distributed load and the vertical load are removed and replaced with Select one:
a vertical upward force of 1700 N at point F, what moment at point F would a. 8.58 m/s
be necessary to keep the reaction at point E at the same?. b. 17.2 m/s
c. 24.2 m/s d. 7.2 m
d. 12.1 m/s
127. The maximum kinetic and potential energy of a spring when stretched at
122. Two particles are fixed to an x axis : particle 1 of charge -2.00 x 10-7 C at various displacements is equal to
x=6.00 cm and particle 2 of charge +2.00 x 10-7 C at x=21.0 cm. Midway Select one:
between the particles, what is their net electric field in unit vector notation?
a. 1 /2Kx2
Select one:
a. -3.20 X 105 N/C i ̂ b. mg
b. -6.39 x 105 N/C i ̂ c. –mx2
c. -4.00 x 105 N/C i ̂ d. None of the choices
d. -2.40 x 105 N/C i ̂
124. A force is defined by the vector A = 3.5 i - 1.5 j + 2.0k. i,j, and k are unit
vectors in the -,y-, and z-direction, respectively. What is the angle that the
force makes with the positive y-axis?
Select one:
a. 69.6o Select one:
b. 20.4o a. 27 i N - 100j N
c. 110o
b. -27 i N - 100j N
d. 66.4o
c. 0 i N+ 180j N
125. The position (in radians) of a car travelling around a curve is described d. 0 i N + 100j N
by the following function of time (in seconds). What is the angular velocity at
t = 3 s?
130. A parallel-plate air capacitor is made from two plates 0.070 m square,
Select one:
a. -16 rad/s spaced 6.3 mmapart. What must the potential difference between the plates
b. -4 rad /s be to produce an energydensity of 0.037 J/m3?
c. 15 rad/s Select one:
d. 11 rad/s
a. 470 V
126. A stone is dropped down a well. 2.47 s after the stone is realeased, a b. 370V
splash is heard. If the velocity of sound in air is 342 m/s, find the distance to c. 270 V
the surface of the water in the well. d. 570 V
Select one:
a. 38 m
b. 2.4 m
c. 28 m
131. Block d side freely on the homogeneous bar and experiences a c. 0.40 rad/s2
gravitation force of 50 N. Homogeneous bar AB experiences a gravitational d. 16 rad/s2
force of 25 N. What is the force between the bar and block D?
135. A 6 kg sphere moving at 3m/s collides with a 10 kg sphere traveling 2.5
m/s in the same direction. The 6 kg ball comes to a complete stop after the
collision. What is the new velocity of the 10 kg ball immediately after the
collision?
Select one:
a. 0.5 m/s
b. 5.5 m/s
c. 2.8 m/s
d. 4.3 m/s
a.
a. I and III
b. I and IV
c. I only b.
d. II and III
134. The rotor of a steam turbine is rotating at 7200 rev/min when the steam
supply is suddenly cut off. The rotor decelerates at a constant rate and comes
to rest after 5 min. What was the angular deceleration of the rotor?
Select one:
a. 2.5 rad/s2
b. 5.8 rad/s2 c.
142. A disk-shaped bofy with a 4 cm radius has a 320 N force acting through
the center at an unknown angle , and two 40 N loads acting as a couple, as
shown. All of these forces are removed and replaced by a single 320 N force
at point B, parallel to the original 320 N force. What is the angle ?
d.
Select one:
a. 0o
b. 7.6o
c. 15o
d. 29o
Select one:
a. 1150 N m
b. 1240 N m
c. 650 N m
d. 890 N m
148. Determine the force in member BC. 154. What are R1 and R2? (insert question #11)
Select one:
a. 1250 N
b. 4000 N
c. R1 /
d. 1000 N; R2 /
e. R1 /
f. R1 /
g. 3750 N; R2 /
h. 1250 N
155. QUEST029::Two blocks are connected over a pulley. The mass of block A
is 10 kg and the coefficient of kinetic friction between A and the incline is
0.20. Angle θ of the incline is 30°. Block A slides down the incline at constant
speed. What is the mass of block B
Select one:
a. 1000 N (compression)
b. 2500 N (tension)
c. 1500 N (tension)
d. 0
b. None of the choices 162. A disk rolls along a flat surface at a constant speed of 10 m/s. Its
diameter is 0.5 m. At a particular instant, point P on the edge of the disk is
45o from the horizontal. What is the velocity of point P at that instant?
Select one:
a. 10.0 m/s15.0 m/s16.2 m/s
b. 18.5 m/s
163. For the reciprocating pump shown, the radius of the crank is r = 0.3 m,
c. and the rotational speed is n = 350 rpm. What is the tangetial velocity of
point A on the crank corresponding to an angle of = 35o from the horizontal?
Select one:
a. 10 m/s
b. 1.1 m/s
c. 0 m/s
d. d. 11 m/s
158. A bent beam is acted upon by a moment and several concentrated 164. What is the -coordinate of the centroid of the curve y = cos between = 0
forces, as shown. Find the missing force F and distance that will maintain = /2?
equilibrium on the member shown. a. pi/4
b. pi/6
c. 1 – 2/pi
d. pi/2 – 1