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SSC MTS Free E-Book

As per the latest revised notification, we are providing the new exam pattern & syllabus of SSC MTS 2016 Exam which is
going to be held from 16th September 2017 to 26th October 2017. Candidates are advised to prepare the expected SSC
Multitasking Staff exam syllabus and SSC MTS exam pattern as given below. This year SSC MTS Paper-1 will be conducted
online. Candidates need to stay connected with us, we will keep on providing useful information like study plan & notes for
SSC MTS exam preparation.

Latest Changes in SSC MTS Exam Pattern 2016

• Paper will be conducted in Online mode.


• Number of questions reduced to 100 from 150.
• Time is also reduced to 1 Hour 30 Minutes from 2 Hours.
• Equal weightage of all subjects.
• Paper will be of 100 marks instead of 150.

SC MTS New Exam Pattern 2016

SSC MTS Exam consists of two papers. Paper-I is objective type paper and Paper II is descriptive paper. Kindly check the
exam pattern of paper-1 and paper-2 in the below table.

Maximum
Subject Total Duration/ Timing
Marks

Intelligence Reasoning
25
(25 Questions)

Numerical Aptitude
Paper-1 25
(25 Questions) 90 minutes
General English
25
(25Questions)

General Awareness
25
(25Questions)

Short Essay/Letter in
English or any language
included in the 8th 50 30 minutes
Paper-2 Schedule of the
Constitution

Note: Latest Changes in Exam Pattern are completely based on the information provided by SSC. You can
check the Practice Test here.

SSC MTS Syllabus 2016

The paper 1 of SSC MTS Exam is objective type. There are 100 questions asked in paper-1 for which Candidates gets 90
minutes. Questions will be based on following topics:

• General Intelligence and Reasoning


• Quantitative Aptitude
• General Awareness
• English Language

Go through the section wise detailed syllabus of SSC MTS Exam in below table. You can also check the study material to
boost your preparation.

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Reasoning Syllabus

Subjects Weightage Study Material

Analogy 2-3

Classification 3-4

Missing Number 2-3

Matrix 1

Word Formation 1-2

Coding-Decoding 1-2

Simplification 2-3
Important Books, Study Plan, and
Arrangement of words 1-2 Quizzes for Reasoning section.
Blood Relation 1

Distance & Direction 2-3

Number/Word Series 2-3

Non-Verbal (Paper Cutting & Folding, Mirror & Water Image,


Embedded figures, Figure Completion, Counting) 4-5
Embedded figures, Figure Completion, Counting of figure)

Verbal (Statement Conclusion, Assertion & Reason,


0-1
Statement & Inference, Arguments)

Quantitative Aptitude Syllabus

Subjects Weightage Study Material


Ratio & Proportion 1-2
Percentage 1-2
HCF & LCM 1-2
SI & CI 2-3
Profit, Loss & Discount 2-3
Time & Work 2-3
Time, Distance & Speed 1-2
Average 1-2
Study Material of Quantitative Aptitude.
Problem on ages 2-3
Number System 3-4
Number Series 1-2
Data Interpretation 2-3
Mensuration 1-2
Geometry 1
Mixture & Allegation 1-2
Trigonometry 1

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English Syllabus

Subjects Weightage Study Material


Reading Comprehension 5
Fill in the blanks 2-3
Error Spotting 2-3
Sentence Correction 2-3 Important Quizzes, Strategy to prepare
Synonym & Antonym 2-3 English Section.
Idioms & Phrases 2-3
One Word Substitution 2-3
Spelling Error 1-2
General Awareness Syllabus
Subjects Weightage Study Material
History 2-3
Geography 2-3
Polity 1-2
Economics 2-3
Chemistry 2-3
Biology 2-3 Latest GK for SSC MTS Exam.
Physics 3-4
Computer 2-3
Static GK (Imp. Dates, Sports, Awards,
2-3
Schemes, Books & Authors etc.)
Current Affairs 2-3

SSC MTS Selection Process


Step I: Candidates will be shortlisted for the Paper-II on the basis of their performance in Paper-I.
Step II: Paper-II will only of qualifying nature. The cut-offs in Paper-I and qualifying marks in Paper-II may be different
for vacancies in each State/UT will be fixed at the discretion of the Commission.
Step III: Candidates for each State/UT will be finally selected based on their performance in Paper-I, subject to their
meeting basic qualifying standards fixed in Paper-II.
Important Points to Remember
Point 1: Paper-I will consist of Objective Type- Multiple choice questions only.
Point 2: There will be negative marking of 0.25 marks for each wrong answer. Candidates are, therefore, advised to keep
this in mind while answering the questions.
Point 3: Paper-II will be descriptive in which the candidate will be required to write short essay/letter in English or any
language included in the 8th schedule of the Constitution.

