Chapter 25 Questions:

17-18. Advantages of homeotherms include which of the following?

17A. exploitation of a wide variety of environmental conditions
17B. very low resting metabolic rates

17C. can maintain extended periods of activity
17D. low caloric requirements
17E. A and C
18A. B and D

18B. All of the above
18C. None of the above

21. The regulation of body temperature in an animal by internal metabolism is called

A. homeostasis.

B. ectothermy.

C. endothermy.
D. poikilothermy.

22. The maintenance of a relatively constant internal environment in a varying external environment is called

A. diapause.
(way to evade drought; period of suspended development during unfavorable environment)
B. thermoregulation.
C. acclimatization.
D. homeostasis.

24. The true measure of an organism's reproductive success is

A. its fitness.
B. the total number of offspring produced.
C. its survival.

D. its life span.

30. Which of the following adaptations would be most beneficial to a desert rodent, such as a kangaroo rat?

A. specialized kidneys to concentrate urine

B. dark coloring
C. increased amounts of hemoglobin in the bloodstream
D. short ears

E. short legs

33. Which of the following is an advantage of homeothermy?

A. high caloric intake

B. wide fluctuations in body temperature

C. activity regardless of external temperature
D. maximum allocation of energy to growth

34. Poikilotherms can regulate their body temperature by:

A. Hiding in cool places

B. Basking in the sun

C. Panting
D. Going dormant
E. All of the above

39. The basal metabolic rate per unit of body mass is highest in a
A. small endotherm. (as body weight decreases, metabolic rate increases ex: mouse) (in homeotherms aka endotherms only)
B. small ectotherm.
C. large ectotherm.
D. large endotherm

40. For every ________ rise in temperature, the poikilothermic metabolic rate approximately doubles.

A. 1oC

B. 5oC
C. 2oC
D. 10oC (Van’t Hoff’s rule; Poikilotherms only)
E. 15oC

43. Which of the following is incorrect?


A. a grazer has a high cellulose diet.

B. by itself, a browser is unable to extract all the nutrients from woody material.
C. a granivore feeds on fruits.

D. A herbivore may also be a frugivore.
51. Acclimatization is extremely important for living organisms, because it allows:
A. a long-term increase in photosynthesis

B. a plant or animal to adapt to gradual changes in environmental conditions

C. is a first response to reduced sunlight levels
D. differential reproductive success (fitness) of individuals

52. Which of the following factors does not influence animal heat exchange?
A. Fat thickness

B. Movement of blood to the body's surface

C. Oxygen diffusion rate
D. Conductivity of fat

53. One of the most significant problems faced by carnivores in obtaining adequate amounts of energy is:

A. low assimilation rates

B. obtaining enough food to meet energy demands
C. maintaining a diet high in cellulose
D. locating adequate food supplies

55. Which of the following is NOT expected in response to an increase in the body temperature of a homeotherm?

A. cooling due to evaporation of water from skin

B. sweating
C. increased blood flow to the skin
D. shivering

19-20. Which of the following statements are true concerning homeostasis of an organism?
19A. refers to the maintenance of a constant internal environment

19B. is based upon a positive feedback system
(no based on negative feedback)
19C. is largely physiological aided by behavioral mechanisms
19D. refers to fixed morphological characteristics
19E. A and C
20A. B and D

20B. All of the above
20C. None of the above

27. Evidence shows that some grasses benefit from being grazed. Which of the following terms would best describe this plant-herbivore
interaction?

A. mutualism

B. commensalism
C. parasitism
D. competition
E. predation

56. In the stomachs of ruminants, such as cows, certain microbes digest cellulose, a material the cow cannot digest itself. This interaction between
cows and microbes represents an example of:
A. Obligate symbiotic mutualism

B. Herbivory
C. Facultative mutualism
D. Carnivory

E. Interspecific competition

Chapter 10 Questions:
1. Which of the following are characteristics of K-selected species?
A. High offspring mortality rates
B. High intrinsic rate of growth
C. Onset of reproduction at an early age
D. Little to no parental care of offspring
E. A and C
F. B and D
G. All of the above
H. None of the above

4. Which of the following strategies are used by subordinate males in order to try and mate with a female?

A. Female mimicry.

B. Mate guarding.
C. Satellite behavior.
D. Sexual interference.
E. A and C 

F. B and D 

G. All of the above H. None of the above

6. Why do males often NOT provide parental care even though the survival of their offspring (and associated DNA) is at issue?
A. Males always provide parental care to all of their offspring
B. Potential loss of additional breeding with other females
C. Parental care is the exclusive behavior of females
D. Reliability of paternity
E. A and C
F. B and D
G. All of the above
H. None of the above

9. Which of the following strategies are often used by males who do not control a territory or resources, but want to mate with a female?