SSC MTS Free Mock Test on Updated Pattern with Answer Key

SSC MTS 2016 Online Exam Pattern has changed as per the latest instruction available on SSC CGL website. To help you
with the exam pattern, we are providing SSC MTS Free Mock Test based on latest pattern with Answer. You can take the
mock test and check your answers through answer key.

If you want to get detailed solutions with analysis, you can get it through Gradeup Online Test Series through link here

You can also take SSC MTS Online test on latest pattern through Gradeup test series app available here

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1. In the following question, select the related


word/letters/number from the given alternatives.
Yes: No:: Alive : ?
A. Life B. Live
C. Dead D. None of These
2. In the following question, select the related A. 107 B. 77
word/letters/ number from the given alternatives. C. 27 D. 50
83 : 25 : : 29 : ? 10. In the following question, some equations are
A. 25 B. 16 solved on the basis; find out the correct answer for
C. 49 D. 36 the unsolved equation.
If 526 = 9 and 834 = 9, then 716 = ?
3. Direction: In the following question, select the A. 9 B. 12
related letters/word/number from the given C. 20 D. 15
alternatives. 11. In a row of 16 boys, when Prakash was shifted by
two places towards the left, he became 7th from
72 : 18 : : 56 : ? the left end. What was his earlier position from the
A. 24 B. 14 right end of the row?
C. 20 D. 16 A. 7th B. 8th
C. 9th D. l0th
4. Direction: In the following questions, which one of 12. In the following question, from the given
the given responses would be a meaningful order alternative select the word which cannot be formed
of the following? using the letters of the given word.
1). Line ADMINISTRATOR
2). Angle A. ADMIT B. NEST
3). Square C. MANIA D. ROAD
4). Triangle 13. From the given alternatives select the word which
A. 2, 1, 4, 3 B. 3, 4, 1, 2 can be formed using the letters given in the word.
C. 4, 2, 1, 3 D. 1, 2, 4, 3 COMPANIONSHIP
5. Which of the following inter change of signs or A. OPINION B. NATION
figures would make the given equation correct? C. OPEN D. OPIUM
14. In the following question, a series is given with one
term missing. Choose the correct alternative from
A. + and × B. 5 and 10 the given ones that will complete the series.
C. + and - D. 5 and 2 32, 58, 92, 134, ___?__.
6. If ‘×’ means ‘-’, ‘-’ means ‘×’, ‘+’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ A. 184 B. 194
means ‘+’, then C. 156 D. 169
15. Select the one which is different from the other
three responses.
A. 1800 B. 113 A. Rain B. Cloud
C. 2000 D. 123 C. Mist D. Fog
7. A cyclist goes 30 km to North and then turning to 16. Direction: Select the one which is different from
East he goes 40 km. Again he turns to his right and the other three responses.
goes 20 km. After this he turns to his right and A. 82 - 73 B. 66 - 68
goes 40 km. How far is he from his starting point? C. 26 - 17 D. 55 - 46
A. 20 km B. 10 km 17. If A = 1, ACT = 24, then FAT = ?
C. 25 km D. 40 km A. 26 B. 25
8. Direction: Which one of the following diagrams C. 27 D. 24
represents the relationship between Cows, Animals 18. Two statements are given followed by four
and Goats ? conclusions (I), (II), (III) and (IV). You have to
consider the statements to be true even if they
seem to be at variance from commonly known
facts. You are to decide which of the given
A. B. conclusions, if any, follow from the given
statements. Indicate your answer.
Statements:
Some teachers are students.
C. D. All students are girls.
9. In the following question, select the missing Conclusions:
number from the given responses. (I) All teachers are girls.
(II) Some girls are teachers.

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(III) Some girls are students.