A. Test-of-Dominance
(male is older/experienced/good stamina/prime physiological condition)
B. Camouflage
C. Runaway Selection
D. Satellite behavior
E. A and C 

E. B and D 

G. All of the above
H. None of the above

12. Which of the following could be considered “handicaps” in reference to the Handicap Hypothesis?
(A costly or deleterious character that reduces survival but attracts females ex: peacock color)
A. Dull coloration
B. Highly submissive behaviors around other males
C. Providing food to a female
D. Extremely limited vocalization
E. A and C
F. B and D
G. All of the above
H. None of the above

13. Monogamy is most common to which of the following situations:

A. only one parent is required to rear young

B. highly unstable environmental conditions

C. cooperation by parents is needed to rear young
D. short reproductive seasons
E. A and C

F. B and D
G. All of the above
H. None of the above

16. Protection of inseminated females can include which of the following?

A. Physically guard female until she lays eggs (Contact guarding)
B. Use of plugs and repellents in order to seal the female’s genital opening
C. Apply a repellent odor to the female
D. Postcopulatory triumphal song
E. A and C
F. B and D
G. All of the above
H. None of the above

17. The name for the reproductive life-history strategy of reproducing once in a lifetime is?
A. Monoliber *
B. Altricial (offspring born completely helpless, but grows quickly ex: mouse)
Precocial (offspring able to move about shortly after birth, but grows slowly ex: horse)
C. Parthenogenesis
D. Semelparous (Single major reproductive effort in lifetime)
Iteroparous (several small reproductive events throughout lifetime)
E. Budding

22. A high density of elephant population in an area can result in

A. mutualism

B. intraspecific competition
 (intense competition among males for female attraction)
C. interspecific competition (selection of the “fittest” male or female based upon competition AND courtship)
D. predation
26. All of the following characteristics are typical of an r-selected population EXCEPT?
A. high mortality rates

B. high intrinsic rate of growth

C. onset of reproduction at an early age
D. extensive parental care of offspring
E. population control by density-independent factors

34. What is the PRIMARY evolutionary relevant difference between sexual and asexual reproduction?

A. Asexual organisms are mainly haploid, while sexual organisms are mainly diploid.

B. Asexual reproduction is faster than sexual reproduction.
C. Asexual reproduction produces offspring identical to the parent, while sexual reproduction generally produces genetically diverse offspring
D. Asexual reproduction is a "logical" reproduction process, while sexual reproduction is "illogical" as a reproduction process

41. The mating system in which males and females mate with one or many of the opposite sex and form no pair bond is known as what?

A. polygyny.
(promiscuity of male)
B. monogamy. (only one mate)
C. promiscuity.
D. polyandry. (promiscuity of female)

42. Direct, aggressive physical competition among individuals for the opportunity to mate with the opposite sex is characteristic of

A. polygyny.

B. Intrasexual selection. (intense competition among males for female attraction; direct fighting/combat)
C. polyandry.
D. intersexual selection. (selection of the “fittest” male or female based upon competition AND courtship)

46. Extreme fighting intensity leading to death and serious injury among males to control resources and/or attract females could be expected to occur
most commonly under which of the following conditions?

A. during part of the year when females are NOT fertile

B. when there is an abundance of females

C. when males have a very short life span lasting only a few days

D. when males have a very long life span lasting many months

15-16. In which of the following situations might we expect males to provide at least some level of parental care?

15A. low female fecundity

15B. displaying parental care by the male may attract additional females
15C. limited resources

15D. intense predation pressures of the offspring
15E. A and C

16A. B and D

16B. All of the above

16C. None of the above

23-24. Which of the following are characteristics of r-selected species?

23A. very long-lived species

23B. low reproductive rates with very low mortality

23C. extensive parental care of offspring
23D. slow development/maturation
23E. A and C

24A. B and D

24B. All of the above
24C. None of the above

31. Which of the following describes the Handicap Hypothesis of sexual selection?
A. elaborate and outlandish plumages of males is incompatible with natural selection
B. If a male can carry handicaps such as bright plumage and survive, it is proof of a superior genotype
C. females are highly selective in order to protect their own genotype
D. females will select mates based upon resources which they control

33. A female exhibits two major approaches in choosing a mate; the phenotypic characteristics of the mate or the

A. age of the male.

B. number of other females the males has in his harem.
C. number of offspring the male has previously produced.
D. ability of the male to provide resources.