(IV) All students are teachers.
A. Only (I) follows
B. Only (1), (II), and (III) follow
C. Only (II) and (III) follow
D. All follow A. B.
19. If m * n = m2 – mn – 2, then (–4 * –5) = ?
A. –6 B. -2
C. 6 D. 7
20. In the following question, from the given answer
figures, select the one in which the question figure
is hidden/embedded. C. D.
Question Figure 23. Direction: A piece of paper is folded and cut as
shown below in the question figures. From the
given answer figures, indicate how it will appear
when opened?
Questions Figure:

A. B.

C. D.
A. B.
21. Direction: Which answer figure will complete the
question figure ?
Question Figure

C. D.
24. From the following two different appearance of a
dice, which number lies to the opposite of 2?

A. B. A. 1 B. 4
C. 6 D. 5
25. Direction: Which number is on the face opposite
4, if the four different positions of a dice are as
shown in the figures given below?
C. D.
22. Find out the mirror image of the given figure.
Question Figure :

A. 5 B. 3
C. 4 D. 1
26. There are two containers of equal capacity. The
ratio of milk to water in the first container is 2 : 1,
in the second container 9 : 5. If they are mixed up,
the ratio of milk to water in the mixture will be
A. 54 : 29 B. 55 : 29
C. 29 : 55 D. 2 : 1
E. 53 : 29
27. A number is increased by 10% and then decreased
by 10%. Finally the number
A. does not change
B. decreases by 1%

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C. increases by 1% 39. With an average speed of 40 km/hr, a train


D. 0increases by 0.1% reaches its destination in time. If it goes with an
28. Arbind spends 75% of his income and saves the average speed of 35 km/hr, it is late by 15
rest. His income is increased by 20% and he minutes. The total journey is
increases his expenditure by 10%. Then the A. 30 km B. 40 km
increase in savings in percentage is C. 70 km D. 80 km
A. 55% B. 52% 40. The speed of a boat in still water is 10km/hr. It
C. 50% D. 48% covers upstream a distance of 45 km in 6 hours.
29. A mother after 4 yr will be twice the age of her The speed (in km/hr) of the stream is
daughter after 4 years. The sum of their present A. 2.5 B. 3
ages is 46. What is the present age of the C. 3.5 D. 4
daughter? 41. The least perfect square number, which is divisible
A. 14 yr B. 15 yr by each of the numbers 16, 20 and 24 is :
C. 16 yr D. None of these A. 1600 B. 3600
C. 6400 D. 14400

42. For a triangle, base is cm and two base


30. If 20% of A=30% of of C, then A: B: C: is
angles are 30 ° and 60. Then height of the triangle
A. 2:3:16 B. 3:2:16
is
C. 10:15:18 D. 15:10:18
31. A bag contains Rs. 187 in the form of Rs. 1,50
A. cm B. 4.5 cm
paise and 10 paise coins in the ration 3:4:5. Then,
the number of each types of coins is
A. 102, 136 and 170 B. 100, 128 and 150 C. cm D. cm
C. 101, 135 and 169 D. None of these 43. The mean value of 20 observations was found to
32. Having the same capacity 9 pipes fill up a be 75, but later on it was detected that 97 was
swimming pool in 20 minutes. How many pipes of misread as 79. Find the correct mean.
the same capacity are required to fill up the same A. 75.7 B. 75.8
swimming pool in 18 minutes? C. 75.9 D. 75.6
A. 10 B. 12 44. The volumes of a cylinder and a cone are in the
C. 15 D. 18 ratio3 : 1. Find their diameters and then compare
33. The difference between the simple and compound them when their heights are equal.
interest on a certain sum of money for 2 years at A. Diameter of cylinder = 2 times of diameter of
4% per annum is ₹ 1. Find the sum. cone
A. ₹ 630 B. ₹ 620 B. Diameter of cylinder = Diameter of cone
C. ₹ 625 D. ₹ 635 C. Diameter of cylinder > Diameter of cone
34. A reduction of 10 % in the price of a commodity D. Diameter of cylinder < Diameter of cone
enables a person to buy 25 kg more for Rs. 225 45. If the diameter of a circle is increased by 8% then
the original price of the commodity per kg was its area is increased by:
A. Rs 2 B. Rs 1 A. 16.64% B. 6.64%
C. Rs 2.50 D. Rs 1.50 C. 16% D. 16.46%
35. What price should a shopkeeper mark on an article 46. When n is divided by 6, the remainder is 4. When
costing him ₹ 200 to gain 35% after allowing a 2n is divided by 6, the remainder is
discount of 25%? A. 2 B. 0
A. ₹ 270 B. ₹ 300 C. 4 D. 1
C. ₹ 330 D. ₹ 360 47. A discount of 20% on one article is the same as a
discount of25% on another article. The cost price
of the two articles can be:
36. is equal to : A. Rs. 90 and Rs. 40 B. Rs. 50 and Rs. 40
A. 98999 B. 99899 C. Rs. 40 and Rs. 60 D. Rs. 50 and Rs. 90
C. 99989 D. 99998
37. Two trains start from station A and B and travel Directions (48-51): The pie-chart, given here,
towards each other at speeds of 16 miles/hour and shows the land distribution of a village.
21 miles/hour respectively. At the time of their
meeting, the second train has travelled 60 miles
more than the first. The distance between A and B
(in miles) is:
A. 444 B. 496
C. 333 D. 540
38. A does half as much work as B in one-third of the
time taken by B. If together they take 10 days to
complete a work, then the time taken by B alone to
do it would have been
A. 30 days B. 25 days
C. 6 days D. 12 days

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Study the Pie Chartand answer the questions based out which part of a sentence has an error. The
on it. number of that part is the answer. If a sentence is
free from error, your answer is (D) i.e. No error.
Pacific Ocean is (A)/ the deepest ocean (B)/ in the
world. (C)/ No error (D)
A. (A) B. (B)
C. (C) D. No error
55. Direction: In the following question, some parts of
the sentences have errors and some have none.
Find out which part of a sentence has an error. The
number of that part is your answer. If a sentence is
free from error, the your answer is (4). i.e. No
error.
My father (1) / has returned back (2) / to Chennai
yesterday. (3) / No error (4)
A. (1) B. (2)
C. (3) D. (4)
56. In the following question, four alternatives are
given for the Idioms and Phrases printed in bold in
the sentence. Choose the alternative which best
expresses the meaning of the Idioms and Phrases.
When my friend was in Kolkata, he ran into an old
48. The ratio of the waste land to the cultivated land is friend at the theatre.
A. 4 : 3 B. 3 : 2 A. hit B. met accidentally
C. 2 : 1 D. 3 : 1 C. planned to meet D. invited
49. What percent of total land is used for cultivation? 57. In the following question, four alternatives are
A. 24 B. 25 given for the Idiom/Phrase printed in bold. Choose
C. 50 D. 90 the alternative which best expresses the meaning
50. If the total area of the village is 7200 acres, the of the Idiom/Phrase.
total area of the wet land is He handled the situation with an iron fist.
A. 1028 acres B. 5040 acres A. Strictly B. Leniently
C. 3600 acres D. 1400 acres C. Softly D. Wayward
51. Directions: In the following questions, some parts 58. In the following question, four alternatives are
of the sentences have errors and some have none. given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative
Find out which part of a sentence has an error. If which best expresses the meaning of the
a sentence is free from error, then your answer is Idiom/Phrase and as your answer.
No error. A hard nut to crack
Columbus was the first / man who invented A. a foolish search B. a difficult problem
America after his so many/ hazardous journeys. C. an easy question D. expensive thing
A. Columbus was the first 59. In the following question, out of the four
B. man who invented America after his so many alternatives, choose the one which can be
C. hazardous journeys substituted for the given words/sentence.
D. No error A form of government in which the supreme power
52. Directions: In the following questions, some parts rests with people is
of the sentences have errors and some have none. A. Monarchy B. Oligarchy
Find out which part of a sentence has an error. If C. Democracy D. Bureaucracy
a sentence is free from error, then your answer is 60. In the following question, choose the word opposite
No error. in meaning to the given word.
Our office buys / five kilograms of paper / every Diligent
month. A. Incompetent B. Hardworking
A. Our office buys C. Extravagant D. Frugal
B. five kilograms of paper 61. In the following question, out of the four
C. every month alternatives, choose the one which best expresses
D. No error the meaning of the given word.
53. In the following question, some parts of sentences Shines
have errors and some are correct. Find out which A. glows B. dazzles
part of a sentence has an error. The number of C. blazes D. glitters
that part is the answer. If a sentence is free from 62. In the following question, choose the word opposite
error, your answer is (4) i.e. No error. in meaning to the given word as your answer.
A. He works hardly Rancid
B. to make A. Carious B. Delicious
C. both ends meet. C. Fresh D. Stale
D. No error
54. Direction: In the following question, some parts of
sentences have errors and some are correct. Find
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63. In the following question, out of the four provide information about their product either on
alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the packaging or in a pamphlet inside. But, in
the meaning of the given word. many cases, this information is very meagre and
Hard hard to understand. Many doctors, too do not tell
A. difficult B. simple their patents anything about the drugs they
C. common D. Easy prescribe.
64. Find the correctly spelt word as your answer What should we be concerned about when we take