38. Which of the following is NOT a form of asexual reproduction?

A. parthenogenesis

B. sequential hermaphroditism (two hermaphrodites mate)

C. growth of a rhizome
D. budding
52. When one male mates and stays with one female, the relationship is called
A. monoecious.

B. promiscuous.

C. polygamous.
D. monogamous.

55. Which of the following characterizes relatively K-selected populations?

A. offspring with good chances of survival
B. many offspring per reproductive episode
C. small offspring

D. a high intrinsic rate of increase

E. early parental reproduction

62. Direct, aggressive physical competition among individuals for the opportunity to mate with the opposite sex is characteristic of

A. polygyny.

B. intrasexual selection.
C. polyandry.

D. intersexual selection.

Chapter 14 Questions
3. Which of the following are parameters of the Lotka-Volterra Model?
A. the carrying capacity of the environment

B. immigration and emigration

C. birth and death rates
D. climatic events
E. A and C 

F. B and D 

G. All of the above
H. H. None of the above

9-10. Which of the following are components of the Lotka-Volterra Model?

9A. initial population size of the species

9B. intrinsic rate of increase

9C. the carrying capacity
9D. a coefficient to account for competitive effect
9E. A and C

10A. B and D

10B. All of the above
10C. None of the above

29. Natural selection involves energetic trade-offs between or among life history traits such as?
A. number of offspring per reproductive episode

B. number of reproductive episodes per lifetime

C. age at first reproduction
D. Only A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are correct

31. According to the Lotka-Volterra equations, which of the following is NOT an expected outcome of competitive interactions between two
species?

A. The population sizes of both species increase to infinity.

B. Species 2 drives species 1 to extinction
C. Species 1 drives species 2 to extinction.
D. Both species coexist.

37. To use variables such as temperature, rainfall, and soil pH to create an ecological niche model for a species of duck in Argentina would contribute
an attempt to model the duck's ___ niche

A. Specific
B. Realized
(the actual space that an organism inhabits and the resources it can access as a result of limiting pressures from other species)
C. Perfect

D. Fundamental
 (Environmental factors, such as climate, soil chemistry, and elevation, also play a role in defining a niche)
E. None of the above

44. When two organisms use a portion of the same resource simultaneously, it is referred to as
A. competitive release.

B. territoriality.

C. niche overlap.
D. intraspecific competition.
E. niche release
INTERACTION 1: Several species of barnacles live on the head, flukes, and tail of large baleen whales. They obtain an ideal environment for
feeding, and relative safety from predation. The barnacles do not affect the reproductive output of whales.

INTERACTION 2: Wax moths live in the nests of honeybees. Their larvae eat the stored honey of the bees, as well as the larvae of workers and
reproductive honeybees. The adults mate and disperse to lay eggs in new nests.

INTERACTION 3: The foraging and activities of Hippos stir silt into the water column. As a result, these bodies of water are unsuitable for many
species of fish and small invertebrates.

INTERACTION 4: Hyenas and Lions prey on antelopes, zebras, and gazelles in African Grasslands. Lions frequently chase Hyenas away from a kill,
and take it for themselves.

INTERACTION 5: Trychogramminid wasps oviposit into scale insect eggs. Their larvae emerge and eat the contents of the scale insect egg. They
then mate and disperse to find new patches scale insects.

INTERACTION 6: The red flour beetle, Triboleum confusum, and the beetle Orzymyra sp. both live in, and eat, stored flour. Red flour beetle larvae
eat the eggs and larvae of their conspecifics, as well as Orzymyra larvae. In mixed species cultures, Triboleum always drives Orzymyra extinct.