A. dissatisfied B. disatisfied drugs ? there are two areas : (1) side effects. Many
C. disatesfied D. dissatesfied people taking a drug will notice an undesirable
65. Find the wrongly spelt word reaction, usually minor. But even the mildest drugs
A. successful B. succession can do harm if taken improperly, long enough or in
C. succesor D. succeed excessive doses. And everyone responds to a drug
66. Direction: In the following question, four words differently. (2) Failure to follow directions. Many of
are given, out of which only one word is misspelt. us disobey prescription instructions on how much
Find the misspelt word. to take and when. It is easy to fall into thinking
A. assessment B. harassment that more of the drug will speed up the healing. It
C. nourishment D. punishment is more common, however for people to stop taking
a drug when they begin to feel better. This, too,
67. In the following questions, sentences are given can be dangerous.
with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate What are the steps to be taken for safety? Take a
word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each drug only as recommended on the label or by the
question. Choose the correct alternative out of the doctor. (2) If you feel ill after taking a drug, check
four as your answer. it with a doctor.(3) Do not mix drugs,(4) Check
She has been supporting her family _________ her whether any food or activities are to be avoided.
husband’s death. 71. Which one of the following statements is true ?
A. on B. at A. Indians use more than 40,000 allopathic drugs
C. from D. since B. Indians hate allopathic medicines
68. Directions: In the following questions, sentences C. Other Asian countries do not have allopathic me
are given with blanks to be filled in with an dicines
appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are D. Indians cannot afford allopathic drugs
suggested for each question. Choose the correct 72. How are drug users to be instructed by the
alternative out of the four as your answer. manufacturers?
While he was working at the construction site, the A. Doctors should give a manual of instruction.
block of wood suddenly _________his right B. The Chemist should issue an instruction manual
shoulder. C. Information should be printed on the carton or
A. was hitted B. was hit in a pamphlet kept inside it
C. had hitted D. hit D. Patients should keep in touch with drug
69. In the following questions, a part of the sentence is manufacturers
printed in bold. Below are given alternatives to the 73. Only one of the following sentences is right.
bold part at (1), (2), (3) which may improve the Identify it.
sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case A. All medicines produce reaction of various
no improvement is needed, your answer is (4). degrees in their users
Rakesh didn’t knew my address. B. Even mild drugs are not always safe
A. didn’t known B. didn’t have C. Medicines should be discontinued as soon as we
C. didn’t know D. No improvement feel better
70. In the following questions, a part of the sentence is D. More than the prescribed dose brings quicker
printed in bold. Below are given alternatives to the recovery
bold part at (1), (2), (3) which may improve the 74. drug manufactures ____________
sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case A. do not give instruction
no improvement is needed, your answer is (4). B. give all instructions necessary
I am working here from 2008. C. give very little and unintelligible information
A. have been working here since D. give information only when asked
B. have worked here from 75. Which one of the following is true?
C. have been working here from A. Throw away the drug that produces side effects
D. No improvement and try another
B. Drugs may be taken with all kinds of foods
Directions (71-75): In the following questions, C. Drugs do not inhibit our normal life style
you have one brief passage with 5 questions. Read D. Drugs should be used only according
the passage carefully and choose the best answer prescription
to each question out of the four alternatives. 76. Which of the following folk dances is associated
Although Indians spend less money on allopathic with Rajasthan?
medicines than people in most Asian Countries, A. Rauf B. Jhora
more than 40,000 drug formulations are available C. Veedhi D. Suisini
here. All manufacturs are required by law to 77. The sweetmeat is referred to

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A. Camel meat B. Goat meat A. Hygrometer B. Hydrophone


C. Feta cheese D. Petha of Agra C. Pyrheliometer D. Hydrometer
78. Rice cultivation is associated with which one of the 91. The Finance Commission in India is appointed by
following Harappan sites? A. Prime Minister of India
A. Harappa B. Lothal B. President of India
C. Kalibangan D. KotDiji C. Chairman of Rajya Sabha
79. Before assuming the office of the Sultan of Delhi D. Speaker of Lok Sabha
Balban was the Prime Minister of Sultan 92. Which of the following is a political right ?
A. Nasir-ud-din B. Qutub-ud-din-Aibak A. Right to Work
C. Bahrem Shah D. Aram Shah B. Right to Education
80. When the East India Company was formed the C. Right to Freedom of Expression
Mughal emperor in India was D. Right of Vote
A. Jehangir B. Humayun 93. Which of the following subjects dose not figure in
C. Aurangzeb D. Akbar the concurrent list of our constitutions?
81. The Government of India Act, 1935 was based on: A. Stock Exchange and futures markets
A. Simon Commission B. Protection of wild animals and birds
B. Lord Curzon Commission C. Forests
C. Dimitrov Thesis D. Trade unions
D. Lord Clive’s report 94. The International Court of Justice sits in
82. In the treatment of skin disease the radio isotope A. Geneva
used is B. The Hague
A. Radio phosphorous B. Radio iodine C. Vienna
C. Radio lead D. Radio cobalt D. Rome
83. The animal that do not develop hypertension 95. Life Insurance was nationalized in
inspite of heavy intake of salt is : A. 1950 B. 1953
A. Sheep B. Buffalo C. 1956 D. 1960
C. Tiger D. Camel 96. In which of the following state Asia’s first cycle
84. Which microorganism causes hepatitis B? highway has been inaugurated?
A. Virus B. Protozoa A. Madhya Pradesh B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Bacteria D. None of these C. Maharashtra D. Telangana
85. From where does the river Ganga originate? E. None of these
A. Mansarovar B. Gaumukh 97. A supply function expresses the relationship
C. Auli D. Kedarnath between
86. Mounds of sand formed by wind action are called A. price and output
A. Cliffs B. Cirques B. price and consumption
C. Dunes D. Hamadas C. price and demand
87. The land of maximum biodiversity is D. None of these
A. Tropical B. Temperate 98. Rashtriya Krishi Bima Yojana was introduced in
C. Monsoonal D. None of these A. 1992 B. 1998
88. The canal which links Atlantic Ocean with Pacific C. 1999 D. 1996
Ocean is 99. A Snickometer is associated with which of the
A. Suez B. Malacca following sports?
C. Panama D. Gibralter A. Tennis B. Cricket
89. Probiotic curd (yogurt) contains health benefitting C. Hockey D. Football
good 100. World Toilet Day is observed on ______.
A. bacteria B. source of energy A. 18th November B. 19th November
C. transgenic genes D. antibiotics C. 20th November D. 21st November
90. Which of the following instrument is used for E. None of these
measuring the relative humidity of atmosphere?

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ANSWERS KEY

1. Ans. C 21. Ans. D 41. Ans. B 61. Ans. D 81. Ans. A


2. Ans. C 22. Ans. B 42. Ans. B 62. Ans. C 82. Ans. A
3. Ans. B 23. Ans. B 43. Ans. C 63. Ans. A 83. Ans. D
4. Ans. D 24. Ans. B 44. Ans. B 64. Ans. A 84. Ans. A
5. Ans. C 25. Ans. D 45. Ans. A 65. Ans. C 85. Ans. B
6. Ans. B 26. Ans. B 46. Ans. A 66. Ans. A 86. Ans. C
7. Ans. B 27. Ans. B 47. Ans. B 67. Ans. D 87. Ans. A
8. Ans. A 28. Ans. C 48. Ans. A 68. Ans. D 88. Ans. C
9. Ans. B 29. Ans. A 49. Ans. B 69. Ans. C 89. Ans. A
10. Ans. B 30. Ans. D 50. Ans. D 70. Ans. A 90. Ans. A
11. Ans. B 31. Ans. A 51. Ans. B 71. Ans. A 91. Ans. B
12. Ans. B 32. Ans. A 52. Ans. D 72. Ans. C 92. Ans. D
13. Ans. A 33. Ans. C 53. Ans. A 73. Ans. B 93. Ans. A
14. Ans. A 34. Ans. B 54. Ans. A 74. Ans. C 94. Ans. B
15. Ans. A 35. Ans. D 55. Ans. B 75. Ans. D 95. Ans. C
16. Ans. B 36. Ans. A 56. Ans. B 76. Ans. D 96. Ans. B
17. Ans. C 37. Ans. A 57. Ans. A 77. Ans. D 97. Ans. A
18. Ans. C 38. Ans. B 58. Ans. B 78. Ans. B 98. Ans. C
19. Ans. A 39. Ans. C 59. Ans. C 79. Ans. A 99. Ans. B
20. Ans. D 40. Ans. A 60. Ans. A 80. Ans. D 100. Ans. B

You can get the detailed solutions along with analysis online on India's no 1 exam
prep community, Gradeup.
The test online and get detailed analysis with solution on
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