47. Which is an example of amensalism? (an interaction in which one species is negatively affected while the other remains unaffected)
A. Interaction 1

B. Interaction 2

C. Interaction 3
D. Interaction 5
E. Interaction 6

48. Which is an example of commensalism? (an interaction in which one species benefits & the other is unaffected)
A. Interaction 1
B. Interaction 2

C. Interaction 5

D. Interactions 1 and 2
E. None of the above

49. Which is an example of interference competition?

A. Interaction 4
B. Interaction 5

C. Interaction 6

D. Interactions 4 and 6

E. Interactions 4, 5, and 6.

50. Which is an example of a parasitoid? (on species lives on (or in) another and obtains food and nutrients from it)
A. Interaction 1

B. Interaction 6

C. Interaction 5
D. Interactions 1 and 5
E. None of the above

7-8. Characteristics, which make a species vulnerable to extinction, include:

7A. highly specialized niche

7B. generalists

7C. restricted ranges
7D. abundant and widely distributed
7E. A and C
8A. B and D

8B. All of the above
8C. None of the above

39. In the above graph, what do N1 and K2 represent?


A. the carrying capacity of species one; the population size of species one
B. the population size of species one; the carrying capacity of species two
C. the population size of species one; the carrying capacity of species one
D. the population size of species two; the carrying capacity of species one
E. the carrying capacity of species two; the population size of species two

40. According to the competitive exclusion principle, two species cannot continue to occupy the same

A. habitat

B. niche
C. territory
D. range
E. biome

49. When a species expands its niche in response to the removal of a competitor, the species has experienced competitive

A. compression

B. release
C. shift

D. displacement
E. defense

23-24. Populations possess which of the following properties?

23A. density

23B. age structure

23C. birth and death rates
23D. immigration and emigration rates
23E. A and C

24A. B and D

24B. All of the above
24C. None of the above

31. A population is correctly defined as having which of the following characteristics?

I. inhabiting a specific geographic range

II. individuals belonging to the same species

III. possessing a constant and uniform density and dispersion
A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II, and III

35. The fundamental niche of a species is:

A. Restricted by the presence of predators
B. Restricted by the presence of competitors
C. Often found in nature
D. Determined by the range of tolerance of a species to environmental factors
E. All of these are true of the fundamental niche.

43. According to the ____________ principle, two species with identical requirements for existence cannot coexist indefinitely.

A. Numerical response

B. Competitive exclusion
C. Law of tolerance

D. Allopatric speciation
E. Adaptive radiation

48. The production and release of chemical substances by one species that inhibit the growth of other species is referred to as:

A. tolerance

B. acclimatization
C. allelopathy
D. homeostasis

50. The net outcome of predator-prey interactions in the basic Lotka-Volterra models is that
A. the prey population declines and this causes the predator population to also decline.

B. the predator drives its prey to extinction and then goes extinct itself.

C. predator and prey populations eventually converge on equilibrium population sizes that are maintained into infinity.
D. predator and prey populations oscillate, with each predictability increasing and decreasing in response to the other

54. The Lotka-Volterra Model is what?


A. a model predicting niche overlap of two or more species
B. a mathematical expression to describe the interaction between two species using the same resource
C. a model predicting the number of mates selected by a female
 D. the changes in an environment due to human impacts

Chapter 15 Questions
33. In the basic Lotka-Volterra equations that describe predator-prey interactions, the growth rate of the prey population (dNprey/dt) is zero when the
density of predators (Nprey) is equal to
A. r/c.

B. c/r
C. r/N
D. N/r

30. In the prey population growth model, rNprey – cNpreyNpred, the value of “r” represents?
A. the total rate of predation

B. the efficiency of predation

C. the death rate of the predators
D. the difference between births and deaths
E. the efficiency of prey escapes attempts

27. In the prey population growth model, rNprey – cNpreyNpred, the value of “c” represents?
A. the total rate of predation

B. the efficiency of predation

C. the death rate of the predators
D. the death rate of the prey

E. the efficiency of prey escape attempts

59. In the predator population growth equation, b(cNpreyNpred) – dNpred, the value “d” represents what?

A. birth rates

B. death rates
C. number of offspring per female
D. probability of mortality
E. probability of capturing prey

10. Which of the following represent ways in which two ecologically similar species can avoid competing with each other?
A. Each species forages by its own unique method
B. Each species occurs in its own microhabitat within the same geographic range
C. Each species feeds at different times of the day
D. Each species occupies its own geographic range
E. A and C
F. B and D
G. All of the above
H. None of the above

14. Factors involved in an animal's foraging “strategy” are:

A. search time to find food

B. current birth rates of a competing population

C. prey defenses
D. selection of mates
E. A and C 

F. B and D 

G. All of the above
H. None of the above

19. In Optimal Foraging Theory, the net energy gained from a given prey item is defined as ___.
A. Energy used in handling the prey.

B. Energy obtained minus energy invested

C. Energy invested minus energy obtained.
D. Energy remaining after stalking.

21. An example of Batesian mimicry is


A. an insect that resembles a twig

B. a butterfly that resembles a leaf

C. a nonvenomous snake that looks like a venomous snake

D. a fawn with fur coloring that camouflages it in the forest environment

E. a snapping turtle that uses its tongue to mimic a worm, thus attracting fish

22. Prey switching occurs when?

A. One prey trades niches with another prey
B. The predator and prey reverse roles
C. Predators change their preferences for species of prey
D. A prey item leaves a given area

24. Which of the following is an example of aposematism?

A. an edible species that mimics a toxic species

B. a venomous snake with bold color patterns

C. the flashing of the tail of a white-tailed deer
D. an insect that resembles its habitat

27. An example of Mullerian mimicry is


A. mimicry in an insect that resembles a twig

B. a butterfly that resembles a leaf

C. a beetle that resembles a scorpion

D. a moth with wing spots that look like large eyes

E. two poisonous frogs that resemble one another in coloration

36. All of the following represent ways that animals defend themselves against predators except
A. incorporating plant toxins into their tissues

B. cryptic coloration

C. mobbing
D. interspecific competition
E. distraction displays

40. Which of the following describes Risk-Sensitive Foraging?


A. the longer a predator stays at a feeding site the more quickly the prey will become depleted
B. selection of a mate without resources increases the risk of reproductive failure
C. the predator must decide whether to go back to a known source that gives a constant rate of return or visit a new patch where return is unknown
D. if a predator leaves a feeding patch too soon it does not use the resource efficiently

45. Which of the following is not considered to be an evolved defense of prey against predators?
A. flashing coloration

B. cryptic coloration

C. Batesian mimicry
D. character displacement

5-6. In order to defend against predation, some insects possess sharp spines AND can secrete foul tasting substances. What form(s) of defense does
this animal possess?

5A. warning coloration

5B. chemical defense
5C. mimicry

5D. mechanical defense
5E. A and C

6A. B and D

6B. All of the above
6C. None of the above

11-12. Advantages of dispersal include:


11A. may be able to locate resource rich habitats
11B. delayed reproductive success

11C. reduce inbreeding

11D. reduced rates of growth

11E. A and C

12A. B and D

12B. All of the above

12C. None of the above

15-16. Factors involved in an animal's foraging “strategy” are:

15A. search time to find food

15B. digestion of the food

15C. prey defenses
15D. handling time
15E. A and C

16A. B and D

16B. All of the above
16C. None of the above

26. The most common kind of dispersion in nature is

A. clumped
 B. random

C. uniform

D. indeterminate
E. dispersive

32. A measure of the number of individuals per unit area is:

A. Ecological density
B. Crude density 

C. Population
E. Disperson 

E. Total density 


37. A palatable fly that avoids predation by appearing to be a predaceous wasp is an example of
A. Batesian mimic
B. Batesian model
C. Mullerian mimic
D. Mullerian model
E. None of the above

41. Mimicry systems depend on all of the following EXCEPT

A. the models being noxious or disagreeable

B. the mimics being less common than their models

C. the ability of predators to "learn" characteristics of their prey
D. the models being cryptically colored
E. the models being easily recognized

45. Which of the following is a positive numerical response made by a predator in response to an increase in prey density?

A. immigration of predators to an area of high prey density

B. increase in predator survival rate
C. decrease in predator mortality rate

D. decrease in predator reproduction rat

47. The change in prey consumed per predator as prey numbers increase is called the predator's
A. foraging optimum.

B. oscillation.

C. numerical response.
D. functional response.

48. The pufferfish, a common marine fish, has extensive spines that extend outward when it swallows water, becoming several times its normal size.
This is an example of what kind of defense against predation?

A. warning coloration
B. chemical defense
C. mimicry

D. mechanical defense
E. camouflage

3-4. Prey defense to predation include:

3A. Cryptic shape and coloration

3B. protective armor

3C. alarm calls
3D. distraction or diversion
3E. A and C

4A. B and D

4B. All of the above
4C. None of the above

61. Viceroy butterflies (which are not distasteful to predators) look very similar to Monarch butterflies, which are distasteful to predators. This is an
example of what?

A. Camouflage

B. Mullerian mimicry
C. Batesian mimicry
D. Coevolution
E. Both A and C
F. Both B and D